Pathology Exam 3

Front 1

what is the only organ system where the gross pathology if also the clinical signs of disease?

Back 1

skin

Front 2

nearly all skin diseases are ___ and referred to as ____

Back 2

inflammatory, dermatitis

Front 3

T/F: multiple gross patterns may be seen in the same skin disease

Back 3

true

Front 4

T/F: biopsies from multiple areas of the skin often have different patterns of dermatitis

Back 4

true

Front 5

what do you use for a diagnostic workup for any skin disease?

Back 5

- histopathology
- biopsy
- signalment (age, breed, sex)
- history
- location of lesions
- seasonality
- presence or absence of pruritis

Front 6

____ are aggregates of neutrophils and sometimes eosinophils within the epidermis

Back 6

pustules

Front 7

pyoderma is inflammation of the skin that is predominantely _____

Back 7

neutrophils

Front 8

a crust is a scab and represents what?

Back 8

a dried up accumulation of keratin, inflammatory cells, serum, bacteria

Front 9

what is one cause of pustular dermatitis?

Back 9

superficial bacterial or fungal infection
(staph = bacteria)
(microsporum, trichophyton = fungal agents)

Front 10

pustules located over hair follicles are indicative of ____

Back 10

folliculitis
- an inflammation of the hair follicle caused by infection with bacteria, fungi or demodex mites

Front 11

what autoimmune disease is a cause of pustular dermatitis?

Back 11

pemphigus foliaceus

Front 12

what is a diagnostic histologic feature of pemphigus?

Back 12

acanthocytes (acantholytic cells)

Front 13

____ are fluid filled cavities within or beneath the epidermis less than 5mm diameter

Back 13

vesicles

Front 14

what is a vesicle greater than 5mm diameter?

Back 14

bulla

Front 15

what is the cause of vesicle formation?

Back 15

edema

Front 16

____ is edema btw keratinocytes

Back 16

spongiosus

Front 17

____ is edema within keratinocytes

Back 17

intracellular edema

Front 18

____ is edema btw keratinocytes

Back 18

spongiosus

Front 19

when do vesicles form?

Back 19

when the edema becomes severe enough that keratinocytes are lost or displaced

Front 20

____ is edema within keratinocytes

Back 20

intracellular edema

Front 21

hydropic degeneration is intracellular edema within the basal epidermal cell- when is this seen?

Back 21

- lupus erythematosis
- dermatomyositis
- drug rxns affecting the skin

Front 22

when do vesicles form?

Back 22

when the edema becomes severe enough that keratinocytes are lost or displaced

Front 23

___ is intracellular edema within the superficial keratinocytes of the epidermis

Back 23

ballooning degeneration

Front 24

hydropic degeneration is intracellular edema within the basal epidermal cell- when is this seen?

Back 24

- lupus erythematosis
- dermatomyositis
- drug rxns affecting the skin

Front 25

___ is intracellular edema within the superficial keratinocytes of the epidermis

Back 25

ballooning degeneration

Front 26

____ is edema btw keratinocytes

Back 26

spongiosus

Front 27

____ is edema within keratinocytes

Back 27

intracellular edema

Front 28

when do vesicles form?

Back 28

when the edema becomes severe enough that keratinocytes are lost or displaced

Front 29

hydropic degeneration is intracellular edema within the basal epidermal cell- when is this seen?

Back 29

- lupus erythematosis
- dermatomyositis
- drug rxns affecting the skin

Front 30

___ is intracellular edema within the superficial keratinocytes of the epidermis

Back 30

ballooning degeneration

Front 31

what is a feature of viral skin diseases?

Back 31

ballooning degeneration
(intracellular edema within the superficial keratinocytes of the epidermis)

Front 32

vesicular dermatitis is seen with what autoimmune diseases?

Back 32

- pemphigus vulgaris
- bullous pemphigod

Front 33

___ is a flat, discolored area of the skin usually less than 1cm in diameter

Back 33

macule

Front 34

___ is a slightly raised area within the skin

Back 34

papule

Front 35

what is it called when a macule and papule are red?

Back 35

erythema

Front 36

what are 2 uncommon diseases producing necrotizing dermatitis primarily in small animals?

Back 36

- erythema multiforme
- toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

Front 37

what is the cause of both erythema multiforme and TEN?

Back 37

adverse drug reaction in association with systemic infection or neoplasia

Front 38

burns are a cause of what?

Back 38

necrotizing dermatitis

Front 39

what is a necrotizing dermatitis occurring most commonly in large animals?

Back 39

photosensitization

Front 40

what areas of the skin does photosensitization affect?

Back 40

non-pigmented areas of the skin

Front 41

what are 2 causes of photosensitization?

Back 41

- ingestion of a photodynamic agent in the feed
- occurs secondary to chronic liver disease

Front 42

____ may localize in skin usually producing a vasculitis and thrombosis that leads to necrosis of the skin

Back 42

systemic bacterial infections
(Erysipelas in pigs, Salmonella)

Front 43

what is foot rot caused by?

Back 43

Fusobacterium necrophorum alone or mixed infs with Dichelobacter nodosus or Bacteriodes melaninogenicus

Front 44

what 2 types of diseases produce crusts or ulcers on the skin?

Back 44

exudative and ulcerative dermatitis

Front 45

_____ is the most common cause of exudative dermatitis

Back 45

allergic skin disease

Front 46

_____ is the name given to inhalant allergy and is the most common cause of allergic skin disease

Back 46

atopy

Front 47

ingested antigen or ____ is uncommon in animals

Back 47

food allergy

Front 48

eosinophils are an important inflammatory cell in allergic skin disease of ___ and ___ but are not common in the ____

Back 48

cats and horses
dog

Front 49

___ is a group of 3 histologically different diseases that are caused by a hypersensitivity reaction or allergy

Back 49

eosinophilic granuloma complex

Front 50

what is allergic contact dermatitis?

Back 50

an allergic skin disease caused by contact of the skin with an allergic substance

Front 51

what are causes of irritant contact dermatitis?

Back 51

drugs, soaps, acids, detergents...

Front 52

where do lesions of irritant contact dermatitis occur?

Back 52

sparsely haired regions of the body

Front 53

what is another term for "hot spots"?

Back 53

pyotraumatic dermatitis

Front 54

____ is excess keratin on the skin surface and grossly produces flakes or scales on the skin (dandruff)

Back 54

hyperkeratosis
(seborrhea)

Front 55

what are causes of irritant contact dermatitis?

Back 55

drugs, soaps, acids, detergents...

Front 56

what is orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis called where keratinized cells lack nuclei?

Back 56

hyperkeratosis

Front 57

where do lesions of irritant contact dermatitis occur?

Back 57

sparsely haired regions of the body

Front 58

what is another term for "hot spots"?

Back 58

pyotraumatic dermatitis

Front 59

____ is excess keratin on the skin surface and grossly produces flakes or scales on the skin (dandruff)

Back 59

hyperkeratosis
(seborrhea)

Front 60

what is orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis called where keratinized cells lack nuclei?

Back 60

hyperkeratosis

Front 61

____ is excess keratin in which the nucleus of th ecells is retained

Back 61

parakeratosis

Front 62

severe parakeratosis is a diagnostic feature of what?

Back 62

zinc-responsive and vitamin A-responsive dermatoses

Front 63

T/F: seborrhea can be dry or oily

Back 63

true

Front 64

what causes seborrhea and what breed is it primarily in?

Back 64

- caused by an inherited defect in keratinization
- cocker spaniel

Front 65

what 2 mites are the most common causing infections?

Back 65

sarcoptes
chorioptes

Front 66

hyperplasia of the epidermis, called _______, occurs in any chronic skin disease

Back 66

acanthosis

Front 67

what is it called when the skin appears thickened grossly and has a leathery texture?

Back 67

lichenification

Front 68

what is hyperpigmentation?

Back 68

increased melanin pigement in the epidermis which makes the skin appear dark or black
(occurs in hyperplastic dermatitis)

Front 69

all inflammation of the skin arises from _____

Back 69

blood vessels in the dermis

Front 70

a predominance of _____ in the inflammation is indicative of _____

Back 70

- eosinophils
- parasitic infection or allergic skin disease

Front 71

interface dermatitis is inflammation of the superficial dermis at the epidermal/dermal junction, which obscures the distinction btw the ___ and ____

Back 71

dermis and epidermis

Front 72

____ is a dense band of inflammation in the superficial dermis

Back 72

lichenoid dermatitis

Front 73

___ are firm swellings in the dermis and/or SQ and palpate as a mass

Back 73

nodules

Front 74

what is sterile granulomatous/ pyogernulomatous nodular dermatitis?

Back 74

a unique entity in the dog producing inflammation of the dermis centered on adnexa

Front 75

furunculosis is a nodular dermatitis produced when ______

Back 75

hair follicles rupture

Front 76

furuculosis occurs secondary to ___

Back 76

folliculitis

Front 77

_____ is inflammation of the SQ and occurs in cats/dogs as a unique disease without involvement of the dermis or epidermis

Back 77

panniculitis

Front 78

what are 4 general causes of panniculitis?

Back 78

- physical injury
- infection
- nutritional
- idiopathic

Front 79

neoplasia is a cause of _____

Back 79

nodules in the skin

Front 80

___ is a loss of hair

Back 80

alopecia

Front 81

what is the most important cause of primary alopecia?

Back 81

endocrine skin disease

Front 82

hypothyroidism, hyperestrogenism, and hyperadrenocorticism can cause what?

Back 82

endocrine skin disease

Front 83

____ is a malignant neoplasm of the epidermal squamous cells

Back 83

squamous cell carcinoma

Front 84

T/F: exposure to sunlight is a factor in the induction of squamous cell carcinoma, so the tumor is usually seen in non-pigmented skin

Back 84

true

Front 85

T/F: melanoma can be benign or malignant

Back 85

true

Front 86

____ are multiple tumors that occur in young animals and spontaneously regress over several months (caused by infection with the papilloma virus)

Back 86

papilloma, a wart

Front 87

intracutaneous cornifying epithelioma (keratoacanthoma) is a rare benign tumor of the dog with a predisposition in what breed?

Back 87

Norwegian Elkhound

Front 88

what does the adnexa include?

Back 88

hair follicle, hair, sebaceous and sweat gland(all arise from the basal cell)

Front 89

basal cell tumors is the _____- of the adnexal tumors

Back 89

most primitive

Front 90

___ is a common benign tumor of the dog arising from the hair follicle

Back 90

trichoepithelioma
(makes hair follicle and hair)

Front 91

____ is a rare benign tumor of the dog arising from the hair matrix

Back 91

pilomatricoma
(makes hair)

Front 92

sebaceous gland tumors are either ____ or _____

Back 92

adenoma or adenocarcinoma

Front 93

apocrine gland tumors include what?

Back 93

- sweat glands
- ceruminous glands of the external ear
- apocrine glands of the anal sac

Front 94

perianal gland tumors are usually benign and occur more commonly in ______

Back 94

male dogs

Front 95

____ is a benign tumor and occurs in dogs <2yrs of age

Back 95

histiocytoma
(arises from the Langerhans cell of the epidermis)

Front 96

T/F: mast cell tumors can be benign or malignant

Back 96

true

Front 97

____ is the malignant tumor of fibroblasts and is a common tumor of the cat

Back 97

fibrosarcoma

Front 98

sarcoid is a _____ tumor of the horse and is very common

Back 98

fibroblast tumor

Front 99

____ is a common benign tumor of the dog and arises from fat cells or adipocytes

Back 99

lipoma

Front 100

where does a plasma cell tumor occur in the dog?

Back 100

skin and oral cavity

Front 101

____ is a common benign tumor of the dog arising from vascular epithelium

Back 101

hemangioma
(hemangiosarcoma is the malignant form)

Front 102

_____ is dilation of the ventricles caused by obstruction within the ventricular system

Back 102

hydrocephalus

Front 103

what is porencephaly?

Back 103

formation of a fluid-filled cavity in the cerebrum caused by necrosis and loss of the nervous tissue

Front 104

hydranencephaly is a more severe form of porencephaly in which most of the _____ is lost and the lateral ventricles expand to fill the empty space

Back 104

white matter of the cerebrum

Front 105

what are 3 causes of porencephaly?

Back 105

- blue tongue virus in sheep
- border disease in sheep
- bovine virus diarrhea

Front 106

cerebellar hypoplasia is caused by an in utero infection with _____ in cattle or ____ in cats

Back 106

BVD and feline panleukopenia

Front 107

T/F: abiotrophy is atrophy of the cerebellum after the organ has attained normal size

Back 107

true

Front 108

what are two causes of copper deficiency in sheep?

Back 108

- swayback
- enzootic ataxia

Front 109

hypomyelinogenesis is a failure of ____ to develop and affected animals _____

Back 109

- myelin
- have tremors and shake at birth

Front 110

border disease in sheep causes hair shakers- what is this?

Back 110

animals that shake and have abnormal wool that is more like hair

Front 111

in spina bifida, what may protrude from the bony spine?

Back 111

meninges or spinal cord

Front 112

____ is dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord

Back 112

hydromyelia

Front 113

what is syringomyelia?

Back 113

formation of a syrinx or cavity in the spinal cord

Front 114

T/F: edema is usually not seen grossly

Back 114

true

Front 115

edema may be ____ or _____

Back 115

intercellular (vasogenic)
intracellular (cytotoxic)

Front 116

what are 3 causes of vasogenic/intercellular edema?

Back 116

- neoplasia
- inflammation
- trauma

Front 117

what are 3 causes of cytotoxic/intracellular edema?

Back 117

- salt toxicity
- lead toxicity
- hepatoencephalopathy

Front 118

why are the brain and spinal cord more sensitive to ischemia and emboli?

Back 118

the arterial supply to the brain is of the end artery type and there is marked reduction in luminal diameter as the vessels enter the parenchyma

Front 119

cats with ataxia, seizures, blindness, and behavioral changes could be suffering from what disease?

Back 119

feline ischemic encephalopathy

Front 120

emboli of disk material are called what?

Back 120

fibrocartilagenous emboli

Front 121

hemorrhage in the CNS can be in what three areas?

Back 121

- epidural
- subdural
- parenchyma

Front 122

what causes lysosomal storage diseases?

Back 122

inherited disease due to absence or deficiency of a single enzyme in a pathway of enzymes that break down cellular organelles with lysozomes

Front 123

what do you see microscopically in transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?

Back 123

clear vacuoles within neurons and the neuropil

Front 124

what are 4 examples of TSE diseases?

Back 124

- scrapie in sheep
- bovine spongiform encephalopathy
- kuru and jacob-creutzfeld in humans

Front 125

____ is dispersion of the nissl substance within neurons and gives the cytoplasm a ground glass appearance

Back 125

chromatolyses

Front 126

T/F: microscopic lesions but not gross lesions are seen in Wallerian degeneration

Back 126

true

Front 127

Wallerian degeneration is compression of the spinal cord causing degeneration of the _____ in the white matter and ____

Back 127

axons, loss of myelin

Front 128

what is the most important cause of spinal cord compression?

Back 128

herniation of the intervertebral disk

Front 129

what breeds are most susceptible to herniation of intervertebral disks?

Back 129

chondrodystrophoid breeds= dachshund and pekinese

Front 130

what is another term for wobbler syndrome in the horse (spinal cord compression)?

Back 130

cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy

Front 131

what is the most important toxin causing axonal degeneration?

Back 131

organophosphates

Front 132

an old german shepherd or horse comes in with progressive ataxia in all 4 limbs and posterior paresis- what do they have?

Back 132

degenerative myelopathy due to an unknown cause

Front 133

what do you see microscopically in necrotic neurons?

Back 133

neurons are shrunken and red instead of blue
(no gross lesions seen)

Front 134

____ is necrosis of the cerebral cortical gray matter

Back 134

polioencephalomalacia

Front 135

polioencephalomalacia is associated with ____ in cattle, ___ in pigs/ruminants and ____ in ruminants

Back 135

thiamine deficiency, salt poisoning, lead toxicity

Front 136

what cells are most sensitive to hypoxia and ischemia?

Back 136

- neurons of the cerebral cortex and hippocampus
- purkinje cells of the cerebellum

Front 137

a foal comes in soon after birth with seizures, convulsions, are wandering and failing to suckle- what happened to them?

Back 137

hypoxia and ischemia during dystocia caused neonatal maladjustment syndrome

Front 138

____ is necrosis of the white matter of the brain with softening

Back 138

leukoencephalomalacia

Front 139

a horse comes in with a sudden onset of staggering, weakness, circling, depression and head pressing- you are told he may have eaten some moldy corn infected with the fungus Fusarium- what does he now have?

Back 139

leukoencephalomalacia

Front 140

what does clostridium perfringens type D infection cause in sheep?

Back 140

enterotoxemia with hemorrhagic enteritis

Front 141

T/F: equine motor neuron disease is a degeneration and necrosis of the neurons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord

Back 141

true

Front 142

poliomyelomalacia in pigs is a necrosis of the ____ horn of the cervical and lumbar spinal cord caused by ______

Back 142

ventral horn
selenium toxicity

Front 143

what is a general response to injury in the CNS?

Back 143

pervascular cuffing

Front 144

bacterial infections typically produce meningitis, causing inflammation of what 3 areas?

Back 144

leptomeninges, pia, arachnoid

Front 145

bacteria may localize in two areas of the CNS causing what?

Back 145

choroiditis and ependymitis

Front 146

what is the most common source of bacterial infection in the CNS?

Back 146

hematogenous

Front 147

listeria in ruminants enters the brainstem from _____ and produces a purulent encephalitis with microabscesses

Back 147

the mouth along the cranial nerves

Front 148

a cow/sheep comes in with circling, depressed signs, head pressing, and paralysis of the 7th nerve causing unilateral drooping of the ear, lip or eyelid- what does this animal have?

Back 148

listeria

Front 149

what causes thrombotic meningoencephalitis in cattle?

Back 149

histophilus somni

Front 150

T/F: death is usually rapid with histophilus somni

Back 150

true

Front 151

T/F: viral infections of the CNS produce no gross lesoins but do have a characteristic set of microscopic lesions

Back 151

true

Front 152

what are characteristic lesions of viral infections of the CNS?

Back 152

- lymphocytic and plasma cell perivascular cuffing
- chromatolysis and necrosis of neurons
- glial nodules of microglia

Front 153

___ is caused by a rhabovirus and produces eosinophilic intracytoplasmic accumulations of virus called Negri bodies

Back 153

rabies

Front 154

pseudorabies is an important herpes virus occurring in what species?

Back 154

swine

Front 155

___ is a significant disease of horses caused by an arbovirus and transmitted by mosquitoes- paralysis develops and death within 1-2 days

Back 155

equine viral encephalitis

Front 156

retrovirus infection in sheep/goats is an unusual viral encephalomyelitis in that the lesions are ______

Back 156

predominantly demyelination with perivascular cuffs

Front 157

what causes canine distemper?

Back 157

a morbillivirus

Front 158

equine herpes virus 1 causes what?

Back 158

abortion!
- less often neurological disease

Front 159

___ if a flavivirus affecting BIRDS and horses causing lesions (poliomyelitis and encephalitis)

Back 159

west nile virus

Front 160

what kind of inflammation do fungal infections cause?

Back 160

granulomatous and pyogranulomatous inflammation
(no gross lesions)

Front 161

T/F: cryptococcus infection in the cat is the most important fungal disease in animals affecting the nervous system

Back 161

true

Front 162

T/F: gross lesions are usually not seen with parasite infections

Back 162

true

Front 163

equine protozoal myelitis in horses is caused by what?

Back 163

sarcocystis neurona

Front 164

______ is a common cause of paresis, paralysis and ataxia in sheep and llamas (nematode transmitted from the white tail deer)

Back 164

parelaphostrongylus tenuis

Front 165

halicephalobus deletrix is a free-living nematode that infects the ___, ____, and ___ of horses

Back 165

nasal cavity, brain, and kidney

Front 166

T/F: granulomatous meninoencephalitis in dogs produes no gross lesions

Back 166

true

Front 167

a dead horse comes in and on necropsy you see the nerves of the cauda equina are thick and discolored gray to brown due to hemorrhage- what's wrong with the horse?

Back 167

cauda equina neuritis

Front 168

what is the most common tumor of the glial cells?

Back 168

astrocytoma

Front 169

these tumors are usually in the 4th ventricle and very vascular and red grossly

Back 169

choroid plexus tumors

Front 170

___ is the most common tumor of the CNS seen in the dog and cat

Back 170

meningioma

Front 171

ependymoma is a rare tumors within the ventricle that is _____ (color) as opposed to the choroid plexus tumor which is red

Back 171

white, gray or tan

Front 172

what two rare tumors arise from primitive neurons and are seen most often in young animals in the medulla?

Back 172

neuroblastoma
medulloblastoma

Front 173

T/F: ganglioneuroma is a rare tumor of neurons in the PNS

Back 173

true

Front 174

what is another name for a peripheral nerve sheath tumor?

Back 174

schwannoma

Front 175

____ is a granuloma containing cholesterol and occurs in the lateral ventricle of the horse

Back 175

cholesterol granuloma

Front 176

____ is the formation of mineralized plaques in the dura of older dogs that often form bone

Back 176

dural ossification

Front 177

T/F: cholesterol granulomas and dural ossification are usually incidental findings

Back 177

true

Front 178

vesicular diseases are viral diseases in large animals that produce vesicles where?

Back 178

mouth and coronet

Front 179

____ is a picornavirus infection of pigs, cattle, sheep

Back 179

foot and mouth disease

Front 180

vesicular stomatitis is a ___ infection of horses, cattle, pigs

Back 180

rhabdovirus

Front 181

__ caused by a calici virus and ___ caused by an enterovirus are diseases that affect only pigs

Back 181

vesicular exanthema
sine vesicular disease

Front 182

a cat comes in with ulcers in its mouth that are short lived- what does it have?

Back 182

feline calici virus

Front 183

___ infection in primates is a fatal zoonotic disease in man and non-rhesus monkeys

Back 183

herpes B virus

Front 184

a dog/cat comes in with an autoimmune disease producing vesicles that quickly ulcerate- what does it have?

Back 184

pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid

Front 185

T/F: BVD is a pestivirus producing ulcers in the GIT (esophagus and SI)

Back 185

true

Front 186

in africa this disease is carried by wildebeest and carried by sheep in america

Back 186

malignant catarrhal fever

Front 187

blue tongue is an insect-transmitted orbivirus infection of ____

Back 187

sheep

Front 188

a dog/cat comes in with chronic renal fialure and ulcers on the tongue and in the stomach- what does it have?

Back 188

uremia

Front 189

T/F: eosinophilic granuloma complex is a group of 3 diseases affecting cats/dogs caused by a hypersensitivity rxn (parasites)

Back 189

true

Front 190

____ is a gram negative bacterial infection of fish and reptiles causing septicemia

Back 190

aeromonas

Front 191

___ is a pox virus infection of sheep and goats producing crusty lesions on the lips, face, feet

Back 191

contagious ecthyma

Front 192

a cow comes in PM with circular, slightly raised lesions in the mouth and esophagus- what does it have?

Back 192

bovine papular stomatitis
(incidental finding)

Front 193

this organism is a secondary invader following trauma to the mucosa dn produces ulcerative and caseous proliferative lesions in the mouth/larynx

Back 193

fusobacterium necrophorum

Front 194

actinobacillus and actinomyces cause what?

Back 194

wooden tongue and lumpy jaw

Front 195

a dog comes in with chronic periodontal disease and a proliferation of gingiva- what does it have?

Back 195

gingival hyperplasia

Front 196

T/F: melanoma occurs in the skin of horses, dogs, pigs, cats and the oral cavity of dogs

Back 196

true

Front 197

what is the most common tumor of the cat tongue?

Back 197

squamous cell carcinoma

Front 198

___ is a tumor of fibroblasts and occurs in the SQ of dogs/cats and the oral cavity of dogs

Back 198

fibrosarcoma

Front 199

___ resembles gingival hyperplasia and arises frmo the periodontal ligament

Back 199

epulis

Front 200

T/F: tooth germ tumors are rare tumors of the dog, cat, bovine occurring in the jaw

Back 200

true

Front 201

what are the two more common tooth germ tumors?

Back 201

ameloblastoma and odontoma

Front 202

____ is a failure to form enamel on the teeth

Back 202

enamel hypoplasia

Front 203

infection of young dogs with ___ while the permanent tooth is developing can produce enamel hypoplasia

Back 203

canine distemper

Front 204

enamel hypoplasia is seen in cattle feeding on pasture contaminated with ____

Back 204

flourine

Front 205

T/F: excessive tartar build-up on teeth can lead to periodontal diseaes and eventual tooth loss

Back 205

true

Front 206

what is a mucocele?

Back 206

a cyst that forms when a salivary duct ruptures and saliva accumulates in the adjacent soft tissue

Front 207

___ is inflammation of the salivary gland and is seen in the rat where is it caused by a corona virus

Back 207

sialoadenitis

Front 208

salivary gland adenocarcinoma is rare in the dog/cat and is usually a solitary nodular growth in the ____ region

Back 208

submandibular

Front 209

____ and ____ cause ulcers in the esophagus

Back 209

BVD and malignant catarrhal fever

Front 210

____ occurs occasionally in the horse when fed dry coarse feed, apples....

Back 210

choke

Front 211

what do proliferative lesions on the esophagus look like grossly?

Back 211

white to yellow caseous material that forms plaques on the mucosa

Front 212

a bird comes in with white to yellow caseous plaques on the mucosa of the oral cavity, crop, and esophagus- what does it have?

Back 212

avian pox

Front 213

T/F: hypovitaminosis A is a rare disease causing keratinization of the esophagus and internal glands

Back 213

true

Front 214

candida (thrush) is an opportunitistic ____ infection that occurs in immunocompromised animals

Back 214

yeast

Front 215

____ is a protozoan infection of the crop and esophagus in birds (pigeons)

Back 215

trichomonas

Front 216

this occurs in young dogs with a persistent right aortic arch

Back 216

megaesophagus

Front 217

___ of the stomach/intestinal wall can occur with hypoproteinemia

Back 217

edema

Front 218

edema disease in swine is an ___ infection that produces edema of the stomach, SQ, mesentery....

Back 218

E. coli

Front 219

what do chronic ulcers look like?

Back 219

depressed below the surface

Front 220

what is another name for stomach bots?

Back 220

gasterophilus larvae

Front 221

what are 3 common causes of gastric ulcers?

Back 221

- stress
- steroids
- NSAIDS

Front 222

what heavy metals will cause ulceration with hemorrhage in the abomasum and intestine of cattle?

Back 222

arsenic and mercury

Front 223

what can happen in a horse that engorges on grain?

Back 223

bloat
(excess carbs are fermented producing CO2 gas)

Front 224

what disease can occur in deep-chested breeds of dogs shortly after eating?

Back 224

gastric distension with volvulus

Front 225

what may be displaced in cattle at parturition and up to several weeks later?

Back 225

abomasum

Front 226

what are 2 diseases that can cause stomach rupture in horses?

Back 226

- colic from intestinal obstruction
- gastric distension from grain overload

Front 227

T/F: phytobezoars and trichobezoars are plant or hair balls that can be found in the stomach

Back 227

true

Front 228

hyperplasia occurs most commonly in the cattle with ____

Back 228

ostertagia

Front 229

a dog comes in with thickening/fibrosis of the stomach wall, a large ulcer in the mucosa, and a tumor that metastasizes- what does it have?

Back 229

gastric carcinoma

Front 230

where does squamous cell carcinoma in the horse occur?

Back 230

nonglandular stomach

Front 231

what does lymphoma in the dog look like?

Back 231

mass of homogeneous tan tissue in the stomach wall without fibrosis

Front 232

what does leiomyoma look like in the dog?

Back 232

discrete tan nodule in the stomach walal beneat the mucosa

Front 233

what infiltrates the stomach wall in eosinophilic gastroenteritis?

Back 233

eosinophils and fibrosis

Front 234

____ is a nematode parasite of the horse that burrows into the glandular stomach producing nodules with a central pore

Back 234

draschia megastoma
(incidental finding, no clinical signs)

Front 235

ingestion of certain ___ high in soluble protein can also produce bloat

Back 235

legumes

Front 236

what is a bloat line?

Back 236

a line of demarcation in the esophageal mucosa at the thoracic inlet

Front 237

___ is an important bacterial infection of large animals affecting the LI of horses/pigs and the SI of cattle

Back 237

salmonella

Front 238

where does BVD produce ulcers in cattle?

Back 238

over peyer's patches

Front 239

what is the most important cuase of ulcerative enteritis in reptiles?

Back 239

amoeba

Front 240

ulcerative enteritis is an important disease of young poultry and upland game birds caused by _____

Back 240

clostridium colinum

Front 241

necrotic enteritis in chickens is caused by _____

Back 241

clostrdium perfringens A

Front 242

what does DIC stand for?

Back 242

disseminated intravascular coagulation
(if you said 'death is coming', 0 points!)

Front 243

what occurs in DIC?

Back 243

clotting factors are used up leading to diffuse bleeding in organs and body cavities

Front 244

microscopically, this virus destroyes crypt epithelial cells leading to villous collapse adn ulceration

Back 244

parvovirus

Front 245

a cat comes in with no red or white cells in its bone marrow- what does it have?

Back 245

panleukopenia

Front 246

what nematode parasite in dogs produces hemorrhage in the intestine and can be seen grossly?

Back 246

hookworms

Front 247

T/F: clostridium perfringens types A and C are important bacterial infections of large animals in the first 2 wks of life

Back 247

true

Front 248

clostridium difficile causes hemorrhagic enteritis in ____

Back 248

foals

Front 249

a dead dairy cow comes in with hemorrhage and blood clots in the duodenum and jejunum- what did it die from?

Back 249

hemorrhagic bowel syndrome

Front 250

T/F: proximal enteritis in adult horses is a disease of unknown cause producing hemorrhage in the duodenum

Back 250

true

Front 251

T/F: coccidia can cause disease in heavy infections or show no lesions in small infections

Back 251

true

Front 252

___ is a bacterial infection of pigs causing marked thickening of the mucosa with necrosis and hemorrhage

Back 252

lawsonia intracellularis

Front 253

T/F: granulomatous enteritis of the horse involves the mucosa infiltrated with macrophages

Back 253

true

Front 254

___ is a bacterial infection of birds and occasionally mammals that reslts in thickning of the mucosa caused by granulomatous inflammation with acid-fast bacteria in macrophages

Back 254

mycobacterium avium

Front 255

___ in the chronic form of the disease in sheep produce focal 1-2mm raised plaques or nodules

Back 255

coccidia

Front 256

idiopathic muscular hypertrophy is an incidental finding in the horse and occurs where?

Back 256

distal ileum and esophagus

Front 257

what do you see grossly with chronic obstruction of hte intestinal lumen by a foreign body?

Back 257

thickened muscularis at the site

Front 258

an incidental finding in the horse with single/multiple lesions, red to brown plaques on the serosa near the ileum is what?

Back 258

hemomelasma ilei

Front 259

____ causes segmental thickening of the intesteinal wall

Back 259

lymphosarcoma

Front 260

___ are tumors of SM and produce a tan nodule in the intestinal wall beneath the mucosa

Back 260

leiomyoma/leiomyosarcoma

Front 261

adenocarcinoma produces an annular constricting band in the intestine because of what?

Back 261

abundant fibrous tissue produced by the tumor

Front 262

___ if a twist of the intestine on itself

Back 262

torsion

Front 263

___ is a twist on the mesenteric axis

Back 263

volvulus

Front 264

____ is a telescoping of the intestine into itself usually secondary to hypermotility frmo some other problem

Back 264

intussusception

Front 265

T/F: stangulation of the intestine occurs when the intestine is trapped by a band of CT

Back 265

true

Front 266

what is the usual cause of strangulation of the intestine in older horses?

Back 266

lipoma

Front 267

______ is an entrapment of the intestine in constricted openings

Back 267

hernia

Front 268

what are 3 causes of a hernia?

Back 268

- enlarged inguinal rings
- open umbilicus
- ruptured diaphragm

Front 269

when is E. coli infection most common in pigs, ruminants, foals?

Back 269

first week of life

Front 270

what 2 viruses destroy the epithelial cells on the villi leading to malabsorption and diarrhea?

Back 270

rotavirus and coronavirus

Front 271

this gram + bacteria causes diasease with a change of feed from poor to good quality in sheep

Back 271

clostridium perfringens type D

Front 272

____ is a dilation of the lacteals in the intestinal villi of hte dog resulting in malabsorption

Back 272

lymphangiectasia

Front 273

T/F: inflammatory bowel disease is an allergic enteritis in the dog and cat of unknown cause

Back 273

true

Front 274

___ if a parvovirus infection of the cat cuasing hypoplasia of all cell lines in the bone marrow and necrosis of the intestinal crypts

Back 274

panleukopenia

Front 275

ulcerative colitis in ___ (breed) dogs is also called histiocytic ulcerative colitis and has macrophages in the mucosa

Back 275

boxers

Front 276

____ is a bacterial infection of primates producing an ulcerative and sometimes hemorrhagic colitis

Back 276

shigella

Front 277

a bacterial infection that effects the colon in the horse and the SI in the cattle is what?

Back 277

salmonella

Front 278

swine dysentery is a colitis of pigs caused by the bacteria ____

Back 278

brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Front 279

_____ is a bacterial infection of primates and rodents that produces multifocal fibrinonecrotic colitis

Back 279

yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Front 280

histomonas meleagridis is a protozoan infection of turkeys transmitted by what?

Back 280

the cecal worm heterakis gallinae

Front 281

trichuria are ____ and affect the cecum and colon of the pig and dog

Back 281

whipworms

Front 282

what are 3 causes of fibrinous colitis in the horse?

Back 282

- heavy infections of small strongyles
- oral AB
- NSAIDS

Front 283

____ is a disease in the horse caused by clostridia, produces hemorrhage and edema in the colon wall but no blood in the feces

Back 283

colitis X

Front 284

____ usually occurs in small animals tha tingest poisons containing anticoagulants like warfarin and brodifacourn

Back 284

anticoagulant toxicosis

Front 285

johne's disease in ruminants is a bacterial infection caused by _____

Back 285

mycobacterium avium ss paratuberculosis

Front 286

what are 3 neoplasia that can occur in the colon?

Back 286

- lymphoma
- adenocarcinoma
- leiomyoma

Front 287

____ is an obstruction of the colon and is caused by feces in small animals and coarse feel or FB in large animals

Back 287

impaction

Front 288

____ are mineralized concretions that build in size over time until they cause impaction of the large colon in horses

Back 288

enteroliths

Front 289

dilation of the colon can occur secondary to ____ in some dogs

Back 289

spinal disc disease

Front 290

what occurs in atresia coli?

Back 290

the colon ends in a blind sac somewhere before the anus

Front 291

atresia ani

Back 291

there is no anus

Front 292

what do you see grossly with potomac horse fever?

Back 292

colon is filled with watery content and the mucosa has patchy congestion with no ulcers, fibrin or hemorrhage

Front 293

____ is the accumulation of clear, yellow flkuid in the abdomen

Back 293

ascites

Front 294

chronic liver disease results in extensive fibrosis in the liver producing what?

Back 294

portal hypertension and ascites

Front 295

heart failure leads to what?

Back 295

passive congestion in the liver and ascites

Front 296

____ is blood in the abdomen and usually occurs secondary to trauma

Back 296

hemoperitoneum

Front 297

traumatic reticuloperitonitis causes what?

Back 297

fibrinous peritonitis

Front 298

a ruptured urinary bladder occurs when the urethra is blocked with ____

Back 298

mineral deposits

Front 299

free urine in the abdomen incite a ____

Back 299

fibrinous peritonitis

Front 300

feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) is a corona virus in cats causing a _____

Back 300

high protein fluid to form in body cavities along with fibrin

Front 301

T/F: fat necrosis is when necrotic fat becomes mineralized and appears as firm, chalky, yellow to brown plaques or nodules

Back 301

true

Front 302

vitamin E deficiency in cats causes fat necrosis of the ___, ____ and _____

Back 302

SQ, omentum, and mesentery

Front 303

pancreatitis in the dog/cat leads to a leakage of ____ from the pancreas and this causes necrosis of the mesenteric fat around the pancreas

Back 303

enzymes

Front 304

idiopathic fat necrosis occurs in the mesentery of what two breeds of cattle?

Back 304

jersey and guernsey

Front 305

fescue toxicosis in cattle causes fat necrosis in the ____

Back 305

mesenteric fat

Front 306

____ occur in the mesentery of aged horses, the blood supply is occluded and the fat becomes necrotic and mineralized

Back 306

lipomas

Front 307

what does chronic peritonitis look like when it resolves?

Back 307

peritoneum has fribrous tags and will appear shaggy
(intestine may also adhere to itself or other organs)

Front 308

mesothelioma, a rare neoplasm of mesothelial cells, occurs most commonly in ____ as a congenital disease or in _____

Back 308

calves, adult dog

Front 309

what does FIP look like grossly?

Back 309

small white plaques on the mesentery and/or nodules in the abdominal organs

Front 310

what breed of dogs does hypoplasia of the pancreas involve?

Back 310

young german shepherds

Front 311

what is the cause of acute pancreatitis in dogs?

Back 311

unknown cause!

Front 312

acute pancreatitis causes ___ and ___

Back 312

necrosis and hemorrhage

Front 313

how does the pancreas heal in chronic pancreatitis?

Back 313

by scarring- pale tan, firm, and nodular

Front 314

adenomas and adenocarcinomas occur in what portions of the pancreas?

Back 314

endocrine and exocrine

Front 315

___ of the exocrine tissue of the pancreas occurs as an incidental finding in aged dogs and cats

Back 315

hyperplasia

Front 316

why does the liver color change to pale tan or brown?

Back 316

modest amts of fat or glycogen within the liver cells
(nutritional or metabolic disease)

Front 317

what does a yellow liver mean?

Back 317

large amts of fat within the liver
(often soft)

Front 318

what does a green liver mean?

Back 318

excess bile accumulation and results in icterus (yellow color of the tissues)

Front 319

what does a red or red-brown liver mean?

Back 319

congestion- common change seen in most livers at necropsy

Front 320

T/F: the individual lobules of the liver that are not visible grossly normally will become visible with disease processes affecting a specific areas of the lobule

Back 320

true

Front 321

what is the most common cause of a lobular pattern in the liver?

Back 321

passive congestion (heart failure)

Front 322

____ may cause a lobular pattern to the liver by causing hypoxia to the centrilobular cells

Back 322

anemia

Front 323

___ may accumulate in the centrilobular area producing a lobular pattern to the liver

Back 323

lipid

Front 324

what are 3 cases of hepatotoxin damaging centrilobular hepatocytes?

Back 324

- drugs
- toxic plants
- chemicals

Front 325

T/F: cholangitis is an uncommon bacterial infection of th eliver- may be normal or have a lobular pattern

Back 325

true

Front 326

what does the liver look like with a mosaic pattern?

Back 326

large red and yellow areas in the liver that give it a mottled or mosaic pattern
(severe with large lesions than lobular)

Front 327

massive necrosis of whole hepatic lobules can be dose dependent, with small doses causing a ___ pattern and large doses causing a ___ pattern

Back 327

lobular, mosaic

Front 328

what do infectious diseases look like in the liver?

Back 328

- multiple random foci of necrosis or nodules within the liver
- lesions are yellow, white, tan, flat/raised

Front 329

T/F: hepatocellular carcinoma in the dog is brown with yellow areas of fat and red areas of hemorrhage

Back 329

true

Front 330

____ in the cat liver is a single discrete nodule that is often cystic and contains green or clear fluid

Back 330

biliary adenoma

Front 331

what does liver adenocarcinoma in the dog look like?

Back 331

multiple firm, white nodules with depressed centers

Front 332

why do metastatic carcinomas and sarcomas occur commonly in the liver?

Back 332

this is a common site of mestasis of many tumors

Front 333

____ is a primary tumor of the liver in the dogs occurring as multiple, red nodules and blood-filled cysts

Back 333

hemangiosarcoma

Front 334

T/F: nodule hyperplasia is an incidental finding in the aged dog- solitary, discrete nodle that is soft/tan due to fat accumulation

Back 334

true

Front 335

T/F: the liver has a remarkable capacity to regenerate itself

Back 335

true

Front 336

how much liver can be surgically removed with complete regeneration of the liver to its original shape/size?

Back 336

up to 2/3

Front 337

in most liver disease, the architectural framework is disrupted and hepatocytes regenerate forming ____

Back 337

regenerative nodules

Front 338

what is the term when nodular regeneration occurs with fibrosis in the liver?

Back 338

cirrhosis

Front 339

what does chronic hepatitis look like grossly?

Back 339

liver is misshapen and has many nodules (cirrhosis)

Front 340

why is the healing phase of massive necrosis of the liver rarely seen?

Back 340

animals do not survive

Front 341

during a PM you notice the liver retains its shape but is congested with a lobular pattern- what did this animal die from?

Back 341

chronic heart failure producing chronic passive congestion

Front 342

_____ is a rare disease of the liver caused by a bacterial infection in the biliary tract- firm with a lobular pattern

Back 342

chronic cholangitis

Front 343

____ is a congenital or acquired shunting of the portal blood around the liver bypassing the liver

Back 343

portosystemic shunt

Front 344

what does a portosystemic shunt do to the liver?

Back 344

shunting of the blood leads to atrophy of the liver cells and a small liver

Front 345

when dooes distended firm bile ducts occur in cattle and sheep?

Back 345

with liver flukes

Front 346

what can cause hemorrhage in the gall bladder?

Back 346

bleeding disorders
(DIC or anticoagulant toxicosis)

Front 347

T/F: fibrinous cholecystitis occurs in salmonella infections of cattle but may not be seen in all cases

Back 347

true

Front 348

when do you see thick, viscous, opaque bile in the gall bladder?

Back 348

anorexia of a few days duration

Front 349

____ is an uncommon, incidental finding of unknown cause in dogs with mucosa containing numerous small cysts or large, papillary or nodular growths

Back 349

cystic hyperplasia