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495 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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____ is a dilation of the ventricles caused by obstruction within the ventricular system and the build up of cerebrospinal fluid.
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hydrocephalus
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congenital hydrocephalus is most common in what species?
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dog
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_____ is the formation of a fluid-filled cavity in the cerebrum causd by necrosis and loss of nervous tissue
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porencephaly
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_____ is a more severe form of porencephaly.
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hydranencephaly
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hydranencephaly is a more severe form of porencephaly that affects mostly ____ matter of the ____, and the lateral ventricles expand to fill the empty space.
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white matter of the cerebrum
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In utero viral infections of blue tongue in sheep can cause ___.
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porencephaly/ hydranencephaly
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Border disease in sheep and BVD in cattle can cause porencephaly, but typically produce ____ or ____.
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cerebellar hypoplasia (BVD)
hypomyelingenesis (border disease) |
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Name 3 of the 10 congenital defects of the nervous system.
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Hydrocephalus
hydranencephaly porencephaly cerebellar hypoplasia abiotrophy copper defiency hypomyelinogenesis spina bifida hydromelia syringomyelia |
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____ is a failure of the cerebellum to develop to normal size.
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cerebellar hypoplasia
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cerebellar hypoplasia is usually caused by an in utero infection with ____ in cattle, or ____ in cats.
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BVD
feline panleukopenia |
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What physically observable signs does an animal with cerebellar hypoplasia show? (gait)
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hypermetric gait, tremors, loss of balance
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_____ is atrophy of the cerebellum after the organ has attained normal size.
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abiotrophy
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____ occurs most often in the dog and signs develop several months after birth. The cerebellum is usually grossly norma.
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Abiotrophy
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What causes swayback in sheep?
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copper deficiency during pregnancy
* necrosis of the white matter and hydranencephaly |
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What is enzootic ataxia?
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occurs in sheep
due to copper deficiency during pregnancy axonal degeneration occurs several weeks after birth |
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_____ is a failure of myelin to develop.Which species are more commonly affected? How do they present?
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hypomyelinogenesis
pigs and dogs (sheep have border disease) present with tremors and shake at birth |
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What is a "hairy shaker"?
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sheep with Border disease have tremors and abnormal wool that looks like hair
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Animals affected with this congenital malformation have open areas in he bony spine thru which meninges or spinal cord may protrude.
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spina bifida
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what is a meningocele?
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meninges
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what is a meningomyelocele?
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spinal cord
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How do you tell the difference between hydromyelia and syringomyelia?
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HISTOpath
hydromyelia is a dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord and is therefore lined by EPENDYMAL cells. Syringomyelia is the formation of a syrinx and is therefore not lined by the ependymal cells. |
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______ edema occurs with toxic insults such as salt and lead toxicity as part of the neuronal necrosis that occurs with these diseases.
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cytotoxic
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name 2 toxic insults that can cause cytotoxic edema.
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salt
lead |
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____ is associated with cytotoxic brain edema secondary to liver disease.
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hepatoencephalopathy
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describe the arterial supply to the brain.
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end artery type
marked reduction in luminal diameter as the vessels enter the parenchyma |
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Why is the brain and spinal cord more sensitive to ischemia and emboli?
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reduction in luminal diameter as the vessels enter the parenchyma (end artery type)
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___ is a disease of cats of unknown cause producing areas of necrosis in the cerebrum. Cats may have ataxia, seizures, blindness, and behavioral changes.
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feline ischemic encephalopathy
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what are the 2 classes of emboli in the brain?
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bacterial
fibrocartilagenous |
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what is the best example of bacterial emboli in the brain?
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histophilus somni infection in cattle
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where does the cartilage come from that causes fibrocartilagenous emboli?
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disk material-- lodges in the spinal cord
*pigs and dogs |
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_____ is the usual cause of hemorrhage within the CNS.
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Trauma
*epidural, subdural, within parenchyma |
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T/F:clostridium perfringens D in sheep can cause brain hemorrhage.
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true
*equine leukoencephalomalacia can cause hemorrhage too |
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____ is a group of inherited diseases each caused by an absence or dificency of a single enzyme in a pathway of enzymes that breakdown cellular organelles within lysozomes.
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lysosomal storage diseases
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lysozomes contain acid hydrolases that degrade ___, ____, and _____.
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glycoproteins
complex lipids polysaccharides |
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What is the genetic component of lysosomal storage diseases?
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it is an autosomal recessive disease
*heterozygotes are normal |
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poisonous plants ____ and ____ cause mannosidosis in cattle, sheep and horses. (lysosomal storage disease)
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astragalus (locoweed)
swainsoma |
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mucopolysaccharidoses, glycoproteinoses and ceroidlipofuscinoses are all types of ____.
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lysosomal storage diseases
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T/F: there are gross lesions visible associated with lysozomal storage diseases in the brain.
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false
*microscopic |
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What are the clinical signs associated with lysozomal storage diseases in the brain? at what age do these signs manifest?
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ataxia
incoordination tremors death appear shortly after birth and progress over many months |
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____ is the term given to a group of neurologic diseases in which clear vacuoles form microscopically within neurons and the neuropil.
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transmissible spongiorm encephalopathy
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What are some examples of TSE?
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Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
scrapie kuru Creutzfeld Jacob dz |
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What causes TSEs?
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prion
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When does TSE infection occur? When do you see clinical signs?
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infection: young
clinical dz: at least 2 years |
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Pruritis is a major sign of TSE in what species?
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sheep
*scrapie |
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T/F: there are gross lesions visible in the brain of TSE victims.
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false
*microscopic: vacuolated neurons |
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____ is a disperson of the Nissl substance within neurons and gives the cytoplasm a ground glass appearance.
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chromatolysis
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____ , a ground glass appearance of neurons, occurs when the axon of the neuron is damaged and is seen in many of he axonal degenerations.
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chromatolysis
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What are some causs of excess fluid in an otherwise normal intestine?
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E. coli
rotavirus coronavirus cryptosporidia lymphangiectasia inflammatory bowel disease clostridium perfringens type D panleukopenia |
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___ infection is a common and important disease in young pigs, ruminants, and foals in the FIRST WEEK of life.
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E. coli
*remember expression of the receptors goes away as they age |
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___ are important infections in youn pigs and ruminants in the first 1-3 weeks. It destroys the epitelial cells on the villi leading to malabsorption and diarrhea.
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rotavirus/ coronavirus
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yellowing of the grey matter in the brain is indicative of ___.
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polioencephalomalacia
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Name 2 causes of polio.
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lead toxicosis
salt poisoning high sulfates in diet hypoxia thyamine deficiency |
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4yr doxie acute onset of bilateral posterior paralysis... differential diagnoses?
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spondylosis
herniated disc trauma- fracture degenerative myelopathy (german shepherds usually) organophosphate toxicosis fibrocartilagenous emboli |
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what breed is predisposed to degenerative myelopathy?
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german shepherds
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T/F: organophosphates cause axonal nerve degneration in the CNS.
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false
*in peripheral nerves |
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herniated discs shows degneration of ___ on histopath.
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axons
*white spaces--> myelin sheaths *will not transmit nerve impulses |
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6mo sheep circling to left, head pressing and blindness, progressing to recumbency... differential diagnoses?
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listeria
rabies scrapie lead-- polio meningitis enzootic ataxia |
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does enzootic ataxia have gross lesions?
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no
axonal degeneration |
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why does listeria go to the brainstem?
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it likes cranial nerve 5--> comes in through the oral cavity... mandibular nerve goes to the brainstem
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4yo horse with paresis in front and hind limbs... differential diagnoses?
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*lesion in the spinal cord: at or above the cervical intumescense
*EPM, west nile, botulism, wobbler, degnerative myelopathy, herpes virus myelitis |
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does equine herpes virus myelitis produce a gross lesion?
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yes
*hemomorrhage |
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6mo dog with 2 week history of purulent ocular and nasal discharge. recent development of involuntary movement or one front leg. (myoclonus) what are the differential diagnoses?
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distemper (no gross)
rabies (no gross) Granulomatous meningoencephalitis |
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What do you see on histopath of distemper?
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perivascular cuffing
axonal degeneration increased glial cells inclusions |
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which viruses create inclusions?
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distemper (cytoplasm and nucleus)
rabies (cytoplasmic) herpes(nucleus) pseudorabies |
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Hypoplasia of the pancreas is a rare disease of ____.
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young German Sheperds
*exocrine pancreas fails to develop but the endocrine pancreas is normal |
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What might be wrong with a 1yo German Shepherd that has a voracious appetite and large voluminous, foul smelling feces?
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hypoplasia of the pancreas
*normal endocrine pancreas, no exocrine pancreas |
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_____ is a serious disease in the dog of unknown cause. The pancreas has necrosis and hemorrhage and is edematous. ____is also deposited around the pancreas.
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Acute Pancreatitis
Fibrin |
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What is difference between acute and chronic pancreatitis?
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chronic: repeat bouts of acute that heal by scarring
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What might cause a pancreas to appear nodular?
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Chronic pancreatitis
(neoplasia) adenoma/adenocarcinoma hyperplasia |
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What does a pancreas of a dog with chronic pancreatitis look like?
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pale tan
firm nodular |
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T/F: Adenoma AND adenocarcinoma of the pancreas can affect endocrine or exocrine pancreas.
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true
*tumors appear similar grossly |
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What species to pancreatic neoplasias occur in most often?
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cats and dogs
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how do you distinguish between adenoma of the pancreas and hyperplasia?
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adenomas usually occur as a single yellow/white nodule
hyperplasia usually occurs as multiple tan/white nodules |
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What are the 4 pathologic color changes that can occur in the liver?
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Pale tan
yellow green red |
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What color are fat deposits in the liver?
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pale tan
*large deposits = yellow |
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What color are glycogen deposits in liver?
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pale tan
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What color are bile deposits in the liver?
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yellow-- green
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what color is a congested liver?
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red/ red-brown
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what is the gross pattern of glycogen/ fat deposits in the liver?
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diffuse or multifocal
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what is the importance of the difference between the diffuse pattern and the multifocal pattern of liver color change associated with fat deposition?
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diffuse: affects the whole liver = PATHOLOGIC (nutritional or metabolic dz)
multifocal: NOT pathologic = physiologic state |
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yellow livers indicate large amounts of fat deposition. What are the potential gross patterns?
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diffuse
lobular |
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a green liver will also be associated with ___ of other tissues.
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jaundice
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what produces a red liver?
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conjestion
*lobular pattern |
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A dog has a liver that has focal or multifocal lesions. it may be caused by ___ or ____.
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infectious agent
or neoplasia |
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______ produce multiple random foci of necrosis or nodules within the liver. these enter the liver hematogenously and shower the liver randomly. there is great variation in the appearance of the lesions: white, tan, yellow, raised or flat.
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infectious disease
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_____ is a rare tumor occurring mostly in the liver of the dog. They are usually single masses, but often large and multiplobulated. They are brown with yellow areas of fat and red areas of hemorrhage.
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hepatocellular carcinoma
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What does a liver with hepatocellular carcinoma look like grossly?
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large, multilobulated single mass
brown with yellow areas of fat and red areas of hemorrhage |
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T/F: most hepatocellular carcinomas are malignant but will not metastasize.
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false
*malignant + metastatic |
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What species are most affected by biliary adenomas and adenocarcinomas?
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dogs and cats
*adenomas occur most commonly in the cat |
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____ is a single discrete nodule that is often cystic and contains green or clear fluid occurring in the liver.
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biliary adenoma
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What does biliary adenocarcinoma look like in the dog?
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multiple, firm, white nodules with depressed centers
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Metastatic carcinomas and sarcomas occur commonly in the ____.
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liver
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_____ may be a primary tumor in the liver of the dog. They occur as multiple red nodules and blood filled cysts.
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hemangiosarcoma
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_____ is an incidental finding in the liver of aged dogs. It is a solitary, discrete nodule that is soft and tan due to fat accumulation.
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nodular hyperplasia
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why is nodular hyperplasia of the liver generally soft?
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fat accumulation
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What might cause a small liver?
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portosystemic shunt
congenital or acquired |
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What is a portosystemic shunt?
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congenital or acquired shunting of portal blood around the liver.
blood bypasses the filtering` |
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How does cirrhosis cause portosystemic shunts?
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scarring in the liver increases pressure in th eportal veins causing the blood to back up in the portal system
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What species get distended firm bile ducts? What causes it?
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cattle and sheep
liver flukes |
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On necropsy of a ewe, you find the bile ducts are visible on the liver surface as white thick, tortuous channels that are often raised above the liver surface. What is this disease?
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liver flukes
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What are some diseases that can affect the gall bladder?
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hemorrhage
fibrinous cholecystitis thick viscous opaque bile cystic hyperplasia |
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what causes fibrinous cholecystitis? What species is likely to get it?
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salmonella
Cattle |
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What can cause hemorrhage of the gall bladder?
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DIC
anticoagulant toxicosis |
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T/F: fibrinous cholecystitis is seen in most cases of salmonella in cattle.
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false
* it is NOT seen in most cases |
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what might the bile look like of an animal that has been anoexic for a few days?
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thick viscous opaque bile
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____ is an uncommon, incidental finding of unnown cause in dogs. The mucosa contains numerous small cysts or larger, papillary or nodular growths.
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cystic hyperplasia
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___ are aggregates of neutrophils and sometimes eosinophils within the epidermis.
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pustules
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Inflammation of the skin that is predominantly neutrophils is called ___.
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pyoderma
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_____ are visible grossly and are white to yellow, shortlived and rupture leaving a crust on the skin.
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Pustules
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_____ represents a DRIED up accumulation of keratin, inflammatory cells, serum and bacteria.
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Crust/ scab
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Pustular dermatitis is commonly caused by bacteria or fungus. What is an example of each?
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bacteria: Staph
Fungus: dermatophytes (microsporum, trichophyton) |
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What are some types of pustular dermatitis?
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bacterial infx
fungal infx folliculitis autoimmune: pemphigus foliaceus |
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T/F: Folliculitis is pustules over hair follicles due to infection with bacteria, fungi, or demodex.
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True
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What is an autoimmune disease that can cause pustular dermatitis?
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pemphigus foliaceus
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____ is caused by antibody directed against the intercellular bridges of the keratinocytes.
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pemphigus foliaceus
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What are acantholytic cells? What disease process are they associated with?
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* detached floating keratinocytes in a pustule due to Ab attacking the keratinocyte bridges allowing the keratinocyte to separate from e/o
* diagnostic of pemphigus foliaceus |
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define a vesicle.
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fluid filled cavity within or beneath the epidermis less than 5 mm in diameter
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What is the difference between a vesicle and a bulla?
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vesicle <5mm
bulla >5mm |
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____ is a fluid filled cavity >5mm in diamether
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bulla
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What causes vesicle formation?
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edema
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____ is edema between keratinocytes.
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spongiosus
*common in many cases of dermatitis |
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____ form when edema becomes severe enough that keratinocytes are lost or displaced.
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vesicles
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____ degeneration is intracellular edema within the basal epidermal cells.
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hydropic degeneration
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Intracellular edema within the _______ cells is called hydropic degeneration and is a specific feature seen in autoimmune diseases ___ and ____.
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basal epidermal cells
* lupus erythematosis and dermatomyositis |
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T/F: hydropic degeneration can be seen due to autoimmune disorders or drug reactions.
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True
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What is the difference between hydropic degeneration and ballooning degeneration?
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hydropic: basal epithelial cells
ballooning: superficial keratinocytes |
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____ is intracelllar edema within the superficial keratinocytes of the epidermis.
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ballooning degeneration
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____ is a feature of the viral skin diseases (pox, foot and mouth, vesicular stomatitis, exanthema).
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ballooning degeneration
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pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid causes _____ dermatitis
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vesicular dermatitis
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pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by a suprabasilar vesicle containine _____ cells.
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acantholytic cells
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bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris are both vesicular dermatitis diesases. both are caused by ____.
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antibodies directed against
*keratinocyte -pemphigus *basement membrane - bullous pemphigoid |
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pemphigus vulgaris occurs _____ where as bullous pemphigoid occurs ____. (locations)
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pv- suprabasilar
bp- subepidermal |
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What are some causes of Necrotizing dermatitis?
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Erythema multiforme
toxic epidermal necrolysis burns photosensitization systemic bacterial infections foot rot |
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Necrosis of epidermal cells leads to ____ of the skin.
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ulceration
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a ____ is a flat, discolored area of the skin usually less than 1cm diameter.
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macule
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a ____ is a slightly raised area within the skin. Usually red (erythematous)
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papule
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____ occurs when erythematous macules progress to crust formation and eventual ulceration. This pattern will then overlap with the exudative and ulcerative pattern.
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necrotizing dermatitis
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____ is characterized by necrosis of single keratinocytes throughout the epidermis.
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erythema multiforme
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toxic epidermal necrolysis is a more severe form of _____ characterized by full thickness epidermal necrosis.
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erythema multiforme
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what does TEN stand for?
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toxic epidermal necrolysis
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erythema multiforme and TEN are caused by _______ in association with systemic infx or neoplasia.
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adverse drug reaction
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Burns are a cause of ____ and both the epidermis and dermis may be necrotic.
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necrotizing dermatitis
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___ are most susceptible to photosensitization.
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large animals with nonpigmented skin
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What cuases photosensitization in large animals that do not generally get sunburn?
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ingestion of a photodynamic agent in the feed
or secondary to chronic liver disease |
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how do systemic bacterial infections cause necrotizing dermatitis? Give an example.
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localize in the skin
produces vasculitis and thrombosis that leads to necrosis of the skin * erysipeloid, salmonella |
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foot rot in cattle and sheep is a ____ dermatitis of the ____ skin.
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necrotizing
interdigital |
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T/F: Exudative and ulcerative dermatitis is commonly associated with Allergies.
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true
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Exudative and ulcerative dermatitis diseases produce ___ or ___ on the skin (per the names).
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crusts or ulcers
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What are the two general responses to liver injury?
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regeneration
fibrosis |
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How much of the liver can you remove and still have the liver completely regenerate?
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2/3
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Why does the liver form regenerative NODULES in most liver diseases?
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the architectural framework is disrupted
*as long as the architectural framework remains in tact the liver regenerates to its original shape and size |
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Most chronic liver disease results in the production of ____.
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fibrosis
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_____ occurs when nodular regeneration accompanies fibrosis in the liver.
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cirrhosis
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____ is an important, common disease in dogs that is of unknown cause. The liver is misshapen and has many nodules.
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Chronic active hepatitis
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What happens when Post Necrotic Scarring occurs?
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necrotic lobules collapse and form bands of fibrous tissue.
* most animals do not survive |
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_____ produces chronic passive congestion and the liver has fibrosis in centrilobular areas. Regenerative nodules are usually not present.
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Chronic heart failure
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____ is a rare disease of th liver caused by a bacterial infection in the biliary tract. The liver is firm and has alobular pattern.
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chronic cholangitis
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What is the cause of chronic cholangitis?
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bacterial infection of the biliary tract
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____ is a protozoal infection of young ruminants and pigs in the first 2-3 weeks. The protozoan attaches to the microvillus border of the intestinal epithelial cells.
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Cryptosporidia
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Where does crypto locate itself in young pigs and calfs?
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microvillus border of the intestinal epithelial cells
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_____ is a gram positive bacterial infection. It causes ENTEROTOXEMIA (overeating disease) in sheep.
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Clostridium perfringens type D
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What environmental condition might encourage sheep to develop overeating disease?
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switch from poor quality to good qulaity feed-- allows overgrowth of bacteria that produce an exotoxin that causes enterotoxemia
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____ is a dilation of the lacteals in the intestinal villi of the dog resulting in malabsorption.
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lymphangiectasia
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what species generally gets lymphangiectasia and what does it result in?
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dog
malabsorption |
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_____ is an allergic enteritis in the dog and cat of unknown cause.
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inflammatory bowel disease
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Panleukopenia is a ____ infection of the cat causeing hypoplasia of all cell lines in bone marrow and necrosis of the intestinal crypts.
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parvovirus infection
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_____ is a parvovirus infection of the cat causing hypoplasia of all cell lines in the bone marrow and necrosis of the intestinal crypts. The intesting often appears normal with excess fluid content, but an absence of the cilli may be seen with careful examination.
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panleukopenia
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What does the intestine look like grossly in a cat with panleukopenia?
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normal with excess fluid content.... absence of villi
|
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T/F: Cleft palate is a hereditary disease.
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True
|
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_____ is a disease of cats that produces areas of necrosis in the brain and causes ataxia, seizures, blindness, and behavioral changes.
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Feline ischemic enephalopathy
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____ in the brain or spinal cord cause focal infarction.
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emboli
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Bacterial emboli in cases of septicemia may localize in the brain producing ______ infarcts and encephalitis. _____ infection in cattle is the best example.
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multifocal hemorrhagic infarcts
histophilus somni |
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Emboli of disk material is called _____.
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fibrocartilagenous emboli
|
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Where do fibrocartilagenous emboli lodge?
|
spinal cord of pigs and dogs
*grossly the tissue is discolored and swollen and may be hemorrhagic. Animals may have posterior paralysis |
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____ of the spinal cord will cause degeneration of the axons in the white matter and loss of myelin.
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compression
*WALLERIAN DEGENERATION |
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_____ occurs when the axons are lost, fragmented, or swollen and myelin sheaths are swollen leaving vacuoles throughout the white matter. Macrophages are seen in empty axon sheaths and reactive astrocytosis is present.
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Wallerian degeneration
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____ is the most important cause of spinal cord compression and usually occurs in chondrodystrophoid breeds like the dachshund and pekingese.
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Herneation of the intervertebral disk
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What might you suspect of a dachsund that has sudden posterior paresis and pain?
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Intervertebral disc herniation
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What is the technical term for wobbler syndrome?
|
Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy
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Name the disease:
Cervical vertebra are malformed resulting in stenosis of the spinal canal. |
cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy
wobblers |
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Name the disease:
cervical vertebra have damaged articular facets leading to increased movement of the vertebra. |
cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy
wobblers |
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Toxins can cause axonal degeneration, the most important one being the ______.
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organophosphates
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organophosphates produce ACUTE neurotoxicity related to inhibition of _____.
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acetylcholinesterase
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____ deficiency in the neonatal lamb is another cause of axon degeneration producing enzootic ataxia
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Copper deficiency
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What degenerative changes are present with copper deficiency in neonatal lambs?
|
wallerian axon degeneration (degneration f the axons in the WHITE matter and loss of MYELIN)
chromatolysis |
|
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What ages and species are most susceptible to degenerative myelopathy?
|
dogs and horses
horses--6mo - 2years * progressive ataxia in all 4 limbs * all levels of the spinal cord and all funiculi have wallerian degeneration |
|
|
What breed of dog is most susceptible to degenerative myelopathy?
|
old German Shepherds
*progressive posterior paralysis |
|
|
____ of neurons occurs commonly in a variety of diseases. Microscopically neurons are shrunken and red.
|
Necrosis
|
|
|
Name the disease:
necrosis of neurons, edema and softening of the gray matter. grossly -- yellowing and swelling of gray matter |
polioencephalomalacia
|
|
|
necrosis of the cerebral cortical gray matter is called ____.
|
polioencephalomalacia
|
|
|
what species tends to get polioencephalomalacia?
|
ruminants
* thiamine deficient |
|
|
T/F: feeding high concentrate diets, molasses and high sulfate diets may lead to polioencephalomalacia.
|
true
* these diets can alter rumen flora in favor of thiaminase roducing bacteria and or decrease production of thiamine |
|
|
Name the disease:
farm call-- cow-- blind-- paresis-- grinding teeth--- opisthotonus--- extensor rigidity |
polioencephalomalacia
|
|
|
What toxicities can cause polio in ruminants?
|
salt
lead |
|
|
animals deprived of water for an extended period of time may develop hypernatremia and altered osmolalit upon sudden rehydration. this causes _______________.
|
brain edema and neuronal necrosis = polio
|
|
|
What species is most susceptible to salt poisoning (polio)?
|
pigs
|
|
|
what does a cow with lead toxicity look like?
|
excitable
hyperactive bellowing seizures blind staggering recumbent |
|
|
____ and ____ are common causes of neuronal necrosis. they can occur during prolonged seizures and anesthesia.
|
hypoxia and ischemia
|
|
|
What neurons are most sensitive to hypoxia and ischemia?
|
cerebral cortex
hippocampus purkinje cells of the cerebellum |
|
|
______ in the foal is a neuronal necrosis caused by hypoxia and ischemia during dystocia.
|
neonatal maladjustment syndrome
|
|
|
What does a foal with neonatal maladjustment syndrome look like?
|
foal fails to suckle, wander, seize, convulse soon after birth
|
|
|
____ is necrosis of the white matter of the brain with softening.
|
leukoencephalomalacia
|
|
|
what is the difference between leukoencephalomalacia and polioencephalomalacia?
|
polioencephalomalacia - gray matter
leukoencephalomalacia - white matter |
|
|
leukoencephalomalacia occurs in the horse due to ingestion of moldy corn infected with the fungus fusarium due to the production of _____.
|
fumonisin B
|
|
|
fumonisin B causes vascular damage in ______.
|
white matter of the cerebral cortex
|
|
|
Name the disease:
horse sudden onset staggering weakness circling depression head pressing |
leukoencephalomalacia
|
|
|
____ infection in sheep causes enterotoxemia with hemorrhagic enteritis.
|
Clostridium perfringens type D
|
|
|
What causes focal symmetrical encephalomalacia?
|
clostridium perfringes type D
|
|
|
What is Equine motor neuron disease?
|
degeneration (chromatolysis) and necrosis of the neurons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord
|
|
|
T/F: equine motor neuron disease can be treated with vitamin A supplementation.
|
false
vitamin E |
|
|
_____ of pigs is a necrosis of the ventral horn of the cervical and lumbar spinal cord caused by selenium toxicity.
|
Poliomyelomalacia
*affected animals have posterior paralysis and quadriplegia |
|
|
inflammation in the nervous system usually indicates a ____ disease is present
|
infectious
|
|
|
What is the general response to injury in the CNS?
|
perivascular cuffing by inflammatory cells, usually lymphocytes
|
|
|
bacterial infections of the CNS genearlly produce ____.
|
meningitis
|
|
|
what is inflamed in meningitis?
|
leptomeninges
pia mater arachnoid mater |
|
|
What is the defining characteristic of meningoencephalitis (vs encephalitis)?
|
bacterial infection-- inflammatory reaction extends into the neuropil
|
|
|
bacteria that localize in the ependyma and choroid produce ____ and ____.
|
ependymitis and choriditis
|
|
|
The most common source of bacterial infection in the CNS is ____.
|
hematogenous
|
|
|
"other" routes of entry to the brain for bacteria include direct extension from nearby sites, such as ____.
|
middle ear or penetrating wounds
|
|
|
____ enters the brainstem from the mouth along cranial nerves and produces a purulent encephalitis with microabsccesses.
|
listeria
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of listeria in a cow?
|
circling
depressed head pressing paralysis of CN7 = unilateral drooping of the ear, lip, or eyelid |
|
|
What causes thrombotic meningoencephalitis?
|
Histophilus somni
|
|
|
T/F: Histophilius somni is normal flora of the cow.
|
true
*respiratory tract *but it can cause pneumonia and septicemia |
|
|
What age group and species are most susceptible to thrombotic mengoencephalitis infections of histophilus somni?
|
young feedlot cattle.
|
|
|
T/F: Viral infections of the CNS typically produce a characteristic set of microscopic lesions that identify the infection as viral.
|
true
*no gross lesions though |
|
|
What are the 3 (required) microscopic lesions that identify a CNS infection as VIRAL?
|
lymphocyte and plasma cell perivascular cuffing
neurons with chromatolysis and necrosis proliferation of microglia forming GLIAL NODULES |
|
|
___ is an important infection of animals caused by a rhabdovirus.
|
rabies
|
|
|
What are the primary resevoir species for rabies?
|
foxes and skunks
|
|
|
Rabies produces __________ accumulations of virus called Negri bodies.
|
eosinophilic intracytoplasmic
|
|
|
animals die within ___ days of showing clinical signs of rabies.
|
10 days
|
|
|
_____ is an important HERPES virus infection in pigs.
|
Pseudorabies
|
|
|
Pseudorabies affects young pigs and old pigs differently. What is the difference?
|
young pigs: death
old pigs: mild respiratory disease |
|
|
T/F: Pseudorabies can be transmitted to other animals from swine.
|
true
*characterized by intense pruritis and fatal neurological disease |
|
|
Where are the inclusion bodies found in Pseudorabies infections of pigs?
|
intranuclear in the neurons
|
|
|
equine viral encephalitis is a significant disease of the horse caused by a ____ transmitted by ____.
|
arbovirus
mosquitos |
|
|
T/F: equine viral encephalitis has cytoplasmic inclusion bodies.
|
false
NO inclusions bodies at all |
|
|
What is the natural resevoir of equine viral encephalitis?
|
wild birds
horse (dead end host) |
|
|
What is the progression of clinical signs of equine viral encephalitis?
|
somolent
blind circling paralysis death (1-2 days) |
|
|
retrovirus infection in sheep and goats is an unusual viral encephalomyelitis in that the lesions are predominantly ____ with ____.
|
demyelination with perivascular cuffing
|
|
|
_____ in goats produces encephalomyelitis in young kids and arthrtis and interstitial pneumonia in older goats.
|
caprine arthritis encephalitis
|
|
|
_____ is a common disease of the dog caused by a MORBILLIVIRUS.
|
Canine distemper
|
|
|
RNA viruses produce inclusion bodies in ___ and ___ of neurons and astrocytes. Give an example.
|
Nucleus and cytoplasm
Canine Distemper |
|
|
_____ produces neuronal necrosis in gray matter and demyelination in white matter. MYOCLONUS of the masticatory muscles is often present.
|
Canine distemper
|
|
|
equine herpes virus 1 generally causes ____ . It can also produce neurologic disease.
|
abortion
|
|
|
What are the grossly visible changes in the CNS associated with equine herpes virus 1?
|
vasculitis and hemorrhages
petechia (<1mm) |
|
|
How big are petechia?
|
<1mm
|
|
|
____ is a flavivirus affecting birds and horses.
|
West Nile
|
|
|
T/F: west nile causes a meningoencephalitis.
|
false
*poliomyelitis and encephalitis |
|
|
_____ infections of the CNS typically produce a granulomatous or pyogranulomatous inflammation. Usually NO gross lesion
|
FUNGAL
|
|
|
____ infection in the cat is the most iportant fungal disease in animals affecting th enervous system. How does it enter the body?
|
Cryptococcus
*through the nasal mucosa-- extends into the brain = menigitis or meningoencephalitis |
|
|
____ infections produce MULTIFOCAL inflammation and necrosis of WHITE and GRAY matter often with some EOSINOPHILS.
|
parasite
|
|
|
Name a 3 Parasitic CNS infections.
|
Equine protozoal myelitis
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis Halicephalobus deletrix |
|
|
What causes EPM?
|
sarcocystis neurona
|
|
|
____ is a common parasitic cause of paresis, paralysis, and ataxia in sheep and llamas.
|
parelaphostrongylus tenuis
|
|
|
____ is a nematode transmiteed from white tail deer. It infects the spinal cord.
|
parelaphostrongylus tenuis
|
|
|
____ is a free-living nematode that infects the nasal cavity, brain, and kidney or horses.
|
halicephalobus deletrix
|
|
|
Name 2 parasitic CNS infections of Horses.
|
Sarcocystis Neurona
Halicephalobus deletrix |
|
|
What species commonly gets granulomatous eningoencephalitis?
|
dog
*affects white matter, cuffs with lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages |
|
|
On necropsy of a horse you find thickend nerves in the cauda equina that are discolored due to hemorrhage. There is granulomatous inflammation with fibrosis. What might this be?
|
Cauda Equina Neuritis
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of a horse with cauda equina neuritis?
|
incontinence, perineal anesthesia, tail paralysis
|
|
|
Name some neoplastic disorders of the CNS.
|
Glial cell tumors
choroid plexus tumors meningioma ependymoma neuroblastoma medulloblastoma peripheral nerve sheath tumor |
|
|
_____ is the most common tumor of the glial cells.
|
astrocytoma
* esp BRACHYCEPHALIC breeds in the cerebral cortex |
|
|
_____ tumors of glial cells are very rare.
|
oligodendroglioma
|
|
|
These tumors occur in the choroid. They are very vascular and red grossly. Usually they are found in the 4th ventricle.
|
Choroid plexus tumors
adenoma adenocarcinoma |
|
|
____ is the most common tumor of the CNS seen in the dog and cat. It is a white-gray fibrous mass on the surface of the brain.
|
menigioma
* ventral in DOGS * dorsal in CATS |
|
|
Ependymoma is a rare tumor within the _____. It is white, gray or tan which distinguishes it from the choroid plexus tumors.
|
ventricle
|
|
|
____ is a rare tumor of young animals in the medulla arising from primitive neurons.
|
neuroblastoma/ medulloblastoma
|
|
|
What do neuroblastomas look like?
|
well demarcated
gray to pink |
|
|
____ is a rare tumor of the neurons in the PNS. It causes firm white nodules in any ganglion.
|
ganglioneuroma
|
|
|
What is a Schwannoma?
|
peripheral nerve sheath tumor
uncommon occurs in PNS Dogs |
|
|
T/F: A Schwannoma causes bilateral paralysis.
|
False
*unilateral-- it affects the brachial plexus |
|
|
What is a Cholesterol granuloma and who gets them? where?
|
granuloma containing cholesterol
horse unknown cause--large nodules may obstruct the ventricle and cause hydrocephalus |
|
|
____ is the formation of mineralized plaques in the dura of older dogs that often form bone.
|
Dural ossification
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of dural ossification?
|
none
may be pain with flexion of the spine |
|
|
Name some vesicular diseases.
|
foot and mouth disease
vesicular stomatitis cesicular exanthema swine vesicular disease feline calici virus herpes B virus pemphigus vulgaris/bullous pemphigoid |
|
|
____ is a vesicular disease caused by a picornavirus infection in pigs, cattle and sheep
|
foot and mouth disease
|
|
|
_____ infection in cats typically produces ulcers in the mouth as the vesicles are short lived.
|
feline calici virus
|
|
|
_____ infection in primates is a fatal zoonotic disease in man and non-rhesus monkeys. (gingival ulcers resembling cold sores).
|
herpes B virus
|
|
|
_____ is an autoimmune disease of the dog and cat producing vesicles that quickly ulcerate.
|
pemphigus vulgaris/ bullous pemphigoid
|
|
|
Name 3 Ulcerative/ Necrotizing digestive diseases.
|
Bovine Virus Diarrhea
Malignant catarrhal fever Bluetongue Uremia Eosinophilic granuloma complex Aeromonas |
|
|
BVD is caused by a pestivirus producing ulcers in the gatrointestinal tract, primarily the ___ and ___.
|
esophagus and small intestine
|
|
|
____ is a disease of cattle caused by a gamma herpes virus.
|
Malignant catarrhal fever
*carriers: wildebeast, sheep |
|
|
How is blue-tongue transmitted?
|
insects
|
|
|
____ is an orbivirus infection of sheep causing ulcers in the mouth and hemorrhages in the forestomach, coronet, pulmonary artery...
|
blue-tongue
|
|
|
What is uremia?
|
accumulation of varioius toxins in the blood produced in cases of chronic renal failure in the dog and cat.
The toxins result in the production of ulcers on the tongue and in the stomach. |
|
|
_____ is a group of 3 diseases affecting cats and dogs caused by a hypersensitivity reaction, probably to parasites. The disease produces ulcers in the mouth (dog, cat) and skin (skin).
|
Eosinophilic granuloma complex
|
|
|
_____ is a gram-negative bacterial infection of fish and reptiles causing septicemia. Necrosis with hemorrhage are seen in the mouth and other organs.
|
Aeromonas
|
|
|
Name 2 proliferative, non-neoplastic disorders of the GIT.
|
contagious ecthyma
bovine papular stomatitis fusobacterium necrophorum actinobacillus actinomyces gingival hyperplasia |
|
|
____ is a pox virus infection of sheep and goats producing crusty lesions on the lips, face and feet.
|
contagious ecthyma
|
|
|
_____ is a parapox virus infection producing discrete circular slightly raised lesions in the mouth and esophagus, usually an incidental finding in cattle.
|
bovine papular stomatitis
|
|
|
____ is a gram-negative bacterial infection of young cattle producing ulcerative and caseous proliferative lesions in the outh and larynx. The organism is a secondary invader following trauma to the mucosa.
|
fusobacterium necrophorum
|
|
|
Actinobacillus ligniersii is a gram-negative bacteria that causes ____ in cattle.
|
wooden tongue
|
|
|
______ is a gram- positive filamentous bacteria that causes lumpy jaw in cattle.
|
Actinomyces bovis
|
|
|
____ is a proliferation of the gingiva usually in response to chronic periodontal disease in dogs.
|
gingival hyperplasia
|
|
|
What are some proliferative neoplastic disorders of the GIT?
|
melanoma
squamous cell carcinoma fibrosarcoma epulis papilloma tooth germ tumors |
|
|
_____ is a tumor of melanocytes within epithelial tissues and occurs in the skin of horses, dogs, pigs, and cats and the oral cavity of the dog.
|
melanoma
|
|
|
what percent of oral melanomas of the dog are malignant?
|
90%
*survival time 6mo |
|
|
T/F: melanomas are always pigmented.
|
false
|
|
|
_____ is a malignant tumor of squamous epithelium occuring in the skin and oral cavity of cats and dogs.
|
squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
what is the most common tumor of the cat tongue?
|
squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
T/F: oral squamous cell carcinomas are more malignant on the tonsil than the tongue.
|
true
*dog |
|
|
____ is a tumor of fibroblasts and occurs in the subcutis of dogs and cats and the oral cavity of dogs.
|
fibrosarcoma
|
|
|
____ is a benign tumor of the gingiva in the dog and resembles gingival hyperplasia grossly.
|
epulis
|
|
|
What tumor arises from the periodontal ligament?
|
epulis
|
|
|
A papilloma is a ___ caused by infection with the papilloma virus. These occur in the ____ of cattle and dogs, in the ____ of the dog only, and in the ____ of cattle only.
|
skin - both
oral cavity - dog rumen - cattle |
|
|
____ tumors are a group of rare tumors of the dog, cat and bovine occurring in the jaw.
|
tooth germ tumors
|
|
|
what are ameloblastomas and odontomas?
|
tooth germ tumors
|
|
|
What can cause enamel hypoplasia?
|
infection of young dogs with canine distemper virus while the permanent tooth is developing
exposure to high levels of fluorine-- brittle enamel chips away |
|
|
____ is a cyst that forms when a salivary duct ruptures ad saliva accumulates in the adjacent soft tissue.
|
mucocele
|
|
|
what is a ranula?
|
mucocele of the sublingual salivary gland that forms a cyst at the base of the tongue
|
|
|
____ is inflammation of the salivary gland and is seen occasionally in the rat where it is caused by a corona virus.
|
sialoadenitis
|
|
|
What species get salivary adenocarcinomas?
|
dog and cat
|
|
|
where do salivary gland adenocarcinomas like to metastasize to?
|
lymph nodes and lung
*present as solitary nodular gowth in the submandibular region |
|
|
What diseases can cause ulcers in the esophagus?
|
BVD
malignant catarrhal fever *ulcers are usually linear |
|
|
What is a source of non-infectious ulcers in horses?
|
choke
*annular ulcers |
|
|
____ viirus infection produces white to yellow caseous plaques on the mucosa of the oral cavity, CROP, and esophagus.
|
Avian pox
|
|
|
what vitamin deficiency can cause keratinization of the esophagus and internal glands?
|
vitamin A
|
|
|
What is thrush?
|
Candida
opportunistic yeast infection that occurs in immunocompromised animals |
|
|
____ is a protozoan infection of the crop and esohagus in birds (pigeons).
|
trichomonas
|
|
|
____ is a marked dilation of the esophagus and is seen in young dogs that have a persistent right aortic arch.
|
Megaesophagus
**normally the let aortic arch develops into the aorta and the right regresses... if not the ductus arteriosus must cross over the esophagus to join the pulmonary artery and the aorta **can also occur secondarily due to maysthenia gravis in dogs |
|
|
____ of the stomach wall or the intestinal wall occurs in animals that have hypoproteinemia.
|
edema
|
|
|
What is Edema disease and who gets it?
|
E. coli infecction that produces edema of the stomach, subcutis, mesentery...
swine |
|
|
T/F: stomach ulcers in pigs can lead to fatal bleeding and sudden death.
|
true
*finely ground rations and genetics may be implicated * occur in the esophageal portion of the stomach |
|
|
What species is susceptible to stomach bots?
|
horses
|
|
|
____ is a common cause of ulcers in the horse and occu along the MARGO PLICATUS.
|
gastrophilus larvae
|
|
|
What are 4 causes of gastric ulcers in horses?
|
Bots
Stress Steroids NSAIDS Helicobacter |
|
|
heavy metals like ___ and ___ will cause ulceration with hemorrhage in the abomasum and intestine of cattle.
|
arsenic and mercury
|
|
|
_____ in the dog causes gastric ulceration and hemorrhage because the uremic toxins damage blood vessels.
|
uremia
|
|
|
What causes bloat?
|
engorging on feed causes excess carb fermentation = CO2 gas
*horses and primates |
|
|
____ leads to cardiovascular failure, shock and death, or the stomach may rupture causing peritonitis and death.
|
BLOAT
|
|
|
Deep chested breeds of dogs are susceptible to ___ after eating.
|
GDV
gastric distension with voluvulus |
|
|
What are factors that contribute to GDV risk?
|
aerophagia
food that expands after eating deep chested breeds of dogs |
|
|
When are DAs likely to occur?
|
after parturition and up to several weeks later
|
|
|
Why might the stomach of a horse rupture?
|
colic from intestinal obstruction
gastric distention from grain overload |
|
|
What is a phytobezoar?
|
plant/fiber balls that can be found in the stomach
|
|
|
a ____ is a hairball that can be found in the stomach.
|
trichobezoar
|
|
|
_____ is a highly malignant tumor of he og causing marked thickening and fibrosis of the stomach wall, often with large ulcer in the mucosa.
|
gastric carcinoma
|
|
|
____ in the horse is an ulcerated fibrous mass in the NONglandular stomach.
|
squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
What does lymphoma in the stomach look like?
|
mass of homogeneous tan tissue in the wall without fibrosis
|
|
|
____ in the dog and cat is a benign smooth muscle tumor and presents as a discrete tan nodule in the wall bneath the mucosa.
|
leiomyoma
|
|
|
_____ is a rare disease in the dog that is similar to carcinoma grossly. The stomach wall is infiltrated with eosinophils and fibrosis.
|
eosinophilic gastroenteritis
|
|
|
What is Draschia megastoma?
|
nematode parasite of the horse
*burrows into the glandular stomach producing nodules with a central pore |
|
|
what causes bloat in ruminants?
|
certain legumes that are high in soluble protein roduces small gas bubbles that do not breakdown = foam
*lactic acid damages the rumen mucosa = ulcers |
|
|
what is a bloat line?
|
visible at necropsy
line of demarcation in the esophageal mucas at the thoracic inlet the cranial esophagus is congested and the intrathoracic esophagus is blanched and pale (bloat line) |
|
|
secondary infection of rumen ulcers with ____, a gram negative anaerobe bacteria may occur in some cases of grain overload.
|
fusobacterium
|
|
|
What does a fungal ulcer look like?
|
circular lesion with a red rim and a pale center.
|
|
|
____ occurs in the rumen as white, wart-like growths. they are usually incidental.
|
papilloma
|
|
|
_____ infection (bacterial) occurs in the large intestine of horses and pigs and in the small intestine of cattle. It produces ulcers, hemorrhage or fibrinous lesions.
|
salmonella
|
|
|
BVD in cattle produces ulcers where?
|
peyer's patches
*diagnostic |
|
|
amoeba are an important cause of ulcerative enteritis in ____.
|
reptiles
*entabmoeba is the most common |
|
|
ulcerative enteritis is and important disease of young poultry and upland game birds caused by _____.
|
clostridium colinum
*discrete ulcers and multifocal yellow lesions in the liver |
|
|
What are the classes of small intestinal diseases?
|
ulcerative
fibrinous hemorrhagic proliferative neoplastic physical disturbances excess fluid in a normal intestine |
|
|
T/F: Salmonella infection usually produces a fibrinous enteritis.
|
true
*ulcers and hemorrhage may occur |
|
|
______ is an important disease in chikens caused by clostridium perfringens A. It produces diffuse necrosis with a fibrinonecrotic pseudomembrane in the intestine
|
Necrotic enteritis
|
|
|
What are 4 causes of hemorrhagic enteritis?
|
DIC
heavy metal toxicosis parvovirus hookworms clostridium perfringens A and C clostridium difficile hemorrhagic bowel syndrome proximal enteritis coccidia |
|
|
How does DIC cause hemorrhagic enteritis?
|
clotting factors are used up which leads to diffuse bleeding in organs and body cavities... and GIT
|
|
|
T/F: arsenic and lead produces hemorrhage in the small intestine of ruminants.
|
false
*arsenic and mercury |
|
|
____ is an important viral infection of cats and dogs and causes hemorrhagic enteritis in dogs.
|
Parvovirus
|
|
|
What causes the hemorrhage associated with parvovirus?
|
the virus destroys crypt epithelial cells leading to villous collapse and ulceration
|
|
|
what causes panleukopenia in th cat?
|
parvovirus
*panleukopenia = depletion of red and white cells in the bone marrow |
|
|
T/F: parvovirus causes hemorrhagic enteritis in cats.
|
false
*panleukopenia, but no hemorrhage |
|
|
____ are an important nematode parasite of the dog producing hemorrhage in the intestine.
|
hookworms
|
|
|
What might cause diffuse intestinal hemorrhage in large animals during the first 2 weeks of life?
|
clostridium perfringens type A or C
(EHECs too) |
|
|
____ causes hemorrhagic enteritis in foals.
|
Clostridium difficile
|
|
|
____ in adult dairy cattle has hemorrhage and blood clots in the duodenum and jejunum.
|
hemorrhagic bowel syndrome
|
|
|
What is the prognosis of a 5 year old dairy cow with hemorrhagic bowel syndromw?
|
poor
high mortality |
|
|
What species gets proximal enteritis?
|
horses
*hemorrhage in the duodenum |
|
|
What species are particularly affected by coccidia infections?
|
young avians and ruminants
*acute hemorrhagic enteritis *chronic = small nodules or plaques in the mucosa |
|
|
____ is a bacterial infection of pigs causing marked thickening of the mucosa with necrosis and hemorrhage. The mucosa has a corrugated appearance and may also have a fibrinonecrotic psudomembrane.
|
Lawsonia Intracellularis
|
|
|
What species can get lawsonia intracellularis infection?
|
pigs
*occasionally in hamsters *rarely in horses and dogs |
|
|
What species is susceptible to granulomatous enteritis?
|
horses
*mucosa is infiltrated with macrophages (granulomatous) |
|
|
____ is a bacterial infection of birds and mammals that results in diffuse thickening of the mucosa caused by granulomatous inflammation with acid fast bacteria in macrophages.
|
mycobacterium avium
|
|
|
How are coccidia infections in sheep different from coccidia infections in calfs?
|
calfs-- hemorrhagic enteritis
sheep-- 1-2 mm raised plaques or nodules |
|
|
where does idiopathic muscular hypertrophy occur? what species?
|
distal ileum
esophagus horse |
|
|
Chronic obstruction of the intestinal lumen by a foreign body will cause the _____ to thicken at that site.
|
muscularis
|
|
|
What is hemomelasma ilei? What species does it occur in?
|
single or multiple red to brown plaques on the serosa usually near the ileum
horse |
|
|
T/F: hemomelasma ilei is life threatening.
|
false
*incidental finding |
|
|
____ causes thickening of the intestinal wall that is segmental.
|
lymphosarcoma
|
|
|
leiomyoma and leiomyosarcoma are tumors of _____ muscle.
|
smooth
|
|
|
T/F: leiomyosarcoma is usually of low-grade malignancy and has low potential for metastasis.
|
True
|
|
|
What are the 3 potential neoplasias of the intestine?
|
lymphosarcoma
leiomyosarcoma adenocarcinoma |
|
|
____ produces an annular constricting badn in the intestine because of abundant fibrous tissue produced by the tumor.
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
What is the metastatic rate of adenocarcinoma?
|
high
*seeds abdominal serosa, metastasizes to local lymph nodes and liver |
|
|
Which intestinal neoplasia causes annular constriction? which one causes segmental thickening?
|
annular constriction: adenocarcinoma
segmental thickening: lymphosarcoma |
|
|
Name 3 physical disturbances of the intestine.
|
torsion
volvulus intusussception strangulation hernia |
|
|
What is the difference between a torsion and a volvulus?
|
torsion: twist of the intestine on itself
volvulus: twist on the mesenteric axis |
|
|
T/F: torsion occurs more commonly than volvulus.
|
false
*volvulus occurs much more commonly esp in horse |
|
|
What is intussusception?
|
telescoping of the intestine into itself
*usually secondary to hypermotility |
|
|
what is the other name for strangulation of intestine?
|
incarceration
|
|
|
what is the usual cause of strangulated intestine?
|
lipoma
|
|
|
____ is an entrapment of the intestine in constricted openings such as enlarged inguinal rings, an open umbilicus or a ruptured diaphragm.
|
hernia
|
|
|
what are some of the causes of hernias?
|
enlarged inguinal rings
open umbilicus ruptured diaphragm |
|
|
What breed of dog is predisposed to ulcerative colitis?
|
boxers
|
|
|
____ occurs in boxers when there is macrophages in the mucosa of the large intestine along with ulcers.
|
histiocytic ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
What does Shigella cause?
|
ulcerative, sometimes hemorrhagic colitis in primates (large intestine)
|
|
|
Name 2 infectious causes of fibrinous/necrotic/ fibrinonecrotic disease in the large intestine.
|
salmonella
swine dysentery yersinia pseudotuberculosis histomonas meleagridis trichuris |
|
|
What part of the intestinal tract is genearlly affected by salmonella in horses and cattle?
|
colon: horses
Small intestine: cattle |
|
|
Swine dysentery is a colitis of pigs caused by the bacteria ____ in association with other bacteria. The disease produces a fibrinous colitis with hemorrhage.
|
bracyspira hyodysenteriae + others
|
|
|
______ is a bacterial infection primarily of primates and rodents but also cattle. it produces multifocal fibrinonecrotic colitis
|
yersinia pseudotuberculosis
|
|
|
_____ is a protozoan infection of turkeys producing caseous necrotic cores in the ceca. The protozoan is transmitted by the cecal worm ____.
|
histomonas meleagridis
heterakis gallinae |
|
|
____ are whipworms and affect the cecum and colon of the ___ and ___.
|
trichuris
pig and dog |
|
|
Name 3 causes of hemorrhagic colitis.
|
colitis X
DIC Anticoagulent toxicosis |
|
|
T/F: colitis X causes hemorragic diarrhea.
|
false
*hemorrhage and edema occur in the wall of the colon but no blood in the feces occurs |
|
|
What is brodifacoum?
|
an anticoagulent
*also warfarin |
|
|
Johne's disease is a bcterial infection caused by ____ and causes thickening of the mucosa due to granulomatous inflammation. This produces folds in the mucosa.
|
mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis
*consdered proliferative dz |
|
|
T/F: lymphoma, adenocarcinoma and leiomyoma can occur in the colon.
|
true
|
|
|
What causes impaction in small and large animals?
|
smalll: fecal obstruction
large: coarse feed or foreign bodies |
|
|
___ are mineralized concretions that build in size over time until they cause impaction of the large colon in horses.
|
enteroliths
|
|
|
dilation of the colon can occur secondary to ___ in some dogs.
|
spinal disc disease
|
|
|
What is the name for the congenital defect in cattle where there is no anus or rectum?
|
atresia ani
atresia coli |
|
|
What can cause excess fluid and congested colon in the horse?
|
potomac horse fever
* rickettsia infection |
|
|
___ is the accumulatio of clear yellow fluid in the abdomen.
|
ascites
|
|
|
chronic liver disease results in extensive fibrosis in the liver producing _____ and ___.
|
portal hypertension
ascites |
|
|
_____ leads to passive congestion in the liver and ascites
|
heart failure (right)
|
|
|
Edema disease of swine id due to a ___ infection which produces a toxin that causes edema of the subcutis, stomach, and mesentery.
|
E. coli
|
|
|
What generally causes hemoperitoneum?
|
trauma
|
|
|
What is traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
|
hardware disease
|
|
|
____ occurs when a wire within the reticulum penetrates through the wall causing fibrinous peritonitis or pericarditis.
|
traumatic reticuloperitonitis
|
|
|
____ may occur in castrated male cats and steers when the uretrha is blocked with meneral deposits.
|
ruptured urinary bladder
|
|
|
Reline infectious peritonitis is a ___ virus infection of cats cuasing ____ fluid to form in body cavities.
|
corona virus
protein/ fibrin fluid |
|
|
Name 2 causes of fat necrosis.
|
Vitamin E deficiency
Pancreatitis Idiopathic Fescue toxicosis lipomas |
|
|
Describe the general process of fat necrosis.
|
necrotic fat becomes mineralized and appears as firm, chalky, yellow to brown plaques or nodules
|
|
|
How does hypovitaminosis E cause fat necrosis?
|
deficiency leads to oxidation of fat and necrosis
|
|
|
How does pancreatitis cause fat necrosis?
|
leads to leakage of enzymes from the pancreas and causes necrosis of the mesenteric fat around the pancreas
|
|
|
What breeds of cattle are predisposed to idiopathic fat necrosis?
|
jersey
guernsey |
|
|
fescue toxicosis in cattle causes ___ in the mesenteric fat.
|
fat necrosis
|
|
|
what species tend to develop pedunculated lipomas?
|
horses
|
|
|
Chronic inflammation of the peritoneum will resolve with ____ which makes the peritoneum appear shaggy. ____ are also seen.
|
fibrinous tags
adhesions |
|
|
____ is a rare neoplasm of mesothelial cells occurring most commonly in calves as a congenital disease. It produces multiple white nodules and plaques in the abdomen, thorax or pericardial space
|
mesothelioma
*also occurs in the adult dog |
|
|
FIP produces ___ on the mesentery and/or abdominal organs.
|
wmall white plaques/nodules
|
|
|
Name 3 causes of a lobular pattern in the liver.
|
NONinfectious:
passive congestion anemia lipid hepatotoxin cholangitis |
|
|
T/F: individual lobules of the liver are normally grossly visible.
|
false
* individual lobules of the liver are NOT visible grossly in the normal liver. |
|
|
____ is the most common cause of a lobular pattern in the liver.
|
Passive congestion
*heart failure is the usual cause |
|
|
Anemia may cause a lobular pattern in the liver due to ____.
|
hypoxia of the centrilobular cells
|
|
|
___ causes a lobular pattern in the liver because many liver toxins damage centrilobular hepatocytes.
|
hepatotoxin
|
|
|
____ infections produce a MULTIFOCAL pattern in the liver.
|
Bacterial
|
|
|
____ pattern of the liver produces large red and yellow areas in the liver that give it a mottled appearance.
|
mosaic pattern
|
|
|
What is massive necrosis of the liver?
|
necrosis of whole hepatic lobules due to drugs, toxins or chemicals
*smaller doses may produce a lobular pattern *larger doses produce a mosaic pattern |
|
|
____ is the most common cause of exudative dermatitis.
|
allergic skin disease
|
|
|
____ is the name given to inhalant allergy and is the most common cause of allergic skin disease.
|
atopy
|
|
|
_____ are an important inflammatory cell in allergic skin disease of CATS and HORSES but not dogs.
|
Eosinophils
|
|
|
Eosinophlic granuloma complex is a group of 3 histologically different diseases that are caused by ____.
|
a hypersensitivity reaction/allergy
*most common in the CAT and HORSE |
|
|
What is allergic contact dermatitis?
|
allergic skin diseease caused by contact of the skin with an allergic substance...
chemicals, plastics simiar to poison ivy rx |
|
|
Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by:
|
erythematous papules
ulcers custs of exudative dermatitis |
|
|
What is the technical term for a hot spot?
|
pyotraumatic dermatitis
|
|
|
Name 2 causes of ulcerative or exudative dermatitis.
|
allergic skin disease (food, atopy)
eosinophiic granuloma complex allergic contact dermatitis irritant contact dermatitis pyotraumatic dermatitis |
|
|
____ is excess keratin on the skin surface and grossly produces flakes or scales on the skin.
|
hyperkeratosis
seborrhea |
|
|
What is orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis?
|
hyperkeratosis: keratinized cells lack nuclei
|
|
|
what is Parakeratotic hyperkeratosis?
|
Parakeratosis: excess keratin in which the nucleus of the cells in retained
(as opposed to orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis) |
|
|
Seborrhea is a rare primary disease in some breeds of dogs like the ____ caused by an inherited defect in keratinization.
|
cocker spaniels
|
|
|
Secondary seborrhea is common and occurs secondary to::::
|
allergy
parasites infection endocrine diseases |
|
|
____ cause a perivascular dermatitis with hyperkeratosis.
|
mites
*sarcoptes *chorioptes |
|
|
What is acanthosis?
|
hyperplasia of the epidermis
occurs in any chronic skin disease |
|
|
What are the hallmarks of acanthosis?
|
lichenification-- thickened skin with a leathery texture
hyperpigmentation |
|
|
all inflammation in the skin arises from ________.
|
blood vessels in the dermis
(why they are commonly caused dermatitis even though the epidermis is frequently the target tissue) |
|
|
most skin diseases have ___ dermatitis.
|
perivascular
|
|
|
____ is inflammation of the superficial dermis at the epidermal/dermal junction, which obscures the distinction between the 2.
|
interface dermatitis
|
|
|
_____ is a dense band of inflammation in the superficial dermis, which is distinct and sharply demarcated from the adjacent tissue.
|
lichenoid dermatitis
|
|
|
___ and ____ dermatitis are inflammatory patterns that are seen in many of the autoimmune skin diseases
|
iinterface dermatitis
lichenoid dermatitis |
|
|
What layers of the skin does nodular dermatitis affect?
|
dermis/ subcutis
*caused by infections: bacterial, fungal, parasitis |
|
|
Name 3 causes of nodular dermatitis.
|
Infections
Sterile granulomatous/pyogranulomatous nodular dermatitis furunculosis panniculitis neoplasia |
|
|
_____ is a unique entity in the dog producing inflammation of the dermis centered on the adnexa. It is noninfectious and responds to steroid therapy.
|
sterile ganulomatous/pyogranulomatous nodular dermatitis
|
|
|
____ is a nodular dermatitis produced when hair follicles rupture
|
furunculosis
|
|
|
____ occurs secondary to folliculitis or when the follicles are traumatized from scratching, biting or licking in cases of pruritis.
|
furunculosis
|
|
|
_____ is inflammation of the subcutis and occurs in cats and dogs as a unique disease without involvement of the dermis or epidermis.
|
panniculitis
|
|
|
What are some causes of panniculitis?
|
trauma
injection irritant bacteria fung vit E deficiency (cat) idiopathic |
|
|
____ is loss of hair.
|
alopecia
|
|
|
What is the most important cause of primary alopecia?
|
endocrine skin disease
*bilateral symmetrical alopecia occurs over the perieum, back and flanks |
|
|
Name 3 endocrine disorders thatn can cause alopecia.
|
hypothyroid
hyperestrogen hyperadrenocorticism |
|
|
what are the microscopic diagnostic features of alopecia?
|
atrophy of the hair follicles and sebaceous glands
|
|
|
____ is a malignant neoplasm of the epidermal squamous cells.
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?
|
non-pigmented skin
exposure to sunlight |
|
|
What is the common location of a squamous cell carcinoma in the dog? horse? cow? cat?
|
dog: skin/ oral
horse: penis/ eye cow: eye cat: nose/ pinna |
|
|
____ is a tumor of the melanocytes of the epidermis.
|
melanoma
*benign or malignant *pigmented or not |
|
|
T/F: melanomas on the skin of dogs are usually benign.
|
true
* oral cavity is usually malignant |
|
|
___ is a wart and is caused by infection with the papilloma virus.
|
papilloma
|
|
|
What breed of dog is predisposed to intracutaneous cornifying epithelioma (keratoacanthoma)?
|
norwegian elkhoud
|
|
|
_____ tumors are the most primitive of the adnexal tumors and is a neoplasm of one cell type only.
|
basal cell
|
|
|
T/F: basal cell tumors are malignant.
|
false
Basal cell tumors are BENIGN |
|
|
What neoplasm occurs in young dogs?
|
histiocytoma
|
|
|
What are the neoplasms affecting the skin of horses?
|
squamous cell carcinoma
melanoma papilloma sarcoid |
|
|
what skin neoplasm is primarily found in the male dog?
|
perianal gland tumors
|
|
|
___ is a common Benign tumor of the dog arising from the Hair Follicle.
|
trichoepithelioma
|
|
|
____ is a RARE BENIGN tumor of the dog arising from the hair MATRIX.
|
pilomatricoma
*hair only (trichoepithelioma makes hair follicle and hair) |
|
|
____ are either adenomas or adenocarcinomas. It is one of the most common tumors in the dog skin.
|
Sebaceous gland tumors
|
|
|
____ tumors are uncommon neoplasms of the dog and cat and are either adenoma or adenocarcinoma. They include the sweat glands, ceruminous glands and the anal sac glands.
|
apocrine gland tumors
|
|
|
____ tumors are very common in the dog and arise from the perianal glands.
|
perianal gland tumors
*benign *common in male dogs |
|
|
Name 4 dermal neoplasms
|
histiocytoma
mast cell tumor fibroma fibrosarcoma sarcoid lipoma plasma cell tumor |
|
|
____ is a BENIGN tumor of the dog and is very COMMON. It typically occurs in dogs less than 2yo and arises from the ____ cells of the epidermis.
|
Histiocytoma
*langerhans clls |
|
|
What species can get a mast cell tumor? are they benign or malignant?
|
dog
cat horse benign or malignant |
|
|
Fibromas are rare BENIGN tumors of the dog and cat arising from ____.
|
fibroblasts
|
|
|
fibrosarcomas are malignant tumors of fibroblasts that occur commonly in the ____. They occur spontaneously secondary to _____.
|
cat
vaccination *high rate of recurrence, low rate of metastaisis |
|
|
___ is a fibroblast tumor of the horse and is very common. does not metastasize, Benign, high rate of local recurrence.
|
sarcoid
|
|
|
____ is an uncommon BENIGN tumor of the DOG occuring in the skin and oral cavity arising from plasma cells.
|
PLASMA cell tumor
|
|
|
hemangioma is a common BENIGN tumor of the dog arising from ______. hemangiosarcoma is the malignant form.
|
cascular endothelium
|
