Path Final Quick!!

Front 1

What is the most powerful stimulus of Beta cells in the endocrine pancreas?

Back 1

Serum glucose concentration > 120mg/dl

Front 2

What is the most common cause of hyperparathyroidism in dog?

Back 2

Most common cause is secondary to renal disease

Front 3

Cause of hyperparathyroidism in dog secondary to renal disease

Back 3

Renal fibrosis leads to phosphorous retention and calcium excretion which leads to chronic hypocalcemia which results in an increase release of PTH

* All 4 parathryoid glands undergo marked, palpable chief cell hyperplasia

* Bone show varying degrees of generalized fibrous osteodystrophy

Front 4

How do you differentiate tumors of the adrenal gland?

Back 4

Henle chromoreaction with either potassium dichromate or iodate: apply Zenker’s solution to flat cut surface of freshly resected adrenal gland tumor

* If a cortex tumor = no color change

* If a medulla tumor = turns dark brown within 20 minutes (due to the oxidation of the catecholamines)

Front 5

What endocrinopathy are ferrets prone to develop?

Back 5

Beta cell tumor of the endocrine pancreas

Front 6

Clinical presentation of a ferret with a Beta cell tumor of the endocrine pancreas

Back 6

convulsive seizures, hypoglycemia, hysteria, stupor, lethargy, ataxia, shaking, trembling

Front 7

Which endocrine hormone is synthesized extracellularly?

Back 7

Final assembly of thyroid hormones (T3, T4) is in the colloid lumen of the thyroid gland (colloid lumen = extracellular space)

Front 8

What species differences are there in the location of the parathyroid glands?

Back 8

* Equine: upper parathyroid gland near the thyroid gland; lower parathyroid gland near the first rib

* Ovine/caprine: external parathyroid gland closely associated to the thymus; internal parathyroid gland closely associated to the thyroid gland

* Canine/feline: external and internal parathyroid glands closely associated to the thyroid gland

* Bovine: external parathyroid gland near the larynx and internal parathyroid gland closely associated to the thyroid gland

* Porcine: parathyroid gland (only 1 pair) closely associated to the thymus

Front 9

What form of diabetes mellitus is most common in cats?

Back 9

Insulin resistance (Type II)

Front 10

A 2-yr old horse presents with spinal ataxia, normal mentation, and a lack of cranial nerve deficits. Which 2 diseases should be top on your list?

Back 10

1. Equine protozoal myelitis (EPM)

2. Cervical stenosis (wobblers)

Front 11

white opacity in the ventral aspect of eye

Back 11

hypopyon

Front 12

brain that is diffusely red with cloudy tan exudate within the sulci

Back 12

meningitis

Front 13

at necropsy there is a yellowish material on the surface of the lungs and thoracic wall that easily peeled off

Back 13

fibrin (acute process)

Front 14

at necropsy there is a clear, gelationous material within the bone marrow and along the surface of the heart

Back 14

this is serous atrophy of fat caused by long term starvation

Front 15

Adrenal tumors can be distinguished by what pratical test?

Back 15

Application of potassium dichromate (Zenker's solution) on the fresh cut surface of the tumor

Front 16

With one hormone, the final assembly occurs extracellulary within the follicular lumen. Which one?

Back 16

Thyroid

Front 17

Excess maternal iodine in a diet, especially in the pregnant mare, could cause goiter.

Back 17

True

Front 18

Secondary hyperparathyroidism in the dog is characterized by:

Back 18

Chronic hypocalcemia and enlargement of all four parathyroid glands

Front 19

Obesity is one of the common causes of diabetes mellitus in humans and animals

Back 19

True

Front 20

Beta cell tumors of the endocrine islet of Langerhans in a dog are usually...

Back 20

malignant

Front 21

A condition often associated with palatoschisis

Back 21

Aspiration pneumonia

Front 22

congenital porphyria is due to

Back 22

absence of uroporphyrin III cosynthetase

Front 23

oral necrobacillosis (calf diphtheria) in calves is due to trauma plus infection with

Back 23

Fusobacterium necrophorum

Front 24

Acquired megaesophagus in the dog may be secondary to

Back 24

myasthenia gravis

Front 25

Sarcomas in the distal esophagus of the dog have been associated with infection with

Back 25

Spirocerca lupi

Front 26

Raised, plaque-like lesions on the esophagus of a calf previously treated with antibiotics, that contain superficial, ovoid budding yeast, pseudohyphae and true hyphae when examined are most likely due to

Back 26

Candida albicans

Front 27

sequence of events leading to ruminal acidosis following a sudden increase in carbs

Back 27

1. inc. VFA
2. inc. streptococci
3. inc. lactic acid
4. inc. lactibacilli
5.dec. pH
6. rumenitis

Front 28

Gastric rupture in the horse almost always occurs where?

Back 28

along the greater curvature

Front 29

the chance of a cow sucessfully returning to productivity after a 360 volvulus of the abomasum is roughly

Back 29

80%

Front 30

most commom form of intestinal atresia in domestic animals

Back 30

atresia coli

Front 31

a foal with overo lethal white syndrome will be what?

Back 31

Born uneventfully, fail to pass meconium, and have an absence of colonic myenteric ganglia

Front 32

a distended and fluid-filled intestine with a thin wall in a dog with a history of vomiting and diarrhea and clinical signs of obstructionm yet without any surgical evidence of occlusion, may be the result of intestinal

Back 32

fibrosing leiomysitis

Front 33

Intestinal biopsy of the SI of a dog with diarrhea and weight loss reveals the presence of numerous dilated crypts filled with mucus in the duodenum. The dog is most likely suffering from

Back 33

protein-losing enteropathy

Front 34

IBD and intestinal lymphima in the cat are best differentiated from another by the

Back 34

presence or absence of a uniform B-Cell or T-cell phenotype using immunohistochemistry

Front 35

neonates are particularly susceptible to intestinal growth of clostridium sp. with damage related to clostridial beta-toxin because of

Back 35

the presence of trypsin inhibitors in colostrum

Front 36

macrophages of the nervous system

Back 36

microglia

Front 37

degeneration of the distal segment of the axon following axonal injury is called

Back 37

wallerian degeneration

Front 38

wallerian degeneration is identified histologically by

Back 38

round vacuoles with are formed by the swelling of the myeling sheaths that surround axons

Front 39

5 lesions that can occur with hydrocephalus of toy breed dogs

Back 39

1. doming of the cranium
2. fusion of rostral calliculi
3. stenosis of the mesencephalic aqueduct
4. atrophy of the cerebral white matter
5. atrophy of the hippocampus

Front 40

what cell type is most susceptible to ischemia

Back 40

neurons

Front 41

difference between cytotoxic edema and vasogenic edema

Back 41

cytotoxic edema primarily affects the gray matter

Front 42

4 features of polioencephaomalacia of ruminants

Back 42

1.swelling of astrocyte foot processes surrounding neurons and blood vessels

2. shrunken, angular neurons with hypereosinophilic cytoplasm

3. gross swelling of the brain

4. cavitation with gitter cell accumulation in the more chronic lesions

Front 43

neurologic lesion of locoweed

Back 43

vacuolation of neurons from the accumulation of unmetabolized storage material

Front 44

rabies is characterized by

Back 44

intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies within neuron (negri bodies)

Front 45

the vacuolation seen in the brain of animals with spongiform encephalopathies due to what?

Back 45

vacuolation of neurons and neuronal processes

Front 46

most common intracranial neoplasm of cats

Back 46

meningioma

Front 47

during necropsy of an aged cow, you notice two small, rounded, white nodules on the surface of the heart-which are?

Back 47

Schwannomas (common incidental finding)

Front 48

4 potential sequelae of glaucoma

Back 48

1. optic disk cupping
2. inner cranial degeneration and detachment
3. cataract
4. uveal atrohphy

Front 49

traumatic ocular sarcoma is a neoplasm that occurs in what species

Back 49

cats

Front 50

"iridocyclitis" is equivalent to

Back 50

"anterior uveitis"

Front 51

rupture of the lens with leakage od lens protein induces

Back 51

uveitis

Front 52

inflammation of all ocular structures including the sclera

Back 52

panophtalmitis

Front 53

the primary lesion of canine pannus is

Back 53

fibrovascular tissue proliferation in the superficial cornea

Front 54

Uveodermatologic syndrome of dogs is an autoimmune disease that targets what cells in the eye and skin?

Back 54

melanocytes

Front 55

a solid white kitten with blue eyes is most likely

Back 55

congenitally deaf and has an increased risk of developing solar-induced cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas of the face and ears

Front 56

basic mechanism for underlying cataract formation

Back 56

increased hydration of the lens

Front 57

in which animal are the external parathyroid glands located in the thymus

Back 57

ovine

Front 58

signs of diffuse hyperplastic goiter caused by iodine deficiency

Back 58

1. dec. t3 and t4
2. inc. tsh
3. bilateral enlarged thyroids
4. diffuse follicular cell hyperplasia

Front 59

beta cell carcinoma of the endocrine pancreas in the dog is

Back 59

often functional and metastatic

Front 60

a functional acidophilic pituitary gland adenoma was diagnosed on an 8yo cat what caused it

Back 60

diabetes mellitus

Front 61

microglia are of what origin

Back 61

bone marrow

Front 62

glial cells are of what origin

Back 62

neuroectodermal

Front 63

major function of oligogendroglia

Back 63

formation of myelin

Front 64

histologic appearance of an end-stage brain infarct

Back 64

a cavitated area containing reactive astrocytes and their processes

Front 65

a defect in the dorsal vetebral column through which spinal meninges and/or spinal cord may herniate

Back 65

spina bifida

Front 66

lesion from yellow star thistle toxicity

Back 66

nigropallidal encephalomalacia

Front 67

lesion from lead toxicity

Back 67

laminar cortical necrosis

Front 68

lesion from fumonisin B1 toxicity

Back 68

necrosis of cerebral white matter

Front 69

a traumatic brain injury that produces a focal, grossly evident lesion due to hemorrhage is most appropriately

Back 69

contusion

Front 70

equine at necrospy with brain that fluoresces with UV light

Back 70

neonatal maladjustment syndrome

Front 71

4 components of the blood brain barrier

Back 71

1. endothelial cells with tight junctions
2. basement membrane
3. foot processes of astrocytes
4. pericytes

Front 72

lesion of listeriosis

Back 72

microabscesses in the brain stem

Front 73

primary lesion of sarcocystis neurona infection in horses

Back 73

necrotizing myelitis

Front 74

12yo cow w/ hx of ataxia and recumbency. necropsy showed a pale yellow, extradural mass in the spinal canal at t10-t13 this is compressing the cord

Back 74

malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

Front 75

a uniformly pink, fleshy, smooth, rounded mass ar the medial canthus of the eye

Back 75

proplapsed gland of the 3rd eye lid

Front 76

phacoclastic uveitis is inflammation of the uvea secondary to what

Back 76

rupture of the lens capsule

Front 77

a known nutritional cause of retinal degeneration in cats is deficiency

Back 77

taurine

Front 78

goniodysgenesis is associated with what

Back 78

primary glaucoma

Front 79

cats with chronic renal disease might develop retinal detachment secondary to what

Back 79

hypertension

Front 80

anterior synechia is the attachment of the

Back 80

iris to the posterior cornea

Front 81

most common type of keratitis in horses

Back 81

deep stromal keratitis from Aspergillus infection

Front 82

4 potential causes of deafness from degeneration of the hair cells of the organ of corti

Back 82

1.aminoglycoside
2.advanced age
3.furosemide toxicity
4. loud noises