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536 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What benign tumor of the epithelial tissue has a "stuck on appearance" and hyperkeratotoic pigmented papules and plaques?
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seborrheic keratosis
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Dermatosis papulosa nigra is another name for _____ in African Americans
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seborrheic keratosis
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The sign of _____ is a sudden onset of numerous seborrheic keratosis
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Lesser Tralet
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Are the outgrowths of seborrheic keratosis scaly?
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Yes
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Histologically, keratin horn cyts are seen with what skin disorder?
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seborrheic keratosis
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This skin disorder is associated with obesity and endocrine disorders and sudden onset may be an occult maligancy
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Acanthosis Nigricans
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Fibroepithelial polyps are comonly known as ____ and is seen histologically as a slender fibrovascular stalk covered by benign epidermis
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skin tags
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A self-limited, spontaneously healing, rapidly growing lesion in sun-exposed Caucasians (usually > 50 years old)
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Keratoacanthoma
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Histologically this presents as a cup shaped epithelial proliferation with a central keratin plug. The surrounding epidermis extends in a liplike manner over the sides of crater.
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Keratoacanthoma
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Common, well circumscribed, firm dermal or subcutaneous nodules formed by down growth and cystic expansion of the epidermis or hair follicular epithelum is known as an ____ cyst
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epithelial
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A small epidermal inclusion cyst is known as a ____
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milium
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Epithelial Inclusion cysts can also be known as sebaceous cysts. True or False?
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True
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What is a lipid deposition that typically occurs around the eye? Appears as a soft yellow plaque on eyelids
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xanthoma
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A patient with xanthoma should have what type of work up done?
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lipid profile
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What is the most common form of cancer in the US?
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skin cancer
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Are basal cell carcinomas or squamous cell carcinomas more common?
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basal cell carcinoma
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Premalignant, dysplastic lesion associated with chronic sun exposure is an _____
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Actinic (Solar) Keratosis
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A dysplatic nevus is the premalignant form of ____
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melanoma
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Actinic keratosis is associated with ____ exposed areas
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sun
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Does actinic keratosis present with scaly skin and hyperkeratosis?
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Yes
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Is HPV one of the predisposing factors of squamous cell carcinoma?
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Yes
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In-situ squamous cell carcinoma is also called ____ disease
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Bowens
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In-Situ SCC has “full thickness epidermal atypia” (versus
actinic keratosis has only basal atypia) True or False? |
True
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Squamous cell carcinoma that has broken through the basement membrane is known as in-situ SCC or invasive SCC?
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invasive
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Is there epidermal maturation in in situ squamous cell carcinoma?
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No
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A non-healing ulcer with breaking through of the dermal-epidermal junction into the underlying dermis and also hyperkeratotic
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invasive squamous cell carcinoma
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White thickened plaques or leukoplakia is seen with mucosal involvement in ____ cell carcinoma
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squamous
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Do basal cell carcinomas present the majority of the time as pearly papules?
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Yes
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Skip lesions are seen histologically in ____ cell carcinoma
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basal
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_____ start out along basal layer, increased # of melanocytes, increased undulation, more surface area
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Lentigo
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Do lentigos darken during sun exposure?
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No, in contract to freckles
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Is lentigo a flat or raised area on the skin?
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flat
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A junctional nevus if found at the the dermal, epidermal junction. A compoound nevus is in the dermis and epidermis. Thus it is ____ and an intradermal nevus is only in the dermis
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elevated
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Is a blue nevus congential?
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Yes, more common in the scalp and saccral region
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A ____ nevus looks like a white circle around a pigmented region
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halo
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Dysplastic nevus syndrome can be inherited as an autosomal ____ inheritance
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dominant
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What is the most fatal skin cancer?
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malignant melanoma
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What is the 2nd most common cancer in people from 15-29 years of age? most common?
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melanoma
leukemia |
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Does melanoma spread through both lymphatics and blood?
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Yes
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The most important clinical sign of melanoma is _____
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change in color
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What are the two phases of growth of melanoma?
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radial growth phase and vertical growth phase
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A nodular melanoma mimics a ___ nevus
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blue
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Is a lentigo malignant melanoma flat or raised?
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flat
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Acral lentiginous melanomas are more common in blacks and asians. True or False?
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True
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S100 is positive in what type of skin cancer?
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melanoma
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The breslow depth measure the vertical tumor death of what type of cancer?
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melanoma
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What Clark level is reticular dermis involvement?
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Clark level IV
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A dermatofibroma is usually seen in what parts of the body?
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legs
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Central dimpling occurs in what type of fibroma?
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dermatofibroma
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Do dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans usually metastasize?
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No rarely, but are locally aggressive
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Does dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans usually develop on the trunk or extremities?
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trunk
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A rubbing lesional skin that makes a wheal (Darier's sign) is seen with ___cytosis
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mastocytosis
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What is dermatographism?
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When you rub an area of skin, that skin turns red
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Urticaria Pigementoa is a form of ____ and usually occurs in children and infants
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mastocytosis
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Cutaneous form of histiocytosis X resembles seborrheic dermatitis. True or False?
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True
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Mycosis Fungoides mimics ___
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psorasis
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What are the three stages of mycosis fungiodes?
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1) Patch stage
2) Plaque stage 3) Tumor stage |
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What is a common site for patches of mycosis fungiodes?
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buttocks
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With mycosis fungioes there will be clusters of ____ in epidermis
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lymphocytes
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Sezary's Syndrome is regarded as the leukemic from of ____
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mycosis fungiodes
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Sezary cells are seen in cutaneous T cell lymphoma. True or False?
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True
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Urticaria is another name for ____
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hives
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Urticaria is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction and Ig_
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IgE
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Chronic eczema will lead to the development of a thick ____
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epidermis
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Does allergic contact dermatitis result in a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
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Yes
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Seborrheic dermatitis is seen in areas of ___ production
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oil
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Hereditary Angioneurotic Edema is caused by a hereditary deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. True or False?
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True
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Is there parakeratosis in eczema?
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Yes
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Is erythema multiform usually a drug induced allergy?
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Yes
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Do people who have atopic dermatitis usually have a positive family history of eczema?
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Yes
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A "cradle cap" refers to Seborrheic dermatitis commonly seen in infants. True or False?
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True
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Stevens-Johnson Syndrome is a severe form of ____
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Erythema multiforme
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Characteristic bull’s eye target lesions vesiculobullous lesions
involving extremities (especially palms and soles), is seen in what disease? |
Erythema multiforme
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Erthythema multiform is due to toxic ____ lymphocyte injury and basal keatinocyte degerantion
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CD8
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Toxic epidermal necrosis involves necrosis of the full thickness of ____
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epidermis
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Panniculitis is inflammation of ___
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fat
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Erythema nodosum is painful inflammation of subcutaneous fat on the lower ____ legs and is much more common in females
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anterior
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Are oral contraceptives one of the causative agents of erythema nodosum?
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Yes
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This condition is characterized by chronic skin disorder with silvery, scaling, salmon pink papules and plaques in a characteristic distribution
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Psoriasis
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In Psoriasis, new lesions develop at site of trauma. This is known as _____ phenomenon
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Koebner's
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Acute onset Psoriasis or Pustular Psoriasis is also known as Von Zumbusch Syndrome. True of False?
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True
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Is psoriasis usually seen in abdominal regions?
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No, usually see in extremities
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Munro's abscesses are aggregates of _____ in epidermis
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neutrophils
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In Psoriasis the stratum ____ is thinned or absent
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granulosum
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The Auspitz sign --> removal of skin scale see tiny droplets of blood from the blood vessels in the dermal papillae is characteristic of what disease?
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Psoriasis
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Nail changes (discoloration, “oil spot”, pitting and onycholysis) occur in 30% of patients with _____
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psoriasis
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Multiple, symmetrically distributed pruritic polygonal, purple papules that may coalesce into plaques, often highlighted by white lines
(“Wickham’s Striae”) is characteristic of what disease? |
Lichen Planus
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What is a common place on the body to see Lichen Planus?
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wrists
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Discoid lupus erythematosis usually occurs in what type of areas?
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sun exposed
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With lupus erythematosis there is ____ of epidermis
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thinning
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Histologically with lupus erythematosus there is a granular band of Ig___ complement along the dermal-epidermal junction
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IgG
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A verruca is better known as a ___
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wart
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A wart is caused by what virus?
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human papilloma virus
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Irregular nuclei surround by cytoplasmic halos are seen histologically with what skin disease? also hyperplastic, papillated epidermis?
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Verruca
koilocytotic changes |
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Molluscum Contagiosum is discrete, umbilicated, pearly white papules caused by what virus?
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pox
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Are HIV infected individuals more likely to suffer from molluscum contagiosum?
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Yes
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Impetigo is caused by infection of what bacteria?
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Strep or Staph
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Histology this disease is seen with subcorneal pustules with gram positive cocci and neutrophils
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Impetigo
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Tinea is a superficial ___ infection
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fungal
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Dermatophytes are fungi that survive only in ____ tissue
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nonviable keratinzed
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Onychomycosis is caused by ___ infection
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fungal
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Scabies burrows in the stratum ____
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corneum
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Scabies likes to infect what places?
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webs between digits
genital skin |
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Is post menopausal osteoporosis low turnover or high turnover osteoporosis?
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high turnover
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In senile osteoporosis there are poorly functional ___ and ___
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osteobasts and osteoclasts
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In post-menopausal osteoporosis there is normal bone formation with increased _____
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osteoclasts
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A decreased level of ____ may lead to an increase in the secretion of certain cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF, M-CSF) by stromal cells that act to recruit osteoclasts and increase osteoclastic resorption.
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estrogen
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Several cancers can involve or metastasize to the ____, including lung, breast, prostate, multiple myeloma
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bone
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Bisphophonates inhibit ____ function
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osteoclast
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Bisphosphonates also act on the _____, to either increase inhibitors or decrease promoters of osteoclast action or recruitment
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osteoblasts
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What two diseases are associated with accumulation of unmineralized bone matrix resulting from a diminished rate of mineralization?
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Osteomalacia and rickets
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Osteomalacia and rickets can be caused by dietary deficiency in vitamin __
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D
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Will hyperparathyroidism increase or decrease bone resorption?
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increase
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In hyperparathyroidism there is classic change in the tissue referred to as osteitis fibrosa cystica where there are also ____-laden macrophage
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hemosiderin
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Paget Diseaseis caused by initial ____ activity due to defective remodeling followed by disorganized hyperplastic bone formation ____ phase
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osteoclastic
osteoblastic |
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What condition gives the gross appearance of a brown tumor in bone?
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hyperparathyroidism
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Is there pain associated with Padget's Disease?
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Yes
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Osteogenesis Imperfect is an autosomal dominant disease of connective tissue caused by a mutation in the gene for Type __ collagen
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Type I
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Blue sclera is commonly seen in patients who suffer from?
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta
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Do people who suffer from osteopetrosis have radiodense or radioluscent bone?
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radiodense
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Does intramembranous or membranous bone growth occur first after bone fracture?
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intramembranous
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The most common sites involved for this disease are the lumbosacral spine, pelvis and skull.
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Paget's Disease
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Histologically, the disease is characterized by abnormal lamellar bone with prominent cement lines resulting in a “mosaic appearance
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Paget's Disease
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Osteopetrosis results from a defect in ____ activity
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osteoclastic
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Osteomyeloitis is a ____ infection of the bone
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bacterial
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Following a fracture, a ____ first develops at the fracture site
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hematoma
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70-90% of Osteomyeloitis is caused by what pathogen? However people with sickle cell disease are prone to getting osteomyelitis with what other pathogen?
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coagulase positive Staph
SCD= salmonella |
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sequestrum is ___ bone whereas involucrum is ___ bone (use either new or dead
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dead
new |
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______ is a non-neoplastic condition that can present in 2 forms: monostotic and polyostotic.
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Fibrous dysplasia
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Is monostotic or polyostotic fibrous dysplasia associated with McCune-Albright syndrome? This latter syndrome is the result of a somatic mutation of the ___ oncogene in affected tissues that results in the activation of the signal-transduction pathway that generates cyclic AMP.
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polyostotic
c-fos |
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Does the coarse woven bone seen in fibrous dysplasia ever transform to lamellar bone?
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No
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Can fibrous dysplasia result in malignant transformation?
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Yes, can rarely lead to osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma
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Cartilage attrition seen in osteoarthritis can be caused by the production of what cytokines?
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tumor necrosis factor -alpha
IL-1 |
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Extreme OA is referred to as ____ joint
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Charcot
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Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic disease of unknown etiology that frequently involves the _____ lining of the peripheral joints
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synovial
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RA is strongly associated with HLA-___
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HLA-DR4
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What is a major autoantibody produced in RA?
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rhematoid factor
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Pathologically, in RA there is marked synovial hyperplasia. This appears to be driven by the cytokine ____
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IL-1
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Approximately 25% of patients with RA have subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules, most commonly over the (extensor or flexor) surfaces of the elbow and forearm. The rheumatoid nodule is characterized by an irregular shape and a central zone of necrotic fibrinoid material surrounded by a palisade of histiocytes and some chronic inflammatory cells.
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extensor
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Methotrexate is an immunosuppressive agent and is used to treat ____
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rheumatoid arthritis
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ankylosing spondylitis and Reiter syndrome are more common in men or women? what HLA allele are they associated with
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men
HLA-B27 |
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______ involves the vertebral column and sacro-iliac joints. _____ classically occurs following an episode of venereal disease and is characterized by the triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis and seronegative polyarthritis.
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Ankylosing spondylitis
Reiter syndrome |
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Gout is a heterogeneous group of diseases characterized by increased ______ levels with deposition of urate crystals in the joints and kidneys
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uric acid
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Treatment of ____ includes allopurinol to competitively inhibit xanthine oxidase.
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gout
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Laboratory findings of gout show synovial fluid with ____ birefringence under polarized light
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negative
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Gout occurs predominantly in men with a peak incidence in the fifth decade. There is an association with certain environmental factors including _____ intake.
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alcohol
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What is gouty tophi?
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Deposition of uric crystals in joints or soft tissue
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Are osteoid osteomas more painful during the day or at night?
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at night
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Osteoid osteomas are benign tumors of which bone cell? Do they usually occur in young or old people?
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osteoblasts
young |
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In long bone osteoid osteomas occur predominantly in the ____physis.
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metaphysis
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Do osteoid osteomas look radiodense or radioluscent on radiographs?
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radiolucent
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Central hemorrhagic nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone is the gross finding in which bone disease?
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osteiod osteoma
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How do you usually treat someone with osteoid osteoma?
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bone excision
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Osteoblastoma is just a giant ______ and occurs most commonly in the axial skeleton and metaphysis of long bones
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osteoid osteoma
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What is the most frequent primary malignant bone tumor?
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osteosarcoma
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Malignant cells of osteosarcoma must produce ____
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osteoid
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Do osteosarcomas usually occur in young or old people?
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young
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The formation of Codman triangles are characteristic of what bone disease? These tumors usually occur in the metaphysis of bone
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osteosarcoma
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Is there cortical destruction in osteosarcoma?
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yes
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______ are often divided into osteoblastic, chondroblastic and fibroblastic groups dependent upon the dominant histologic pattern
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osteosarcomas
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Chondroma is a benign tumor composed of mature____
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hyaline cartilage
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What is the most common tumor of the bones of the hand?
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enchondroma
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What are the two syndromes that are characterized by multiple chondromas?
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Ollier's Disease and Maffucci's Syndrome
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What bones are mostly likely to develop chondromas?
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small bones in the hands and feet
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In a chondroma is the cortex usually intact or destroyed?
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intact
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What is the most frequent benign bone tumor?
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osteochondroma
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An osteochondroma is an autosomal ____ disorder of osteochrondromatosis with risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma
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dominant
|
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Osteochondromas usually occur in what region of bones?
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metaphysis
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In what bone tumor is there a prominent cartilaginous cap.
|
osteochondroma
|
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Is a chondroblastoma benign or malignant?
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benign
|
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What is the most common primary epiphyseal tumor in children?
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chondroblastoma
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What is a common tumor that occurs with the patella in children?
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chondroblastoma
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Is there destruction of the cortex with chondroblastomas?
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No
|
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_____ is a rare, benign tumor derived from cartilage-forming connective tissue.
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Chondromyxoid Fibroma
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|
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Does a chondromyxoid fibroma destroy the cortex?
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Yes, it is one of two benign lesions that does so, the other being Giant cell tumor
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Is chondrosarcoma a cancer of adulthood or childhood?
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adulthood
|
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Three important diagnostic radiographic signs of this bone cancer are ill-defined margins, fusiform thickening of the shaft and perforation of the cortex
|
chondrosarcoma
|
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A large bone tumor with myxoid properties is suggestive of a benign or malignant tumor?
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malignant
|
|
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Is a chondrosarcoma S100 positive?
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Yes
|
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What is the most likely place for a chondrosarcoma to spread?
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lung
|
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What is the treatment of choice for chondrosarcomas?
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surgery, it is radioresistant
|
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What is the most common primary epiphyseal tumor of ADULTS?
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giant cell tumor
|
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Chondrosarcoma is distinguished from _____ by lack of direct osteoid or bone formation by tumor cells.
|
osteosarcoma
|
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What is the chromosomal translocation that causes Ewing's Sarcoma?
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11:22 translocation
|
|
|
This tumor affects either the sacrococcygeal or spheno-occipital region (can cause cranial nerve signs)
|
Chordoma
|
|
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Is a chordoma S100 and cytokeratin positive?
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Yes
|
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____ is a malignant neoplasm which arises from remnants of the fetal notochord. The tumor has a predilection for the ends of the spinal column.
|
chordoma
|
|
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This tumor is soft, gray and lobulated. It is usually well encapsulated.
Lobules of tumor cells in a myxoid background. The tumor cells tend to have prominent cytoplasmic vacuolization, lending a “bubbly appearance”. These are referred to as physaliferous cells. What is this type of tumor? |
Chordoma
|
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A nonossifying fibroma usually occurs in what parts of long bones?
|
metaphysis
|
|
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Name two common ephiphyseal lesions
|
chondroblastoma and giant cell tumor
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|
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What is a classic metaphyeal lesion centered in the cortex?
|
non-ossifying fibroma
|
|
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Does Ewing's sarcoma favor the metaphysis or diaphysis?
|
diaphysis
|
|
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The most common malignant bone tumor is metastatic carcinoma. True of False?
|
True
|
|
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_____ produce much of the extracellular matrix, including many of the types of collagen
|
Fibroblasts
|
|
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What is the most common lesion that is misdiagnosed as a sarcoma?
|
Nodular Fasciitis
|
|
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Synovial cells synthesize hyaluronate, a major component of the ____ fluid and facilitate exchange of substances between blood and synovial fluid.
|
synovial
|
|
|
_____ is a pseudosarcomatous, self-limiting reactive process comprised of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts
|
Nodular fasciitis
|
|
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Is nodular fasciitis rapidly or slow growing?
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rapidly growing
|
|
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Is nodular fasciitis more common in the upper or lower extremities?
|
Upper, head and neck most common place in children
|
|
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Would nodular fasciitis be actin positive or negative? Cytokeratin and S100 positive or negative?
|
actin positive
rest =negative |
|
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Is Dupuytren's contracture more common in Northern Europeans or Blacks?
|
NE
|
|
|
Dupuytren's Contracture involves what digits?
|
Usually 4th and 5th digits on palmar surface
|
|
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Are abdominal desmoid tumors more common in women or men?
|
women
|
|
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Abdominal Desmoid Tumors are common in patients with ____ syndrome
|
Gardner's
|
|
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Are abdominal fibromatosis tumors well or poorly-circumscribed?
|
poorly circumscribed
|
|
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For fibrosarcomas, the adult type affects the upper extremities and deep soft tissues of the lower extremities while the infantile type affects the _____ extremities
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distal
|
|
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Is a fibrosarcoma vimentin positive?
|
Yes
|
|
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A benign fibrous histiocytoma is common in the ____ extremities
|
distal
|
|
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Is mitosis common in benign fibrous histiocytoma?
|
No
|
|
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Dermatofibrosarcoma Protuberans occurs more in the proximal or distal extremities?
|
proximal
|
|
|
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is CD34 positive or negative?
|
positive
|
|
|
Overexpression of PDGFbeta may lead to DFSP?
|
Yes
|
|
|
The most common sarcoma of late adult life is _____
|
malignant fibrous histiocytoma
|
|
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Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma is known to produce what cytokines? Is it more common in males or females?
|
IL-6, IL-8, TNF
Far more common in males Occurs in late adulthood |
|
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In contrast to dermatofibroma in DFSP is the overlying epidermis thickened?
|
No
|
|
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What is the most common location of a malignant fibrous histiocytoma?
|
lower extremities
|
|
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What is the name of a benign tumor of adipose tissue?
|
lipoma
|
|
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What is the name of a malignant tumor of adipose tissue?
|
liposarcoma
|
|
|
What is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm?
|
lipoma
|
|
|
Are lipomas common or rare in hands/fingers
|
rare
|
|
|
Are lipomas usually painful or painless
|
painless
|
|
|
50-80% of lipomas have clonal cytogenetic abnormalities with most common alterations involving translocations of which chromosome?
|
12
|
|
|
Liposarcomas are characterized by myxoid and round cell subtypes. True or false?
|
True
|
|
|
Well differentiated liposarcomas possess a giant ring chromosome involving chromosome ___
|
12
|
|
|
Myxoid liposarcomas are characterized by what translocation that results in fusion of CHOP and TLS genes?
|
12:16
Chop encodes a DNA transcription factor and TLS encodes a RNA binding protein |
|
|
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of children under fifteen years of age?
|
Rhabdomyosarcoma
|
|
|
Botryoid embyonal tumors are characteristic of what tumor?
|
Rhabdomyosarcoma
|
|
|
In Rhabdomyosarcoma is the tumor desmin and actin positive?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Alveolar tumors of Rhabdomyosarcoma are characterized by what translocation? Generates what gene product
|
2:13
This results in the generation in a chimeric gene (PAX3-FKHR), which encodes a transcription factor |
|
|
What is the term for a benign lesion of blood vessels? malignant?
|
hemangioma
angiosarcoma |
|
|
What is the most common benign soft tissue tumor of infancy and childhood?
|
hemangioma
|
|
|
Do hemangiomas ever undergo malignant transformation?
|
no
|
|
|
Chronic lymphedema and previous radiation therapy predisposes to ____sarcoma
|
angiosarcoma
|
|
|
Angiosarcoma are CD34 and CD31 positive or negative?
|
positive
|
|
|
Is a Schwannoma benign or malignant?
|
benign
|
|
|
Is a Schwannoma S100 positive?
|
Yes
|
|
|
A neurofibroma growth pattern may be localized, diffuse, or plexiform?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Diffuse and plexiform tumors occur in the setting of NF Type ___, von Recklinghausen's disease
|
Type I
|
|
|
Are localized neurofibromas associated with NF1?
|
no
|
|
|
Is NF1 autosomal dominant or recessive?
|
dominant
|
|
|
NF1 encodes for ____
|
neurofibromin
|
|
|
NF1 tumor suppressor genes on chromosome ___ are associated with deletions, insertions, or mutations
|
17
|
|
|
Is a neurofibroma S100 positive?
|
yes
|
|
|
Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors are found commonly in patients who suffer from ____
|
NF1
|
|
|
Synovial sarcomas are found usually in what location?
|
knees, shoulder, hip
|
|
|
Does synovial sarcomas have any relation to synovium?
|
No
|
|
|
Is cytokeratin positive or negative in biphasic tumors of synovial sarcomas?
|
positive
|
|
|
For synovial sarcoma there is a consistent translocation between which two chromosomes?
|
X:18
SYT gene and SSX gene |
|
|
Eccentric masses with hemorrhage and necrosis is seen with __________
|
Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
|
|
|
Occupational exposure are most common in what type of workers?
|
construction workers
|
|
|
What are the three ways that absorption can occur to generate toxicity?
|
inhalation, ingestion, skin contact
|
|
|
Most xenobiotic are lipophobic or lipophilic?
|
lipophilic
|
|
|
In Phase I reactions a ____ functional group is added to parent compound
|
Polar
|
|
|
The flavin containing mono-oxgenase system is important for Phase ___ reaction, such as that of Nicotine
|
I
|
|
|
The perioxidase dependent co-oxidation system is important for Phase ____ reactions, and is used for 2-naphthylamine which are synthetic dyes?
|
I
|
|
|
Increased exposure to Naphthylamine can lead to the development of ___ cancer
|
bladder
|
|
|
Is biomethylation a Phase I or Phase II reaction? What compound can be methylated an ingested in high amounts in Japan which can lead to delayed paralysis and death?
|
Phase I
mercury |
|
|
Vinyl chlorides are ____ conjugated
|
glutathione
|
|
|
Toxicants are primarily eliminated from the body through the ____
|
kidney
|
|
|
Does emphysema cause enlarged or decreased air spaces?
|
enlarged
|
|
|
There is a greater number of neutrophils and macrophages in alveoli which can stimulate ____ release from neutrophils
|
elastase
|
|
|
Is nicotine chemotactic for neutrophils?
|
Yes
|
|
|
After cessation of smoking, is there a decreased risk of COPD?
|
no, lung damage is permanent
|
|
|
There is a 50 fold increase in the risk of ___ cancer from those who use smokeless tobacco for 5 years or more
|
oral
|
|
|
What metabolic agents are responsible for the physical effects of ethanol?
|
acetaldehyde and acetate
|
|
|
Alcohol is a CNS _____. It ____ inhibitory control centers, thereby excitatory pathways are released
|
depressant
|
|
|
Is alcoholic hepatitis reversible? Is alcoholic cirrhosis reversible?
|
hepatitis - potentially reversible
cirrhosis - irreversible --> micronodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by a dense band of collagen |
|
|
Wernicke's encephalopathy can develop after chronic ____ use. It results from a ____ deficiency
|
alcohol
thiamine |
|
|
With Wernicke's encephalopathy there is foci of ____ (symmetric or asymmetric) discoloration, congestion, and punctuate hemmorrhages in the brain
|
symmetric
|
|
|
Korsakoff's syndrome involves confusion and impairment of ____ for which the patient compensates by confabulation
|
memory
|
|
|
Is methanol slowly or quickly metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase? Clinical signs include dizziness, vomiting, blurred vision/blindness, respiratory distress
|
methanol
|
|
|
Ethylene glycol can lead to acute ___ failure but can be treated with ingestion of ____, that slows the production of toxic metabolites by competing for alcohol dehydrogenase
|
renal
ethanol |
|
|
Are barbiturates stimulants or depressants
|
depressants
|
|
|
Chronic use of barbiturates induces _____ activity, which increases the metabolism of other drugs
|
cytochrome P450
|
|
|
Cocaine is a ____ extract from the leaves of the coco plant
|
alkaloid
|
|
|
Cocaine and crack is a potent CNS _____, blocks the reuptake of ____, ____, and ____
|
stimulant
epinephrine, dopamine, serotonin |
|
|
With cocaine and crack there is an intense feeling of ____ followed by depression
|
euphoria
|
|
|
Cocaine and crack activates the ____ nervous system causing vascoconstriction which can lead to hypoxia
|
sympathetic
|
|
|
Where is the most frequent site of lesions in heroin users?
|
skin and subcutaneous tissue
|
|
|
What heart infection can heroin users develop? What is the most common infection site among addicts?
|
endocarditis
viral hepatitis of liver |
|
|
Does marijuana increase or decrease the humoral and cell-mediated immune system?
|
depress
|
|
|
Can marijuana lead to reduced fertility?
|
Yes, can induce chromosomal changes in somatic and germ cells
|
|
|
Is lung cancer increased in those who use marijuana?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Phencyclidine or PCP works as a ____
|
anesthetic
leads to disorientation, numbness, nystagmus |
|
|
LSD can be taken orally and can lead to psychic effects, visual illusions and altered perception for up to 12 hours. True or false?
|
True
|
|
|
An adverse drug reaction is any response to a drug that is noxious and unintended that occurs at ____ doses
|
recommended
|
|
|
Adverse drug reactions are most common in what age group?
|
children under 6
|
|
|
Increase of exogenous estrogens will lead to increased risk of ____ cancer
|
endometrial
|
|
|
Use of oral contraceptives protects against ____ cancer
|
ovarian
|
|
|
Does oral contraceptive use cause a slight increase or decrease in risk for hypertension?
|
increase
|
|
|
Does oral contraceptive use alleviate rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Is there increased risk of endometrial cancer risk with the use of oral contraceptives?
|
No
|
|
|
Is there a risk of developing hepatic adenoma with oral contraceptives?
|
Yes, risk is correlated with years of use
|
|
|
Is there an increased or decreased risk of venous thrombosis and PE with oral contraceptive use
|
increased
due to increased hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors and decreased levels of antithrombin III |
|
|
Acetaminophen is normally detoxified by binding _____
|
glutathione, overdose occurs when glutathione is depleted
|
|
|
Aspirin can cause respiratory alkalosis which can lead to metabolic ___ which can be fatal
|
acidosis
|
|
|
Aspirin ____ cyclo-oxygenase which can lead to platelet dysfuction, thus leading to petechial hemorrhages and bleeding from gastric ulcerations
|
inhibits
|
|
|
Aspirin + phenacetin can lead to ___ papillary necrosis
|
renal
Phenacetin is a analgesic = pain reliever |
|
|
Ozone increases airway hyperresponsivesness via what molecule?
|
histamine
|
|
|
Can ozone exacerbate asthma?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Does ozone increase or decrease the respiratory epithelial permeability?
|
increase
|
|
|
Does ambient ozone increase the susceptiblity to bacterial infection?
|
Yes, impairs macrophagocytic activity
|
|
|
Ozone oxides _____ to produce hydrogen perioxide and lipid aldehydes
|
polyunsaturated lipids
|
|
|
Ozone loss may lead to increase of what type of cancer?
|
melanomas and other type of skin cancers
|
|
|
Nitric oxide dissolves in water in the upper airways and damages the airway epithelial lining. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Are ultrafine particles or big particles most hazardous to the lung?
|
ultrafine particles
|
|
|
Why are ultrafine particles so bad for lung tissue?
|
associated with free radical generation at the surface of the fine particles
|
|
|
What is the source of sulfur oxide?
|
powerplant emissions
|
|
|
What is the source of acid aerosols?
|
primary combustion product of fossil fuels
|
|
|
Acid aerosols contribute to acid rain. True or false?
|
True
|
|
|
Death from carbon monoxide is associated with how much saturation of hemoglobin with carbon dioxide?
|
50-80%
|
|
|
Carbon monoxide, besides binding to hemoglobin, also has inhibitory effect on _____ oxidase, which effects energy metabolism, especially in the brain
|
cytochrome C
|
|
|
Nitrogen dioxide impairs ____ defenses
|
lung, increased respiratory infection
|
|
|
Radon is a inert gas from the ___. It increases what type of cancer?
|
soil
lung cancer |
|
|
Radon generate short lived radioisotopes that emit ____ particles (solid charged particles)
|
alpha
|
|
|
Volatile organic compounds cause acute CNS stimulation or depression?
|
depression
|
|
|
Methylene chloride is used in paint removers and aerosols aand when metabolized by cytochrome 450 will generate ____, which can lead to respiratory depression and death
|
carboxyhemoglobin
|
|
|
Repeated exposures to Perchloroethylene, which is used in the dry cleaning industry can lead to the development of _____
|
dermatitis
|
|
|
Is inhalation of benzene hazardous?
|
Yes, bone marrow toxicity, aplastic anemia and acute leukemia
|
|
|
Polycylic aromatic hydrocarboons are associated with increases in what cancers?
|
bladder/lung
|
|
|
Arsenic leads to squamous cell carcinoma of the ___, and angiosarcoma of the ____
|
skin
liver |
|
|
Vinyl chlorides are associated with angiosarcomas of the ___
|
liver
|
|
|
1,3 butadiene leads to increased risk of ___
|
leukemia
|
|
|
Lead deposits in the ___ region of bones
|
ephiphyseal
|
|
|
Lead inhibits enzymes involved in heme biosynthesis, competes for calcium ions (due to being stored in bone), and denatures proteins such as tRNA and protein kinase C. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Does lead exposure inhibit Vitamin D metabolism?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Does the damage caused to the nervous system by lead lead to reversible or irreversible lesions?
|
irreversible
|
|
|
Lead poisoning can lead to microcytic-hypochromic mild hemolytic anemia. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
With lead poisoining is there an increase or decrease in zinc protoporphytrin in the blood?
|
increased, due to iron being displaced from heme molecule leading to the formation of free erythrocye protophorhyin
|
|
|
Lead poisoning can lead to peripheral ____ in adults, nervous system manifestation
|
demyelination
|
|
|
Does lead exposure cause any intestinal morphologic changes?
|
No
|
|
|
The primary route of excretion of lead is the ____
|
kidney
|
|
|
Fanconi syndrome is a disease of the proximal renal tubules and can be a manifestation of ___ poisoning
|
lead
|
|
|
Decreased erythrocyte ALA-D activity can be an indication of ____ poisoining
|
lead
|
|
|
Cobalt and tungsten carbide target what organ?
|
lung
|
|
|
Acute effects of this metal are irritation of pulmonary edema. Chronic effects can lead to damage to the proximal convoluted tubules
|
cadmium
|
|
|
Cadmium induces the synthesis of metallothionein in the liver and kidney. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Nickel damages heterochromatin. True or False?
|
true
|
|
|
DDT is an insecticide that accumulates in ___ tissue
|
fat
|
|
|
Chlordane is an insecticide that can cause hypothermia, tremors, convulsions and what type of cancer in farm workers?
|
lymphoma
|
|
|
Organochlorines which are found in insecticides are irreversible inhibitiors of what enzyme, which can lead to abnormal transmission at peripheral and central nerve endings?
|
cholinesterases
|
|
|
Carbamates are reversible inhibitors of _____
|
cholinesterase
|
|
|
Cycad flour is associated with what degenerative neurologic disorder?
|
ALS
|
|
|
Aflatoxin causes a higher incidence of ___ cancer
|
liver
|
|
|
If there is blistering, what type of degree is the thermal burn?
|
second degree
|
|
|
With heat cramps is the body's core temperature still normal?
|
Yes
|
|
|
One can collapse due to heat exhaustion due to failure of cardiac output to keep up with hypovolemia. Is the core body temperature still normal or slightly elevated?
|
slightly elevated
|
|
|
The more resistant a tissue is to current, the greater or lesser the heat generated?
|
greater
|
|
|
Non-ionizing radiation is characterized by ___ wavelength and ___ frequency wave
|
long
low |
|
|
Is UV light considered non-ionizing or ionizing radiation?
|
non-ionizing
|
|
|
Alpha particles have strong ionizing power but low penetration due to this ___ size
|
large
|
|
|
Acute Prodromal Syndrome can be induced after acute exposure to ____
|
radiation
|
|
|
Acute hematopoietic sydrome after radiation exposure can lead to leukopenia and thrombocytopenia which can lead to death from _____
|
infection or hemorrhage
|
|
|
Acute Gastrointestinal syndrome usually occurs 2 to 3 days after irradiation and can lead to a fatal, shocklike state. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
What are the two primary PEM diseases?
|
Marasmus and Kwashiorkor
|
|
|
In marasmus there is a loss of muscle mass from the ____ compartment and growth retardation
|
somatic
|
|
|
In Marasmus is serum albumin normal? What about in Kwashiorkor?
|
Marasmus = normal to slightly reduced albumin
Kwashiorkor - very low albumin |
|
|
What condition is defined as protein lack is relatively more than reduction in total calories?
|
Kwashiorkor
|
|
|
Will patients who have Kwashiorkor have edema?
|
Yes because their albumin is low because protein loss affects the visceral compartment
|
|
|
People who suffer from Kwashiorkor will have a small or big liver?
|
enlarged fatty liver
|
|
|
Since Kwashiorkor leads to immune dysfuction, the thymus and lymphoid tissue will ____
|
atrophy
|
|
|
Is Kwashiokor more severe than marasmus?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Secondary PEM is also known as ____
|
cachexia
|
|
|
BMR in cachexia is high or low?
|
high
in starvation BMR is low |
|
|
PIF induces NF-kB activation of ubiquitin proteosome pathway leading to degradation of mysoin heavy chain gene leading to skeletal muscle breakdown. Activation of this factor is seen in ___ patients
|
cachetic
|
|
|
People who suffer from anorexia nervosa have hypothyroidism due to decrease in ____
|
TSH
|
|
|
One of the life threatning complications of anorexia nervosa is ____
|
hypokalemia
|
|
|
In bulimia nervosa are weight and gonadotropin levels near normal?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What are the fat-soluable vitamins?
|
ADEK
|
|
|
Dry and wet beriberi is caused in a deficiency of what vitamin?
|
B1 (thiamine)
|
|
|
What is dry beriberi? Wet beriberi
|
dry beriberi= peripheral neuropathy
wet beriberi- heart disease, peripheral vasodilation, edema |
|
|
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by a deficiency in ____
|
thiamine
|
|
|
Pellagra or the three D's: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia are caused by a deficiency in ____
|
Niacin
|
|
|
Niacin can be obtained endogenously from what amino acid?
|
tryptophan
|
|
|
Atrophy of GI mucosa, inflammation and ulceration cause ____ in patients who are niacin deficient
|
diarrhea
|
|
|
Which form of vitamin A is the storage and transport form?
|
retinol
|
|
|
Where is vitamin A stored in the body?
|
liver
|
|
|
11-cis retinal + opsin generates the visual pigment rhodopsin. Therefore people who are vitamin A deficient will have poor ____ vision
|
night
|
|
|
Deficiency of Vitamin ___ causes squamous metaplasia and keratinization of mucous producing epithelium
|
A
|
|
|
Does vitamin A increase host resistance to infections?
|
Yes
|
|
|
13 cis retinoic acid is useful in the treatment of childhood ____
|
neurobastomas
|
|
|
What are some manifestations of vitamin A deficiency?
|
1) night blindness
2) Xerophthalmia - dry eye 3) renal and urinary bladder stone 4) hyperkeratinization of epidermis 5) immune deficiency |
|
|
Vitamin A stimulates osteo___
|
osteoclasts
therefore chronic vitamin A can lead to osteoporosis and fractures |
|
|
Production of active vitamin D (1,25) in the kidney is activate by _____ calcium levels that increase PTH
|
low
|
|
|
Will low phosphorus increase the production of Vitamin D?
|
Yes
|
|
|
In the gut, Vitamin D stimulates intestinal absorption of ____ and ____
|
calcium and phosphorus
|
|
|
Vitamin D activates osteoblasts to synthesize the proteins osteocalcin and osteonectin, resulting in ____ deposition into the osteoid matrix, leading to bone mineralization
|
calcium
|
|
|
Vitamin D, together with PTH helps resorption of calcium and phosphorus from bone to maintain normal plasma levels of both. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Vitamin ____ increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubules due to increased expression of TRPV5. PTH regulates TRPV5 expression in hypocalcemia
|
D
|
|
|
PTH activates the production of vitamin D in the kidney in times of low serum calcium. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Impaired synthesis of 25-OH-D would manifest because of ___ disease
|
liver
|
|
|
An inherited deficiency of renal alpha1-hydroxylase is known as ____- Type I
|
Rickets
|
|
|
In the kidney, does Vitamin D increase the reabsoprtion of phosphorus or does it increase its excretion?
|
increase excretion of phosphorus
|
|
|
Fibroblast growth factor 23 blocks the absorption of _____ in the GI tract and kidney
|
phosphorus
leads to hypophosphatemia |
|
|
Is the bound form or the ionic form of calcium the active form?
|
ionic form
|
|
|
Excess intake of oral Vitamin D can cause calcification of soft tissues and kidney (____ calcification), can lead to bone pain and hypercalcemia
|
metastatic calcification
|
|
|
Are there any endogenous sources of Vitamin C?
|
no
|
|
|
Lack of this vitamin will lead to born collagen formation affecting bones and blood vessels
|
Vitamin C
|
|
|
Cartilagous overgrowth with widening of the epiphysis is seen with deficiency in what vitamin?
|
Vitamin C
|
|
|
NPY and AgRP are appetite stimulating or appetite inhibitors?
|
appetite stimulating
|
|
|
Leptin inhibits NPY/AgRP synthesis and stimulates alpha-MSH and CART synthesis. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Alpha MSH and CART (cocaine and amphetamine related) are appetite _____ and catabolic neurotransmitters
|
suppressants
|
|
|
Does NPY and AgRP stimulate and decrease the synthesis of orexins, which stimulate appetite?
|
increase
|
|
|
Mutations in the melanocortin receptor leads to ____
|
obesity
|
|
|
alpha MSH increases ____ (hormone) synthesis, which causes anorexia and activates the sympathetic nervous system to make norepinephrine which causes the break down of fat cells
|
CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone)
|
|
|
Does adiponetin stimulate or decrease fatty acid oxidation?
|
stimulate
|
|
|
Hypoventilation syndrome (Pickwickian syndrome) is a common respiratory abnormality of obese individuals. True or False?
|
true
|
|
|
Obesity increases sex hormone synthesis and thus obese people are more likely to suffer from what cancers?
|
breast, endometrium
|
|
|
Increasing intake of ____ can decrease diverticulosis of the colon
|
fiber
|
|
|
Are lower or higher homocysteine levels cardioprotective?
|
lower
|
|
|
Cyclamates, and saccarin have been shown to cause ___ cancer in animals
|
bladder
|
|
|
Nitrosamines and nitroso amides my induce ____ cancer
|
gastric
|
|
|
Inferferon gamma and IL-12 drive the production of what T-cells?
What about IL-4? |
TH1
Th2 |
|
|
Deletion of self reactive clones and B cell receptor editing mediates _____ tolerance
|
central
|
|
|
induction of anergy and T-regs mediate ____ tolerance
|
peripheral
|
|
|
Is the eye, testicle, and brain immune privileged sites?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What class of hypersensitivity is mediated by allergy and anaphylaxis?
|
Type I
|
|
|
What class of hypersensitivity is mediated by antibody mediated cytotoxicity?
|
Type II
|
|
|
What class of hypersensitivity is mediated by immune complex disease?
|
Type III
|
|
|
What class of hypersensitivity is mediated by cell mediated hypersensitivity?
|
Type IV
|
|
|
IgE mediates what class of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type I
|
|
|
The secondary phase of Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by eosinophilic inflammation. True or False?
|
true
|
|
|
Type I hypersensitivity leads to the release of vasoactive mediators and leads to systemic vaso ____ and blood pressure _____
|
vasodilation
decrease |
|
|
Asthma is classified as what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type I
|
|
|
Autoantibodies that do not form immune complexes mediate what form of hypersensitivity?
|
Type II
|
|
|
Cellular damage, tissue or membrane damage, and modification of receptor function can all lead to Type II hypersensitivity reactions. True or false?
|
True
|
|
|
In Antibody-dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity, the target cell is first coated with ____ which are recognized by the Fc receptors of other immune cells
|
antibodies
|
|
|
Goodpasture syndrome is an example of Type ___ Hypersensitivity
|
II
|
|
|
Myastenia gravis, Graves disease, and acute humoral graft rejection are examples of Type ___ hypersensitivity
|
II
|
|
|
In Type III hypersensitivity, deposition of antigen antibody complexes activate complement and incite inflammation/tissue damage. True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Type III hypersensitivity will show up as lumpy bumpy immunofluorsecne of the glomerus? True or False?
|
True
|
|
|
Type III hypersensitivity damage to synovial membranes lead to ___
|
arthritis
|
|
|
Arthus reactions are mediated by what class of hypersensitivity reactions?
|
Type III
|
|
|
Can RF from rheumatiod arthritis cause Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
|
Yes
|
|
|
The formation of granulomas are a sign of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type IV
|
|
|
The classical tuberculin reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type IV hypersensitivity
|
|
|
Multiple sclerosis, Crohn's Diease and Poison Ivy are all mediated by what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type IV
|
|
|
Which organ specific disease is directed against lacrimal and salivary glands?
|
Sjorgren Syndrome
|
|
|
A syphilis antibody may be falsely positive in someone suffering from?
|
SLE
|
|
|
When engrafted dendritic cells initate an immune response is this a direct or indrect immune response?
|
direct
|
|
|
When a graft is rejected minutes to hours after implantation it is known as a ____ rejection
|
hyperacute
|
|
|
If there are preformed antibodies against recipient antigens, this will lead to a ____ rejection
|
hyperacute
|
|
|
When an organ is rejected days to months after transplantation, it is known as what type of rejection?
|
acute cellular rejection
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Acute humoral rejection causes necrotizing vasculitis and leads to progressive reduction of vascular patency, potentially leading to ____
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ischemia --> infarction
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Acute humoral rejection is response to ___ cell depletion
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B
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Transplantation of competent immune cells from donor to immunoincompetent recipient; Donor rejection of recipient’s tissue is characteristic of _____ disease
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Graft versus host disease
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Acute graft versus host disease usually affects skin, liver, and intestine. Chronic GVHD affects pre-dominantly ____
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skin
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What drug blocks T cell activation at transcription of NFAT?
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cyclosporine
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Azothioprine inhibits ____ production
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leukocyte
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Rapamycin is an inhibitor of ____ proliferation
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lymphocyte
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Primary immune deficiences are usually caused by a ____ defect
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genetic
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A disease that is caused by a mutation in Bruton's tyrosine kinase and leads to no production of B cells or plasma cells is ____
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X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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in X-linked agammaglobulinemia, maturation stops at the Pro-B stage and there is no ____ chain expression
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light
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People who have this immune deficiency suffer from recurrent infections (Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staph aureus
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X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
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Hyper IgM syndrome can be either X-linked or ____
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autosomal recessive
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in X-linked agammaglobulinemia, maturation stops at the Pro-B stage and there is no ____ chain expression
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light
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People with IgM syndrome are very susceptible to ___ infections
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pyogenic
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People who have this immune deficiency suffer from recurrent infections (Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staph aureus
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X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
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CD40 ligand mutation on Xq26 is the cause of what primary immunodeficiency?
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Hyper-IgM syndrome
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Hyper IgM syndrome can be either X-linked or ____
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autosomal recessive
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Failed development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches is common to what syndrome?
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DiGeorge Syndrome
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People with IgM syndrome are very susceptible to ___ infections
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pyogenic
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Do people who suffer from severe Combined Immunodeficiency have B or T cells?
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No
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CD40 ligand mutation on Xq26 is the cause of what primary immunodeficiency?
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Hyper-IgM syndrome
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Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is a ______ recessive disease characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), immune deficiency,
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X-linked
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Failed development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches is common to what syndrome?
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DiGeorge Syndrome
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Hereditary angioedema is due to a deficiency in ___ inhibitor
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C1
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Do people who suffer from severe Combined Immunodeficiency have B or T cells?
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No
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A-beta amyloid plaques is seen in what disease?
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Alzheimer's Disease
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Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is a ______ recessive disease characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), immune deficiency,
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X-linked
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Hereditary angioedema is due to a deficiency in ___ inhibitor
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C1
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A-beta amyloid plaques is seen in what disease?
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Alzheimer's Disease
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IgA deficiency will increase the risk of ____ infection
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mucosal
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AL amyloid is derived from _____. It is increased in what disease?
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immunoglobulin light chains
multiple myeloma |
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AA which is derived from serum amyloid associated protein (SAA) is an ____ reactant
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acute phase
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What molecule has the lassical histology: eosinophilic hyalin, Congo red positive, apple green birefringence
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amyloid plaques
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Which pathogen causes dental carries?
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S.Mutans
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Is gingivitis reversible or irreversible periodontal disease?
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reversible
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What is different about gingivitis compared to periodontitis?
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periodontitis affects the bone and ligament attachment of teeth whereas gingivitis only affects the gums
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Shifts in these three pathogens may predisopose a person to develop what disease?Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans
Porphyromonas gingivalis Prevotella intermedia |
periodontitis
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A fibroma usually occurs on the ___ mucosa or lateral border of tongue . It is a nodular mass covered by ____ epithelium
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buccal
squamous |
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A pyogenic granuloma is a vascular pedunculated lesion that usually undergoes spontaneous regression. It is often found in what population?
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pregnant women
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An aphthous ulcer is better known as a ____
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canker sore
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What version of HSV is frequently found in the oral region?
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HSV-1
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This infection often presents with Koplik spots that are small, red, irregularly shaped lesions with blue-white centers
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Rubeola (measles)
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If a white lesion can be brushed off in the oral cavity this suggest infection with what pathogen?
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candida
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A strawberry or raspberry like tongue is indicative of what infectious disease?
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scarlet fever
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What pathogen causese dirty white, fibrinosuppurative, tough, inflammatory membrane over the tonsils and retropharynx?
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Diptheria
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When erythema multiforme involves the lips and oral mucosa it is referred to as _____
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Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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Can leukoplakia, a precancerous lesion, be scarped off with a tongue blade like Candida?
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no
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Does leukoplakia or erythroplakia have a high risk of malignant transformation?
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erythroplakia
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The most likely malignancy caused by erythroplakia of the oral cavity is _____
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squamous cell carcinoma
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What is the most common form of oral cancer?
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squamous cell carcinoma
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Does HPV infection predispose you to develop squamous cell carcinoma?
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Yes
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A periapical (radicular) cyst results in pulpal inflammmation and pulp death. What must be done with the development of the cyst?
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removal of tooth
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Is a dentigerous cyst a developmental cyst?
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yes
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A Keratocystic odentogenic tumor (KCOT) should be evaluated for what syndrome?
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Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma)
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An ameloblastoma is a tumor that involves what region?
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The mouth, commonly cystic, and is slow growing and only locally invasive
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Allergic rhinitis is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction and involves ____ infiltrates
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I, eosinophilic
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Can chronic rhinitis lead to mucosal desquamation or ulceration?
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Yes
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While acute sinusitis is usually of ___ origin, chronic sinusitis is usually of ____ origin
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viral
bacterial |
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Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis are sequelae of what pathogen?
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beta hemolytic streptococcus
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What two bacterial pathogens are involved in pharyngitis or tonsillitis?
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strep and staph
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GERD is associated with ___gitis
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laryngitis
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Inflammation of this structure will lead to hoarseness and obstruction
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laryngx
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The thumb sign is associated with laryngitis in ___
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children
laryngoepiglottitis --> medical emergency |
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A laryngotracheobronchitis can present with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor and a _____ sign
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Steeple
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A nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is most common in what age group and usually presents how?
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adolescent males
tends to bleed profusely |
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Are squamous papilloma ually multiple or single in adults?
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single
if multiple may be associated with HPV infection |
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Nearly all laryngeal carcinomas are of what type?
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squamous cell carcinoma
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Does a Sinonasal papilloma have a high rate of recurrence?
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Yes
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Laryngeal carcinomas are strongly associated with which risk factor?
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smoking
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Otitis media is usually of ___ origin
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viral
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Otits media can have superimposed bacterial infection with S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis. True or False?
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True
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What pathogen is more likely to cause otitis media in diabetic patients?
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P. aeruginosa
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Neoplasms of the ears are usually internal or external?
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external, caused by sun exposure
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A branchial cyst is found on the ____ aspect of the neck, and it thought to arise from ___ branchial arch remnants
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lateral
2nd |
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A thyroglossal duct cyst is found in the ____ of the neck
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midline
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A paraganglioma is associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. True or False?
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True
In proximity of larger vessels it is known as a carotid body tumor |
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What is the colloquial term for xerostomia?
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dry mouth
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What is the most likely direct cause of dry mouth in a hospitalized patient?
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medication related
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Radiation therapy and Sjogren syndrome have been linked to what problems that results from poor salivary gland function?
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Xerostomia
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A mucocele is usually found on the ____ lip and results from blockage or rupture of a ____ duct
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lower
salivary |
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Sialadenitis is inflammation of the ____
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salivary glands
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Mumps affects the ____ gland and can cause sialadenitis
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parotid
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How does one confirm Sjogrens syndrome?
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biopsy of minor salivary gland of lip
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Sialolithiasis is obstruction of a salivary gland due to ____ formation
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stone
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What is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?
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pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)
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Warthin tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum) is seen almost exclusively in what gland? Is it more common in males or females? What is it associated with?
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parotid
males smoking |
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Are there both epithelial and lymphoid elements to a Warthin tumor?
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yes
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What is the most common primary malignant salivary gland tumor?
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mucoepidermoid carcinoma
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In low grade mucoepidermoid carcinomas there is a significant ___ component
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cystic
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High grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma behaves similar to _____ carcinoma
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squamous cell
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What is the course of an adenoid cystic carcinoma?
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slow but relentless growth, 5 year survival rate is pretty good, bu 15 year survival rate is pretty bad
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Does perineural invasion and pain occur in adenoid cystic carcinoma?
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yes
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On average does an adenoid cystic carcinoma that arise in the minor salivary glands or the parotids have better prognosis
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better prognosis for those arising in the parotids
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