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712 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the most common cause of acquired, physical etiology?

Trauma

Macule

a discolored spot on the skin or mucosa that isn't elevated above the surface

Papule

small, circumscribed, superficial, solid elevation of the skin or mucosa, measuring less than 1.0mm in diameter

Plaque

a small, circumscribed, superficial, solid elevation of the skin or mucosa, equal to or greater than 1.0mm in diameter

Wheal

smooth, slightly elevated area on the skin which is redder or paler than the surrounding area; usually associated w/ itchiness (pruritus)

Nodule

a small, protruding bump that is felt on the surface of an organ, skin or mucosa

Mass

a collection of solid tissue; may be sessile or pedunculated; endophytic or exophytic; very general term; anything that's a big collection of tissue

Cyst

an epithelial line cavity that appears as a mass; it is a type of mass that is closed

Vesicle

a clear, fluid-filled blister that is less than 5mm in diameter

Bulla

a clear, fluid-filled blister that is greater than 5mm in diameter

Pustule

a visible collection of pus within or beneath the epithelium

Ulcer

a local defect of the surface of an organ or tissue, which is produced by the sloughing of inflammatory necrotic tissue

Leukoplakia

a white area on the oral mucosa that will not rub off

Erythroplakia

an erythematous (red) area on the mucosa

Sclerosis

an indurated or hardened piece of tissue or organ

Pathognomonic

a particular sign whose presence means that a particular disease is present beyond any doubt; diagnostic quality

What is the pathognomonic sign of Erythema multiform

Target lesion; the defining feature of this disease

What is the Diagnostic Sequence for Differential Diagnosis

1. Chief complaint


2. History of Present Illness (duration of process)


3. Medical, social, family histories


4. Complete clinical examination


5. Evaluation and classification of disease/lesion


6. Develop list of differential diagnoses


7. Develop working or tentative diagnosis


8. Lab and special exams


9. Formulate final diagnosis


10. Tx plan and Tx

What is the Pathogenesis of a disease

Sequence of events in cells or tissues in response to the etiologic agents from the initial stimulus to the functional and structural abnormalities that characterize the disease

What are the four adaptive responses that cells can have to stress

Atrophy


Hypertrophy


Hyperplasia


Metaplasia

What are the two characteristics that determine a cell type's stress/adaptive responses

Ability to turnover


Regenerative capacity

What is a cell's adaptive response if it has high turnover ability and high regenerative capacity

Hyperplasia - still divide and replace cells

What cells of the body adaptively respond to stress with hyperplasia (have high turnover)

Bone marrow


Epithelium


Hepatocytes


Fibroblasts


Oral cavity tissues (buccal mucosa, tongue)

What cells of the body exhibit low turnover and are responsive to stimuli

Endothelium (blood vessel lining)


Supportive cells (in bone, cartilage, smooth muscle)

What cells of the body exhibit little or no ability to turnover

Neurons


Skeletal myocytes


Cardiac myocytes

Atrophy

loss of cellular organelles and cellular size



(a reversible and adaptive response of cell to reduce mass of its functional cytoplasm by decreasing number/volume of organelles; decrease in cell size and then cell number)

What is involution of the uterus after birth an example of

Physiologic Atrophy (due to loss of hormonal stimulation after parturition)

What is the loss of secondary sex characteristics with age an example of

Physiologic atrophy (due to decrease in hormonal stimulation)

What is decrease in muscle size of your calf after breaking your ankle an example of

Pathologic atrophy (due to reduced functional demand)

What has happened to the myocytes on the right slide if the cells on the left are normal

What has happened to the myocytes on the right slide if the cells on the left are normal

Cells in the center have atrophied due to reduced functional demand (Pathologic Reversible Atrophy)

Is it possible to reverse physiologic or pathologic atrophy

Yes, you can reverse either through hypertrophy

What has happened to the myocytes on the right if the myocytes on the left are normal

What has happened to the myocytes on the right if the myocytes on the left are normal

Neurogenic atrophy (due to loss of innervation); Some myocytes have atrophied and some have hypertrophied (a compensatory mechanism)



atrophy --> hypertrophy of adjacent tissue

Autophagy

not getting an adequate supply of nutrients/O2 so cells respond by using less energy/use own energy

What are the possible causes of pathologic atrophy

Reduced functional demand


Loss of innervation


Inadequate supply of O2


Inadequate nutrition


Loss of endocrine stimulation (testicular, breast)


Aging (senile atrophy - brain/heart)

What are the possible causes of physiologic atrophy

Developmental change (thymus)


Physiologic change (uterus after parturition)


Aging change (involution of secondary sex traits)

What has happened to these muscle cells

What has happened to these muscle cells

Irreversible/Extreme atrophy after long period of immobilization; cell loss/death; white areas = fat inside muscle that was washed away

What are the mechanisms of atrophy

Decreased protein synthesis


Increased protein degradation (ubiquitin ligase activation, proteasome digestion)


Organelle recycling via Autophagy


Cell death (extreme)

What is the mechanism that underlies atrophy

Autophagy - self-eating

What is hypertrophy

increase in organelle/cell SIZE



(increase in cell size leading to increase in organ size due to increase in organelle number/size; result of increased functional demand, hormonal stimulation; can be physiologic or pathologic; reversible if stimulus removed)

What are the possible causes of hypertrophy

Increased functional demand (lifting weights)


Hormonal stimulation (increase in uterus size during pregnancy)

What are the mechanisms behind hypertrophy

Increased protein synthesis

What can happen to the heart as a result of systemic hypertension

Hypertrophy; (increased functional demand due to HTN leads to heart muscle hypertrophy in order to get blood to the system, which eventually leads to reduced functionality b/c of too much demand on the heart and CHF)

What has happened to these cardiac myocytes from the top slide to the bottom slide and why

What has happened to these cardiac myocytes from the top slide to the bottom slide and why

Hypertrophy; the cells on the bottom are larger and the nuclei are farther apart; due to increased functional demand

Hyperplasia

increase in cell NUMBER



(due to proliferation; cell growth both physiologic and pathologic; it is a controlled process, even if proliferation is abnormal; cells respond to a signal; when the signal is gone cells will stop proliferation; it is NOT cancer, but you do have increased risk of cancer)

What two adaptive stress responses does the uterus undergo during pregnancy

What two adaptive stress responses does the uterus undergo during pregnancy

Hypertrophy and Hyperplasia (increase in cell size and increase in cell number)

Neoplasia

Uncontrolled proliferation of cell number; CANCER; you have increased risk of this with hyperplasia

What are the possible causes of hyperplasia

Hormonal Stimulation (uterus during pregnancy, lactating breast)


Compensatory (blood donation, liver regeneration)


Excessive Hormonal Stimulation (pathologic; benign prostatic hyperplasia)


Excessive Growth Factor Stimulation

What has happened to these prostate cells

What has happened to these prostate cells

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia; pathologic; NOT cancer, but increased risk of cancer; expanded glandular elements; uneven hyperplastic growth areas (the whole tissue is not enlarged evenly like in lactating breast hyperplasia)

Metaplasia

replacement/reprogramming of cells



(replace of one adult cell type with another through an adaptive process - reprogram stem cells of normal tissue; reversible to an extent)

What are the possible causes of metaplasia

Chronic Irritation (smoker's tracheal epithelium, esophagus w/ GERD)


Vitamin A deficiency (essential for bronchial epithelium)

What adaptive cellular response often occurs to the tracheal epithelium of smokers or those with a Vitamin A deficiency

Metaplasia; changed from ciliated columnar epithelium with functional goblet cells and cilia to stratified squamous epithelium (tougher but lacks functionality - more prone to infections of the lung)

What adaptive cellular response has occurred from the esophageal epithelium on the left to that on the right

What adaptive cellular response has occurred from the esophageal epithelium on the left to that on the right

Metaplasia due to GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease); change from normal stratified squamous epithelium to epithelium that looks like glandular lining of the gut



can lead to Barrett's esophagitis if left untreated


Tx with Prilosec

What is chondroplasia

Type of metaplasia where you have cartilagnious growth in place of normal tissue; e.g. - extra growth on gingiva when you remove denture (cartilaginous growth); chronic irritation from denture makes tissue that's stronger

What are intracellular accumulations

cells deal with materials they're unable to eliminate by intracellular digestion

What are the possible causes of intracellular accumulations

Abnormal metabolism (fatty liver in alcoholism - fat accumulates inside cells)


Defect in Protein Processing (accumulation of proteins)


Lack of Enzyme Processing (accumulation of endogenous materials)


Ingestion of Indigestible materials (anthracosis - breathe in CO2 - coalminers - black lung)

What has caused to the normal liver cells on the left to change them to those on the right in someone with chronic alcoholism/alcohol poisoning

What has caused the normal liver cells on the left to change to those on the right in someone with chronic alcoholism/alcohol poisoning

Intracellular Accumulations/Fatty Change/Steatosis



triglyceride accumulation in parenchymal cells; appears as clear vacuoles in the cells

What has occurred here to the macrophages in smooth muscle in someone with atherosclerosis

What has occurred here to the macrophages in smooth muscle in someone with atherosclerosis

Intracellular Accumulations - phagocytic cells ingesting cholesterol but it cant be digested; clear cells formed with nuclei and nothing else; left with foam cells - major contributor to atherosclerosis

What are four pigments that frequently accumulate in cells - intracellular accumulation

1) Carbon - exogenous pigment; anthracosis



Endogenous:


2) Melanin (from oxidation of tyrosine in melanocytes; brown-black)


3) Lipofuscin ("wear and tear" - golden-brown; increases with age; in terminally differentiated, neuron, or infrequently cycling cells, hepatocyte)


4) Hemosiderin (excess iron - yellow/brown)

What are five common types of intracellular accumulations

1) Fatty Change (steatosis; triglycerides)


2) Protein (Russell Bodies - IgG accumulation in plasma cells; hyaline change)


3) Glycogen (hyperglycemic/uncontrolled diabetes)


4) Inherited lysosomal storage disease (incomplete breakdown of complex lipids b/c of lysosomal enzyme issues - Gaucher (cerebrosides), Tay-Sachs (gangliosides), Hunter diseases (mucopolysaccharides)


5) Pigments

What are heat-shock proteins

stress proteins made to help protect the cell from a particular stress (heat, oxidants, etc); some help to re-fold denatured proteins, some unfold proteins to allow transport into organelles; limits tissue necrosis by rescuing cells



Examples:


chaperones = folding proteins


ubiquitin - facilitates degradation of proteins denatured beyond repair

What three things cause Cellular Aging

1) DNA damage (ROS - oxidative stress; mutations in DNA repair enzymes)


2) Decreased replicative capacity/Cellular Senescence (telomere length/reduced telomerase activity)


3) Defective protein homeostasis (unfolded protein /ER/integrated stress response activated w/ defective protein folding - lose this with age)

What are three possible ways to reverse cellular aging

1) Reduce insulin/IGF signaling (stop eating)


2) Reduce activation of kinases (TOR and AKT)


3) Activation of Deacetylase



Increased metabolism leads to aging

What is a reversible injury

Injury where you can remove the injurious agent and the cell returns to normal

What is an irreversible injury

Cell does not return to normal after an injurious stimulus; either necrosis or apoptosis occurs

Ischemia

Loss of blood supply

Which cell death pathway stimulates an inflammatory response: necrosis or apoptosis

Necrosis - always pathologic and stimulates inflammatory response



(apoptosis can be pathologic or physiologic - does NOT stimulate an inflammatory response)

What are the steps of a reversible injury

1) ER and mitochondrial swelling, chromatin condense, form membrane blebs, form myelin figures


2) Recovery (when injurious stimulus removed)

What are the steps of an irreversible injury that leads to necrosis

1) ER and mitochondrial swelling, chromatin condense, form membrane blebs


2) Myelin figures form (phospholipid growths), amorphous densities in mitochondria, lysosome releases proteases


3)Plasma membrane ruptures, Nucleus contents leak (Cell death/Necrosis) - causes inflammatory response

What are the steps of an irreversible injury that leads to apoptosis

1) NO SWELLING; chromatin condense, form membrane blebs; cell SHRINKS


2)Cellular fragmentation - form apoptotic bodies (Apoptosis)


3) Apoptotic fragments Phagocytosed - NO inflammatory response

What are the possible causes of Cell Injury

Oxygen deficiency/Hypoxia


Chemical agents


Physical agents


Nutritional Imbalances


Infectious agents


Immunological reactions


Genetic factors


Aging

What is the one cause of Cell Injury that usually results in apoptosis rather than necrosis

Genetic factors

What is the most important cause of hypoxia

Ischemica (loss of blood supply) causes hypoxia (oxygen deficiency)

What three factors about a cell injury does the cellular response depend on

Type


Duration


Severity

How does ischemia effect the skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle differently

2-3 hr for skeletal muscle cell injury could be reversible; 20-30 mins for cardiac muscle cells is irreversible

What are the four main mechanisms behind cell injury and do they result in necrosis or apoptosis

Result in Necrosis:


1. Mitochondrial damage - ability to generate ATP and ROS


2. Disturbance to Ca++ homeostasis


3. Membrane damage (plasma, mitochondrial, lysosomal)



4. Genetic damage; DNA damage and misfolding of proteins (only one that can result in apoptosis)

What are the two major effects of mitochondrial damage that result in cellular necrosis

Decrease in ATP generation


Improper control of ROS

What two injurious effects result from increase in Ca++ entry/disturbances in Ca++ homeostasis

1) Increased mitochondrial permeability (decreased ATP production)


2) Activation of multiple cellular enzymes (membrane damage, nuclear damage, decreased ATP production)

What results from plasma membrane damage and what results from lysosomal membrane damage

Plasma membrane damage - loss of cellular components



Lysosomal membrane damage - enzymatic digestion of cellular components

What is the name of the major event that causes mitochondrial damage, and in extreme cases, necrosis

Ischemia (loss of blood supply)/Hypoxia (decreased oxygen supply) - mitochondria need nutrients/O2 to function

What are three main examples of ROS

superoxide anion (O2-)


hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)


hydroxyl anion (OH-)

What is formed as a natural byproduct of normal metabolism of oxygen, but can damage the cell if not properly controlled

Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS)

When does a phagosome form, how, and what is its funtion

Formed in response to bacterial infection; forms when a neutrophil engulfs bacteria; contains phagocyte (NADPH) oxidase, which generates radicals that kill the microbes in the phagosome

What is the process of a phagosome (ROS) killing microbes known as

Respiratory/oxidative burst

How are the ROS from phagocytic leukocytes (phagosomes) different from the ROS in mitochondria

Phagosome ROS function is to kill microbes


Mitochondria ROS function is to produce energy

Under what circumstances and how do ROS cause tissue injury

Depends on rate of production and rate of removal

How are ROS's normally removed

By several enzymes in the mitochondria; eventually all converted to either H2O2 or H2O and then removed

What are three different ways that free radicals cause injury

1. Lipid peroxidation - membrane damage


2. Protein damage - breakdown, misfolding


3. DNA strand breaks - mutations, breaks

What is it called when you observe small, clear vacuoles in the cytoplasm and cell swelling; is this reversible or irreversible

Hydropic Swelling/Vacuolar degeneration; Reversible

What is it called when you see lipid vacuoles in the cytoplasm and what cells does this typically occur in; is this reversible or irreversible

Fatty change; occurs in cells that have fat metabolism, like hepatocytes and myocardial cells; Reversible

What are the names of the two processes that have occurred in these liver slides (normal liver is leftmost slide)

What are the names of the two processes that have occurred in these liver slides from a reversible injury (normal liver is leftmost slide)

Hydropic Swelling and Fatty Change

What are the distinguishing features of cells that have undergone reversible injury (as opposed to normal cells and cells undergoing irreversible injury)

Normal cells - homogenous, uniform spaces, nuclei and cell size



Reversible injury cells - empty spaces due to water/fluid, membrane blebs, lots of protein, cells swollen/larger



Irreversible injury cells - plasma membrane wouldn't be intact

What are distinguishing morphological traits of a reversible cell injury manifested at the organ level

Increased weight (Swollen/larger) - fluid accumulation in many cells


Pallor (Lighter color) - cells compressing on capillaries so blood supply compromised

What has occurred to this kidney

What has occurred to this kidney

Reversible cell injury at organ level - increased weight (larger) and change in pallor (lighter)

Damage to what parts of the cell signal that the damage is no longer reversible, and now irreversible

Mitrochondrial or plasma membranes

What two major things make a cell injury irreversible

Mitochondria damage


Plasma membrane ruptured

What are the three types of Nuclear/DNA breakdown that indicate cell death

Karyolysis


Karyorrhexis


Pyknosis

What is karyolysis

Nucleus has undergone lysis and no contents are observed; indicates cell death

What is karyorrhexis

Fragmentation of DNA within the nucleus; indicates cell death

What is pyknosis

Nucleus becomes smaller and stains very dark; indicates cell death

In which of the following instances is the cell dead: pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis

Cell is dead in all cases

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #1

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #1

Pyknosis (small cell and nucleus)

What nuclear status is depicted in cells #2

What nuclear status is depicted in cells #2

Karyorrhexis (DNA present but fragmented)

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #3

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #3

Normal; Alive

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #4

What nuclear status is depicted in cell #4

Karyolysis; no DNA

Three different states of kidney tubules are depicted. Describe each one

Three different states of kidney tubules are depicted. Describe each one

Left: Normal


Center: Reversible Injury (membranes still intact, swelling, lots of protein, empty spaces/fluid)


Right: Irreversible Injury (most cells in karyolysis - no nuclei; segment of kidney is dying)

What is the type of necrosis most commonly associated with hypoxia

Coagulative necrosis

What are two causes of hypoxia aside from ischemia

1. Hypoxemia - deficient oxygenation of blood


2. Hemoglobin problems

What is a localized area of coagulative necrosis due to loss of blood supply called

Infarct (ischemic necrosis)

What is a defining structural feature of coagulative necrosis

Architecture/structure remains intact (ex: can still tell kidney tubules are tubules in coagulative necrosis); can occur in any tissue except brain tissue

What has happened to this kidney

What has happened to this kidney

Coagulative necrosis; in white, triangular area, pale and firm, tissue retains basic outline

What has happened to the right side of this slide if the left is normal kidney tubules

What has happened to the right side of this slide if the left is normal kidney tubules

Coagulative necrosis: Right shows tubules missing nuclei, but can still determine the architecture of the cells/tubule



Left shows normal part of kidney with glomeruli, tubules, and neutrophils

What has happened to the white area of this heart

What has happened to the white area of this heart

Coagulative necrosis - due to occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting ischemia; white area is dead tissue

What type of necrosis involves the complete digestion of tissue; autolysis and heterolysis

Liquefactive Necrosis; occurs following microbial infection and also in brain tissue/infarct

In which type of necrosis is the tissue no longer recognizable: Coagulative or Liquefactive

Liquefactive - tissue converted into a semi-liquid mass

Which type of necrosis is often associated with microbial infection and a strong inflammatory stimulus

Liquefactive

What is the difference between neutrophil function in Coagulative vs liquefactive necrosis

Coagulative - neutrophils remove dead cells and then repair tissue



Liquefactive - neutrophils release proteolytic enzymes and ROS and liquefy the tissue, you form an abscess

In what type of necrosis do you form an abscess

Liquefactive

What type of necrosis is pictured here

What type of necrosis is pictured here

Liquefactive - VERY strong inflammatory response

What type of necrosis is pictured here

What type of necrosis is pictured here

Liquefactive - VERY strong inflammatory response

What is wrong with this lung

What has occurred to this lung tissue

Liquefactive necrosis - has many abscesses

What two types of necrosis does gangrene include

Coagulative - on bottom (dry)


Liquefactive - on top (wet)

What part of gangrenous necrosis is associated with a foul smell

Wet gangrene - liquefactive necrosis with bacteria

What condition is depicted here and what disorder does it often result from

What condition is depicted here and what disorder does it often result from

Gangrene (dry)


Diabetes

What characteristics describe caseous necrosis

Immune injury; seen in granulomatous diseases (Tb and some fungal infections); cheese-like, white appearance; has a necrotic center enclosed within a granuloma; tissue architecture obliterated

What condition is shown here

What condition is shown here resulting from tuberculosis

Caseous necrosis

What type of necrosis is shown here and in what tissue type does it occur

What type of necrosis is shown here and in what tissue type does it occur

Caseous necrosis; in lung tissue; pictured are lung alveoli; large pink areas are granulomas with necrotic center

Why is fibrinoid necrosis not actually a type of necrosis

cell death doesn't occur; walls of arteries are damaged, allows plasma proteins to leak out; associated with immune injury and malignant HTN

What type of necrosis only occurs in fat tissue and what is the mechanism behind it

Fat Necrosis


Results from injury that releases lipases that attack the plasma membranes of fat cells, hydrolyze triglycerides yielding free fatty acids, become calcium soaps


usually associated w/ pancreatitis

What are the two types of pathologic calcification and where do they occur

Dystrophic


Metastatic



Occur in necrotic tissue

Where does dystrophic calcification occur and how does it occur

locally, at areas of necrosis


in presence of normal calcium-phosphorous metabolism; interferes w/ normal organ fxn


formation of calcium phosphate mineral (similar to bone)

Where does metastatic calcification occur and how does it occur

in normal tissue, when there's hypercalcemia (e.g. - in hyperparathyroidism)


occurs globally/not at one site


formation of calcium phosphate mineral (similar to bone)

What materials are released into the surroundings/ECM in apoptosis

NOTHING; everything remains contained within apoptotic bodies then macrophages come to phagocytose the bodies

Can necrosis and apoptosis be: physiologic, pathologic or either

Necrosis - only pathologic


Apoptosis - can be physiologic or pathologic

What are the physiologic causes of apoptosis

Embryogenesis


Involution of hormone-dependent tissues


Elimination of cells that served their purpose


Removal of potentially self-reactive lymphocytes


Killing of virus infected and neoplsatic cells by cytotoxic T cells

What are the pathologic causes of apoptosis

Cells damaged beyond repair (DNA damage and Misfolded proteins)

What is involved in the extrinsic pathway of Apoptosis

death-receptor initiated; cell surface receptors TNF and Fas ligand activated, activated adapter proteins, activate caspase cascade (eventually results in formation of apoptotic bodies)

What is involved in the intrinsic pathway of Apoptosis

mitochondrial pathway; activated by cell injury, activates Bcl-2 family, activates Bax and Bak (regulated by Bcl-2 and Bcl-x), interact w/ mitochondria to increase permeability, releases cytochrome C and pro-apoptotic proteins, both activate parts of caspase cascade (eventually results in formation of apoptotic bodies)

What is the result of the caspase cascade

Initiator caspases activated, then executioner caspases activated, then endonucleases activated which results in DNA fragmentation AND cytoskeleton breakdown (eventually results in formation of apoptotic bodies)

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation

Redness


Swelling


Pain


Heat


Loss of Function

What are the two responses involved in inflammation, which comes first

Vascular then Cellular

What is the most common and most important cause of inflammation

Infection (bacterial)

What must tissue be in order to undergo inflammation

Living

What are the two most important reasons for inflammation

Control Infection (destroy and eliminate cause/remove dead tissue)


Initiate wound healing

What is the purpose of inflammation when caused by bacteria versus necrotic tissue

Bacteria - destroy and eliminate


Necrotic tissue - remove dead tissue

What are two reasons why inflammation might backfire and hurt the host, give clinical examples

Reaction too powerful (bacterial meningitis, staph pneumonia)



Inappropriate response (hay fever, asthma, anaphylaxis, arthritis, autoimmune diseases)

What are the steps that occur during the vascular phase of inflammation

Injury/Stimulus


Transient, reflex vasoconstriction


Vasodilation (due to mast cells/histamines)


Increased blood flow (through arterioles)


THEN


Increased blood volume (hyperemia) - leads to redness and heat


AND


Increased vascular permeability (to protein) Edema/Exudate in extravas spaces - leads to swelling

What cells are most important during the vascular response of inflammation

Mast cells

What cells predominate the cellular phase of inflammation

Neutrophils

What role do mast cells play in inflammation

Activated almost immediately by anything that causes inflammation; have granules, histamines, and leukotrienes and release contents VERY rapidly - cause vasodilation and increase vascular permeability

Why are women more likely to develop gingivitis when pregnant than when not

Increased hormonal effect; hormones cause an increase in bacteria in gingival crevices

What is the difference in blood flow in microvascular beds in normal versus inflamed tissue

Normal - blood flow is intermittent; arteriolar/pre-capillary sphincters normally opening and closing in response to mediators



Inflamed - sphincters remain open, blood volume increases (active hyperemia)

What is it called when more blood is brought to an affected area due to dilation of arterioles

Hyperemia

What does Starling's Law explain and what is the purpose

Exchange of substances between blood and tissues:



Hydrostatic Pressure = Osmotic Pressure + Lymphatic Drainage (in normal tissue)



Keeps water from accumulating in tissues

What are normal capillaries freely permeable to

water, gases and electrolytes (only semi-permeable to proteins; about 90% retained)

What do capillaries become permeable to during inflammation that they are not normally freely permeable to

Plasma proteins

What morphological characteristics of inflammation result from hyperemia

Redness and Heat

What is edema primarily caused by

the Loss of Barrier Functions of capillaries and venules

What is exudate

protein-rich edema fluid; occurs when plasma proteins accumulate in tissues due to increased permeability of venules and capillaries to protein (result of inflammation)

What components of Starling's law change during inflammation

Hydrostatic pressure - marked increase; forces more fluid out from capillaries into tissues



Osmotic pressure - decreases due to leakage of plasma proteins into tissues (draw more fluid out of vessels and favor fluid retention in tissues)



Lymphatics try to compensate for changes but can't



Result is protein-rich edema fluid/exudate in tissue

What are the three different types of exudate

Serous


Fibrinous


Purulent

What is the content of serous exudate

High in fluid


Few proteins


No WBCs

What is the content of fibrinous exudate

High protein number


Some fluid


Few or no WBCs

What is the content of purulent exudate

High WBC number


Some proteins


Some fluid

What are the physical characteristics of serous exudate/inflammation

yellow, straw-like color; ex: skin blister resulting from a burn

What are the physical characteristics of fibrinous exudate/inflammation

fibrin is dominant feature; whitish material, like wet paper; ex: bread and butter pericarditis

What are the physical characteristics of purulent inflammation

Yellow-green color; PUS; usually associated w/ bacterial infection within a thin membrane; filled with neutrophils; mostly liquefactive necrotic tissue; ex: bacterial meningitis - in meninges of brain

Which type of exudate is associated with death

Purulent; usually occurs in brain cavity (bacterial meninges) - too much pressure causes death

What condition does this heart depict

What condition does this heart depict

Fibrinous exudate/inflammation (bread and butter pericarditis)

What condition does this brain depict

What condition does this brain depict

Purulent exudate/inflammation (due to bacterial meningitis)

What condition does this ruptured colon depict

What condition does this ruptured colon depict

Purulent exudate/peritonitis

What is an abscess

Localized collection of pus (purulent exudate is NOT localized) - caused by pyogenic organisms or infection from necrotic tissue (liquefactive necrosis)

What is transudate

Edema associated with non-inflammatory conditions; has NO protein (no vascular permeability)

What are some of the mechanisms that result in transudate

Abnormal Fluid Dynamics:


Increased hydrostatic pressure (not compensated for by osmotic pressure or lymphatics)


Problems with lymphatic drainage


Problems with osmotic pressure

What are five clinical conditions that have production of transudate

1) Congestive Heart Failure


2) Kwashiorkor/Malnutrition


3) Liver Cirrhosis


4) Breast Cancer (scarring OR obstruction of lymph nodes)


5) Filariasis/Elephantiasis

Why is transudate produced in congestive heart failure

Increased hydrostatic pressure (b/c of left or right sided heart failure)

Where does transudate manifest in left and right sided heart failure respectively

Left: transudate in lungs


Right: transudate in lower limbs

Why is transudate produced in Kwashiorkor and Liver Cirrhosis and what are the clinical manifestations of transudate in these conditions

Malnourishment and liver damage result in low level of plasma proteins - leads to reduced Osmotic pressure



Ascites - fluid accumulation in peritoneal cavity (can also include exudate accum from infection)

Why is transudate produced in lymphatic obstruction (either from breast cancer tx and damage of lymph nodes or obstruction of lymph nodes by cancer)

Lymphatic drainage cannot function effectively

Why is transudate produced in Filariasis/Elephantiasis

Lymphatic drainage cannot function effectively


Filariasis = worm infection that invades lymph nodes


results in fluid drainage to lower extremities (Elephantiasis)

What is the difference between active and passive hyperemia

Active - blood accum due to dilation of arterioles/mast cells and mediators



Passive - blood accum due to increased blood pressure and gradual accum of fluid

What important mediator of vascular permeability is preformed in secretory granules

Histamine

What are the two most important cell types that produce histamine

1) Mast cells


2) Basophils

What are the four primary cell-derived mediators of vascular permeability

Histamine


Prostaglandins


Leukotrienes


Cytokines

What are the primary plasma protein-derived mediators of vascular permeability

Complement (C3a, C5a, C3b, C5b)


Factor XII (Kinin and Plasmin system)

What cell(s) produce prostaglandins/leukotrienes

All leukocytes


Mast cells

What cell(s) produce cytokines

Macrophages, lymphocytes, EC, mast cells

From what organ are plasma proteins typically derived

Liver

In what order are the five major mediators of vascular permeability released

1) Histamines


2) Prostaglandins/Leukotrienes


3) Plasma


4) Cytokines


5) ROS

Which mediators of vascular permeability take the longest to to be synthesized of prostaglandins/leukotrienes, cytokines and histamines

Cytokines

During what phase of the inflammation process does histamine play the largest role

earliest during permeability change; during acute inflammation

Where are mast cells typically located in the skin

dermal layer; surrounding blood vessels and close to nerve cells

What stimuli trigger the release of histamine from mast cell granules

Physical injury/trauma


Neuropeptides/Substance P


Complement fragments

What are anti-microbial peptides (AMPs)

peptides released by epithelial cells to kill microbes; provide first layer of defense during infection; also activate mast cells to release mediators

What two substances play a role in immediate defense after initial infection and help to activate mast cells/histamine release

Anti-microbial peptides


Complement (C3a and C5a)

In what scenario is histamine release unfavorable

In response to an allergen/synthesis of IgE

What type of cell is this

What type of cell is this

Mast cell - prominent nucleus; contains granules; tissue resident

What is the mechanism of a mast cell

First - rapid, transient release of histamine



released contents, other released mediators, cause increased dilation of arterioles, active hyperemia, increased vascular permeability to proteins, formation of exudate

How is arachidonic acid formed

formed when phospholipases activated and hydrolyze membrane phospholipids

What are the two pathways by which arachidonic acid is metabolized

Cyclooxygenase - produce prostaglandins and thromboxanes


Lipoxygenase - produce leukotrienes

What are the names of the two lipid-derived mediators of vascular permeability that follow release of histamine, and what additional functions do they have

Prostaglandins - Vasodilation (same effects as histamine, just later); inhibits platelet aggregation


Leukotrienes - Neutrophil chemotaxis; bronchospasm

What are the potent inhibitors of prostaglandins and leukotrienes

Corticosteroids

What is the function of aspirin and NSAIDs

anti-inflammatory drugs; inhibit all upstream cyclooxygenase activity - no inflammation

What is the purpose of drugs that block cysteinyl leukotrienes (LTC4)

Manage asthma - prevent bronchospasms

What are the three major plasma protease systems

1) Kinin


2) Fibrinolytic/Plasmin


3) Complement

What do plasma protease systems depend on

Formation of biologically active peptide fragments in body fluids by the action of proteolytic enzymes on their substrates



Normally proteases are inactive; upon activation they produce peptide fragments that mediate permeability and other inflammatory changes

What is the name of the proteases (and their inactive form) that act to form bradykinin

Kallikreins (from inactive Pre-K)

What is the name of the proteases (and their inactive form) that act to form peptides

Plasmins (from inactive plasminogen)

What does Factor XII do and where is it produced

Activates the proteases (forming kallikrein and plasmin) that eventually form bradykinin and peptides



Liver

What does bradykinin do in the inflammation process

Causes pain and increased vascular permeability

What do peptides do in the inflammation process

Increase vascular permeability, mediate WBC chemotaxis, activate the complement system

What are the two major cytokines involved in endothelial activation during inflammation

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)


Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

What is the principle function of cytokines in inflammation

Endothelial activation - cause upregulation of cell surface adhesion molecules, promotes adhesion of neutrophils and monocytes

What cells are TNF-alpha and IL-1 mainly produced by

Mast cells and macrophages

What is an inflammasome

a molecular complex involved in the activation of inflammatory caspases resulting in processing of immature pro-IL-1 into mature IL-1

Describe the two pathways that result in the production of cytokines

1) Bacterial cell wall lipids activate Toll-like receptor (on plasma membrane, endosomal membrane or in cytosol), (e.g. produces TNF)


2) Inflammasome pathway activated by extracellular pathogenic ATP - inflammatory caspases activated by K+ efflux or production of ROS (e.g. converts immature pro-IL-1 to mature IL-1)

What are the primary functions of Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)

Increases vascular permeability: transcytosis of proteins across the endothelium AND stimulates formation of new microvessels (inherently leaky)

In what blood vessels do most of the vascular permeability changes occur

Venules (except when cause is direct injury - could be any blood vessel)

What is the most important cause/mechanism of vascular permeability

Gaps/Endothelial Contraction; involves the rapid, transient response of histamines and leukotrienes; endothelial cells move away from one another, creating gaps in the venules

What growth factor increases transcytosis of proteins across the endothelium AND stimulates formation of new microvessels

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)

What is a clinical example of a delayed prolonged mechanism behind vascular permeability

mild sunburn (sun damage to endothelial cells releases cytokines which take a long time to appear)



thermal injury, UV radiation

What mechanism of vascular permeability causes an immediate transient response

Gaps/Endothelial Contraction; immediate release of histamines and leukotrienes



Short-lived, after mild injury; reversible

What mechanisms of vascular permeability cause an immediate prolonged response

Endothelial contraction, Endothelial retraction and Leukocyte-dependent injury



response to bacterial infection; biphasic because you have histamine release, cytokine release, and neutrophil recruitment



moderate injury; can last for hours or days

What mechanism of vascular permeability causes and immediate sustained response

Direct injury; injury to the blood vessel causes leakage that will be sustained until the blood vessel is repaired



severe injury; can last for hours or days

What mediator system only produces vascular permeability

None; all mediator systems have multiple inflammatory effects

What are the four major systemic protective effects of inflammation

1) Fever (cytokines work on brain)


2) Increased plasma levels of acute-phase proteins (cytokines work on liver)


3) Leukocytosis (cytokines work on bone marrow)


4) Increased HR and BP

What mediator is primarily responsible for the systemic effects of inflammation

Cytokines

Does most antimicrobial defense occur in the bloodstream or in the tissues

Tissues - most infections originate in the tissues outside the bloodstream - inflammatory response goes to tissue and attempts to prevent microbial spreading beyond initial site of infection

What are the major systemic pathologic effects of inflammation

Low cardiac output


Low peripheral resistance


Blood vessel injury


Thrombosis


ARDS



SEPSIS

What is the purpose of producing fever, more acute-phase proteins in plasma and more neutrophils (leukocytosis) during inflammation

All systemic protective effects of inflammation



Fever - tells body something is wrong


Acute-phase proteins - help fight infection


Neutrophils - help fight infection

What is the mechanism behind a fever

LPS released from cell wall - causes release of TNF-alpha and IL-1, metabolize AA, produce Prostaglandin E2 - releases NTs in hypothalamus - resets body's thermostat to a higher temp

What happens during rouleaux and what is the purpose

(+) Fibrinogen binds to (-) RBCs, RBCs clump together



this increases Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

What is the normal number of WBCs in the blood and what number does this increase to when fighting infection

4,500-11,000 to 15,000-20,000

What are some of the systemic effects of increased HR and BP during inflammation

Decreased sweating


Shivering (reduced blood supply to skin)


Malaise


Anorexia

What are examples of acute-phase proteins

C-reactive Proteins and Serum Amyloid (microbe elimination)



Fibrinogen (rouleaux)



All work to fight microbial infection; number increased 100-fold during infection

In what stage of the inflammatory response are neutrophils most important

Acute inflammation

What are the most predominant cell type found in the blood

Neutrophils

What types of cells stain pink and blue respectively

Eosinophils (pink), Basophils (blue)

What three cell types are considered granulocytes

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils



All contain granules; but have different nuclei and granule characteristics

What color do neutrophils stain

Don't stain/neutral

What characterizes an eosinophil and what percent of WBCs do they constitute

stain pink; lobulated nucleus, horseshoe shape; granulocyte



1-4% of WBCs

Besides fighting infection/inflammatory what other roles do eosinophils play in the body

fight infection against worms and protozoa; impt role in allergic diseases and asthma

What characterizes a neutrophil and what percent of WBCs do they constitute

Polymorphonuclear Leukocyte - multilobular nuclei; granulocyte



40-60% of WBCs



What characterizes a basophil and what percent of WBCs do they constitute

stain blue with H&E stains; share many characteristics of mast cells (release histamine when activated) - associated wtih allergic rxn; granulocyte



0.5-1% of WBCs

What two cell types are considered mononuclear/round cells

Monocytes


Lymphocytes

What characterizes a monocyte and what percent of WBCs do they constitute

prominent nucleus, kidney-bean shaped; largest cell; eventually leave bloodstream and become macrophages; impt in induction of immune response and wound healing



2-8% of WBCs

What type of cell is capable of differentiating once it leaves the bloodstream and enters the tissue

Monocyte (to macrophage)

What types of cells besides macrophages do monocytes serve as precursors to

Kupffer cells in liver


Osteoclasts in bone

What characterizes a lymphocyte and what percent of WBCs do they constitute

Subtypes: T & B cells, plasma cells, NK cells, T helper cells, T suppressor cells; regulate immune response and guard against mycobacteria, viruses; primarily involved in chronic inflammation



20-40% of WBCs

What "cells" are not true cells/leukocytes

Platelets; involved in clot formation and wound healing

What type of cell is pictured here

What type of cell is pictured here

Lymphocyte - round nucleus

What type of cell is pictured here

What type of cell is pictured here

Neutrophil - multilobular nucleus

What type of cell is pictured here

What type of cell is pictured here

Monocyte - kidney bean shaped nucleus

What type of cell is pictured here

What type of cell is pictured here

Basophil - blue stained granules

What type of cell is pictured here

What type of cell is pictured here

Eosinophil - pink stained granules

Which of the cardinal signs of inflammation does vasodilation cause

Redness

Which of the cardinal signs of inflammation does increased blood flow (hyperemia) cause

Heat

Which of the cardinal signs of inflammation does fluid exudation cause

Swelling

What is the purpose of: red and white blood cells transported as a lubricated column and positioned toward the center of the stream

Laminar Flow

Why does bloodflow slow down in the microcirculatory bed during inflammation

RBC concentration in the vessels increases b/c of increased vascular permeability and mvmt of proteins and fluid to tissue - blood becomes more viscous

What is the presence of numerous dilated small blood vessels packed with RBCs and slow flowing blood called

Stasis

What is it called when RBCs stick together to form clumps and what does this lead to

Rouleaux, leads to increased Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

What is the space between columns of blood cells and platelets called and what does it do

Plasma - acts as a lubricant to assist laminar flow

What acute phase protein clumps together with RBCs during rouleaux

Fibrinogen

What action by RBCs assists with the margination of WBCs

Rouleaux - clumping of RBCs pushes WBCs toward the endothelial wall

When vascular permeability is coming to an end, what can get through still and what can't

Cells/leukocytes can get through, proteins can't anymore

What is diapedesis and what cells undergo this process

Transmigration - crossing from blood vessel to tissue; Leukocytes do this

What are the three major steps of the leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion cascade

Rolling


Adhesion


Transmigration

What are the three types of selectin, where do they occur, and what is the purpose of selectin

E-selectin: endothelium


P-selectin: platelets and endothelium


L-selectin: lymphocytes



Adhesion molecules

Why is the initial adhesion process of leukocytes to the endothelial surface described as rolling

Leukocytes bind to selectins via carbohydrate ligands (sialyl-lewis X) through low-affinity interactions with a fast off-rate; adhesion easily disrupted by blood flow; leukocytes detach and bind again - "roll" along endothelial surface

What type of selectin is first stimulated to go to the endothelial cell surface by mediators like histamine, thrombin and platelet activating factor (PAF) in order to recruit leukocytes

P-selectin - redistribute from W-P bodies (intracellular store in granlues) to surface of endothelial cell

What type of selectin is expressed within 1-2 hours after injury on endothelial cells by macrophage/mast cell release of TNF-alpha and IL-1 (cytokines)

E-selectin

What are the two endothelial adhesion molecules of the immunoglobulin family and what is their function

ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 (intracellular/vascular cell adhesion molecules) - found on endothelial cells



serve as ligands for integrins found on leukocytes

What is Sialyl-Lewis X and where is it found

Glycoprotein found on leukocytes; selectins bind to this - leads to rolling/slight adhesion

What integrins bind to ICAM-1

Beta-2 integrins; LFA-1 (CD11a and CD18) and Mac-1 (CD11b and CD18)

What integrins bind to ICAM-2 and where is this integrin expressed

Beta-1 integrins; VLA-4



mostly in granulocytes, but also in monocytes and macrophages

What are integrins

glycoproteins made of alpha and beta chains that are expressed on many cell types and bind to ligands (adhesion molecules) on endothelial cells

What are Sialyl-Lewis X and integrins attached to vs what are adhesion molecules (selectins and ICAM/VCAM) attached to

Sialyl-Lewis X and integrins presented on leukocytes



Adhesion molecules presented on endothelial cells

Integrins are normally expressed on leukocytes in a low-affinity state, what induces their expression in a high-affinity state

Chemokines - produced at site of injury that enter the blood vessel, bind to the endothelial cells, and are displayed at high concentrations on endothelial cell surface - induce change to high affinity state (receptor shape changes)

What do integrins presented on leukocytes have affinity for

ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 (on endothelial cells)

What is the difference between affinity and avidity

Affinity is a single protein-protein interaction



Avidity is interaction between multiple ligands and receptors at the same time (tighter overall interaction)

What do chemokines do to induce a higher affinity state of integrins for adhesion molecules

Change conformation/shape of integrin receptor (increased avidity)

What does the increased avidity between integrins and adhesion molecules do to the leukocytes attached to the endothelial cells

Stop rolling, create firm adhesion, leukocytes flatten

What mediators act on adherent leukocytes to stimulate the cells to migrate through interendothelial spaces toward site of injury/infection

Chemokines

What is the name of homophilic adhesion molecules and where are they located

PECAM-1 (platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecules)/CD31



Intercellular junction of endothelium AND Leukocyte surfaces

Must there be vascular permeability in order for leukocytes to transmigrate

No. But they do typically correlate

What happens to leukocytes after PECAM-1 molecules bind to each other

Migrate across endothelium

How do leukocytes most likely pierce the basement membrane of endothelium

secrete collagenases

What is the net result of leukocyte transmigration

leukocytes accumulate where they're needed

What do leukocytes do temporarily after they transmigrate/leave circulation

Surround/Cuff the vessel

All the leukocytes express integrins and endothelial cells have ligands for them, which cells appear first and which appear later

Depends on age of inflammatory response and nature of etiology



In acute inflammation: neutrophils appear first (6-24 hrs)


As injury ages: monocytes appear (24-48 hrs)


Infection by pseudomonas organism: neutrophils may continue to be recruited for several days


Viral infection: lymphocytes


Allergy/asthma: eosinophils

What stage of an inflammatory response is this/what stage of transmigration are the leukocytes in and what type of WBCs are they

What stage of an inflammatory response is this/what stage of transmigration are the leukocytes in and what type of WBCs are they

Cuffing the BV - after transmigration


Neutrophils

The large pink cells are myocytes that have undergone karyolysis; what other cells are present here and why/what stage of inflammatory response is this

The large pink cells are myocytes that have undergone karyolysis; what other cells are present here and why/what stage of inflammatory response is this

Mostly monocytes (prominent, round nuclei) - later stage of inflammatory response because monocytes have replaced neutrophils and come to clean up the mess

What types of cells are (1) and what is happening to them


What types of cells are (2-4) and what is happening to each


What type of cell is (5) and what has happened to it

What types of cells are (1) and what is happening to them


What types of cells are (2-4) and what is happening to each


What type of cell is (5) and what has happened to it

(1) - Red blood cells; in Rouleaux


(2-4): Neutrophils


(2): marginating/rolling


(3): firm adhesion


(4): just transmigrated


(5): myocyte - karyolysis

Which disease is a rare autosomal recessive disease that causes reduced expression of CD18 on the surface of leukocytes; and what is the pathogenesis

LAD-I; decrease in firm adhesion to the endothelium

What disease manifests as: delayed separation of the umbilical cord, recurrent bacterial infection, gingivitis/periodontitis, absence of pus formation and impaired wound healing, leukocytosis/neutrophilia

LAD-1 (severity depends on extend of CD18 deficiency)

What percent CD18 deficiency constitutes severe deficiency

98% deficiency in CD18

What percent CD18 deficiency constitutes mild/moderate deficiency

70-98% deficiency in CD18

How are neutrophils in tissue usually dealt with after they have served their purpose

Efferocytosis of apoptotic neutrophils in tissue by macrophages (after 1-2 hours)

What is the pathway of mediators that acts as a thermostat and is inhibited when neutrophils are undergoing efferocytosis

IL-23 to IL-17 to G-CSF (which results in production of neutrophils in bone marrow and release of mature neutrophils to circulation)

With LAD-1 what happens to the cytokine pathway that mediates the production and release of neutrophils

In LAD-1 there are no/few neutrophils in the tissues because they are unable to transmigrate from the blood b/c deficient CD-18; therefore no neutrophils are undergoing efferocytosis, and the cytokine mediator pathway cannot be inhibited, so there's an increased production of neutrophils from the bone marrow that are circulating in the blood (Neutrophilia)

What is the result of the upregulation of IL-17 in the gingival areas (due to LAD-I)

Bone resorption/Periodontal bone loss; TH-17 cells secrete cytokine IL-17 which produces increased amounts of neutrophil in the blood but they can't function properly

This person has LAD-I, what is the clinical diagnosis of their tissue

This person has LAD-I, what is the clinical diagnosis of their tissue

Dysplastic Eschar - dead tissue sloughing off; develops b/c there's a wound and neutrophils can't get there to remove dead tissue

What is the clinical diagnosis of this situation - elevated neutrophil count in the blood but neutrophils unable to leave blood vessel

What is the clinical diagnosis of this situation - elevated neutrophil count in the blood but neutrophils unable to leave blood vessel

LAD-I (gingivitis/periodontitis)

What are proposed treatments for LAD-I and how would they work

Antibiotics - antibody against IL-17 to protect from bone loss



Bone marrow/hematopoetic cell transplantation; replace the dead bone marrow tissue

What is the disease that is a rare autosomal disease in which the expression of Sialyl-Lewis X is completely deficient, meaning they fail to interact with selectins

LAD-II

What results from LAD-II deficiency of expression of Sialyl-LewisX mechanistically

Defective rolling; E and P selectins don't adhere, but neutrophils still able to adhere and transmigrate via integrins/ICAM under conditions of reduced sheer force; allows for some defense against bacterial infections

What are the clinical manifestations of LAD-II

Less severe than LAD-I; no delay in umbilical cord separation; bacterial infection NOT life-threatening



Add'l: children have delayed motor development, mentally retarded, short in stature

What is disease is a rare genetic disease in which there is a genetic loss in activation of beta-integrin by chemokines (mutation in kindlin) and in which patients have a defect in chemokines

LAD-III

What are the clinical manifestations of LAD-III

Similar to LAD-I b/c defect in neutrophil adherence mechanism; (add'l defect in platelet aggregation can cause cerebral hemorrhage at birth and bleeding disorders)

In diagnosis, how can you distinguish LAD-I from LAD-III

In LAD-III: integrin expression is intact but activation impaired; genetic analysis for mutation in kindlin

What is granulopoiesis

when neutrophils produced in the bone marrow are released into circulation

What are all of the steps neutrophils must accomplish in order to kill bacteria and prevent infection

Adherence


Transmigrate


Chemotaxis


Phagocytosis

In what organ are neutrophils produced

bone marrow

What percent of neutrophils are reserved in bone marrow; where are the remaining neutrophils located

93% in bone marrow


3% circulating in blood


4% marginating on surface of endothelial cells

About how many neutrophils does a normal individual produce in a day and how many does an infected person produce

100 billion - normal


Over 1 trillion - serious infection (mobilized reserve of mature neutrophils)

What two factors stimulate bone marrow to produce neutrophils

G-CSF and GM- CSF (glycoproteins)

What are the cells stages involved to produce a mature neutrophil

Stem Cell


Myeloblast


Promyelocyte


Myelocyte


Metamyelocyte


Band PMN


Segmented PMN

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Myeloblast - originates from stem cells; relatively undifferentiated with a high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio; prominent nucleoli (immature nucleus)

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Promyelocyte - the biggest cell in the neutrophilic series; characterized by the production and accumulation of primary (azurophil) granules plus MPO; nucleus is still immature (can see nucleoli)

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Myelocyte - appearance of MPO-negative specific secondary granules, smaller and finer than primary granules

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Metamyelocyte - looks like a mature neutrophil except for its nucleus (larger and kidney bean shaped - looks like a monocyte); cell surface receptors begin to be expressed

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Band PMN - smaller than the metamyelocyte and nucleus appears U-shaped; begin synthesis of gelatinase

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Segmented PMN - a mature neutrophil

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

What is the name of this cell in the neutrophilic series

Stem cell - completely undifferentiated

At what stage in the neutrophilic series does granule formation begin

Promyelocyte (continues to segmented cell stage)

During what stages of the neutrophilic series can the cells proliferate and at what stage do the cells become end cells

Proliferation possible from stem cells to myelocyte stage; Ends cells at Metamyelocyte stage

About how many days does it take for neutrophils to be produced and mature in bone marrow

12 days

What is the neutrophil lifespan in the blood

5-10 hours; then apoptose and removed by monocyte/macrophage system

What is the neutrophil lifespan in tissue

1-2 hours

What causes a "shift to the left"

Depletion of reserve pool of mature neutrophils; less mature neutrophils (band cells) enter the blood



Bad - immature cells not as efficient/effective at attacking microbes as mature cells

What is the name of the cytokines that form a neutrophil production regulatory system

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs); e.g. G-CSF

What neutrophil blood count means a person is susceptible to infection

less than 1500 mm^3; host defense mechanism compromised, won't be able to fight infection if encountered

What neutrophil blood count means a person has an infection

less than 500 mm^3; have infection, can't fight it

What are the possible causes of neutropenia

Neutropenia is decrease in blood neutrophil count



Bone Marrow Pathology (congenital, malignancies, radiation, drugs - anti-cancer antibiotics, infection - hep a and b, measles)


Ineffective Production of Folic Acid or Vitamin B12


Enhanced Destruction (Septicemia, Hypersplenism - neutrophils removed and stored in spleen/overactive spleen)

What are the two most common clinical signs of infection in Neutropenia

Oral Ulcerations (Stomatitis)


Severe Gingivitis/Periodontitis

During neutropenia, is there a way for oral mucosa breakdown to be reversed

Yes, when neutrophil count begins to rise again the oral status usually begins to improve

What part of the oral mucosa is most effected by decrease in neutrophil number

Gingiva - gingival sulcus heavily populated with neutrophils in health b/c of great bacterial load; decrease in neutrophils - loss of protection

What are the different ways to treat oral manifestations of neutropenia

Antibiotics


Improved Oral Hygiene


G-CSF supplementation

What parts of the body are very susceptible to bacterial infection because of neutropenia

Middle ears, Oral cavity, Perirectal area, Lungs

How does cyclic neutropenia differ from neutropenia

Recurrent, opportunistic infection; have 3-6 days of severe neutropenia in 21 day period; asymptomatic during off days; on days - ulceration of tongue, gingivitis, stomatitis, cellulitis, sometimes death (10%), severe perio bone loss

What is the neutrophil count during the on days of cyclic neutropenia

<200 mm^3

What causes cyclic neutropenia

mutation of gene elastase; neutrophil arrested at promyelocyte stage

How do you diagnose neutropenia and how do you diagnose cyclic neutropenia

Neutropenia - blood count


Cyclic neutropenia - observe period of normal neutrophil count and abnormal - have to take sequential WBC count 2-3x/week for 8 weeks

What is agranulocytosis

Granulocytes (particularly neutrophils) are absent; due to decreased production or increased destruction

What are most cases of agranulocytosis caused by

Anticancer chemotherapeutic agents - inhibit normal mitosis and division



some cases are idiopathic

Following transmigration, what process causes leukocytes to emigrate toward the site of injury

Chemotaxis - trigger/stimulus causes neutrophils to move against concentration gradient (stop when there is no longer a gradient)

What are the exogenous triggers for leukocyte chemotaxis

1) Bacterial products


2) N-formyl-methionyl peptide

What are the endogenous triggers for leukocyte chemotaxis

1) Complement pathway (C3a and C5a)


2) Lipid-derived mediators (leukotriene B4)


3) Cytokines - esp in chemokine family

What may cause abnormal chemotaxis and what is the result

Bacterial toxins (e.g. leukotoxin from P. gingivalis); prevents migration and can cause increased risk of aggressive infection



P. gingivalis has proteases that break down C5a - causes perio disease

What do granules contain that are very important in neutrophil ability to phagocytose

Lysozymes

How do neutrophils produce energy

Glycolytic pathway; very short-lived so don't need complicated protein synthesizing apparatus or a lot of mitochondria

What is the function of the ROS produced by neutrophils

Help kill microbes (NOT for ATP production) - respiratory burst

What is degranulation

Release granules (part of digesting microbes)

Activation of Toll-like receptors by what on microbes leads to the amplification of the inflammatory response

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) - induces cytokines

What must neutrophils do in order to phagocytose microbes

Adhere

What can bacteria have to make it difficult for neutrophils to adhere

Capsules - prevents neutrophil recognition; S. pneumonia/pneumococci, H. influenza, P. gingivalis

What happens to bacteria to prepare them to be phagocytosed

Opsonization - complement and antibodies (opsonins) bind to bacteria and prepare it to be phagocytosed

What are the two types of opsonin used in the process of phagocytosis

Complement (C3b)


Antibodies (IgG)

How does opsonization work

Opsonins bind to bacteria and neutrophils must have receptors to be able to recognize the opsonins in order to phagocytose

What are the two types of neutrophil opsonin receptors

Fc (antibody)


C3b

What is formed when a neutrophil phagocytoses bacteria

Phagosome

What is present in the phagosome membrane that generates ROS and what is it sometimes known as

NADPH oxidase/phagocyte oxidase

What do NADPH oxidase and oxygen produce

H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) - oxygen-dependent process

What is the oxygen-independent pathway necessary to produce HOCl-

Granules contain MPO, combined with Cl-

When you combine the oxygen-dependent and oxygen-independent pathways of phagocytosis, what do you produce

HOCl- (causes fragmentation of bacteria and killing)

Phagolysosome

Phagosome including HOCl- combined with lysosome

What are the two proteins produced by neutrophils that assist with phagocytosis

Bacterial Permeability Increasing protein (BPI)


LL-37 (cationic protein)


they bind to bacteria and create holes in it to facilitate killing

What are the four major components that come together to kill/degrade bacteria

1) NADPH oxidase


2) Granules


3) Additional proteins (BPI and LL-37)


4) Lysozyme - degrades bacterial coat



occurs intracellularly - inside phagolysosome

What is produced during phagocytosis and contributes to killing some types of bacteria, like pneumococci

Lactic acid

What is the extracellular mechanism by which bacteria are killed by neutrophils

Neutrophil Extracellular Traps (NETS) - beneficial suicide; formation of ROS intracellularly - disintegration of nuclear and granular membranes and mixing/release of contents - release of NETs - trap bacteria and kill



fail-safe mechanism if intracellular mechanisms aren't functioning properly

What are the potential negative consequences of NETs

may cause autoimmune diseases - possible source of antigens

What disease involves abnormal lysosome formation due to mutation, is autosomal recessive, has melanocytes with large granules, has neutrophils with giant azurophilic granules

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

What diseases involves clinical manifestations identified in infancy/childhood, oculocutaneous albinism, photophobia, grey hair color, recurrent bacterial infection (gingivitis, oral ulceration, perio diseases)

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

What is happening to this cell/what are the clinical implications

What is happening to this cell/what are the clinical implications

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome; multilobular nucleus - so cell is neutrophilic, but has prominent granules

What disease involves a defect in NADPH oxidase due to mutation and formation of a granuloma

Chronic Granulomatous Disease; genetic defect in NADPH oxidase, don't generate sufficient amount - catalase positive bacteria remove H2O2; impaired ROS production; granuloma formation from reduced efferocytosis and activation of monocytes

What disease clinically manifests as recurrent bacterial infection, is most susceptible to catalase positive bacteria, has superficial skin infections, abscesses, cellulitis, gingivitis

Chronic Granulomatous Disease - have normal recruitment of neutrophils, they just don't function properly; have abnormal respiratory bursts

What do long-term repeated infections, like CGD, likely result from

lack of NETs formation

What disease involves the mutation and loss of cathepsin C gene (LL-37 not produced), skin defect, and neutrophil function, keratosis in palms and soles

Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

What type of bacteria produces leukotoxins and is assoicated with perio disease

A. actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)

What bacteria produces proteases that inactivate the complement pathway and prevent neutrophil from being recruited to site of infection

P. gingivalis

What bacteria produces protein A, which binds to the antibody receptor of neutrophils so the bacteria can't be opsonized

S. aureus

What does DNAse do

dissolves NET (produced by some bacteria)

What do leukocytes change their lipoxygenase-derived products from and to in the change from inflammation to resolution of inflammation

COXs (pro-inflammatory) to lipoxins (resolve inflammation)

How do lipoxins work to resolve inflammation

Bind to specific cell surface receptors on neutrophils to inhibit chemotaxis and ROS generation and promote neutrophil apoptosis



ALSO - promote monocyte chemotaxis and do NOT induce cytokine production by monocytes/macrophages (don't wan to recruit inflamm cells)

What is largely the cause of the extensive cellular and tissue destruction seen in purulent exudate

proteolytic enzymes and other factors released by neutrophils

What are the two process that can heal injured tissue

Regeneration


Repair

What determines whether injured tissue undergoes regeneration or repair

The type of cells the tissue is made of (labile, stable, permanent)

What happens to injured tissue in regeneration vs repair

Regeneration - replace damaged or lost cells with identical cell type (via stem cells in basement membrane)



Repair - replace injured/dead cells with fibrous/collagenous scar

When does fibrosis occur and what is it

Extensive deposition of collagen, occurs in tissues as a consequence of chronic inflammation (usually in lung, liver, kidney or heart)

When does scar tissue interfere with organ function

If the scar tissue is extensive (e.g. in infarcts - may lead to thinning of muscle walls and complications/loss of function)

What has occurred from the slide on the left to that on the right; this is heart tissue

What has occurred from the slide on the left to that on the right; this is heart tissue

Left: cells undergoing karyolysis following inflammatory response


Right: replacement of dead tissue with fibrotic tissue; white areas where cells lost due to severe damage and replaced by collagenous scar

Do you get regeneration or repair with: labile, stable and permanent cells

Labile - most likely regenerate; usually cells that turnover rapidly (skin)


Stable - can either regenerate or repair, depends on severity of injury (liver, kidney)


Permanent - almost always repair with scar tissue (neuron, heart)

What percent of cells are dividing/undergoing mitosis in tissues that contain labile cells; what are examples of these tissue types

1.5% - give you regeneration



hematopoetic tissue, lymphoid tissue, surface epithelium (skin, mucous membranes, GI, urinary and respiratory tracts, salivary glands)

How do stem cells, which are labile cells, divide

They divide continuously; with injury - one daughter cell becomes another daughter cell and the other becomes a terminally differentiated cell

What two things does regeneration of any tissue require

1. Intact basement membrane


2. Sufficient stem cells to promote regeneration (need asymmetrical division to maintain integrity of basal cell layer/have enough stem cells)

In what clinical situations will you develop a scar if the basement membrane of the surface epithelium is damaged, but won't scar if basement membrane left intact

Chicken Pox


Acne

What cell type is long-lived, has low turnover, are quiescent and have minimal replicative activity in their normal state

Stable cells - proliferate in response to injury or tissue loss

What are examples of stable cells

Parenchymal cells - liver, pancreas, thyroid, salivary glands, adrenal cortex, renal tubular epithelium



Connective tissue and mesenchymal cells - osteoblasts, fibroblasts, vascular endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells

What percent of cells are dividing/undergoing mitosis in tissues that contain stable cells

less than 1.5%; but this number does not determine an organ's ability to regenerate; always have ability to divide with appropriate stimulus/injury

What biological action does the mythical story of Prometheus and the eagle give an example

Regeneration of liver cells (stable cells) with damage to the liver

What must not be damaged in order for liver cells to regenerate instead of repair

Extracellular matrix (like basement membrane can't be damaged in epithelial cells)

What has happened to the liver here

What has happened to the liver here

Undergone cirrhosis (can happen with chronic alcoholism); liver nodules and fibrosis, it's hard and has lots of connective tissue; smaller than normal liver because the scar tissue contracts



normal liver is soft and tender, normal size is fairly large

What has happened to these liver cells

What has happened to these liver cells

Surrounded by collagen because of damage to ECM - has undergone repair due to a severe injury

What has happened to some of the kidney cells/tubules pictured here

What has happened to some of the kidney cells/tubules pictured here

Coagulative necrosis/karyolysis; cells are dead and you can't distinguish nuclei, can also see much protein stained pink by eosin, but basic architecture of the tubules is still intact

What has happened to the kidney cells here, and what types of cells have caused this

What has happened to the kidney cells here, and what types of cells have caused this

Glomeruli surrounded by blue-stained collagen (undergo fibrosis more readily than tubules); caused by severely damaged stable cells - lost regenerative capacity

If the first slide is normal lung parenchyma, what has most likely occurred to the lung parenchyma in the other two slides

If the first slide is normal lung parenchyma, what has most likely occurred to the lung parenchyma in the other two slides

1) Empty spaces, no fluid in cells; probably due to pneumonia; lots of collagen/fibrosis (H&E stain)


2) Fibrosis - due to persistent injury (Trichrome stain)

What type of cell cannot replicate after birth, give examples

Permanent cell (neurons, skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle); once destroyed - lost forever; scar formation occurs

Why does the heart increase in size with age

Due to Hypertrophy (increase in cell size) NOT hyperplasia (increase in cell number) because heart cells can't multiply/divide

What are the three things that exit the blood vessels and enter the extravascular space during inflammatory response, and in what order

1) Edema - with vascular/cellular response


2) Neutrophils - early acute inflammation


3) Monocytes/macrophages - late acute inflammation


What is a clinical example of exudate resolution after injury (etiology promptly destroyed, no or minimal cell necrosis)

Mild heat injury

What is a clinical example of exudate organization after injury (etiology promptly destroyed, no or minimal cell necrosis)

Fibrinous exudate - Fibropurulent Pericarditis; have fibrotic layer on top of exudate which leaves a fibropurulent scar on top

What is a clinical example of the framework remaining intact (after etiology NOT destroyed, in tissue of labile/stable cells)

Lobar pneumonia



Basement membrane of skin intact, ECM of liver cells intact

What is a clinical example of the framework being destroyed (after etiology NOT destroyed, in tissue of labile/stable cells)

Liver Cirrhosis - scarring when ECM of liver cells destroyed

What is a clinical example of necrosis of the tissue of permanent cells (after etiology NOT destroyed)

Myocardial Infarct - scarring (from ischemic necrosis - permanent damage to cardiac myocytes)

What does regenerative medicine involve, give an example

regeneration and repopulation of damaged organs using stem cells; induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS cells) - expose genes that confer stem cell properties to pt's differentiated cells - resulting iPS cells can be induced to differentiate

What are the predominant examples used to describe labile cells and stable cells

Labile - Skin/epithelial cells


Stable - Liver cells

What are the three things that must be resolved in order for proper healing to occur

1) Bleeding


2) Loss of tissue


3) Infection

What are the four phases of wound healing

1) Early


2) Intermediate


3) Late


4) Terminal

What happens during the early phase of wound healing and how long does it last

Platelets activated - form clot


Neutrophils and macrophages recruited



rapid, transient

What happens during the intermediate phase of wound healing

Activation of resident cells - cells normally present in the tissue (fibroblasts, mast cells, endothelial cells)


Proliferative response of resident cells - form new blood vessels (angiogenesis), re-epithelialization

What happens during the late phase of wound healing

Collagen synthesis

What happens during the terminal phase of wound healing

Remodeling; increase wound strength by replacing original collage deposited with stronger collagen



takes months

What are the two major categories skin wounds can be grouped into

Healing by First Intention - edges held close together by sutures, clips or tape to help heal



Healing by Second Intention - edges are widely separated

What occurs during healing by first intention

Minimal tissue loss, wound edges held close together, no infection and little scarring

What occurs during healing by second intention

Extensive tissue loss, ulcer/large wounds, extensive scarring

What is the response that occurs within seconds after skin incised by a scalpel blade

Hemostatic response - arrests hemorrhage and initiates healing



platelets release 5-HT from granules (plug defects in vessel wall and release factors into immediate wound area and activate clotting cascade), TxA2 activated, fibrin and fibrinogen (clotting proteins)

What protein forms a clot to stop bleeding

Fibrin

What functions does a clot have

Stabilizes platelet plug so it can't be dislodged


Cements cut margins of wound


Generate chemotactic peptides to attract leukocytes, resident fibroblasts and endothelial cells


Forms a scaffold of fibrils - facilitate migration of leukocytes and mesenchymal cells to wound


Discharge vasoactive compounds into wound (prostaglandins, PAF, proteolytic enzymes, VEGF)

Are platelets required for wound healing

Yes, must have platelets to stop bleeding

In what type of wounds are neutrophils important

Infected wounds - eliminate contaminating microbes

What is a clinical example of a situation where neutrophils can't be recruited to site of injury and won't heal

LAD-I - defect in neutrophil transmigration process so neutrophils don't get to wound and it can't heal (e.g. Dysplastic Eschar, Stump of umbilical cord)

What is the difference between macrophage recruitment in acute inflammation and that in wound healing

In acute inflammation - macrophages do NOT secrete cytokines, don't want to initiate an inflammatory response; cytokines required in wound healing for chemotaxis of fibroblasts AND angiogenesis and remodeling

When do macrophages appear and how long do they remain during wound healing

24-72 hours after injury; remain for 5-7 days

What type of cell is recruited in wound healing that is not recruited in acute inflammation

T-lymphocytes; produce cytokines that help with healing

During wound healing, what process involves basal epidermal keratinocyte transformation from sedentary to migratory phenotype, under influence of cytokines

Epithelialization

What does re-epithelialization involve mechanistically

Mitotic activity 4-5 cells from leading edge (where cells are exhibiting phagocytic activity and digesting their way through the clot); eventually the migrating cells contact and you have restoration of epithelium

What is angiogenesis, in what stage of wound healing does it occur, and why is it important in wound healing

formation of new blood vessels during intermediate stage - critical at injury site for collateral circulation and to bring in nutrients (plasma proteins) for next phase; process mainly mediated by VEGF

What is the name of tissue that includes leaky, newly produced blood vessels during wound healing

Granulation tissue - highly vascular; mass of migrating and proliferating fibroblasts and capillaries; contains many new blood vessels, fibroblasts, some monocytes, and few neutrophils; underneath the now thin epithelial layer - bleeds easy if traumatized

What is degraded and then reformed in order to produce new blood vessels during angiogenesis in wound healing

Basement membrane of endothelial cells

What tissue changes occur from the intermediate stage of wound healing to the late stage

Granulation tissue devascularized and turns into scar tissue

What two stages of the wound healing process do these two tissue slides depict

What two stages of the wound healing process do these two tissue slides depict

Intermediate stage (granulation tissue) and Late stage (scar tissue/fibrosis)

What do the arrows point to in this intermediate stage of wound healing

What do the arrows point to in this intermediate stage of wound healing

Many blood vessels in granulation tissue

What stage of wound healing is depicted here

What stage of wound healing is depicted here

Late stage - lots of collagen/scar tissue

What are the most and second most abundant cells in connective tissue (i.e. scar tissue)

Fibroblasts, and then mast cells

What are the cells needed for wound healing (in order) and what is their primary function

EARLY


1) Platelets - clot formation


2) Neutrophils - kill bacteria, digest ECM/basement membrane, remove dead tissue


INTERMEDIATE


3) Macrophages - clean up mess, secrete cytokines for fibroblast chemotaxis; secrete cytokines for angiogenesis and epithelialization


LATE


4) Fibroblasts - secrete collagen


5) Mast cells - interact with fibroblasts to stimulate collagen synthesis


TERMINAL


6) Fibroblasts leave


7) Myofibroblasts - wound contraction

What type of cells commonly cause tissue injury during inflammatory response

Neutrophils

What cells mediate healing by second intention

Myofibroblasts - myocontractile and collagen synthesizing abilities

What is wound contraction

Process where wound edges begin to move towards each other to the center of the wound; results in mechanical reduction in size of wound; especially important in healing by second intention

What does the terminal stage of wound healing involve

maturation and increase in tensile strength of the wound (re-modeling) - replace original Type III collagen with Type I collagen - increased cross-linking between collagen fibrils increases strength

Does tissue that undergoes wound healing ever reach the strength of normal skin

No. 80% of original strength after ~6 weeks; 90% of original strength after ~6 months

What replaces the epidermal and dermal layers of skin after the terminal stage of wound healing

Epidermal - epithelial cells (regeneration - labile cells)


Dermal - scar tissue (repair of basement membrane - stable cells)

What type of collagen is originally produced in wound healing and what type of collagen replaces it during the terminal stage of wound healing

Type III to Type I

What is the defining feature, histologically, of a skin ulcer

Loss of epithelial cell layer

What type of skin condition is observed here

What type of skin condition is observed here

Skin ulcer - no epithelial layer

What stage of the wound healing process is shown here

What stage of the wound healing process is shown here

Intermediate - Granulation tissue with lots of blood vessels and thin epithelial layer (angiogenesis and re-epithelialization occurring)

What stage of the wound healing process is shown here

What stage of the wound healing process is shown here

Intermediate/Late stage - Not a ton of blood vessels, wound contraction occurring in epithelial layer

What process is depicted here in the change from the first picture to the second

What process is depicted here in the change from the first picture to the second

Wound healing by second intention - extensive scar tissue forms underneath epithelial layer; occurs with ulcers/large wounds

What are the major differences in the vascular and cellular responses between inflammation and wound healing

Inflammation:


- Vascular response increases vascular permeability; initiated by mast cells


- Neutrophils and macrophages impt for cellular response



Wound Healing


- Vascular response causes angiogenesis - initiated by platelets/neutrophils


- Macrophages for proliferative response


- Fibroblasts for actual healing

What is chronic inflammation

a continuation of wound healing - if scar tissue becomes so big that it interferences with function of the organ then chronic inflammation occurs (e.g. myocardial infarct)

How do growth factors function during wound healing

proliferative response - promote survival, proliferation and migration



use cell surface receptors - activate signaling pathways and transcription factors in the nucleus through tyrosine-kinase activity (PDGF, VEGF) - except GPCR (no tyrosine-kinase activity)

What type of receptor is utilized by certain chemokines (IL-8) and cytokines (IL-4, IL-2)

G protein coupled receptors; receptors don't have tyrosine-kinase activity; they activate adapter proteins and result in transcription of genes that promote cell cycle entry, prevent apoptosis, etc

What are the three different ways in which cytokines can function with receptors to initiation gene expression

Autocrine - cell produces particular cytokines and has receptors for the cytokine on the same cell


Paracrine - one cell produces cytokine that acts on receptors on a different, adjacent cell


Endocrine - growth factors secreted into blood

What are two examples of an autocrine system

Lymphocyte proliferation by cytokines - T cells release cytokines and has receptors for those cytokines on the cell



Compensatory hyperplasia - part of liver removed, cytokines produced remaining liver cells act to produce more liver cells



What is an example of a paracrine system

Recruitment of inflammatory cells - macrophage produces cytokines that act on other inflammatory cells to recruit them

What growth factor initiates a healing response after clot formation during wound healing

PDGF (platelet derived growth factor) - produced by platelets mostly, also macrophages, endo cells and keratinocytes; chemoattractant for neutrophils, monocytes, fibroblasts; important for synthesis and remodeling of ECM

What does recombinant PDGF (regranex) treat clinically

Diabetic ulcers

What is the most important growth factor for epithelialization during wound healing

EGF (epidermal growth factor) - promotes proliferation and migration of epithelial cells; also promotes proliferation of fibroblasts and induces granulation tissue formation

What growth factor is the most important for angiogenesis during wound healing

VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) - produced in response to PDGF, TGF-beta, and hypoxia by epithelial cells; also promotes migration and proliferation of endo cells (epithelialization)

What growth factor should you develop antibodies against in order to stop growth of tumor cells in some cancers

VEGF - reduce nutrient delivery to tumor

What is the mesh beneath epithelial, endothelial or smooth muscle structures called

Basement membrane

What is the primary collagen type found in basement membrane

Type IV - sheet-like collagen; doesn't form bonds between different fibrils; also includes proteoglycans and laminins

What is the matrix between basement membrane and blood vessels called, what's included in this matrix

Interstitial matrix - fibroblasts, integrins, adhesive glycoproteins, cross-linked collage (rope-like); reservoir for growth factors

What is important for the production of collagen cross-linking and what happens if collagen can't cross-link

Vitamin C - without cross-linking the area will bleed easily and the wound won't heal as well

What growth factor is important for ECM deposition and scar formation

Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta); chemoattractant for fibroblasts, promotes collagen/ECM synthesis, inhibits collagen degradation; induces TIMPs; results in fibrosis in kidney/lung/liver after chronic inflamm; has anti-inflammatory effects as well

What does TIMP do during wound healing

Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinases - prevent metalloproteinases from degrading collagen

In what situation is TGF-beta expressed transiently

Fetal healing - healing occurs without scar formation; TGF-beta undesirable

What can be administered to reduce scarring

Antibodies to TGF-beta

What three things does scar tissue formation depend on the balance between

TGF-beta (promote collagen formation)


MMPs - metalloproteinases (degrade Type III collagen during remodeling)


TIMPs (inhibit degradation of Type I collagen)


In what types of tissues do you see labile cells/regeneration after wound healing

Skin (epidermis)


Bone


Oral Mucosa


Fetal wound

In what types of tissues do you see stable cells/regeneration or repair depending on severity of injury during wound healing

Liver


Lung


Kidney (regeneration in cortical tubules, scar tissue/repair in medullary tubules and glomeruli)

In what types of tissues do you see permanent cells/repair and scar tissue formation during wound healing

Heart


Nervous System (except some parts of peripheral - regeneration of axons)

What type of necrosis do you here see (after myocardial infarct)

What type of necrosis do you here see (after myocardial infarct)

Coagulative necrosis - nuclei look abnormal, but basic architecture still intact

What is happening to this cardiac tissue

What is happening to this cardiac tissue

Early acute inflammation: Karyolysis of cardiac myocytes (no nuclei); lots of neutrophils present

What is happening to this cardiac tissue

What is happening to this cardiac tissue

Late acute inflammation: macrophages cleaning up mess from neutrophils

What stage of wound healing is this

What stage of wound healing is this

Intermediate stage - granulation tissue with lots of new blood vessels

What stage of wound healing is this

What stage of wound healing is this

Late stage - lots of collagen produced, healing/repairing damaged tissue with scar tissue (replaced granulation tissue)

What is a traumatic neuroma

reactive proliferation of neuronal tissue after damage of nerve bundles (e.g. damaged axon); NOT a neoplasm; have scar tissue, can't reestablish innervation; tumor-like mass develops at site of injury

What are the most common sites for traumatic neuromas

mental foramen, tongue, lower lip

What is the only case in which you have regeneration of neuronal tissue

Traumatic neuroma - damaged axon

What two types of ossification occur during bone formation/fracture repair

Intramembranous ossification


Endochondral ossification

What occurs during intramembranous ossification and how do bones grow, what types of bones

differentiation of mesenchymal cells into osteobalsts; osteoid formation (collagen and organic ECM), combined wtih Ca++ and phosphates results in mineralized bone matrix; also need osteoclasts for bone remodeling



bones grow in WIDTH (skull, maxilla, mandible)

What occurs during endochondral ossification, how do bones grow, what types of bones

differentation of mesenchymal cells into hyaline chondrocytes then replacement of hyaline cartilage with bone



Long bones grow in LENGTH

What are the steps of bone regeneration after fracture

1) Hematoma - clot


2) Provisional callus - angiogenesis/granulation tissue; fibrocartilage - soft


3) Hard callus - endochondral ossification; woven bone replaces soft callus


4) Remodeling - cortical bone replaces woven bone; healing without scar

How can you tell a bone has been broken

Bone more dense; but NOT scar tissue formed

What are the two keys to successful bone repair/formation

1) Alignment (screws, cast)


2) Good blood supply

What are required in order to produce osteoblasts and form new bone

Bone morphogenic proteins (BMPs) and Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs)

What other healing processes are nearly identical to that of skin

Bone, socket healing

What are six complications of wound healing and what causes them

1) Alveolar Osteitis/Dry Socket - clot doesn't form


2) Delayed healing - from infection


3) Proud flesh/Pyogenic granuloma - too much granulation tissue


4) Dehiscence/Hernias/Scurby - deficient collagen deposition


5) Keloid/hypertropic scar - excessive collagen deposition (mutation)


6) Contracture - excessive contraction

What typically causes dry socket formation

Infection or trauma; involves dissolution of blood clot

What are four predisposing factors to dry socket formation

Oral contraceptives


Site of extraction (mandible more prone than maxilla)


Trauma


Smoking

Why does infection typically delay wound healing

Healing by second intention with infection - results in more granulation tissue/scar formation



common cause of death from burn injuries

What is a proud flesh, how does it occur, and how is it treated

a protruding mass of granulation tissue; reason for development unknown; tx by cauterization with silver nitrate or surgical removal

What is an exuberant proliferation of granulation tissue that occurs in oral tissues called, how does it occur and how is it treated

Pyogenic granuloma (NOT actually a granuloma and NOT purulent); usually due to trauma or irritation

What wound healing complication is seen here

What wound healing complication is seen here

Proud flesh - protruding mass of granulation tissue

What wound healing complication is seen here

What wound healing complication is seen here

Pyogenic granuloma - protruding mass of granulation tissue in the oral mucosa

Where are pyogenic granulomas located 75% of the time

Gingiva

What wound healing complications are seen here

What wound healing complications are seen here

Dehiscence/Incisional hernia - in abdominal wounds; caused by defect in collagen deposition

What is a keloid

excessive collagen formation that begins at wound site and then spreads to neighboring tissues; ratio of Type III:Type I collagen is high - "maturation arrest"; high rate of recurrence; common in african-americans and young people, common within families

What wound healing complication is seen here

What wound healing complication is seen here

Keloid - dark; excessive collagen formation that spread

What is the pathogenesis of keloid formation

Increased fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis due to overexpression of TGF-beta and VEGF

What is a hypertrophic scar and how does it differ from a keloid

Similar in appearance to a keloid; flatten and regress spontaneously over a period of months-years and do NOT spread beyond site of injury

Can you treat keloids/hypertrophic scars

Can treat hypertrophic scars but if you try to treat keloids they recur, so no

What wound healing complication is seen here

What wound healing complication is seen here

Hypertrophic scar - light, confined to one region

What causes excessive wound contraction, and where does this typically occur

Myofibroblasts; palms, soles, burns of skin, liver (cirrhosis)

What must be removed from wounds in order to promote healing

1) Necrotic tissue (promote bacterial growth, physical barrier, delays healing)


2) Foreign material (harbor bacteria, promote inflammation)

What is a decubitis ulcer and how is it treated

Bed sore; Pressure induced ulcer from ischemia (inadequate blood supply) - relieve pressure; use pDGF to initiate healing process

What local factor in wound healing produced condition is shown here

What local factor in wound healing produced condition is shown here

Decubitis ulcer/Bedsore - from pressure induced ischemia

What are some of the local factors in wound healing aside from inadequate blood supply

1) Endarteritis obliterans - due to post-irradiation scarring of blood vessels; reduces local blood flow


2) Atherosclerosis - restricts arterial perfusion, particularly in diabetics and elderly


3) Smoking - triggers vasoconstriction and may impair tissue oxygenation; also contributes to development of atherosclerosis

What are some of the effects that local irradiation has on wound healing

Curtains blood flow to wound


Decreased vascularity limits platelet and leukocyte delivery to site


Cytotoxic effects on fibroblasts and keratinocytes leads to increased fibrosis and thinning epidermis


Dry skin due to damaged sebaceous and sweat glands

What direction and location of a wound facilitate better healing

Incisions made parallel to crease lines of skin

What role does movement play in wound healing

Immobilization important for bone fractures; excessive mechanical movement can produce additional trauma to skin wounds and may prolong healing

Why do oral mucosa wounds tend to heal faster than skin wounds

Moist environment promotes healing

What systemic factors have a profound effect on wound healing

Malnutrition


Cancer


Diabetes Mellitus

What are the six major malnutrition involved systemic factors of wound healing and how do they effect wound healing

1) Hypoproteinemia - decreased collagen synthesis


2) Reduced carb and fat intake - protein used as energy source instead


3) Vitamin C deficiency - abnormal collagen synthesis


4) Vitamin A deficiency - defective epithelialization


5) Vitamin D deficiency - defective bone healing


6) Zinc deficiency - decreased cell proliferation and granulation tissue formation

Why does diabetes mellitus effect wound healing; how can you treat wounds that result

Results in decreased growth factor - improper healing; treat with PDGF, antimicrobial, amputation

What inflammatory process can follow wound healing

Chronic inflammation - if etiologic agent is not removed

When do you experience signs and symptoms of acute inflammation and of chronic inflammation

Acute - almost immediately; redness, heat, swelling


Chronic - not until late in process; indurated/hard

What cells are involved in the first stages of acute inflammation vs chronic inflammation

Acute - mast cells and neutrophils


Chronic - Round cells (macrophages and lymphocytes)

What is the biological response of acute inflammation vs chronic inflammation

Acute - vascular/exudative


Chronic - proliferative

What are some of the main clinical examples of chronic inflammation

Periodontal disease


Pulpal/periapical lesion


Alcoholic cirrhosis

What is the most significant feature of chronic inflammatory diseases

permanent or irreversible tissue/organ destruction

What two inflammatory responses are occurring here in the lung tissue

What two inflammatory responses are occurring here in the lung tissue

1) Acute inflammation - normal alveoli and alveolar septae; blood vessels are dilated; lots of neutrophils



2) Chronic inflammation - empty spaces that used to have fluid replaced by fibrosis; foci of inflammatory "round" cells

What two cell types interact in a bidirectional way during chronic inflammation

Lymphocytes and Macrophages


- Macrophages display antigens (MHC) to T cells, results in production of cytokines (like IL-12) that stimulate T cell responses


- Activated T lymphocytes then produce cytokines (like IFN-gamma) that activate macrophages


- Result is a cycle of cellular reactions that fuel and sustain chronic inflammation


- Both macrophages and lymphocytes also produce other inflammatory mediators that result in leukocyte recruitment and inflamm

What cell type produces plasma "cells"

activated B lymphocytes - produce antibodies directed against persistent antigens in inflammatory site or against altered tissue components

What cells in chronic inflammation go through almost the exact same process as neutrophil recruitment and transmigration in acute inflammation

Monocytes

Neutrophils can only survive in the blood for 4-5 hrs and in the tissues for 1-2 hrs; how long do monocytes/macrophages survive in both of these locations

Blood - day or more


Tissue - more than a year, VERY long-lived

What does the foci of inflammatory cells seen in chronic inflammation consist of

Macrophages and T cells

In what cases might you see neutrophils present in chronic inflammation

non-specific chronic inflammation resulting from presence of persistent microbes or necrotic cells

What are the two main types of macrophages seen in chronic inflammation and how do they differ

M1 - activated by IFN-gamma; produce ROS, lysosomal enzymes and cytokines that induce inflammation and microbial actions (similar fxn to neutrophils)



M2 - activated by cytokines other than IFN-gamma; NOT microbial; promote angiogenesis and collagen synthesis



Activated sequentially

What inflammatory process is referred to as frustrated repair

Chronic inflammation; b/c tissue destruction is occurring simultaneously



ex: cirrhosis - fibrous tissue repairs liver tissue but also prevents regeneration of normal hepatic lobules and interferes with normal blood supply to lobules - leads to portal hypertension

What does fibrosis in kidney (chronic pyelonephritis) cause

Loss of renal function/failure and hypertension

What does fibrosis in the intestine during peptic ulceration cause

Pyloric stenosis

What does fibrosis in joint tissue cause

Ankylosis

What is most of the tissue destruction in chronic inflammation a consequence of

activities and products released from inflammatory cells

What are five different ways an etiologic agent is able to resist elimination by the host

1) macrophages unable to kill bacteria (e.g. TB and Leprosy - delayed type hypersensitivity, DTH)


2) macrophages unable to degrade bacteria (certain strains of streptococci)


3) viruses and fungi (DTH)


4) cause by particulate or physical agents (uric acid, asbestos, gall stones, silica, talc)


5) immune complexes - deposits keep being dumped in lesion even when removed (e.g. joints, skin, kidney)

What is delayed-type hypersensitivity

An immune response produced by leukocytes in affected tissues that's incited by persistent infection (e.g. inability to remove TB or leprosy microbes; viral and fungal infection)

What type of disease probably has an episodic progression of chronic inflammatory lesions (tissue destruction occurs in bursts)

Periodontal disease - has active and inactive periods; loss of attachment and alveolar bone may be cumulative effects of one or more bursts of active disease; in quiescent periods, bacteria and leukocytes exist in harmony

What are dysbiotic microbiota

bacteria that already exist in the body become active and cause disease

What does non-specific chronic inflammation usually result from

Acute inflammation

What are the four most common outcomes of acute inflammation

1) Complete resolution


2) Fibrosis


3) Abscess formation


4) Progress to chronic inflammation

Under what circumstances do tissue damage, acute inflammation, granulation tissue formation and fibrous repair occur at the same instead of sequentially

when chronic inflammation follows acute inflammation (when the acute response can't be resolved because the injurious agent persists or problems with normal healing process)

What are chronic peptic ulcers an example of

Non-specific chronic inflammation; localized chronic ulcerations of the stomach or duodenum caused by the damaging effects of gastric acid secretion; reflect dynamic balance between tissue damage and repair

What are the two sides that create homeostasis in the normal surface of duodenum (preventing ulceration/injury)

1) Damaging forces - gastric acids, peptic enzymes


2) Defensive forces - mucus secretion, bicarbonates, mucosal blood flow, etc

What two things can trigger injury in stomach/duodenum, breaking homeostasis, and causing an acute inflammatory response

1) Increased damage - NSAID, H. pylori infection, aspirin, cigarettes, etc


2) Impaired defenses - ischemia, shock, etc

What is bronchiectasis

Chronic inflammation of the bronchi, associated with destruction of the wall and permanent dilation; caused by infection or obstruction by a tumor, cystic fibrosis or pneumonia; coexistance of tissue damage and repair

What occurs during rheumatoid arthritis

chronic inflammation; destruction of the synovial fluid and replacement by fibrotic tissue

What is a pannus

a formation of granulation tissue in a rheumatoid joint; includes, macrophages, plasma cells, dendritic cells, lymphocytes; eventually converted to fibrosis - causes loss of bone and cartilage

What does the presentation of MHC Class II on microbes do during chronic inflammation processes

activates T cells - producing cytokines - which activate B cells and more cytokines - eventually form immune complex

What is inflammatory periodontal disease an example of and how and when does it occur

Chronic inflammation - the gradual destruction of periodontium; usually before age 20; host response to dental plaque; first stage of disease is gingivitis - gingival tissue becomes inflamed and forms an exudate; involves deepening of the gingival sulcus resulting in development of a periodontal pocket; eventually bacteria products initiate a chronic inflamm response - result in resorbed bone due to osteoclasts

What increases osteoclast activity and bone resorption

Increased RANKL

What type of inflammatory process is periodontal disease, why, and what is the result

non-specific chronic inflammation - all phases are occurring at the same time; you get bone resorption

What is the name for small, separate clusters of activated and differentiated macrophages

granulomas

What does the formation of a granuloma do

provides a mechanism for dealing with particle materials that are difficult to eliminate (e.g. M. tuberculosis, particulate materials)

What are the components of a classic granuloma

Organized collection of mononuclear cells (T and B lymphocytes and macrophages) = round cells, and proliferating fibroblasts

In what type of infection do granulomas contain eosinophils

Chronic parasitic infection

All of the cells that participate in non-specific chronic inflammation are present in what particular structure

Granuloma

What characterizes granulomatous inflammation

Distinct pattern of chronic inflammation characterized by the presence of granulomas


Epithelioid cells


Surrounded by a collar of "round cells" and fibroblasts

What is the name for an activated macrophage

Epithelioid cell

What is contained in a granuloma

Giant cells and Epithelioid cells in the center; lymphocytes, fibroblasts and fibrosis in the periphery

What are giant cells

a committee of fused epithelioid cells; different types: Langhans, Foreign body, Schaumann body, Aschoff, Asteroid body; >50 micrometers in diameter; have abundant cytoplasm

What characterizes epithelioid cells

Pink granular cytoplasm


Indistinct cell boundary


Elongated nucleus


May fuse to form giant cells

What types of cells are these

What types of cells are these

Epithelioid cells - lots of pink cytoplasm, indistinct boundaries, elongated nuclei

What type of giant cell is this

What type of giant cell is this

Langhans - nuclei arrange in periphery like a horseshoe; often seen in TB

What type of giant cell is this

What type of giant cell is this

Foreign body - can see suture next to giant cell; nuclei arranged haphazardly like pepperoni on a pizza

What type of giant cell is this

What type of giant cell is this

Aschoff - look like owl eyes; often see in rheumatic fever

What type of giant cell is this

What type of giant cell is this

Schaumann Body - calcified secretion

What type of giant cell is this

What type of giant cell is this

Asteroid body - star shaped

When/why does granulomatous inflammation occur

when the cellular infiltrate of a tissue that is chronically inflamed is arranged in a distinct pattern (usually it's spread fairly evenly over a large area); creates clusters of granulomas - allows you to deal with particle materials or pathogens that are difficult to eliminate

What is pictured here

What is pictured here

Granuloma - giant cell in the center (Langhans), surrounded by epithelioid cells; collar of lymphocytes/round cells surrounding the granuloma

What must you see upon biopsy in order to consider something granulomatous inflammation

Granulomas (NOT granulation tissue)

Is pyogenic granuloma a granulomatous inflammation or a granulation tissue

Granulation tissue - no granulomas seen in biopsy

What is tuberculosis

Chronic inflammatory disease/granulomatous disease, mostly of the lung, caused by mycobacterium; cant digest mycobacterium so granulomas formed in a miliary pattern; granulomas often caseating (b/c due to infection)

What has occurred to this lung tissue

What has occurred to this lung tissue

Most likely TB - can see granuloma formations close together that appear to be caseating adjacent to normal lung parenchyma

What does this lung depict

What does this lung depict

TB - miliary formation of granulomas

What is a ghon complex

Represents beginning phase of TB in lung - see granulomas forming at site of nucleation and hillar lymph nodes; immune system trying to keep bacteria under control

What is shown here to distinguish TB and fungal infection histologically

What is shown here to distinguish TB and fungal infection histologically, which is it

Acid-fast stain; acid fast bacilli, like that in TB stain red

Is Tuberculosis a granulomatous inflammation or granulation tissue

Granulomatous inflammation

Is Crohn's disease a granulomatous inflammation or granulation tissue

Granulomatous inflammation

Is a Proud Flesh a granulomatous inflammation or granulation tissue

Granulation tissue

What chronic granulomatous disease mainly involves the small intestine; transmural inflammation, fissures, lymphoid aggregations and non-caseating epithelioid granuolmas

Crohn's Disease

What are the signs/symptoms of Crohn's disease in the gut/small intestine and proximal colon

Abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea

In what percent of Crohn's disease cases do you see oral lesions before GI lesions and how do they present

~30%; cobblestone buccal mucosa, swelling of lips

What is the pathogenesis of Crohn's Disease

Loss of autophagy - paneth cells contain granules with lysosomal enzymes and anti-microbial peptides that usually keep bacteria at bay; deletion/mutation of gene for autophagy - lose granular contents - macrophages uncontrolled

What are common examples of causes of non-infectious granulomatous inflammation

Foreign body particles: breast implant silicone leakage, sutures and restorative dental materials in oral tissues, talc injected by iv drug users

What multisystem chronic granulomatous disease has unknown etiology

Sarcoidosis; blacks more frequently effected than whites; 90% of cases involve the lung; 25% of cases have cutaneous manifestations (lupus perio lesions); often have red macules on hard palate/lower labial mucosa

What types of giant cells are frequently found in patients wtih sarcoidosis

Schaumann bodies - calcified secretions

What does diagnosis of sarcoidosis usually depend on

Radiograph - bilateral hilar lymphaenopathy


OR Pulmonary fibrosis


Biopsy of affected tissue


Positive kveim test (inject sarcoid tissue into someone with suspected sarcoidosis)


Raised serum levels of ACE in active phases

What chronic granulomatous disease does this patient most likely have

What chronic granulomatous disease does this patient most likely have

Sarcoidosis - lupus perio (lesions on face)

What chronic granulomatous disease does this patient most likely have

What chronic granulomatous disease does this patient most likely have

Sarcoidosis - macules on hard palate

What is the typical treatment for sarcoidosis

60% of cases resolve within 2 years


Corticosteroids


Methotrexate


TNF-alpha antagonist

What is the syndrome that involves unilateral facial paralysis, facial swelling (of one or both lips) and fissured tongue

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome (type of orofacial granulomatosis) - rare triad of signs

What is the syndrome that involves swelling of the lips and chararacteristic microscopical appearances

Miescher's syndrome/Chelitis Granulomatosa (type of orofacial granulomatosis) - ONLY lips involved

What type of infection can you compare a tooth/pulp infection to, and what are the differences

Appendix - both enclosed


- appendix infection due to obstruction


- tooth/pulp infection due to breakdown in dentinal area


- appendix infection can move sideways


- tooth/pulp infection can only spread down

What type of pulp infection is virulent/pyogenic

Periapical abscess

What type of pulp infection is less virulent/non-pyogenic

Periapical granuloma

What are the three major causes of pulp pathology

1) Mechanical - trauma, iatrogenic, attrition, abrasion


2) Thermal/Chemical - dental procedure, acidic materials


3) Bacterial - caries

What are the three protective responses against caries (make sure bacteria doesn't get into pulp)

1) Decreased permeability of dentin


2) Formation of new dentin


3) inflammatory and immune reactions

What is the most common cause of pulp disease

Dental caries - localized, progressive destruction of tooth structure

How does dental caries cause infection of the pulp

Products of bacterial metabolism (organic acids and proteolytic enzymes) cause destruction of enamel and dentin - metabolites diffuse from lesion to the pulp and elicit an inflammatory reaction - eventually have extensive involvement of dentin to cause bacterial infection of pulp

What is the most common response to dental caries

Dentinal sclerosis - dentinal tubules become partly or completely filled with mineral deposits (either caries crystals or peritubular dentin formation - results from tooth abrasion)

What is the primary effect of dentinal sclerosis

Decreasing dentin permeability

What types of cells must be present/vital in tubules for dentinal sclerosis to occur

Odontoblasts

What type of dentin forms during tooth development

Developmental/Primary

What type of dentin forms following the completion of tooth development throughout the life of the tooth

Physiological/Secondary

What type of dentin forms only in response to a specific stimulus/irritant at the base of dentinal tubules

Reparative (Irregular secondary or Tertiary)

What is the purpose of reparative dentin

Defense mechanism against loss of enamel, dentin or cementum

What happens to reparative dentin in response to an aggressive insult

Swiss-cheese pattern - laid down very haphazardly, areas of soft tissue become entrapped in developing matrix

What two factors determine the quality of reparative dentin

1) nature/magnitude of the stimulus/irritant


2) status of the pulp - healthy pulp, better quality



Generally less tubular and less well calcified

What two factors determine the severity of pulpal inflammation

Depth - of bacterial penetration


Degree - to which dentin permeability has been reduced by dentinal sclerosis/reparative dentin formation

What appears clinically at the pulp if a lot of neutrophils accumulate

Abscess - pus formed when neutrophils release their lysosomal enzymes and surrounding tissue digested (liquefactive necrosis)

Why are abscesses at the pulp often painful

the area where tissue digestion is occurring has greater osmotic pressure than the surrounding tissue; the pressure differential increases the sensitivity of sensory nerve endings

What are the anatomic features of a tooth that affect pulp inflammation

Unyielding calcified walls - limits swelling


Constricted blood source - limits blood supply, subject to strangulation


Tooth surrounded by bone - bone infection common

How do you classify pulpitis

Reversible or irreversible

What type of pulpitis is characterized by a mild/moderate, short duration, easily localized, elicited pain response to cold

Reversible

What type of pulpitis is characterized by a sharp/severe, long duration, unable to localize, spontaneous response to heat

Irreversible

What is the response of reversible vs irreversible pulpitis to electric pulp testing (EPT)

Reversible - response at low current


Irreversible - response at high current or no response

What is the histopathology of reversible pulpitis and how is it treated

Hyperemia/Edema


Reparative dentin



Tx by removing irritation

What is the histopathology of irreversible pulpitis and how is it treated

Congestion of venules/necrosis


Necrotic tissue


Chronic inflammation/fibrosis



Tx with extraction or root canal

Which form of pulpitis (reversible or irreversible) has mobility/sensitivity to percussion

Neither usually; pulp hasn't spread to underlying bone

What other tissues is pulp similar to and why

Brain, bone marrow, nail bed; housed within mineralized tissue, so in a low compliance environment - no room to swell with inflammation - can create a marked increased in intrapulpal pressure

What does the pulp depend on for its blood supply

Arterioles entering the apical foramen (no collateral circulation)

What is the most common cause of pulp death

Bacterial infection

How does the pulp die in presence of pyogenic bacteria

Liquefactive necrosis - production of pus/abscess

What are the three types of pulpal necrosis

Liquefactive - heterolysis of cell components by neutrophils; pus and abscess formation



Coagulative - interference with blood supply, hypoxia; NO infection



Gangrenous - necrosis with saprophytic bacteria; putrefaction - very extensive degradation of pulp; produce nitrogenous products, smelly

What type of tissue is the connective tissue of the pulp continuous with and what does this connection do

Periodontal ligament tissue adjoining the root apex - connection facilitates spread of disease from pulp to periapical tissues

What determines whether a periapical granuloma or an abscess will form from an inflammatory lesion in the periapical tissues

Virulence of bacteria in the root canal


Status of host defense system



Cell mediated response - periapical granuloma


pyogenic organisms predominate - periapical abscess

What is the clinical term for periapical granuloma formation from increased number and pathogenicity of pyogenic organisms

Acute suppurative response

What type of pulpitis is characterized by infection, necrotic pulp, pain, swelling, elevation of tooth, sensitivity to percussion, fever, malaise, no response to thermal or EPT, lots of PMNs, liquefactive necrosis, early on thickening of PDL and late diffuse bone loss

Periapical abscess

What are the characteristics of a periapical abscess that develops as a direct extension of suppurative pulpitis

develops rapidly, associated with pain, swelling, elevation of tooth in socket; may not be radiographic evidence of periapical bone loss for a week or more after symptoms first appear

If a periapical lesion has been present for a while, what might a radiograph show

Diffuse area of bone loss that has a "moth-eaten" appearance

What is it called when an acute periapical abscess develops within a preexisting granuloma

Phoenix abscess - resembles a granuloma radiographically

What has occurred at the root apex with acute exacerabtion or a flare-up

results after endo treatment; trauma from instrumentation and introduction of pyogenic bacteria into chronic inflammatory tissue at root apex results in suppuration and pain

What is the purpose of abscess drainage and where does it occur

pus seeks pressure release; may occur through root canal of affected tooth; more common to have a lateral drainage pathway or sinus tract that's created through adjacent tissues - by penetrating the alveolar process at its thinnest point and allowing infection to spread - progression to chronic stage

What is a small sessile nodule on the mucosa adjacent to affected (periapical abscess) tooth

parulis (gum boil) - pus flow from abscess to here through sinus tract

What happens when a parulis ruptures and pus escapes, the lesion regresses and then swells and ruptures again (cyclical)

Ludwig's Angina - bilateral infection in floor of mouth; can also involve submental and sublingual; need to resolve quickly, otherwise difficulty breathing/swallowing

What is a periapical granuloma

Mass of chronically inflamed granulative tissue at the apex of a non-vital tooth; NOT true granuloma; results in radiolucency visible on radiograph; large number of macrophages; fibroblasts and collagen enclose on periphery in capsular arrangement; usually asymptomatic

How do small vs large periapical granulomas appear

Small - thickening of PDL


Large - well-circumscribed radiolucency

How do you successfully treat a periapical granuloma

eliminate microorganisms; root canal filling if tooth restorable; periapical surgery if lesion >2cm or tooth not appropriate for endo; non-restorable teeth must be extracted

What is a periapical cyst

Formed if pulpal canal of periapical granuloma containing necrotic tissue not treated - transforms in several months to a year; epithelium lined cavity within a tissue; commonly in the jaw; usually no symptoms; appears identical to periapical granuloma radiographically and tx is the same; cysts contain mostly fluid

What does a Phoenix abscess appear like radiographically

Looks like a periapical granuloma; presents with radiolucency

What is osteomyelitis

infection of the bone marrow space; uncommon in normal, healthy patients; can be acute or chronic; very serious condition that causes destruction of large amounts of bone; usually from odontogenic infection or jaw fractures; more common in males; mandible more susceptible than maxilla

What is bone devoid of osteocytes called

Sequestrum - dead bone

What is sequestration

Dead bone wont be resorbed by osteoclasts, spreads to surface and exfoliated

What inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

What inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

Acute osteomyelitis - bone has no osteocytes; it's sequestra

What are the clinical manifestations of acute osteomyelitis

severe pain, swelling, malaise, elevated WBC count; radiographs show an ill-defined radiolucency and sequestration of necrotic bone

When is chronic osteomyelitis of the jaws formed

if acute osteomyelitis left untreated or in absence of clinically detectable acute phase; inflammation is less intense and clinical symptoms milder than acute; bone appears moth-eaten

What inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

What inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

Chronic osteomyelitis - foci of chronic inflammatory cells (not seen in acute), fibrosis, sequestra, pockets of abscess

Why is chronic osteomyelitis more difficult to treat than acute; how must it be treated

Dead bone and microbes are shielded by fibrous tissue; limited blood supply



Surgical intervention mandatory - remove all infected tissues; also high dose, long-term iv antibiotics

What is condensing osteitis

localized lesion; represents reactive hyperplasia of bone (increase in cell number); considered a mild form of chronic inflammation that develops in response to long-standing, low grade pulp infection; more common in patients under 30; usually develops in mandible, near first molar; tx with endo or extraction

What type of inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

What type of inflammatory response in the jaw is seen here

Condensing osteitis - appears radiopaque radiographically in periapical region; all other forms of osteitis and periapical lesion appear radiolucent

Exophytic

Lesion growing above the surface, or presents this way (e.g. bump on the skin)

Sessile

Mass that you can't really move around; appears as a bump on mucosa that you can feel and see; hard to remove

Pedunculated

Can move the mass around; attached to the tissue by a stalk (like a leaf attached to the treat by a stem - you can move the leaf around); easy to remove the entire lesion at the stem

Biopsy

Surgical procedure; almost all physical pathology warrants a biopsy for diagnosis

What are the two types of biopsy

Excisional - entire lesion/mass surgically removed, circumferentially/at the base



Incisional - take part of the lesion/piece of tissue and leave rest of mass intact

What results from excisional vs incisional biopsy

Excisional - could be diagnostic or therapeutic; if mass is benign then this is the complete treatment



Incisional - do this when you're not sure what you're dealing with clinically or if lesion too large to completely remove; diagnosis guides treatment (cancer - excise the tissue; benign lesion - localized procedure)

What are two different incisional biopsy techniques

punch biopsy - use a tool with a circular blade at the end, like a hole puncher - punch out the tissue area and send to the lab for analysis



scalpel - take a piece of the mass, put in 10% formaldehyde, send to lab for analysis, diagnose, determine how to treat patient

What is a differential diagnosis

process of listing two or more diseases with similar signs and symptoms; initially list 5-7 possible diagnoses then narrow list to no more than three



determines additional tests that you can use to diagnose (e.g. blood test, biopsy, stool sample)

What are the three causes of tissue injury

Physical


Chemical


Trauma

What is linea alba and is it considered physiologic or pathologic

chronic friction (between teeth and mucosal tissue) leading to epithelial hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis; asymptomatic unilateral or bilateral white lines on buccal mucosa at level of occlusal plane



technically a pathology because it's not found in all mouths; but not really considered clinical pathology, just a variation of normal tissue

What are three examples of factitious trauma

Factitious injury - self-induced (deliberate or non-deliberate)



Morsicatio buccarum - cheek


Morsicatio labiorum - lip


Morsicatio linguarum - tongue

What can be observed clinically/histologically from morsicatio labiorum

lip biting; considered a deliberate injury; clinical pathology, but no significant histological changes, just some acute inflammatory cells, no great tissue change

What can be observed clinically/histologically from morsicatio buccarum

cheek biting; more chronic in presentation than lip biting injury, may see tissue changes in biopsy



most chronic change is hyperplastic - see more epithelial cells than in normal tissue

What are the four categories of bruising attributable to trauma

Petechiae - pinpoint


Purpura - slightly larger than petechiae


Ecchymosis - true bruise; more than 2cm in diameter


Hematoma - large swelling, palpable



first three are macular, hematoma is raised (mass filled with blood)

What happens if a bruise persists

If it's a normal bruise related to trauma it should resolve on its own in a 10-14 days; if pathology lasts for more than a couple weeks, should determine cause, probably underlying systemic disease

What are the three differential diagnoses for Petechiae and what tests do you do to determine the cause

Trauma - take pt history, learn if it suggests trauma


Systemic - blood testing


Viral - add'l testing to rule out viral infection

What are the most common causes and sites of Petechiae

Trauma - forceful cough, bulimia, BJs


Systemic - coagulation type disorders (hemophilia, thrombocytopenia)


Viral infections - epstein-barr virus, mononucleosis; measles, HIV



Commonly occur on soft palate in oral petechiae

What is a bruise

trauma-induced extravasation of blood into surrounding tissues

What are purpura, how do they differ from petechiae

slightly larger area of subdermal or submucosal hemorrhage; can be induced by trauma, or by systemic disease (e.g. thrombocytopenia)

What is an ecchymosis

hemorrhagic accumulation of over 2 cm; usually induced by trauma with or without underlying systemic disease (e.g. hemophilia)

What is the most common cause of intraoral ulceration

Trauma

What are non-specific ulcers, how do they occur and when do they usually heal

intraoral ulceration caused by trauma; sudden onset, usually induced by a sharp cusp or restoration, fractured appliance, etc; non-specific because they have no distinct histologic features except ulceration of epithelium and acute/chronic inflammation

What is an example of an ulcer that may persist for an extended period of time even with treatment

Eosinophilic ulcer

What is the clinical presentation of an eosinophilic ulcer

irregular, solitary ulcer surfaced by a fibrinous membrane an surrounded by a zone of erythema; margins typically raised and indurated; may emanate pus; any mucosal surface may be affected, but tongue = ~60% of cases

What can many cases of eosinophilic ulcers and reactive hyperplasias resemble

Cancer

How do eosinophilic ulcers appear histologically

mixed inflammatory reaction - large mononuclear cells, numerous eosinophils, and lymphocytes

What types of ulcers should ALWAYS be biopsied and what should the biopsy include

Non-healing ulcers; differential diagnosis is trauma, infection, cancer



Biopsy of eroded or ulcerated area should ALWAYS include a portion of adjacent, intact epithelium

What is the disease in which a form of eosinophilic ulcer develops in infants and why does this occur

Riga-Fede disease; usually occurs on anterior ventral tongue; associated with developing anterior primary teeth and nursing; usually resolved by using a protective shield over damaged tissue

What are often given to provide temporary relief/comfort when someone has an eosinophilic ulcer

NSAIDs or topical anesthetics, topical corticosteroids with Orabase

What are examples of caustic chemicals that dentists frequently use in clinical practice and what do they do

Methyl methacrylate - keep component of acrylic (may develop contact dermatitis or contact stomatitis)


Sodium hypochlorite/bleach - used in root canal therapy (chemical burn)



Chemical burn lesions usually resolve without scarring in 10-14 days if patient discontinues use of agent; if necrotic - surgical debridement and antibiotics

What is a common example of a thermal burn

pizza burn - appears as area of erythema and ulceration with focal necrosis; usually heal within a few days

What is an extreme example of a thermal burn and what occurs

Electrical burn; Usually when mucosa contacts exposed wire; lips most frequently affected; involves charring of area, marked edema, and eventually necrosis; treatment includes tetanus immunization, antibiotics



Extensive scarring may develop during healing - microstomia (want to prevent this)

What is nicotine stomatitis an example of and what occurs

reactive hyperplasia; benign, asymptomatic condition of palate in smokers; develops in response to the heat generated by the tobacco product, not to the carcinogens; usually in pipe smokers (more heat); presents as red dots (dilated or obstructed salivary glands) and then gray-white papules (inflamed minor salivary glands); see hyperplastic, hyperkeratotic epithelium over mild, chronically inflamed CT; completely reversible if pt stops smoking, healing within 1-2 weeks

What is denture-induced reactive hyperplasia

result of ill-fitting dentures, bad denture hygiene or wearing dentures 24 hours a day; associated with Candida albicans; presents as multiple, asymptomatic erythematous papillary or papular projections in epithelium with underlying well-vascularized, very inflamed, fibrous CT; inflammatory response - lymphocytes and plasma cells; tx by denture removal, improved denture hygiene, reline/refabricate denture, topical anti-fungal, surgical excision if serious (don't misdiagnose as cancer!)

What type of reactive hyperplasia is associated with Candida albicans

Denture-induced

What is an epulis fissuratum

reactive lesion that develops in response to chronic irritation or trauma; induced by ill-fitting denture; more so in females; presents as asymptomatic, unilateral or bilateral folds of hyperplastic tissue in vestibules; typically clinically diagnostic but should be biopsied because could be carcinoma; dense hyperplastic, fibrous CT with hyperparakeratotic and hyperplastic epithelium; usually treat with surgical excision, also reline/refabricate denture

What three lesion types are induced by ill-fitting dentures

Denture-induced reactive hyperplasia


Epulis fissuratum


Leaf-like denture fibroma

What is a leaf-like denture fibroma

reactive lesion in response to ill-fitting denture; typically a flat, pedunculated, serrated mass on hard palate underneath max denture; dense, hyperplastic, fibrous CT with hyperparakeratotic and hyperplastic epithelium; surgical excision, reline/refabricate denture

What is a reactive osseous and chondromatous metaplasia

cutright lesion; in response to chronic mechanical denture irritation; presents as solitary, painful, tumor-like, exophytic growth, develops on atrophied alveolar ridge (usually posterior mandibular); tx: curative excisional biopsy, recontour/graft alveolar ridge, new denture; see metaplastic cartilage and bone

What are some of the etiologic factors that can induce generalized gingival hyperplasia

Local factors - plaque, calculus


Hormonal factors - puberty and pregnancy


Medications - phenytoin, cyclosporin, nifedipine (three most common causes of this disorder)


Leukemia


Hereditary factors

How does generalized gingival hyperplasia present

begins as marginal gingivitis, followed by enlargement of interdental papillae; erythema and edema due to superimposed inflammation; dental plaque and calculus/oral hygiene plays a huge role



tx: gingivectomy, good oral hygiene program, stop meds

What are the four main examples of tumor-like reactive growth

Irritation fibroma


Pyogenic granuloma


Peripheral ossifying fibroma


Peripheral giant cell granuloma

What is the most common intraoral soft tissue growth

Fibroma

How do most fibromas develop

In response to chronic irritation or trauma

How does a fibroma usually present

As a smooth surfaced, painless, sessile, nodular growth of varying size; similar or lighter color than surrounding mucosa; can become secondarily symptomatic; seen anywhere in oral mucosa; NO malignant potential

How do most pyogenic granulomas develop

reactive lesion in response to chronic irritation or trauma or altered physiologic condition; more so in females - possible hormonal influence

How does a pyogenic granuloma present

Polypoid, red, pedunculated mass that bleeds easily when touched; can grow rapidly and achieve large size within a few weeks; overlying mucosa ulcerated; usually see on gingiva, especially in pregnant women; periapical radiograph reveals cupping/pressure resorption of underlying alveolar bone; commonly on fingers and face; granulation tissue histology; recurrence common

What is a variant of pyogenic granuloma that develops exclusively on the gingiva

Epulis granulomatosum; grow out of recent extraction socket, may represent exuberant tissue response to an irritant

What is a peripheral ossifying fibroma

reactive lesion in response to chronic irritation or trauma; mainly in young adults/adolescents, more so in females; ONLY in gingiva, usually from interdental papilla

How does a peripheral ossifying fibroma present

red, sessile or pedunculated mass of varying size; usually present a number of weeks before noticed; usually ulcerated; radiopacity in radiograph; cupping/pressure resorption of underlying alveolar bone; dystrophic calcifications

What is a peripheral giant cell granuloma

benign, reactive lesion that develops in response to chronic irritating factors - tooth extraction, ill-fitting denture, calculus; usually 40-60 years old; more so in females; usually sessile; ONLY on gingiva/edentulous ridge; can be 2cm; ulceration secondary to trauma; cupping/pressure resorption on underlying alveolar bone

How does a peripheral giant cell granuloma present histologically

unencapsulated, richly cellular mass - abundant, scattered multinucleated giant cells; atrophic or ulcerated epithelium with significant intersitial hemorrhage; hemosiderin deposits; islands of metaplastic bone