Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
285 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
what is the normal amount of urine produced per day?
|
1.5L
|
|
|
what are the hormones produced by the kidney?
|
renin and erythropoietin
|
|
|
what are the 3 causes of acute renal failure?
|
prerenal: CHF
renal: glomerular disease post renal: ureter obstructions |
|
|
what are the 4 stages of chronic renal failure?
|
diminished renal reserve
• renal insufficiency • renal failure • end stage renal failure |
|
|
what are the symptoms of acute nephritic syndrome?
|
oliguria
• hematuria • proteinuria • edema • hypertension |
|
|
what is the cause of acute nephritic syndrome?
|
throat infection with Gp A strep
|
|
|
what is the characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
|
loss of large amounts of protein in urine, hypoalbuminemia and edema
|
|
|
what is the cause of nephrotic syndrome?
|
glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
what are the 3 primary glomerular diseases?
|
– minimal change glomerulopathy
– primary membranous nephropathy – acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis |
|
|
what are the secondary causes of glomerular disease?
|
– immunologic diseases (SLE)
– metabolic disorders (diabetes mellitus) |
|
|
what is primary membranous nephropathy?
|
thickening of glomerular basement membrane due to immune complex deposition
|
|
|
what is the cause acute glomerulonepritis?
|
steptococcal infection
|
|
|
what are the 4 types of glomerular diseases?
|
primary membranous nephropathy
minimal change glomerulopathy (lipoid nephrosis) acute glomerulonephritis diabetes mellitus |
|
|
what are the 4 consequences of diabetes mellitus acting on the kidney?
|
• glomerulosclerosis
• arteriosclerosis • pyelonephritis • papillary necrosis |
|
|
what are the prevalences of glomerular diseases?
|
primary membranous nephropathy = adults
minimal change glomerulopathy = children acute glomerulonephritis = children recover faster |
|
|
what is adult polycystic kidney disease?
|
– progressive number of variable sized cysts with age
|
|
|
what is cystic renal dysplasia?
|
– congenital disorder of development of the kidney
|
|
|
what is acute pyelonephritis?
|
• Bacterial infection of the kidney
– ascend through the urinary tract (85%) • gram negative bacteria (E. coli most common) – via the blood stream • gram positive bacteria |
|
|
what are the 4 types of renal stones?
|
– calcium stones, struvite stones, uric acid stones, cystine stones
|
|
|
what is cystitis?
|
inflammation of the bladder
|
|
|
what are the 3 renal diseases that cause circulatory changes?
|
acute tubular necrosis
benign nephrosclerosis hypertension |
|
|
what is acute tubular necrosis?
|
– sudden severe drop in bp causing death of renal tubular cells
– acute renal failure |
|
|
what is benign nephrosclerosis?
|
– ischemic damage to glomeruli with resulting loss of glomeruli
|
|
|
Auto-immune hepatitis respond well to steroids
|
True
|
|
|
ischemic bowel disease may result from atherosclerosis?
|
True
|
|
|
what are the 2 main causes of chronic gastritis?
|
Helicobacterpylori and autoimmune destruction of parietal cells
|
|
|
what are the 2 main esophageal neoplasm?
|
squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of benign liver neoplasms?
|
cavernous hemangioma and hepatocellular adenoma
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of drug induced hepatitis?
|
acetaminophen and alcohol (steatosis)
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of hiatus hernia?
|
sliding hernia
paraesophageal hernia |
|
|
what are the 3 causes of acute gastritis?
|
stress, drug, alcohol
|
|
|
what are the 3 complications of cirrhosis?
|
varices, ascites, slenomegaly
|
|
|
What are the 3 types of metabolic hepatitis?
|
hemochromatosis
Wilson's disease Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency |
|
|
what are the 3 types of polyps?
|
Hyperplastic polyp (adults)
Hamartomatous polyp (children) adenomatous polyp |
|
|
what are the causes of hepatic abscess?
|
bacteria, ameba (parasite)
|
|
|
what are the causes of peptic ulcer disease?
|
action of acid, stress, H pylori, hormones
|
|
|
what are the characteristics of Crohn's disease?
|
skip lesions, transmural inflammation, granulomas
|
|
|
what are the prevalence of primary sclerosing cholangitis, auto-immune hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis?
|
primary sclerosing cholangitis = young males
auto-immune hepatitis = young females primary biliary cirrhosis = middle age females |
|
|
what are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
HBV, HCV, hemochromatosis, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
|
|
|
what are the type of viral hepatitis that is orally transmitted?
|
A & E
|
|
|
what are the types of viral hepatitis that is sexually transmitted?
|
B, C, D
|
|
|
what is achalasia?
|
increased resting tone of lower esophageal sphincter
|
|
|
what is alcohol hepatitis?
|
• fatty liver (steatosis)
– all alcoholics show steatosis [fatty yellow liver] – acute inflammation with fibrosis |
|
|
What is Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?
|
autosomal recessive disorder resulting in decreased alpha 1 antitrypsin, may cause emphysema, cirrhosis
|
|
|
what is the consequence of ascariasis in liver?
|
– liver disease resulting from obstruction of bile ducts by the parasite
|
|
|
what is auto-immune hepatitis?
|
chronic hepatitis in young females characterized by presence of autoantibodies to specific antigens
|
|
|
what is Barrett's esophagus?
|
presence of metaplastic intestinal type epithelium in lower esophagus
|
|
|
What is celiac disease?
|
hypersensitivity reaction to gluten
|
|
|
what is cholecystitis?
|
inflammation of gall bladder usually due to stones
|
|
|
what is choledocholithiasis?
|
– stone present in the common bile duct
|
|
|
what is cholelithiasis?
|
gallstones: chosterol, pigment, mixed stones
|
|
|
what is chronic pancreatitis?
|
– persistence of inflammation after original inciting agent removed
|
|
|
what is cirrhosis?
|
end stage liver disease characterized by fibrosis and regenerative nodules
|
|
|
what is diverticular disease?
|
outpouching of colonic mucosa (usually in elderly)
|
|
|
What is erythroplakia?
|
persistent red lesion in oral cavity
|
|
|
what is esophageal varices?
|
dilation of submucosal veins of distal esophagus
|
|
|
what is hemochromatosis?
|
autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism resulting in increased deposition of iron in various organs including liver, heart, pancreas
|
|
|
what is Hirschprung's disease?
|
congenital absense of colonic nerve ganglia (portions of colon with no peristalsis)
|
|
|
what is Hydatid disease?
|
a disease of various organs cause by a parasite [echinococcus (cestode (tapeworm))] characterized by formation of cysts
|
|
|
What is leukoplakia?
|
persistent white lesion in oral cavity
|
|
|
what is McBurney's point?
|
location of the appendix
|
|
|
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
|
developmental disorder of small bowel due to persistence of omphalomesenteric duct
|
|
|
what is peptic ulcer disease?
|
localized chronic ulceration of gastic or duodenal mucosa
|
|
|
what is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
|
– autosomal dominant, characterized by multiple hamartomatous polyps and pigmented lesions on lips, peri-oral skin
|
|
|
what is pleomorphic adenoma?
|
benign salivary neoplasm
|
|
|
what is primary biliary cirrhosis?
|
disease of unknown etiology characterized by destruction of small intra-hepatic bile ducts and eventual cirrhosis
|
|
|
what is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
|
disease of unknown etiology characterized by destruction of intra-hepatic and extra- hepatic bile ducts by lymphocytes and macrophages
|
|
|
what is pseudomembrane colitis?
|
infectious colitis characterized by formation of pseudomembrane
|
|
|
what is schistosomiasis?
|
liver disease results from schistosome (a parasite) depositing eggs in branches of portal vein
|
|
|
what is sialadenitis?
|
inflammation of salivary gland (usually parotid)
|
|
|
What is Sjogren's syndrome?
|
autoimmune inflammation of salivary and lacrimal glands
|
|
|
what is the cause of acute pancreatitis?
|
tissue necrosis due to pancreatic enzymes
|
|
|
what is the main type of malignant oral neoplasm?
|
squamous cell carcinomas
|
|
|
what is the most common neoplasm of appendix?
|
carcinoid
|
|
|
What is ulcerative colitis?
|
mucosa inflammation of cecum to rectum area
|
|
|
What is Wilson's disease?
|
• autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism resulting in increased deposition of copper in various organs including liver, brain, and eye
|
|
|
What is girardia?
|
a parasite that causes beaver fever
|
|
|
what type of carcinoma is colonic carcinoma?
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
What is Hematocrit?
|
ratio of cell to total volume of blood
|
|
|
What is CBC?
|
number of each type of blood cells
|
|
|
What is differential?
|
Different types of wbc present
|
|
|
What are the values for anemia in male and female?
|
Male Hb<130
Female Hb<115 |
|
|
What are the 3 Mechanisms of anemia?
|
Loss of blood
Destruction of red cells Decrease rbc production |
|
|
Where is iron absorbed in the body?
|
small bowel
|
|
|
How is iron transported?
|
through transferritin
|
|
|
How is iron stored?
|
In ferritin
|
|
|
What are the 4 causes of iron deficiency?
|
decrease intake
decrease absorption increase loss increase requirement |
|
|
What is aplastic anemia?
|
loss of multipotent myeloid stem cells in bone marrow
|
|
|
what is pancytopenia?
|
decrease production of red cells, platelets, granulocytes
|
|
|
What is the secondary causes of aplastic anemia?
|
cytotoxic drugs, radiation, viral infection
|
|
|
What is megaloblastic anemia?
|
abnormal blood cell precursors in bone marrow (defective DNA synthesis)
|
|
|
What are the 2 causes of megaloblastic anemia?
|
B12 and folate deficiency
|
|
|
What are 3 causes of B12 deficiency?
|
decrease absorption
decrease intake increase requirement |
|
|
What is pernicious anemia?
|
lack of intrinsic factor causing B12 deficiency
|
|
|
What is the result of prolonged low B12?
|
spinal cord lesions
|
|
|
What is sickle cell anemia?
|
defective Beta globin gene, replace neutral aa with acidic aa
|
|
|
What is thaalassemia?
|
defective Hb genes coding alpha and beta chains
|
|
|
what are the 4 types of alpha thalassemia?
|
silent carrier state (1 gene deletion)
alpha thalssemia trait (2 gene deletion) hemoglobin H disease (3) hydrops fetalis (4) |
|
|
What are the 3 types of beta thalassemia?
|
thalassemia minor, intermediate. major
|
|
|
What is spherocytosis?
|
defective rbc membrane
|
|
|
spherocytosis is...
|
autosomal dominant
|
|
|
what are the secondary causes to polycythemia?
|
high altitude, chronic lung disease
|
|
|
what is polycythemia rubra vera?
|
neoplastic disease of red cell precursors in bone marrow
|
|
|
What is leukopenia?
|
abnormal decrease in wbc
|
|
|
what are the causes of neutropenia?
|
drugs, chemicals, radiation, aplastic anemia
|
|
|
what is leukocytosis?
|
abnormal increase in wbc
|
|
|
what is the cause of neutrophilic leukocytosis?
|
bacterial infections
|
|
|
what is the cause of eosinophilia?
|
parasites, allergies, drug reactions
|
|
|
what is the cause of lymphocytosis?
|
viral and chronic infections
|
|
|
what are the 3 examples of leukocytosis?
|
neutrophilic leukocytosis, eosinophilia, lymphocytosis
|
|
|
what is the difference between leukemia and lymphoma?
|
leukemia = malignant blood cell precursors in bone marrow
lymphoma = malignant cells in lymphoid tissue |
|
|
what are the 2 main types of leukemia?
|
myeloid and lymphoid
|
|
|
What are the prevalence of ALL AML CML CLL leukemia?
|
ALL = children
AML = Adults CLL = elderly |
|
|
what is the major characteristic of CML leukemia?
|
philadelphia chromosome
|
|
|
What is Hodgkin's disease?
|
lymphomas with presence of Reed Sternberg cell
|
|
|
Hodgin's disease does not respond well to chemotherapy?
|
False
|
|
|
What are the 3 types of Non-hodgkins lymphomas?
|
Follicular lymphoma
diffuse large cell lymphomas Burkitt's lymphoma |
|
|
what is multiple myeloma?
|
malignant disease of plasma cells
|
|
|
what are the 4 causes of clotting factor disorders?
|
Congenital (Hemophilia)
Decrease production (liver disease, Vit K deficiency) increase consumption (DIC) anticoagulants |
|
|
what is Renal cell carcinoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm of renal epithelial cells
|
|
|
what is Wilm's tumor?
|
– malignant neoplasm of renal epithelial cells
|
|
|
what is transitional cell carcinoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm of transitional epithelial cells in renal pelvis
|
|
|
what are the prevalences of renal neoplasm?
|
renal cell carcinoma = adults
Wilm's tumor = children |
|
|
what is transitional cell carcinoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm of transitional epithelium in the bladder
|
|
|
what is the cause of renal cell carcinoma?
|
• loss of one allele of a tumor suppressor gene in 98% of sporadic
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of transitional cell carcinoma?
|
– papillary vs. sessile describe gross appearance
• exophytic papillary tumor usually low grade, good prognosis • sessile tumor usually high grade, worse prognosis |
|
|
What is cryptorchidism?
|
failure of the testicles to descend into the scrotum
|
|
|
what are the causes of epididymoorchitis and urethritis?
|
– Sexually transmitted diseases
• Gonorrhea, Chlamydia – Uropathogens • gram negative bacteria (E. coli) – viruses • mumps (1/3 of those with mumps develop orchitis) |
|
|
what is balanitis?
|
– inflammation of the glans penis
|
|
|
what is the cause of genital herpes?
|
Herpes simplex virus type 2
|
|
|
what is the cause of gonnorhea?
|
– Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacteria)
|
|
|
what is the cause of non-specific urethritis?
|
– Chlamydia, mycoplasma (types of bacteria)
|
|
|
What is the cause of syphilis?
|
– Treponema pallidum (spirochete bacteria)
|
|
|
what are the 3 stages of syphilis infection?
|
• primary stage
– painless chancre • secondary stage systemic spread if untreated – fever, malaise, rash • tertiary stage – small vessel vasculitis – cardiac and CNS complications |
|
|
what is the most common testicular neoplasms?
|
germ cell tumors
|
|
|
what is benign prostatic hyperplasia?
|
– benign hyperplasia of prostate epithelium and stroma
– common in elderly males |
|
|
what is prostatic carcinoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm of glandular epithelium in the prostate
– most common cancer in males, usually elderly males |
|
|
where does prostatic carcinoma usually occur?
|
posterior prostate
|
|
|
what is prostate specific antigen (PSA)?
|
• prostate cells produce PSA, secrete into semen, small amount ends up in blood
• prostate cancer cells produce PSA, more ends up in blood • useful to screen population at risk of prostatic carcinoma, other causes of increased PSA |
|
|
what is achondroplasia?
|
– autosomal dominant defect of bone formation resulting in dwarfism
|
|
|
what is osteogenesis imperfecta?
|
– group of inherited diseases resulting from defective collagen type I
– results in production of osteopenic bone which is weak |
|
|
what is osteopetrosis?
|
– group of inherited diseases resulting from defective osteoclast function
– bones grow but not remodelled resulting in thick but brittle bones |
|
|
what are the 2 types of primary osteoporosis?
|
– type I primary osteoporosis
• typically occurs in post menopausal women • due to increased osteoclast activity, affects bones with high percentage of cancellous bone (eg. Vertebrae- compression fracture) – type II primary osteoporosis (senile osteoporosis) • affects both men and women • pathogenesis not understood, affects cortical portion of long bones (eg. Femur - femoral fracture) |
|
|
what are osteomalacia and rickets?
|
– osteomalacia is a disease of adults due to inadequate mineralization of bone matrix in mature bones
– rickets is a disease of children due to inadequate mineralization of bone matrix in growing bones |
|
|
what are the causes of secondary osteoporosis?
|
hormonal imbalance, diet, immobilization, drugs, tumors
|
|
|
what is the major cause of inadequate mineralization?
|
• vitamin D deficiency
– inadequate intake – inadequate sunlight – malabsorption |
|
|
what is renal osteodystrophy?
|
refers to bone changes that occur in patients with chronic renal failure (CRF)
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of osteomalacia?
|
• decreased absorption of Ca, PO from intestine
• increased PTH which causes increased bone resorption • compensatory bone formation occurs in setting of inadequate minerals |
|
|
what is Paget's disease?
|
– chronic disease of unknown etiology characterized by irregular restructuring of bone with resulting thick and deformed bones
|
|
|
what are the 3 phases of Paget's disease?
|
• destructive phase, mixed phase, osteosclerotic phase
|
|
|
what is osteomyelitis?
|
– inflammation of bones, most commonly due to bacterial infection (Staph. aureus)
|
|
|
what is aseptic necrosis in bones?
|
- aka avascular necrosis, osteonecrosis
– death of part of a bone secondary to infarct – infarct occurs as a consequence of ischemia |
|
|
what is Legge-Calve-Perthe disease?
|
osteonecrosis of head of femur (3-10 yo boys)
|
|
|
what are the causes of osteonecrosis?
|
• trauma
• corticosteroids • radiation therapy • systemic diseases (eg. sickle cell anemia, SLE) • emboli |
|
|
what is the first and second common primary bone tumor?
|
first = osteosarcoma
second = chondrosarcoma |
|
|
at what age do osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma peak?
|
osteosarcoma = 20s
chondorsarcoma = 50-60 |
|
|
what is Ewing's sarcoma?
|
unusual malignant neoplasm consisting of undifferentiated cells
|
|
|
what is osteoarthritis?
|
– chronic degenerative disease of articular joints with loss of cartilage
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of osteoarthritis?
|
– loss of articular cartilage, sclerosis, eburnation, cysts, osteophytes
– weight bearing joints, DIPs and PIPs (distal/ proximal interphalangeal joints) |
|
|
what is rhematoid arthritis?
|
– chronic systemic disease of unknown etiology characterized by inflammation of joints and variable extra-articular features
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?
|
– may affect any joint, usually symmetric distribution , MCPs PIPs (metacarpophalangeal/ proximal interphalangeal joints)
|
|
|
what are possible causes of rheumatoid arthritis?
|
• Rhematoid factor - autoantibody directed against part of IgG (present in 80 %)
• not diagnostic of rhematoid arthritis (may occur in SLE - lupus) |
|
|
What is ankylosing spondylitis?
|
– seronegative arthropathy preferentially affecting spine, sacrum
– males more commonly affected |
|
|
what is myalgia?
|
– muscle pain
|
|
|
what is neurogenic atrophy?
|
• Form of muscle atrophy caused by injury to nerve supplying the muscle
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of neurogenic atrophy?
|
Upper motor neuron injury
– injury to neuron located in CNS Lower motor neuron injury – injury to motor neuron located in anterior horn of spinal cord |
|
|
what is myasthenia gravis?
|
– autoimmune disease due to immune -mediated injury resulting in decreased numbers of muscle ACh receptors
|
|
|
what is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
|
– most common dystrophy (X-linked recessive) caused by deficiency of dystrophin an integral protein in cell plasma membrane (including skeletal muscle cells)
|
|
|
what is Becker' muscular dystrophy?
|
- mild form of Duchenne muscular dystrophy
|
|
|
what is the cause of myotonic dystrophy?
|
– mutation of myotonin protein kinase
– autosomal dominant inheritance, symptoms develop in adults |
|
|
what is myotonia?
|
• sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of myotonic dystrophy?
|
– myotonia
– facial muscle weakness (“hatchet man” faces) – muscle wasting, mental deterioration and diabetes |
|
|
what is myopathy?
|
muscle wasting and hypotonia (floppy baby) or severe joint contracture
|
|
|
what is myositis?
|
– inflammation of muscle
|
|
|
what is multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes (MEN)?
|
– certain syndromes are characterized by multiple endocrine neoplasms
• MEN I (pituitary, parathyroid, pancreatic islet cell neoplasia) • MEN IIa (medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid) • MEN IIb (IIa + skin and mucosal nerve tumors) |
|
|
what are the 2 hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary?
|
ADH, and oxytocin
|
|
|
what is pituitary adenoma?
|
– benign neoplasm of endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary
– symptoms due to release of excess hormones or pressure effects of mass (compression of pitutary stalk and/or optic chiasm) |
|
|
what are the symptoms of prolactinoma (LH)?
|
present with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility (microadenoma)
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of pituitary adenoma?
|
Somatotropic adenomas
– neoplastic cells produce growth hormone – gigantism results from excess growth hormone before growth plates close • generalized increase in body size with disproportionately long legs, arms – acromegaly results from excess growth hormone after puberty • enlargement of hands, feet, jaw, tongue, and soft tissue) Corticotropic adenoma – neoplastic cells produce adrenocorticotropin hormone – Cushing’s disease refers to the syndrome resulting from excess glucocorticoid release by the adrenal cortex due to excess ACTH |
|
|
what are the causes of pituitary hypofunction?
|
• congenital defect of pituitary gland (primary dwarfism)
• destructive tumor (pituitary adenoma) • ischemia of the pituitary gland (Sheehan’s syndrome) |
|
|
what is the effects of diabetes insipidus to kidney?
|
– lack of ADH
– usually due to destructive lesion in hypothalamus, pituitary – unable to resorb water, large amounts of hypotonic urine |
|
|
what is Grave's disease?
|
– autoimmune disease due to antibodies targeting the TSH receptor on thyroid follicular cells
|
|
|
what is multinodular goiter?
|
- can cause hyper/hypothyroidism
– goiter is general term for enlarged thyroid gland (many causes) – nodular goiter is a form of goiter characterized by multiple nodules |
|
|
what are the major causes of hypothyroidism?
|
agenesis, surgery, thyroiditis, iodine deficiency
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of thyroid carcinomas?
|
• papillary carcinoma (80%)- good prognosis
• follicular carcinoma (15%)- relatively good prognosis |
|
|
what are the major causes of hyperparathyroidism?
|
– major causes are parathyroid adenoma and parathyroid hyperplasia
symptoms of hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia) |
|
|
what are the symptoms of hyperparathyroidism?
|
– bones, stones, moans, abdominal groans
|
|
|
what are the major causes of hypoparathyroidism?
|
surgery, congenital hypoplasia
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of hypoparathyroidism?
|
– muscle spasms, irregular heart beat, cardiac arrest (if severe)
|
|
|
what is Conn's syndrome?
|
- hyperaldosteronism
– syndrome due to excess mineralocorticoid hormone (aldosterone) |
|
|
what is Cushing's syndrome?
|
- hypercortisolism
– syndrome due to excess glucocorticoid hormones (cortisol) |
|
|
what is Cushing's disease?
|
syndrome resulting from excess glucocorticoid release by the adrenal cortex due to excess ACTH
|
|
|
what is Addison's disease?
|
– autoimmune destruction of adrenal gland
- adrenocortical hypofunction – fatigue, weight loss, nausea, increased infections, low Na, high K |
|
|
what are the 2 diseases of adrenal medulla?
|
neuroblastoma and pheochromocytoma
|
|
|
what is neuroblastoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm of neuroblasts (primitive cells) in neonates, infant
|
|
|
what is pheochromocytoma?
|
– a neoplasm (usually benign) derived from adrenal medulla cells
|
|
|
what is diabetes mellitus?
|
– heterogeneous group of diseases due to inadequate insulin activity
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of primary diabetes?
|
– type 1 diabetes (insulin dependent, juvenile onset)
– type 2 diabetes (non-insulin dependent, adult onset) |
|
|
what is polydypsia?
|
excessive thirst
|
|
|
what are the complications of diabetes mellitus?
|
– Cardiovascular [increased atherosclerosis (CAD, CVD, distal gangrene)]
– Renal [glomerulosclerosis, pyelonephritis, papillary necrosis] – Eyes [diabetic microangiopathy of retinal vessels, glaucoma, cataracts] – Nervous system |
|
|
what are the 3 types of idiopathic and immune diseases in skin?
|
– eczema
– seborrheic dermatitis – psoriasis |
|
|
what are the 2 types of neoplasms in skin?
|
– Basal cell carcinoma
• common malignant epithelial neoplasm, excellent prognosis – Squamous cell carcinoma • common malignant epithelial neoplasm,good prognosis |
|
|
what is melanoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm originating from melanocytesom melanocytes
|
|
|
what are the 4 types of melanoma?
|
• lentigo maligna (due to sun exposure)
• superficial spreading • nodular • acral-lentiginous (palms, soles, under nails, oral mucosa) |
|
|
what are the clinical features of melanoma?
|
• A - asymmetry
• B - border irregularity • C - color irregularity • D - diameter > 6 mm |
|
|
what is genital herpes?
|
• vesicles on genitalia that coalesce and ulcerate
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of Human papilloma virus (HPV)?
|
• labial, vaginal and cervical warts (condyloma)
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of chlamydia?
|
• present with urethritis or cervicitis with discharge, PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of gonorrhea?
|
• urethritis or cervicitis with discharge, PID
|
|
|
what is the symptom for syphilis?
|
• vulvar ulcers
|
|
|
what are the 3 causes of bacterial vaginoses?
|
– Candida
– Trichomonas – Gardnerella |
|
|
what is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
|
– chronic, extensive infection of upper reproductive tract
|
|
|
what is endometrial hyperplasia?
|
thickening of the endometrial mucosa due to continued estrogen stimulation with inadequate progesterone
|
|
|
what is the prevalence of carcinoma of vagina?
|
women born to mothers on DES during pregnancy
|
|
|
what are the 3 types of squamous cell carcinoma in female reproductive organs?
|
carcinoma of vulva, vagina, cervix
|
|
|
what is koilocytic change?
|
refers to characteristic changes due to HPV
|
|
|
which HPV increase risk of carcinoma of cervix?
|
16, 18, 31, 33, 34, 35
|
|
|
what is leiomyoma (fibroid)?
|
– benign neoplasm derived from smooth muscle in wall of uterus
|
|
|
what is the most common uterine neoplasm?
|
leiomyoma
|
|
|
what is leiomyosarcoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm derived from smooth muscle in wall of uterus
– very rare |
|
|
what is endometrial adenocarcinoma?
|
– malignant neoplasm derived from epithelial cells in endometrium
|
|
|
what is the primary cause of ovarian cysts?
|
arise from unruptured follicles (follicular cysts)
|
|
|
what is polycystic ovary syndrome?
|
– multiple cysts in both ovaries due to complex hormonal disturbances of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian-adrenal axis
|
|
|
what are the 3 types of surface epithelial tumors in female reproductive system?
|
- serous epithelial tumors (most common)
- mucinous epithelial tumors - endometrioid epithelial tumors |
|
|
what is serous epithelial tumors?
|
– ovarian neoplasm typically cystic, filled with clear fluid
|
|
|
what is mucinous epithelial tumors?
|
– ovarian neoplasm typically cystic, filled with viscous fluid
|
|
|
what are characteristics of endometrioid epithelial tumors?
|
– typically solid
– malignant |
|
|
what is the most common ovarian neoplasm in young females?
|
teratoma
|
|
|
what is the most common ovarian neoplasm?
|
surface epithelial tumors
|
|
|
what is teratoma?
|
– cystic, contain hair, sebaceous material (dermoid cysts)
– may contain teeth, bone cartilage – benign • may undergo malignant transformation (malignant teratoma) |
|
|
what is immature teratoma?
|
– teratoma that contains immature neural tissue
|
|
|
what is fibroma?
|
– benign neoplasm of fibroblasts
|
|
|
what is thecoma?
|
– benign, solid and firm neoplasm of spindle cells (theca cells)
– produce estrogens |
|
|
what is granulosa cell tumor?
|
– neoplasm of granulosa cells
– benign or malignant,may produce estrogen |
|
|
what is ectopic pregnancy?
|
– implantation of fertilized ovum outside the uterine cavity
|
|
|
what is placenta accreta?
|
– abnormally deep penetration of placental villi into wall of uterus
|
|
|
what is placenta previa?
|
– abnorma placental implantation site in lower uterine segment
|
|
|
what is toxemia?
|
– disease of pregnancy of unknown pathogenesis resulting in characteristic symptom complex in the mother
|
|
|
what is preeclampsia?
|
– presents with hypertension, edema, and proteinuria
– occurs in third trimester |
|
|
what is eclampsia?
|
– hypertension, edema, proteinuria and seizures
– life threatening, must treat seizures, deliver baby |
|
|
what is gestational trophoblastic disease?
|
– abnormalities of placentation resulting in tumor-like changes or malignant transformation
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of gestational trophoblastic disease?
|
hydatidiform mole and choriocarcinoma
|
|
|
what is hydatidiform mole?
|
– developmental abnormality of placenta
– trophoblastic proliferation, hydropic degeneration of chorionic villi |
|
|
what are the 2 types of hydatidiform mole?
|
Complete mole
– no identifiable fetus, abnormal fertilization (46XX, all paternal) Incomplete mole – usually some fetal parts, abnormal fertilization (69 chromosomes) |
|
|
what is choriocarcinoma?
|
– rare highly malignant tumor of placental origin, treat with methotrexate
|
|
|
what is endometriosis?
|
– endometrial tissue (uterine glands + stroma)located outside the uterus
|
|
|
what is mastitis?
|
inflammation of breast (acute/chronic)
|
|
|
what are the causes of acute mastitis?
|
– lactating female
– bacterial infection – abscess may develop |
|
|
what is fibrocystic change?
|
– benign changes in breast tissue due to various factors including hormonal influences and age
|
|
|
what is fibroadenoma?
|
– benign neoplasm of breast epithelial and stromal elements
|
|
|
what is the most common form of breast cancer?
|
infiltrating ductal carcinoma
|
|
|
what is infiltrating ductal carcinoma?
|
• adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
what type of cells cause brain tumor in adults?
|
glial cells (glioma)
|
|
|
what is dyraphic malformations?
|
– group of congenital malformations characterized by incomplete closure of the neural tube, or bones protecting the CNS
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of dsraphic malformations?
|
– Cranial (incomplete formation of cranium)
• destruction of brain in utero with resulting anencephaly – Spinal dysraphism (incomplete closure of posterior spine) • Meningocele refers to defect with protrusion of meninges through defect • Myelomeningocele refers to protusion of meninges and part of spinal cord • Spina bifida refers to absence of vertebral arch, typically aaccompanied by neurologic defects affecting lower extremities |
|
|
what are the 4 types of intracranial hemorrhages?
|
epidural hematoma (later onset of trauma)
subdural hematoma (repeated trauma) subarachnoid hemmorhage (trauma, Berry aneurysms) intracerebral hemorrhage (stroke) |
|
|
what are the 3 types of brain ischemia?
|
global ischemia
focal ischemia hemorrhagic stroke |
|
|
what is global ischemia?
|
– generalized reduction of oxygen supply
|
|
|
what is hypoperfusion ischemia?
|
- watershed infarcts
• region furthest from blood supply most susceptible to hypotension • get infarction of the border zones |
|
|
what is focal ischemia?
|
– ischemic necrosis of localized part of cerebral cortex
– usually presents as a stroke (a permanent neurologic deficit) |
|
|
what is hemorrhagic stroke?
|
– strokes resulting from rupture of blood vessel no occlusion
|
|
|
what are the 4 forms of CNS infections?
|
myelitis
encephalitis meningitis abscess |
|
|
what is myelitis?
|
inflammation of spinal cord parenchyma (poliomyelitis)
|
|
|
what is encephalitis?
|
inflammation of cerebral parenchyma (viral)
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of meningitis?
|
• leptomeningitis is inflammation confined to the subarachnoid space
• meningoencephalitis is inflammation that spreads into brain |
|
|
what is the cause of brain abscess?
|
bacteria
|
|
|
what are 2 viruses that selectively attack the CNS?
|
rabies, tick borne viruses
|
|
|
what are the 4 bacteria that cause chronic meningitis?
|
• Tuberculosis
• fungal infections (inmmunocompromised) • Lyme disease • syphilis |
|
|
what is acute meningitis typically caused by?
|
bacteria
|
|
|
what is encephalitis typically caused by?
|
Viruses
|
|
|
what are the 2 prion diseases that cause spongiform degeneration of brain?
|
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy |
|
|
what are the 3 fungi that cause CNS infections in immunocompromised individuals?
|
– Candida, Aspergillus, and Cryptococcus
|
|
|
what causes toxoplasmosis?
|
protozoa
|
|
|
what is Tay-Sachs disease?
|
• hexosaminidase deficiency results in accumulation of gangliosides
|
|
|
what is Niemann-Pick disease?
|
• sphingomyelinase deficiency results in accumulation of sphingomyelin
|
|
|
what causes thiamine deficiency?
|
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
|
|
|
what are the 3 deficiencies that cause CNS lesions?
|
Thiamine, B12, Nicotinic acid deficiency
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
|
– atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes
– histological changes include neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles |
|
|
what is Parkinson's disease?
|
– subcortical neurodegenerative disease of unknown etiology
– decreased dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra – present with rigidity, akinesia, tremor |
|
|
What is Huntington Disease?
|
– neurodegenerative disease characterized by involuntary, gyrating movements and progressive dementia
– autosomal dominant – atrophy of cortex and subcortical nuclei |
|
|
what is Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
|
– progressive, fatal motor neuron disease of unknown etiology
– characterized by motor weakness and wasting of muscles in extremities leading to muscle loss and death – loss of motor neurons in spinal cord |
|
|
what are the 2 primary neoplasms in CNS?
|
– Gliomas
– Meningiomas |
|
|
what are the 2 types of gliomas?
|
astrocytoma
medulloblastoma |
|
|
what is astrocytoma?
|
• malignant neoplasms with appearance of astrocytes
|
|
|
what is medulloblastoma?
|
– cerebellar tumor of childhood, poor prognosis
|
