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99 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Q. T lymphocytes
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principal cells to mediate cellular immunity.
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Q. What is the T-Cell Receptor (TCR) composed of? What is it linked to?
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Two polypeptide chains alpha and beta.
Linked to CD3 molecular complex. |
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Q. CD4 is expressed in what percent of T-Cells? Binds to which class of MHC molecules?
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60% of T-Cells.
Class 2. |
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Q. CD8 is expressed in what percent of T-Cells? Binds to which class of MHC molecules?
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30% of T-Cells.
Class 1 |
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Q. What is the second signal in T-Cell activation?
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CD28 molecule on T cell binds B7-1 or B7-2 co-receptors expressed on antigen-presenting cells
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Q. T helper 2 (TH2) aids in the synthesis of other classes of what?
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Antibodies
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Q. CD8+ T cells are primarily what type of cells?
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cytotoxic cells
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Q. B cells form what type of cells? What type of immunoglobulins do they secrete? What is the antigen Binding component?
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Plasma cells.
Secrete IgS. IgM is the antigen binding component. |
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Q. Activated T helper cells express which ligand?
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CD40
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Q. Macrophages process and present what? They participate in what type of hypersensitivty reaction?
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Antigen to T cells.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction. |
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Q. Dendritic cells process and present what?
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Antigens to the CD4+ T-Cells
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Q. Langerhans are found in what?
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Found in the epidermis
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Q. Folliculor dendritic cells trap antigen bound to what?
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IgG
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Q. NK Cells kill what type of cells?
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Kill tumor cells and virally infected cells
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Q. NK cells receptors recognize what class of MHC molecules? What 3 things do they secrete?
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Class 1
Cytokines TNF-alpha, GM-CSF, IFN-gamma. |
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Q. What is the principle function of Histocompatibility Antigens? Which chromosome are they located on?
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Bind peptide fragments of foreign proteins for presentation. Chromosome 6
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Q. MHC Class I and class II genes do what? Class III does what?
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Encode cell surface glycoproteins.
Encode components of complements. |
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Q. TCR recognizes what? CD8 binds to what domain? CD8+ cytotoxic T cells can recognize what two things?
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The MHC-peptide complex.
Alpha-3 Domain. 1. viral peptides and 2. cancer proteins |
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Q. Class 2 antigens consist of what two chains?
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Alpha and Beta
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Q. Type I disease (anaphylactic type) include what symptoms? Type II disorder is what type? Type III disorders is what type? Type IV disorders is what type?
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Hay fever, asthma, anaphylaxis.
Cytotoxic type. Immune Complex Type. cell-mediated or delayed type. |
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Q. Type 1 Hypersensitivty reactions are generalized where?
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Bronchials
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Q. Type 1 Hypersensitivty: 1st phase? 2nd phase?
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1. Vasodialation
2. Infiltration |
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Q. Type 1 Hypersensitivty: 4 primary mediators?
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1. Histamine & adenosine
2. ECF & NCF 3. Enzymes 4. Proteoglycans |
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Q. Type 1 Hypersensitivty: Lipid mediators?
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1. LTC4, LTD4
2. LTB4 3. PGD2 4. PAF |
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Q. Urticaria, angioedema, allergic rhinitis, some forms of asthma are examples of what?
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Local Anaphylaxis
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Q. Type 2 Hypersensitivity is mediated by what?
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IgG & IgM
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Q. Agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, transfusion reactions, erythroblastosis fetalis are examples of what?
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Autoimmune hemolytic anemias
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Q. Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) are in involved in the destruction of what 3 things?
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1. Parasites
2. Tumor Cells 3. Graft rejection |
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Q. Type 2 Hypersensitivity: What are the 2 antibody mediated cell dysfunction diseases?
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1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Graves’ disease |
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Q. Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex-mediated): What are the 5 acute serum sickness favored sites?
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Renal glomeruli, joints, skin, heart, blood vessels.
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Q. Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex-mediated): What are the 4 forms in chronic serum sickness?
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1. SLE, 2. rheumatoid arthritis, 3. polyarteritis nodosa, 4. membranous glomerulonephritis
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Q. Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex-mediated): Can be caused by what 2 actions?
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Intracutaneous injection, organ transplant
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Q. Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated): Does it require the participation of antibodies? Delayed type hypersensitivity involves what 2 things?
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NO.
Macrophages & Lymphocytes |
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Q. HLA-DR2, HLA-DR3 are genetic factors of what autoimmune disease?
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Systemic Lupus erythematosus
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Q. Pain on peripheral joints, without deformity, Glomerulonephrits, Fever, weight loss, fatigue, MALOR RASH on FACE, Normocytic anemia, leuko-, thrombo- are all clinical features of what auto immune disease?
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Systemic Lupus
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Q. Keratoconjuctivitis sicca, xerostomia, and salivary gland enlargement are characteristic of what autoimmune disease?
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Sjogren syndrome
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Q. Sjogren Syndrome involves both type 2 & type 4 immune reactions T or F?
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True
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Q. What is the pathology of Sjorgren Syndrome?
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Lymphoid infiltrates destroy acini and ducts of secretory glands
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Q. Which syndrome is characterized by fibrosis of skin and small organs, and small vessels destruction?
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scleroderma
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Q. What part of the GI develops fibrosis in scleroderma?
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Lower 2/3
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Q. Sclerodactyly?
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Hardening of the skin in the fingers
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Q. Telangietastias?
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Small blood vessel enlargment, and become visible
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Q. Cheilosis is the result of what?
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Fibrosis in the GI tract, causing malabsorption
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Q. Raynaud phenomenon, Edema of the fingers and hands, Polyarthralgia, Dysphagia, and Dyspnea, are clinical features of what syndrome?
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Scleroderma
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Q. Prominent proximal muscle weakness and chronic inflammatory myopathy are conditions in which auto-immune disease?
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Polymyositis/ Dermatomyositis
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Q. Which antibodies do we see elevated in polymyositis? Which cancer is prevalent in this condition?
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CK, ANA, JO-1.
Ovarian Cancer |
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Q. Di George syndrome is what type of disorder?
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T cell immunodeficiency disorder. T Cell maturation is disrupted.
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Q. Bruton’s (X-linked) infantile hypogammaglobulinemia is what type of disorder?
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B Cell deficiency disorder
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Q. what is the pathogenisis of X-linked Infantile Hypogammaglobulinemia?
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Failure of B cell precursors to differentiate to B cell
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Q. Common variable immunodeficiency has a clinical feature of what?
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Severe hypogammaglobuliemia (IgG)
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Q. Common Variable Immunodeficiency pathology?
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Absence of plasma cells
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Q. Selective IgA deficiency pathology?
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Defect in the maturation of B cells that synthesize and secrete IgA
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Q. Name the condition which has combined T cell and B cell deficiencies?
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Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
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Q. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) pathology?
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1. Absence of lymphoid tissue
(2) Reduced number of T cells (3) Hypogammaglobulinemia |
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Q. What are the three viral enzymes in AIDS?
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1. protease, 2. reverse transcriptase, 3. integrase
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Q. The major cpasid protein in HIV is what?
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p24
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Q. Damage to the macrophages and dendritic cells can occur in HIV? T or F?
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True
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Q. How is HIV carried to the CNS?
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By infected monocytes
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Q. In which phase does the HIV virus last the longest?
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Middle or Chronic phase.
You will see thrombocytopenia in this phase. |
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Q.When the number of thrombocytes decrease what is this called?
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Thrombocytopenia
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Q. At what number will CD-4 cells be at before you can diagnose AIDS?
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fewer then 200
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Q. Seroconversion is what?
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Appearance of antiviral anti-bodies in circulation
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Q. What are two common cancers seen in AIDS patients?
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1. Kaposi Sarcoma
2. Lymphomas of B Cells |
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Q. The definition of cancer is what?
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An uncontrolled proliferation of cells. A malignant tumor.
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Q. Benign tumors of the germ cells are called?
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Teratoma
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Q. Epithelial cancers are called?
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Carcinoma
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Q. Mesechymal origin cancers are called what?
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Sarcoma
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Q. Dysplasia means what?
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Loss in the uniformity of the individual cells
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Q. How do cancer cells typically spread?
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Lymph nodes
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Q. How do sarcomas like to spread?
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Through the blood
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Q. Cancer of the prostate goes where?
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Goes through the bone
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Q. Name three common cancers in children?
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neuroblastoma (common), Wilms’ tumors, retinoblastoma, acute leukemias, rhabdomyosarcomas
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Q. Inherited cancer syndromes are caused by what?
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inheritance of a single mutant gene
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Q. Name four familial cancers?
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carcinomas of colon, breast, ovary, and brain.
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Q. Cancers are entirely or largely of environmental origin? T or F
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True
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Q. What is the molecular basis of cancer?
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Genetic damage of the DNA, that is non-lethal
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Q. What is amplification?
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Additional genetic material
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Q. How many classes of normal regulatory genes are there?
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4 classes
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Q. What encodes the synthesis of growth factor receptors?
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Several oncogenes encode
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Q. When ras protein binds to GDP in which state is it?
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Inactive State
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Q. When ras protein binds to GTP in which state is it?
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Active state
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Q. Which protein is abnormal in tumors of pituitary, adrenal, and thyroid gland?
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G-protein
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Q. In chronic myeloid leukemias/acute lymphoblastic leukemias, C-abl gene is translocated from what chromosome to what chromosome?
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Chromosome 9 to 22
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Q. Burkitts Lymphoma is translocated from what chromosome to what chromosome?
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Chromosome 8 to 14
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Q. The loss of which oncogene causes colon cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer?
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P53 Oncogene
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Q. E6 protein of HPV bind to and degrade p53? T or F
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True
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Q. Patients respond better to chemotherapy when there is a normal what?
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Normal p53 gene
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Q. What innduces activation of normal p53 gene?
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Hypoxia
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Q. Neurofibromatosis type 1 gene is what type of gene?
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Cancer supressive gene
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Q. A single oncogene can transform cells into a cancer cell? T or F
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False
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Q. Angiogenesis is inhibited by what gene?
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Wild-type p53
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Q. Most malignant tumors are what in origin?
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monoclonal
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Q. What enhances tumor cell survivor and implantability?
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Aggregation
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Q. What type of adhesion molecule is important for the adhesion of tumor cells to the lymph nodes?
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CD44 adhesion molecule
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Q. what is a complete carcinogen?
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chemicals that possess the capability of both initiation and promotion
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Q. What do promotors do in the cell?
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Induce cell proliferation
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Q. **What is the most common form of cancer caused by UV light?
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Basal cell carcinoma
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Q. The bigger the particle the worst the cancer, like neutrons? T or F
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True
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Q. **Staging is more important then grading in cancer treatment? T or F
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True
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