Pathology 1 Review: Actcm

Front 1

Rupture of plasma membrane causes:

Back 1

Rupture of what cell structure is a kind of Irreversible cell injury?

Front 2

What are intermediate filaments and what part of the cell do they compose

Back 2

The cytoskeleton is composed of what cell structures)?

Front 3

Lysosomes are precursors of what type of cells

Back 3

Heterophagosomes are developed from what cell structures?

Front 4

What does the "ER" do, what is it called

Back 4

the place where energy is produced (by mitochondria), and also the site of hormone synthesis in cells. It is differentiated into two types: rough and smooth; according to whether or not it has ribosomes attached to its surface.

Front 5

What are mitochondria and what function do they perform in cells

Back 5

Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell and produce the energy to fun all the bodies functions. The have double membranees and are rich in oxidative enzymes to break down protein and change it into energy which can be released by the ER of the cell after it is synthesized inside the Mitochondria.

Front 6

Give four terms which denote irreversible cell injury (terminology):

Back 6

1. Apoptosis 2.pyknosis 3.karyorrhexis, 4. Karyolysis: are types of what in regards to cell pathology?

Front 7

Give one example of a type of Reversible cell injury involving the vascular system:

Back 7

Vascular degeneration is an example of what type of cell injury?

Front 8

What is hypoxia and what are its consequences

Back 8

a lack of oxygen absorption or nutrients in a cell, and cause the inhibition of ATP:

Front 9

What happens when ATP production is inhibited?

Back 9

1. An increase in lactic acid, 2. Degranulation (smoothing) of the ER, 3. Dilation of RER (Rough endo. Reticulum), 4. Swelling of the mitochondria: occurs when?

Front 10

A commonly used antiseptic chemical which is an example of an oxygen radical is:

Back 10

Hydrogen peroxide is considered what type of "radical"?

Front 11

What gland is in a state of atrophy during childhood and adolescence

Back 11

The Thyroid gland goes through what stage before adulthood?

Front 12

What are the consequences of hypertrophy of cells

Back 12

an abnormal increase in size of the cells and cause hypertension and enlargement of the heart ventricles:

Front 13

What is an example of a type of metaplasia of cells

Back 13

Cigarette smoke causes columnar cells to become squamous cells inside the lung (cell injury)

Front 14

What is the pigment which causes hemolysis to occur when it accumulates abnormally in the Liver

Back 14

Bilirubin is stored in which organ?

Front 15

What type of necrosis is TB

Back 15

Causeous necrosis is found in what organ?

Front 16

What type of necrosis is myocardial infarction of the heart

Back 16

Coagulation necrosis (blood stasis) is found in what organ?

Front 17

What type of necrosis occurs in the Brain

Back 17

Liquefactive necrosis (cells become liquid in quality) is found in what organ?

Front 18

neutrophils are also called:

Back 18

Nuclear leukocytes are also called:

Front 19

What type of cells stain with both hematoxlyn and eosin

Back 19

Neutrophils stain with what?

Front 20

What type of cells fight bacteria?

Back 20

Leukocytes perform what function?

Front 21

What type of cells stain pink with eosin, and are most prominent with allergic reactions and parasitic inflammation/ infection

Back 21

Eosinophils perform what function?

Front 22

What cells develop into Mast cells, which medicated IgE reactions, i.e. hay fever

Back 22

Basophiles mediated what type of reaction?

Front 23

What cells are always present when there is chronic inflammation

Back 23

Macrophages go to the site of what pathological change?

Front 24

What do macrophages help form

Back 24

granulomas at the site of infection are formed by what cells?

Front 25

What cells are essential for the clotting of blood

Back 25

Platelets perform what function in terms of bleeding?

Front 26

Give 4 signs of inflammation:

Back 26

1. Heat 2. Redness, 3. Swelling, 4. Pain are signs of:

Front 27

What is the cause of Hyperemia

Back 27

the dilation of the arterioles in the heart which absorb too many nutrients in a pathological process.

Front 28

When histamines are released, what happens to the vascular system

Back 28

There is increased vascular permeability when what substance is released in reactions?

Front 29

What cell structure can lyzee thrombi

Back 29

Plasmin can do what to thrombi?

Front 30

What two enzymes are inhibited by Aspirin

Back 30

Prostaglandin and Thromboxane are inhibited by what OTC drug?

Front 31

What type of inflammation is strep throat characterized as

Back 31

Fibrinous Inflammation is found in the:

Front 32

What substance accumulations inside any abscess

Back 32

Pus is found inside:

Front 33

four cell structures compose a granulomas

Back 33

1. Lymphocytes, 2. Macrophages, 3. Epithelium, 4. Giant cells are components of:

Front 34

Are leukocytes present in a granuloma

Back 34

not found in granulomas:

Front 35

What physiological process most commonly interferes with healing

Back 35

Infection at the site of injury: decreases the function of what?

Front 36

What is the term for hyperthrophic scars (scars which have altered in size or shape from the original form)

Back 36

Keloid scars: define

Front 37

Give 3 types of "Type I Hypersensitive" reactions:

Back 37

hay fever, dermatitis (atopic), anaphylaxis: examples of:

Front 38

Give 5 examples of a "Type II Hypersensitivity" reaction:

Back 38

Grave's disease (hyperthyroid), Myasthenia Gravis, Blood Transfusion, Hemolytic Anemia, Fetus to Mother Incompatibility Reaction: examples of:

Front 39

Give 3 types of "Type III" reactions:

Back 39

1. SLE (lupus), 2. Poly-Arteritis Nodosa (nodes in the arteries), 3. Serum sickness (reaction to blood serum): examples of:

Front 40

Give 4 types of "Type IV" reactions

Back 40

1. Contact dermatitis (i.e.. To latex), poison ivy, TB, skin graft vs. host

Front 41

What type of reaction is considered a common complication of marrow transplants

Back 41

Graft vs. Host reaction (rejection) is a complicated of what kind of transplant in humans?

Front 42

What cell decreases after infection by the HIV virus

Back 42

T-suppressor cell (cytotoxic lymphocytes) are decreased in a person with what disease?

Front 43

What structure in a cell is responsible for producing antibodies

Back 43

Plasma cells perform what function in regards to immunology?

Front 44

What types of cells/ factors are present in a lymphokine

Back 44

interferon, interleukins, tumor factors, colony factors: are present in what pathological structure?

Front 45

What type of reaction is hay fever, (hint: IgE-mediated)

Back 45

Hay fever is a "Type I" reaction and is mediated what chemical?

Front 46

Mast cells have what attached to them

Back 46

IgE is attached to which type of cell?

Front 47

What type of disease is Grave's disease classified as, and what type of hypersensitivity reaction is it categorized as

Back 47

classified as an Auto-immune disease of "Type II Hypersensitivity" category, and characterized by enlarged optic cavities

Front 48

What is a transplant between twins called in terminology

Back 48

Isograph (same tissue) is defined as:

Front 49

Is AIDS considered an Auto-Immune disease, or a different type of disorder

Back 49

not considered to be an Auto-Immune Disorder, which must be idiopathic in origin by definition, but rather an Acquired Deficiency Syndrome:

Front 50

In what disease is there an increase of "ANA" and what type of hypersensitivy reaction is this disease

Back 50

SLE (aka. Lupus) is a Type III Hypersensitivity reaction and is characterized by the presence of "ANA" as its pathology.

Front 51

What is needed to diagnose the presence of AIDS

Back 51

Antibodies to the HIV virus are present in a person who has developed the AIDS disease.

Front 52

What is the difference between HIV infection and AIDS disease

Back 52

One is passive infection without symptoms, while AIDS implies that the antibodies to the HIV virus have affected the T-suppressor cells and will injure the cells after this stage, causing disease.

Front 53

What is a common disease associated with HIV and AIDS

Back 53

Kaposi sarcoma (type of cancer)

Front 54

What is Amyloid A and why is it formed in the body

Back 54

Amyloid A is formed in response to infection and deposited in the rectum, liver, kidneys, and/or adrenals, but never the brain.

Front 55

What is the term for a benign tumor in the liver

Back 55

Adenoma

Front 56

What is a malignant skin tumor called

Back 56

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 57

What is an Adenocarcinoma

Back 57

malignant tumor of breast/ Large Intestine is an Adenocarcinoma

Front 58

Give three examples of Adenomas:

Back 58

Benign-liver, benign-glands, polyps-intestines

Front 59

Give the term for a brain tumor:

Back 59

A Glioma is a malignant tumor composed of glial cells

Front 60

Give three examples of sites of Sarcoma type tumors:

Back 60

Malignant tumor in: -fatty tissue, -striated muscle, -cartilage

Front 61

By what pathway do Lung tumors metastases to reach the Brain

Back 61

Via the blood vessels

Front 62

What type of tumor is present in the germ cells of ovaries

Back 62

Teratomas are found in pathological germ cells of the ovaries.

Front 63

What is a disease that involves the neoplasm of lymph nodes

Back 63

Hodgkin's disease is characterized by the neoplasm (cell injury) of lymph nodes.

Front 64

A malignant tumor in the liver contains what specific protein:

Back 64

Alpha fetoprotein is present in malignant tumors.

Front 65

What factors does a tumor secrete

Back 65

Tumors secrete autocrine stimulation factors and other factors...

Front 66

What does exposure to dyes cause over time

Back 66

Cancer of the Urinary Bladder can be a result of long-term exposure to commercial dyes in factory workers.

Front 67

Two common carcinogens in the environment which cause lung or skin cancer to develop today:

Back 67

Cigarettes - lung cancer, UV light - skin cancer

Front 68

What is the name of the virus which causes cervical cancer to develop

Back 68

The HPV virus causes what common cancer?

Front 69

What is the term for the tumor-suppressing gene

Back 69

The Rb-1 gene suppresses the formation of:

Front 70

Is the repair enzymes in DNA is defective, what condition results

Back 70

Xero-Derma Pigment-Osum is the term for a defect in :

Front 71

In which country is there the highest incidence of Stomach cancer today

Back 71

Japan has the highest incidence of what type of cancer?

Front 72

3 Auto.-Dominant Disorders

Back 72

1. Marfan's Syn., 2. High cholesterol, 3. Neurofibromatosis what type of hereditary diseases?

Front 73

4 Auto.-Recessive Disorders

Back 73

1. Tay-Sachs Disease, 2. Cystic Fibrosis, 3. Lysosomal Lipid Disorder, 4. Phenylketonuria (urinary disorder involving phenylketocytes

Front 74

3 X-linked Recessive Disorders:

Back 74

1. Muscular Dystrophy, 2 Hemophilia, 3. Down's Syndrome ("fragile X") are what type of hereditary disease?

Front 75

3 Multi-Factor Inherited Disorders:

Back 75

1. Meningo-Myelocele, 2. Diabetes Mellitus, 3. Anencephaly are what type of hereditary disease?

Front 76

Are the causes of congenital birth defects known or unknown

Back 76

Of Unknown cause: congenital malformation

Front 77

List four factors leading to TORCH:

Back 77

1. Toxoplasmosis, 2. Rubella virus, 3. Cytomegalovirus virus, 4. Herpes virus are factors in what syndrome?

Front 78

What syndrome cause the dilation of the lateral ventricles of the brain

Back 78

TORCH syndrome, or hydrocephalus (Liquefactive necrosis) causes dilation of:

Front 79

Familial (inherited) high cholesterol commonly leads to what disorder

Back 79

Atherosclerosis (hardening of the arteries) is a secondary symptom of what congenital disease?

Front 80

Hemophilia A is what type of hereditary disease

Back 80

X-linked type genetic disease characterized by bleeding.

Front 81

What is the medical term used in place of "mental retardation"

Back 81

Fragile-X Chromosome is the term for what congenital disorder?

Front 82

When newborns have meconium peritonitis as an inherited trait, what disease have they inherited

Back 82

Cystic Fibrosis is a Autosomal-Recessive Familial Disease

Front 83

What four methods are used in prenatal diagnosis of a fetus

Back 83

Ultrasound, chorionic biopsy, amniotic fluid, maternal blood

Front 84

When a fetus has Periventricular hemorrhage, what syndrome has occurred

Back 84

Neonatal Respiratory Syndrome leads to what disorder in fetuses with inherited ventricular defects?

Front 85

In what age range does Sudden Infant Death occur

Back 85

Between 2 and 9 months of age what syndrome might occur in newborns?

Front 86

4 examples of edema:

Back 86

Anasarca, ascites, hydrothorax, periorbital edema are examples of:

Front 87

What is the term for an accumulation of leukocytes in the extracellular space between cells

Back 87

Exudate

Front 88

What type of edema leads to liver failure

Back 88

Oncotic Edema leads to what organ's failure?

Front 89

What type of edema occurs with a failing of the left ventricle of the heart

Back 89

Pulmonary edema occurs after the failure of what structure in the heart?

Front 90

An example of active Hyperemia:

Back 90

Blushing = dilation of arterioles = more blood to cheeks

Front 91

If there is the presence of "heart failure cells" in sputum, what does this indicate

Back 91

Sputum with "heart failure" cells indicates a failure of what structure?

Front 92

A hemorrhage which is arterioles is characterized by what

Back 92

Bright red color blood and pulsating flow indicated what type of hemorrhaging?

Front 93

What is the term for a gastric ulcer

Back 93

a type of Melena in the stomach:

Front 94

Metrorrhagia is a possible cause of what?

Back 94

Anemia is a consequence of loss of what bodily fluid?

Front 95

What structure of cell tissue surrounds any thromboses vein or artery

Back 95

A thrombi is surrounded by what cell structures)?

Front 96

List 4 factors that can initiate thrombosis of vessels:

Back 96

inflammation, necrosis, stasis, and hypercoagalation initiate what?

Front 97

Endocarditis is what type of thrombi?

Back 97

A valvular thrombi occurs in what disease?

Front 98

What is the term for the process of granulomas tissue growth in venous thrombi

Back 98

organization is the process of what?

Front 99

An emboli full of air would occur in what instance, for example?

Back 99

Decompression Sickness would cause an embolism full of what to form?

Front 100

In what part of the body do venous embolisms occur?

Back 100

A pathological change in the vascular system which occurs in the lower part of the body is:

Front 101

What organ is most affected by the occurrence of venous emboli

Back 101

The lungs are most commonly affected by what type of embolism?

Front 102

What type of emboli originate in the Left Ventricle of the heart and travel to the Cerebrum to cause brain disease

Back 102

Arterial emboli originate in the _____ and travel to the _______ to cause emboli that part of the body….

Front 103

Where are red infarcts found in the body

Back 103

Infarcts are found in the Small Intestine:

Front 104

Fibrous scars, which are healed infarctions, are found in most parts of the body, but not found in the:

Back 104

Brain; infarctions in the brain do not heal by scarring

Front 105

Massive bleeding causes what type of shock

Back 105

Hypo-Volemic Shock:

Front 106

When bleeding occurs in the adrenals and/or the skin, what type of shock is occurring in this disorder

Back 106

Endo-Toxemic Shock occurs when there is bleeding in what part of the body?

Front 107

Abscesses are caused by what type of embolism

Back 107

What pathological growths, abnormalities result from Septic Embolism?

Front 108

Three Congenital heart diseases:

Back 108

1. Tetralogy, 2. Rubella, 3. Defective Valves in Heart: Congenital or Ischemic?

Front 109

Three Ischemic heart diseases:

Back 109

Heart Attack (MI), Atherosclerosis, Angina: Congenital or Ischemic?

Front 110

Hypertension may lead to the progression of renal disease, which may cause:

Back 110

A stroke may result from renal disease caused by this chronic disorder:

Front 111

Two Inflammatory diseases:

Back 111

1. Rheumatic Fever, 2. Endocarditis (bacterial): infectious or inflammatory diseases?

Front 112

Hyper-Lipid-Emia ia a type of:

Back 112

Metabolic disorder, increased lipids (fat):

Front 113

Four risk factors for Stroke:

Back 113

1. Old age (vascular degeneration leading to atherosclerosis - possibility of stroke from stasis), 2. Hereditary factor for atheriosclerosis, 3. Diabetes (complication), 4. chronic or acute hypertensive disease

Front 114

Environmental factor leading to atheriosclerosis and/or stroke

Back 114

Cigarette smoke #1 factor for what disease?

Front 115

An Aneurysm located in the Abdominal Aorta is called:

Back 115

Atherosclerotic: a term for aneurysms found where?

Front 116

The narrowing of what artery may be a cause of hypertensive disease

Back 116

The renal artery, is narrowed, may be a factor for what disorder?

Front 117

When atheriosclerosis of the popliteal artery occurs, what is this called

Back 117

Intermittent Claudication is atheriosclerosis of which artery?

Front 118

A myocardial infarct involves which ventricle and is termed what

Back 118

involves rupture of the Left Ventricle, which can leads to acute cardiac tamponade, and ultimately cause what?

Front 119

Occlusion of arteries elevates which enzyme

Back 119

Creatine Kinase is an enzyme which increases after the occlusion of what kind of artery.

Front 120

The more common type of hypertension is idiopathic, secondary, or other

Back 120

Idiopathic, or essential, hypertension is the most common and is either essential or secondary disorder of the vascular system?

Front 121

Rheumatic carditis is usually caused by

Back 121

Strep throat can cause ________ if not resolved.

Front 122

Rheumatic carditis commonly leads to a more serious condition, called:

Back 122

Bacterial endocarditis is a common consequence of what other disease in the heart?

Front 123

Coxsackie B virus cause what disease

Back 123

Myocarditis is caused most often by what virus?

Front 124

Examples of Iatrogenic Lesions of the Heart include (4):

Back 124

1. radiation induced lesions, 2. doxorubicin-induced lesions, 3. digitalis toxicity, 4. postcardiotomoy pericarditis (are examples of what type of lesions in the heart?)

Front 125

Alcohiolic cardiomyopathy is an Iatrogenic heart lesion, true or false

Back 125

False: Iatrogenic Heart Lesions do not include the following:

Front 126

Common infectious diseases:

Back 126

1. Croup, 2. Pneumonia, 3. Bronchitis: are examples of what type of disease?

Front 127

2 common immune diseases:

Back 127

1. Asthma, 2. Sarcoidosis; are what type of diseases?

Front 128

What type of disease is asbestosis considered to be

Back 128

A common example of "Mineral-Dust Induced" disease

Front 129

Mineral-Dust induced disease:

Back 129

asbestosis and silicosis are examples of _________ induced disease:

Front 130

Tumors can be classified in two ways:

Back 130

Carcinoid or Mesothelioma are terms for what pathological structure?

Front 131

Most common Lung infection occurs in:

Back 131

The Upper Respiratory Tract is the site of what pathological change?

Front 132

Is childhood bronchitis usually caused by hereditic factors, bacteria, or a virus

Back 132

What childhood lung disease is usually caused by viral infection?

Front 133

What is the term for disease involving the following: lung infection, heart failure, and pulmonary edema (all conditions).

Back 133

Hypostatic type- Pneumonia presents with 3 distinct symptoms:

Front 134

Interstitial pneumonia is preceded by what other type of pneumonia

Back 134

Hypostatic pneumonia may lead to what other kind of pneumonia?

Front 135

Granulomas forming in the lungs is characteristic of what disease

Back 135

Tuberculosis presents with formation of what type of pathological cell structure?

Front 136

What enzyme is deficient in the case of congenital emphysema

Back 136

Alpha-1 Antitypic is deficient in people with what disease?

Front 137

Name four triggers of Intrinsic asthma:

Back 137

1. Exercise, 2. Stress, 3. Aspirin, 4. active infection; trigger what reaction?

Front 138

What is the medical term for the disease commonly found in coal workers

Back 138

Pneumoconiosis is a disease induced by what external factor?

Front 139

What four syndromes may result from exposure to asbestos

Back 139

1. pulmonary fibrosis, 2. pleural fibrosis, 3. lung cancer, 4. Mesothelioma: all thought to be caused by exposure to what chemical?

Front 140

What does "DAD" stand for

Back 140

short for: Diffuse Alveolar Damage

Front 141

What is DAD

Back 141

Damage to the alveoli causing intra-alveolar edema and the formation of hyaline membranes in the lungs or thoracic cavity is called what?

Front 142

What is the presenting symptoms of Lung cancer, usually

Back 142

Prolonged, persistent cough with expectoration of sputum

Front 143

What is the progression of disease in the pleural cavity generally, beginning with effusion of the pleural cavity

Back 143

Effusion leads to formation of Tumors in what organ?

Front 144

Five examples of RBC disorders:

Back 144

1. sickle cell anemia, 2. iron-deficiency type anemia, 3. megaloblastic anemia, 4. Polycythemia, 5. thanlossemia minor: types of disorders of which type of cells?

Front 145

Two leukocyte disorders:

Back 145

1. Neutropenia, 2. Leukemia: disorders of which type of cells?

Front 146

Two lymphocyte disorders

Back 146

1. Hodgkin's disease, 2. Myeloma: disorders of which type of cells?

Front 147

Two platelet disorders:

Back 147

1. Thrombocytopenia, 2. thrombocytocic purpura are disorders of which type of cell?

Front 148

Two Soluble-Clotting Factor disorders

Back 148

1. Deficiency of Vitamin K leading to Bleeding disorder, 2. hemophilia A

Front 149

Which type of anemia is treated with iron supplements

Back 149

Hypochromic Anemia responds to supplements of what mineral?

Front 150

Is Aplastic Anemia considered Idiopathic or Secondary in nature

Back 150

an Idiopathic Anemic Disorder:

Front 151

Four types of Hemolytic Anemias:

Back 151

1. Sickle cell, 2. Speherocytosis, 3. Thelassemia minor, 4. Thelassemia major

Front 152

Four precursors of secondary Polycythemia (

Back 152

1. Increased RBC, 2. increased viscosity of blood, 3. increased erythroid, 4. increased thrombi

Front 153

Infection of B Lymphocytes occurs in what Viral disease

Back 153

Epstein-Barr virus infects which cells in the body? (B or T)

Front 154

The HTLV-1 virus causes what diseases)

Back 154

1. Leukemia, 2. Lymphoma are caused by what virus?

Front 155

Leukemia type which is most common is:

Back 155

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia is more or less common type?

Front 156

Most common leukemia in children:

Back 156

Lymphoblastic Leukemia: found in children < 5 years

Front 157

Main symptom of lymphoma:

Back 157

Enlarged nodes indicated what disease process?

Front 158

Without chemotherapy, which type of leukemia has the best prognosis

Back 158

Lymphocytic leukemia has what prognosis without chemotherapy?

Front 159

What is an example of a "low grade" type of lymphoma disease

Back 159

follicular lymphoma is of what grade?

Front 160

What is "DIC"

Back 160

a disease characterized by the consumption/destruction of platelets leading to widespread hemorrhaging (no clotting)

Front 161

How can DIC be diagnosed?

Back 161

Patients with _______ will have fibrous-split products in the urine