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187 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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draw the hierachy of visual perceputal skills
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visocognintion
visual memory pattern recongintion scanning attention and alert attending oculomotor control/visual field/visual acuity |
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what is scomtams?
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scar tissue on the retina
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macula degneration
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degneration of the central vision
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glacoma
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pressure in the eyes that causes tunnel vision
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what are some behavior changes that occur w visual field deficits? (4)
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(1)narrow scanning (2)decrease in scanning speed (3)misidenification of detial (4)decreased awarness
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what are some functional limitations w somone w visual field loss?
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(1)driving (2)reading (3)opertation of electical motorized equipent (4)ADL/IADL (5)play (6)vocational (7)avocational
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field deficits (left or right (rare) are associated w (1)
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stroke and TBI
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draw chart of someone w RCVA damage
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see pic
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draw a chart of somone w left CBA damage in the eye
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see pic
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someone w right CVA will have damage to the (1)visual field
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left visual field loss
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someone w a left CVA wil have damage to the(1)visual feild
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right
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NAME
this caused by increase in intracoular pressure |
glaucoma
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what causes Glaucoma?
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increased in intraocular pressure
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what are some types of glaucoma? (3)
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congential (2)narrow angle (3)wide or open angle
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Glaucoma has (1)onset
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insidious
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describe sx of gluacoma?(6)q
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(1)insidious onset (2)complain of headaches and have eye glasses changes (3)loss of peripharl vision may not be noticed (4)poor contrast sensivity (5)halos around the lights and blurred vision (6)mild discomfor
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what are some medial treatments for glaucoma? (4)
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(1)meds (2)laster sugurgy (4)surgury
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NAME
these are movements that keep images steady on the retina |
oculomotor deficits
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problems w oculomotor deficits will result in (1)
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diplopia
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what are some evaluations for oculomotor defciits?
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(1)observations (2)Hirschberg technique (coroneal reflection) (3)fixation (4)convergence (5)scaccades (6)supression
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what is the fixation test?
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counting to 5 only want blink
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what is the convergence test?
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want to see if see double
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what is the Hirchberge test?
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tests the coroneal reflection......if there is a problem w the summetry the the light will not reflect back equally
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what is saccades?
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rapid eye movement
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what is supression?
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when the supresses the info from the eye
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give an ex of supression
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one eye is dominant and other not working.. brain takes info onlyfrom on dominant eye so dont see double
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damage to CN III will cause (1)
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ptosis and loss of medial, superior, and inferior, oblique...will not be able to see down and out
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NAME
this will result in ptosis and loss of medial, superior, and inferior, oblique...will not be able to see down and out |
CN III
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CN III is also called (1)
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oculomootr
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(1)is also called oculomootr
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CN III
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CN IV is also called (1)
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trochlear
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(1)is also called trochlear
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CN IV
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CN VI is also called (1)
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abducens
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(1)is also called abducens
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CN VI
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what are some limitations for oculomotor deficits? (5)
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(1)decreased depth perception (2)reading/watching tv (3)balance/coordination (4)nausea (5)driving
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describe damage to the CN IV?
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damage to the superior oblique
cannot turn eye upward and inward |
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NAME
this will result in damage to the superior oblique and cannot turn the eye upward and inaward |
CN IV
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describe damage to CN VI?
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damage to the lateral rectus
one eye will turn in |
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NAME
damage to this CN results in one eye turned in |
CN VI
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strabisumus
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is when eye is misaligned
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NAME
this is when one eye is misaligned |
strabismus
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esotropia
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eye turned in
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exotropia
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eyes are turned out
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hypertropia
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one eye turns up
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what is the differ btwn
esotropia exotropia hypertropia |
(1)esotropia-eye turned in
(2)exotropia=eyes turned out (3)hypertropia=one eyes turned up |
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what is nystagmus?
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when you turn eye in and have rapid eye movement
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NAME
sometiems this becomes fused bc of Arthritis |
the mallecus
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presbycosis
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trouble w high pitch
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NAME
this is trouble w hearing high pitches |
prescboycosis
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a loss of (1)is considered a hearing loss
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16 decibels
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what is normal hearing range ?
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500 to 2000 hz
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the normal hearing range is (1)to (2)
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500 to 2000 hx
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NAME
if people w this type of hearing loss is harder to atriculate, are more monotone |
pre-lingual deaf
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what are some types deaf?
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(1)prelingual deaf (2)prevocational deaf (3)adult deafness
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what is prelingual deaf?
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loss of hearing before speech
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What is prevocational deaf?
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loss of hearing before age 19
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what is adult deafness?
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loss of hearing after the age of 19
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what are some types of hearing loss? (2)
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conductive (2)sensori-neural====presbycusis, congential, and ototoxic
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Otitis externa is just (1)
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swimmer's ear
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NAME
this is just swimmer's ear |
otitis externa
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what is otitis media?
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infection of the middle ear
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NAME
this is an infection of the middle ear |
otitis media
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describe symptoms of otitis media? (4)
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(1)pressure is place on the tympanic membrane (2)eustachian tubes are obstructed (3)severe pain (4)tympanic membrane can rapture
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what is otossclerosis?
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imbalance in bone formation and resportion
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NAME
this is imblance in bone formation and resportion |
otoscleoris
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otoscleoris can cause (1)
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excess bone in the middle ear resulting in the staples become fixed to the oval window blocking conduction
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NAME
this can cause excess bone in the middle ear resulting in the staples become fixed to the oval window blocking conduction |
otoscleoris
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what is the treatment for otoscleoris?
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surgircal removal of the staples and prosthetic replacement
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disturbance of the inner ear can result in (1)
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motion sickness and meniere's disease
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problems in the (1)can result in motion sickness and meniere's disease
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inner ear
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what is Meniere's disease?
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labyrintheine disorder due to excessive endolymph stretching the membrane and interferring w the function of the hair cells in the cochlea and vestibule ...can last mins to hours
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NAME
this is a labyrintheine disorder due to excessive endolymph stretching the membrane and interferring w the function of the hair cells in the cochlea and vestibule ...can last mins to hours |
Meniere's disease
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describe the symptoms of meniere's disease? (3)
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(1)vertigo (2)tintus (3)sesnoinuearl hearing loss
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what are some treatments for Meniere's disease? (2)
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(1)restoring blood flow such as stress reduction and avoidance of smoking (2)low Sodium diet, and use of mild dieurics
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NAME
this is a sense of spinnning around or the feeling of being impelled foward, backward or side to side |
vertio
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what is BPPV?
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recurrent vertio when in supine and hyperextension of the neck
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NAME
this reccureent vertigo in supine and w neck hyperextension |
BPPV
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T or F
hearing aids clarify sounds |
false only amlpify
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what are some hearing loss strategies? (5)
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(1)hearing aides (2)lip reading (3)hearing guide dogs (4)sign language (5)TDD
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what are the differences between the different sign lanaguges? (2)
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(1)SEE=signing exact english
(2)ASL=american sign lanaguage (more symbolic then grammer) |
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what does SEE stand for?
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signing exact language
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what does ASl stand for ?
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american sign lanaguage
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NAME
this condition will result in barrel chest |
emphysema
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NAME
this conidtion is consistent w left sided CHF and diffuclt at the alveolar level |
pulmonary edema
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during an intervew, the therapst asks how many pillows do they use to sleep at night? the therapist is screening for(1)
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orthopnea
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a treatment cosnideration for an OT client taking glucocortiocostroids?(2)
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(1)immunosupression (2)osteoporosis
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someone w a endotracheal tube may be able to (1)
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gesture
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a pt has just had a permanent pacemaker, what are some precuations you would take?
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limit shoulder ROM
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T or F
primary ot treatment problem w COPD is energy |
true
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T or F
Bouchard's node are located the the PIP |
true
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histamines will cause (1)
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vasodilation
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if pericarditis is not treated then (1)
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crushed or supressed heart
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T or F
a mother breast feeding her child is an example of natural passive immunity |
true
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what is the one type of tissue transplant that will not be rejected?
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autograft
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what phase of the disease consits of mild fever, myaglia, headache, and fatigue?
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prodromal stage
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what are some examples of portal of entry?
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(1)skin abrasoion /tear (2)dry cracking skin 2nd to proper hand washing and bites
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noscomial infection
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hospital acquired infection
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the average pulse is (1)
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60 to 100
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what is a thready pulse?
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one that is easly obliterated
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sympathic nervous system (1)the heart rate while the parasympathic nervous system (2)the heart rate
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(1)decrease (2)increase
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what are the signs of left-sided CHF?
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(1)cor pulomale (2)edema in the legs abd abdomen (3)distended neck vieins
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t or f
a ct w cardiac condition should be placed on hold if febrile |
true
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T or F
a ct who has diffculty moving blood from the peripheral to the heart and brain when coming to an upright position has orthostatic hypertension |
true
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your neighbor's child has been diagnosed w MD. you notice that they have progressive weakness of the hips, legs, and shoulder gridle. what type of MD do they have?
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Duchennes
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what are some aggravating factors for someone w fibromyalgia? (3)
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(1)sleep deprivation (2)stress (3)fatigue
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what is one joint most lkely to be effected by OA?
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hip
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T or F
herberton's nodes are located at the PIPs |
false
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ct you notice they have index and middle fingers are MCP hyperextension, PIP flexion, and DIP extension
what kind of deformity is this? |
boutinnere deformity
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NAME
this is increased pressure w.in the fascia of a mm |
compartment syndrome
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Gout affects the (1)
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elbow joint
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T or F
RA is due to weight and tear |
false
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What is OA?
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wear and tear of the joints
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93 y/o female who uses a w/c most the day. where would you particpate pressure ulcers?
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T region
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T or F
an eschartomy is effective debridement treatment |
false
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a person w CO level of 25-35 will have (1)
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cardiac arrhytmia
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what is the burn position of the hand?
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slight wrist ext , MCP flexion, IP ext
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Ct w parasethsia (numnmess and tinglness) of the extermeties, mm cramps, confusion, a and anxiety has (1)
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hypocalcemia
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hyperthyoridsm will result in (1)
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wight loss
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describe the rate of recovery for someone w nerve lesion
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1 mm per day
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what nerve is involed when the ring and little finger are in MCP hyperextension and IP flexion?
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ulnar nerve
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T or F
acetylcholine and adrenaline are neurotransmitters assoicated w the parasymapthic nervous system |
false
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someone w left cerbral hemispheres lesion is most likely to present w (1)
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communication diffculties
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T or F
pt admited to the ER w Glascow coma scale of 14(high)you anticpate pt to be alert and oriented |
true
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what is the UE decorticate posture?
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shoulder extesnion, ir, and elbow flex, and wrist flex
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what is the most moble area of the spine?
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C1=C7
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a child w myeloeningocle at the L3 level will need the following functinal mobility?
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loftstrand or forearm crutches
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T or F
a partial complex seizure may present w bizarre behaviors such as repetitve waving or clapping of the hands, unresposivness to the sourrondings and drowsiness following siezure |
true
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what are some problems w Parkinsons disease? *(4)
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(1)pill rolling (2)resting tremor (3)cogwheel rigidity (4)retropulsion but not w atheoid movements
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you are having dinner w friends and guest that they have a progresive disease involvign the nervous system. they have flat affect, monton speech, loss of sponatneous facial expressions and diffuclity w feeding. she has (1)
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MG
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what activties would be problamatic for someone w scleroderma? (3)
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(1)facial expression (2)oral facial hygiene (3)driving
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NAME
this condition is frequently diagnosed after birth and results in copious thick secretions that increase the likihood of developing of pneumonia |
cystic fibrosis
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T or f
ct's who has just recieved hemodialysis can tolerate treatment w significant modifcations for endurance |
false
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T or F
type II diabetes does not produce insulin and will require injections |
false
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you approach a ct w diabetes to begin early morning (before breakfast). ADL training you notice from the chart that their blood sugar is below 50. what would you do?
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hold until sugar goes up
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you find a ct on the floor w MD. what is the best response?
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check blood sugar and call dr
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one of the most common causes of insulin reaction is (1)
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failure to increase food intake after unusal activity
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if the trachoestomy is removed, the best response is to (1)
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code the pt
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consideration for someone ICP is to (1)
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log roll
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T or F
high glucose levels are something that needs to be monitored on a ct reciveing TPN |
true
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you accidently pull someone N=G tube out. what is the best response?
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turn off or clamp the feeding and notify the nurse
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what are malignant tumors?
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cancer cells that produce rapidly,mingrate and infritrate other tissues
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what are some warning signs of cancer? (7)
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(1)bleeding /discharge from anywhere in body (2)change in bowel or bladder patterns (3)a change in a wart or mole (4)unexplained weight loss (5)anemia or low hemglobin and presistant fatigue (6)persistent cough or hoarseness (7)sold lump
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what does in situ mean>
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rapid proliferation
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NAME
this means rapid proliferation |
in situ
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Cancer are described by the (1)
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type of tissue they arise from
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carcinoma
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tissue w/in an organ/tissue
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arcoma
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tissue in connective tissue
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Chondroma
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tissue in cartilage
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lymphoma
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tissue in lymphatic tissue
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leukemia
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tissue in the blood forming tissue
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what is stage I of cancer?
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tumor present but limited to the organ its involvement...lesion is operable and good (2)no spread of cancer to the lymph nodes (3)no metastatic lesions
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NAME
this stage of cancer is as follows: tumor present but limited to the organ its involvement...lesion is operable and good (2)no spread of cancer to the lymph nodes (3)no metastatic lesions |
stage I of cancer
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what is the survior rate for stage I cancer?
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mean 5 yrs and survival rate 70-90%
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what is the surviovr rate for stage II cancer?
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mean 5 years
rate-of 50% or -5% |
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what stage II of cancer? (3)
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(1)tumor spread into localzied tissue. tumor is operable and can be fully removed (2)lymph nodes have evidence of cancer in the region/body quadrant surrounding the tumor (3)local evidence of mets to the lympathics, mets are limted and have not spread to other body organs
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NAME STAGE OF CANCER
(1)tumor spread into localzied tissue. tumor is operable and can be fully removed (2)lymph nodes have evidence of cancer in the region/body quadrant surrounding the tumor (3)local evidence of mets to the lympathics, mets are limted and have not spread to other body organs |
stage II
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what is stage III of cancer? (3)
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(1)extensive evidance of primary tumor that has spread elsewhere in the body. tumor can be debulked but some of the cells remain (2)lymph node involvement close to the primary tumor and extending deeper into lymphatic system (3)evidence of spread to other organs
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NAME STAGE OF CANCER
(1)extensive evidance of primary tumor that has spread elsewhere in the body. tumor can be debulked but some of the cells remain (2)lymph node involvement close to the primary tumor and extending deeper into lymphatic system (3)evidence of spread to other organs |
stage III of cancer
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what is stage IV of cancer? (3)
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(1)inoperable primary lesion survidal depends on depth and extent of the tumor spread (2)lymph node involvement that extends to mutiple organs and regions of the body (3)multiple sites of metastases to organs beyond the one in which the tumor orginated
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NAME STAGE OF CANCER
(1)inoperable primary lesion survidal depends on depth and extent of the tumor spread (2)lymph node involvement that extends to mutiple organs and regions of the body (3)multiple sites of metastases to organs beyond the one in which the tumor orginated |
stage IV of cancer
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what is survival rate for stage III of cancer?
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mean 5 year
20% or -5% |
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what is the survival rate for stage IV of cancer?
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mean 5 years
survival rate less then 5% |
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what are some alternative methods for measuring the stages of cancer? (3)
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(1)T=the size, site and deoth of the primary tumor
T-1=minimal T5=maximal (2)N=lymph node spread NO=no spread and N5=wide spread (3)M=the presence of metastases MO=no mets M5=multiple sites |
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what are the local effects of tumors? (3)
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(1)pain (2)obstruction (3)tissue necrosis
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what are some medial treatments for cancer? (4)
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(1)sugury (2)chemo (3)radiation (4)immunotherapy
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what are some types of cancer surgury?
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(1)enbloc (2)radical
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what is enbloc surgury?
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when they remove the mass
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NAME
this type of surugry is used to when they removes the mass |
enbloc surgury
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what is radical sugury?
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when they remove the mass and surrounding tissue
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NAME
this when a toxic chemical substances is used to kill cancer cells |
chemo
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what are some side effects of chemo? (8)
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(1)alopecia (2)peripheral neuroapthy (3)thrombocytopenia (4)fatigue (5)vomiting (6)anemia (7)function limiting fear/anxiety (8)immunosupression
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what are some precuations that should be taken with for someone w chemo?
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reverse and body fluids precuations and unversial
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NAME
this is when radioactive materails are placed directly in tumors or the surounding tissue to kill cancer cells |
radiation
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what are some precuations for some on radiation? (3)
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(1)bronzing of the skin (2)burns (3)skin will be dry must use water based mositurez to prevent infection
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what some generic problems for people w cancer? (5)
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(1)endurance (2)loss of mm strength (3)sensation (4)cogintion (5)vision/hearing
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what some pllative care measures that OT can do? (3)
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(1)adapt the environment=positioning, tx to relieve pain, and engagement in occupations (2)train caregivers to assits w ADLs (3)address emotional issues
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radial mastectomy
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breast, lymph nodes, and chest mm are removed
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modificed radical mastectomy
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breast, lymph nodes, and lining cover the chest mm are removed
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total or simple mastectomy
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breast and lymph nodes are remvoed
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partial mastectomy
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cancer area is removed
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lumpectomy
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lump is remvoed
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hot causes (1)while cold causes (2)
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(1)vasodilation (2)vasoconstriction
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benign
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abnormal growth the is not cancer
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carcinogen
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any substance that intiates or promotes the development of cancer
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multiple myeloma
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cancer that affects the white blood celsl
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astrocytoma
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slow growing tumor
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gliobastoma
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high malignant tumor-6 months
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