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411 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
prevalence?
freq of patients w/ diseases within group
Incidence
# of new diseased pts within 1 year
calculation for sensitivity
TP/(TP + FN) x 100
calculation for specificity
TN/(TN + FP) x 100
calculation for PPV
TP/(TP+FP) x100
calculation for NPV
TN/(TN+FN) x100
what does a high BUN level indicate
Renal disease
poor renal perfusion
excessive catabolism
examples of poor renal perfusion that lead to high BUN levels
dehydration
shock
GI bleeds
examples of excessive catabolism that lead to high BUN levels
Burns
intense exercise
diabetes
fever
causes of creatinine elevation
renal disease
muscle damage
poor renal perfusion
cause of prehepatic bilirubin elevation
hemolysis
cause of intrahepatic bilirubin elevation
liver disease
(hepatitis, cirrhosis)
cause of post hepatic bilirubin elevation
Gall stones
cause of elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
liver disease
bone disease
pregnancy
Leukemia's
elevated to "significant" levels of LD in the blood indicate?
tissue damage
High levels of LD in the blood indicate
hemolysis
Where do you find AST in the body?
liver
cardiac muscle
skeletal muscle
Where do you find ALT in the body
Liver
what labs are used to diagnose MI's
CK-MB
Troponin I (&T)

to a lesser extent
LD
myoglobin
AST
what labs are used to diagnose liver disease
AST/ALT
alkaline phosphatase
LD
gamma glutamyl transferase
what labs are used to diagnose musculoskeletal diseases
CK, AST, LD, aldolase, myoglobin, ALP (in bone disease)
What are the causes of decreased prealbumin
malnutrition, alterations in liver function
What are the causes of increased prealbumin
dehydration
What are the causes of decreased albumin
impaired synthesis
increased loss
what are the causes of impaired albumin synthesis
malnutrition, malabsorbtion, hepatic dysfunction
what are the causes of increased albumin loss
renal disease (nephritic syndrome), protein-losing gastroenteropathy, ascites
what is the major alpha 1 globulin?
a-1 antitrypsin
what does a-1 antitrypsin do
counters the effects of leukocyte esterase
when do you see an increase in a-1 antitrypsin
during inflammation
what are the pathologies associated with a-1 globulin deficiencies
COPD and emphysema

liver damage due to accumulation of misfolded proteins
a-2 globulins
a-2 macroglobulin
haptoglobin
CRP
what are levels of CRP used for
indicator of tissue necrosis, acute infection, and inflammation, MI, Stroke
acute phase reactions/reactants
Neutrophilia
Thrombocytosis (platelets increase)
Fibrinogen increased
α -2-macroglubulin increased
CRP increased
Haptoglobin increased
Albumin decreased
ESR increased
what is ESR used for?
indicator of inflammation
what accelerates ESR
Increased globulins, fibrinogen,
decreased albumin
what are Gamma globulins and where do they come from?
antibodies from plasma cells
what would cause a decrease in gamma globulins
B-cell immunodefficiency
what are the 3 types of increased gamma globulin pathologies
polyclonal gammopathy
monoclonal gammopathy
oligoclonal gammopathy
what causes polyclonal gammopathy?
autoimmune diseases
chronic infections
what causes monoclonal gammopathy
malignancy or premalignancy
exudate
high protein content
SG>3
WBCs
lab results for an exudate
increase in LDH
causes of an exudate
infection
repair with angiogenisis
Transudate
low protein
SG<3
causes of transudate
inc in hydrostatic pressure (heart failure)
decrease in osmotic pressure (liver and renal disease)
lymph obstruction
Na+ retention (renal disease)
causes of local edema due to increased hydrostatic pressure
DVT or other obstruction
heart failure
impaired venous outflow
pathogenisis of increased hydrostatic pressure
Right sided heart fail
plasma volume expansion
Molecular mediators of plasma volume expansion
renin
angiotensin
aldosterone
ADH
what is a frequent initial manifestation of decreased colloid osmotic pressure?
periorbital edema
what are the causes of edema due to decreases colloid osmotic pressure
increased protein loss
decreased protein production
water retention due activation of renin angiotensin sys
lymphedema
Impaired lymphatic drainage leading to edema
what are the causes of lymphedema
trauma to lymphatic channels
removal of lymphatics
radiation
cancer metastases
tumor compression
infection of lymphatics
what is dependant edema
impaired venous return
what are the causes of pulmonary edema
Left ventricular failure is most common
2-renal failure
3-Adult respiratory distress syndrome
4- pulmonary infections
5- hypersensitivity rxns.
what is the morphology of pulmonary edema
lungs 2‐3x increase in weight
‐ frothy, blood tinged fluid
‐ hemosiderin‐laden macrophages in alveoli
(Prussian blue stain positive cytoplasm)
clinical features of pulmonary edema
SOB
rales
tachpynea
anasarca
severe generalized edema due to
end stage liver disease
CHF
shock
associations with cerebral edema
Hypertensive crisis, encephalitis, trauma, hypernatremia.
morphology of cerebral edema
papilledema

Brain is swollen w/ flattened gyri and narrow sulci,
serous effusion
yellow colored fluid
serosanguinous effusion
bloody effusion caused by

Trauma, malignancy or pulmonary infarction
chylous effusion
a milky effusion caused by

Trauma, malignancy or pulmonary infarction
Hyperemia
active arteriolar dilation
causes of hyperemia
exercise
inflammation (cyto, TNF)
three examples of pathogenic hyperemia
erythema migrans
mastocytosis
cellulitis
what is congestion
impaired venous outflow
causes of congestion
heart failure
local venous obstruction
characteristics of congestion
cyanosis
edema
what is the mech of injury for congestion
hypoxia
hemorrhages
siderophage accumulation
cause of hepatic congestion
right sided heart failure
nutmeg liver
redish-brown liver due to right sided heart failure
centrilobular hemorrhagic necrosis
what is congestive splenomegaly
passive congestion of the spleen
cause of congestive splenomegaly
Right sided heart failure
hepatic cirrhosis
portal vein occlusion
what is brown induration of the legs
venous insufficiency due to valvular defects
why the brown color in brown induration?
accumulation of siderophages
complications of brown induration?
stasis ulceration
what is hemostasis
blood that is fluid and free of clots
what are lines of zahn
a layered thrombus
hematoma
Mass of blood confined within an organ, tissue or confined space.
contusion
Bruise/ echymosis blunt force injury damages small BV’s w/o damaging tissue
ecchymosis
Large area greater than 1-2 cm of bruising
petechiae
Punctate hemorrhages associted w/ thrombocytopenia, dysfunctional plattlets and suffocation
purpura
Confluent petechiae > 3mm, similar cause as petichiae but include vascular inflamation and trauma.
hemarthrosis
Bleeding into a joint
laceration
Tear due to blunt force trauma, bridging strands are present
incision
cut made by sharp cutting object, clean margins w/o bridging
abrasion
Scrape in which superficial dermis is torn off by friction.
epistaxis
nose bleed
coughing up blood
hemoptysis
pooping blood
hematochezia
vomiting blood
hematemesis
melena
black blood in poop
hematuria
blood in pee
menorrhagia
excessive menstrual bleeding
key feature that clues you in to a laceration wound
bridging of blood vessels
5 steps of primary hemostasis
initial constriction then:
1. platelet adhesion (vWF & collagen)
2. shape change
3. Granule release (ADP,TXA)
4. recruitment
5. aggregation (plug formation)
4 steps of secondary hemostasis
1.release of tissue factor from endo
2. phospholipid complex expression (platelets)
3. Thrombin activation
4. fibrin polymerization
von wildebrand disease
defect in platelet adhesion
bernard-soulier synd
Gp1b deficiency
defect in platelet adhesion
glansman thrombasthenia
defect in Gp11b111a
defect in platelet aggregation
ADP receptor PY2 inhibitors
aggregation inhibitor
GP11b and GP111a inhibitors
blocks fibrin bridge
aggrigation inhibitor
Aspirin / NSAIDS
COXs blockers
no TXA
less aggregation
Prostacyling PGI2
vasodialation
inhibition of aggregation
NO
vasodilation
inhibition of platelet aggragation
TXA
vasoconstrictor
stimulator of aggregation
thrombocytopenia
reduced production of and increased destruction of platelets
what happens to platelets in cases of uremia
the become dysfunctional
thromboelastograph
used instead of bleeding time
platelet function analyzer
tests time to form a platelet plug
analogous to bleeding time
bleeding time
used to test clot formation time
what is the reference range for platelets
150 - 350 x 10^3
Vit K dependent procoagulants
7
9
10
2
intrinsic coagulation cascade factors
8
9
11
12
extrinsic coagulation cascade factors
7
common coagulation cascade factors
10
5
2
tenase complex components
8 & 9a
go from tenase complex to thrombin activation
tenase activates 10
10 binds 5 = prothrombinase
prothrombinase activates thrombin
a PTT test tells you about which clotting factors?
intrinsic & common
a PT test tells you about which clotting factors
extrinsic & common
what is added to a PT test to make it work?
tissue factor
Ca++
phospholipid
what is added to a PTT test to make it work
activating factor
Ca++
phospholipid
what drug is the PT test designed to monitor
coumadin therapy
what drug is the PTT test designed to monitor
heparin
aquired coagulation factor diseases
liver failure
Vit K deficiencies
anticoagulant drugs
DIC
hemophelia a
factor 8 deficiency
most serious
hemophelia b
factor 9 deficiency
christmas disease
factor 9 deficiency
X linked deficiencies
factor 8
factor 9
what type of inheritance is vWF disease
autosomal dominant
vit K dependent anticoagulants
Protein C & S
what is the mode of action for Cumadin and warfarin
vit K antagonist
causes of vit K deficiencies
pancreatic disease
cystic fibrosis
bile duct obstruction
duodenum defects
cumadin/warfarin therapy
antibiotic therapy
neonates
what test is prolonged in Vit K deficiencies?
PT

if severe, PTT as well
which test is prolonged in hemophilia A & B
PTT
thrombomodulin
binds thrombin
causes release of protein C & S
proteolysis of 5 and 8
Antithrombin III + heparin
inactivate:

Thrombin
2
10
9
tPA
released by endothelial cells

activates Plasmin which lyses fibrin
what is recombinant tPA used for
MI
Stroke
Pulmonary embolism
what deficiencies lead to thrombophilia
ATIII
Protein C & S
PAI
blocks action of tPA
Virchows triad
pathogenic thrombosis factors

1. endothelial injury
2. stasis or turbulence of blood
3. blood hypercoagulability
causes of abnormal blood flow (#2 in virchows triad)
atherosclerosis
aneurysms
fibrillation
hyperviscosity
sickle cell
Leiden mutation
mutated Va = resistant to Protein C proteolysis

Look for:
caucasions
reccurent DVTs
prothrombin 20210A
mutation that leads to more prothrombin

3X risk of DVT
hyperhomocystinemia
mutation of methyltetrahydrofolate reductase
inhibits ATIII & thrombomodulin

Asians, caucasions, B-12 or folate deficiency
high risk categories for secondary (aquired) hypercoagulability
smoking
bed rest
MI
a-fib
tissue damage
DIC
cancer
prosthetic heart valves
over 60 c prior thrombosis hx
obese
sickle cell
oral contraceptives
HIT
heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Ab to heparin
thrombus formation

suspect if platelet count drops 50%
antiphospholipid syndrome
Primary or secondary (lupus)
self reacting Ab

Risk of recurrent: Stroke, MI, Pulm Emboli, DVT, miscarriage,libman sachs
most common site for DVT?
Legs
most common effect of DVT dis-lodgement
Pulmonary embolism
clinical signs of DVT
50% asympt

edema
Homans sign
homans sign
pain in calf when dorsiflexed
diagnosis of DVT
abnormal D-dimer
ultrasound
mural thrombus
forms in a chamber of the heart

systemic emboli
chicken fat clots
clots formed postmortem
cor pulmonale
hypertrophy of Right Ventricle due to lung disease
side effect of angioplasty
atheroemboli
most common source of pulmonary emboli
deep veins of the leg
second most common source of pulmonary emboli
RV mural thrombus
fatal PEs are caused by?
saddle embolus

massive simultaneous emboli (>60% lung obstruction)
most common arterial (systemic) emboli
intracardiac mural emboli (80%)

LV c MI
LA c fib
the other 20% of arterial emboli (less common)
aneurysm
atherosclerosis
endocarditis
paradoxical embolus
paradoxical embolus
venous thrombus enters arterial sys via a R to L shunt in the heart
2 most common sites for arterial emboli
Legs- 75%
Brain- 10%
Trousseau syndrome
chronic DIC due to pancreatic cancer
fat emboli
caused by trauma (usually long bones)

SOB, confusion, coma 1-3 days after fracture
clinical setting for air embolus
obstetric procedures
treatment of pneumothorax
amount of air needed to be clinically significant in air embolism
100cc or more
amniotic fluid embolism
gets in through a tear

clinical: SOB, shock, seziures, coma, DIC

80% fatality
bland infarct
no infection
septic infarct
infected
red infarct
hemorrhagic
whit infarct
anemic
when do hemorrhagic (red) infarcts happen
venous or arterial occlusion in loose or previously congested tissue
when do white infarcts happen
in solid tissues

heart, spleen, kidney
what endothelial component extracts triglycerides from VLDLs
lipoprotein lipase
what does niemann-pick type C disease do
fatty liver due to the inability of cholesterol to exit hepatocyte lysosomes
what does an accumulation of cholesterol in hepatocytes inhibit?
HMG CoA reductase (synth of choles)
LDL receptor synthesis
what does an accumulation of cholesterol in hepatocytes activate?
ACAT (storage of cholesterol)
what are most cases of familial hypercholesterolemia caused by
LDL receptor defects
framingham index
10yr risk of MI
clinical features of hetero familial hypercholesterolemia
2-3x cholesterol levels
atherosclerosis
clinical features of homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia
5-6x cholesterol levels
atherosclerosis
xnthomas
corneal arcus
lipid ring around the cornea
therapy for hypercholesterolemia
reduced fat intake
control blood sugar
exercise
Drugs:
Statins (inhibit HMG-CoA reductase)
Bile acid sequesterants (block resorption of cholesterol)
Ezetimide (blocks absorption of cholesterol)
Nicotinic acid
ectasia
loss of vessel elasticity with age
what variables regulate normal blood pressure
CO and TPR
what is autoregulation
vasoconstriction in response to increased blood flow in vessel
essential HTN (primary)
idiopathic
-accounts for 90-95% of HTN
secondary HTN
- most commonly secondary to renal disease
-5-10% of cases
benign HTN
HTN at modest level and fairly stable over years
-95% of cases.
malignant HTN
BP >200/120
if untreated, rapidly rising BP leads to death w/in 2yrs
deffinition of hypertensive vascular disease
sustained BP > 139/89
hyaline arteriosclerosis
pink, hyaline thickening of arterial walls with a reduction in lumen size

common in diabetes
hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
onionskin, concentric, laminated thickening of walls of arterioles with progressive narrowing lumen
what are the 3 varients of arteriosclerosis
athero
monckeybergs medial calcific
arterio
which varient of arteriosclerosis is most common?
Atherosclerosis
what are the constitutional risk factors for atherosclerosis
Age
male
Family hx
what are the modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis
smoking
hyperlipidemia
HTN
diabetes
CRP
what is the response to injury hypothesis
the formation of fatty plaques due to damage of the endothelium
most common locations of atheroscleromas
lower abdominal aorta
coronary arteries
popliteal arteries
thoracic aorta
internal carotids
circle of willis
what are the major consequences of atherosclerosis
MI
Stroke
aortic aneurysms
peripheral vascular disease
preclinical phases of atherosclerosis
fatty streak
fibrofatty plaque
advanced vulnerable plaque
clinical phases of atherosclerosis
aneurysm and rupture
occlusion by thrombus
critical stenosis
true aneurysm
 Bounded by complete (attenuated) arterial wall components
false aneurysm
Extravascular hematoma that communicates with intravascular space
what are the diseases that lead to aneurysm due to weak connective tissue in the vessel walls?
marfan
loeys-dietz
ehelrs-danlos
Vit C deficiency
why does marfans lead to aneurysms
Defective synthesis of fibrillin (scaffolding) leading to abnormal TGF-B
and progressive weakening of Elastic Tissue
why does loeys-dietz synd lead to aneurysms
Mutations in TGF-B receptors  abnormalities of elastin, collagen I and
III
why does ehelrs danlos synd lead to aneurysms
Defective Collagen Type III
why does Vit C deficiency lead to aneurysms
Altered Collagen Cross-linking
how does inflammation lead to aneurysms
increases amount of MMPs and decreases TIMPs
what are the 2 most common disorders that contribute to aneurysms
atherosclerosis
HTN
What is a mycotic aneurysm?
Infection of a Major Artery that weakens the wall
what are the causes of mycotic aneurysms
- Septic embolus lodges in vessel
- Extension of adjacent infection
- Circulating organisms directly infecting
where do aneurysms associated with atherosclerosis usually occur
abdominal aorta

above bifurcation
below renal aa.
Who is more likely to get a AAA
- Men
- Smokers
- 50 +
What are the five clinical consequences of AAA’s?
-Rupture into peritoneal cavity
> Retroperitoneal tissue = potentially fatal damage
- Impingement on adjacent structure
- Occlusion of branch vessel
> Downstream Ischemia
- Embolism from atheroma or mural thrombus
- Creation of abdominal mass (often palpably pulsating)
At or above what size are AAA’s at greatest risk for rupture?
- >6cm (25% per year)
- >5cm surgically managed w/bypass grafts
What are the clinical symptoms associated with a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
- Encroachment on mediastinal structures
- Respiratory difficulties (encroachment on the lungs)
- Difficulty swallowing (compression of the esophagus)
- Persistent cough (pressure on recurrent laryngeal nerve)
- Pain (erosion of the bone)
- Cardiac disease and Rupture
What disease is a TAA associated with?
- Syphilitic (Luetic)
aortic dissection?
Dissection of blood vessel along the laminar planes of the aortic media, w/formation of a blood
filled channel w/in aortic wall
What two groups of patients do dissections occur in?
- Men 40-60 years old (90% w/HTN)
- Patients w/abnormality of CT that affects the Aorta (Marfan Syndrome)
What is the major predisposing factor for dissections?
HTN
What is the most frequent detectable microscopic lesion?
Cystic Medial Degeneration (preexisting lesion)
what are DeBakey type A dissections?
Proximal lesions, affect the ascending or ascending and descending
what are DeBakey type B dissections?
Distal lesions, beginning distal to Subclavian
What are the classical clinical symptoms for a dissection?
- Sudden onset of Excruciating pain, anterior chest, radiating to the back and moving downward
> Most often confused with Acute MI
What is the most common cause of death with dissections?
Rupture of Dissection into any 3 major body cavities
What are the two most common mechanisms for vasculitis?
- Infectious Pathogens (direct invasions)
- Immune-Mediated Inflammation
What are the common clinical findings in vasculitis?
- Fever, Myalgias, Athralgias, Malaise
- Tissue Ischemia
What are the three main mechanisms which initiate noninfectious vasculitis?
- Immune Complex Disposistion (SLE)

- Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies

- Anti-Endothelial Cell Antibodies
What is an ANCA?
- Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies
What are the two types of ANCA?
- Anti-Meyeloperoxidase (MPO-ANCA)  p-ANCA
- Anti-Proteinase-3 (PR3-ANCA) c-ANCA
what are c-ANCAs associated with
Wegener Granulomatosis
what are p-ANCAs associated with?
Microscopic Polyangiitis & Churg-Strauss Syndrome
what vessels does Giant cell arteritis usually affect?
cranial vessels
What is the major morphologic finding of Giant cell arteritis
> Nodular intimal thickenings w/reduction of the lumen
> Granulomatous Inflammation (giant cells and fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina)
What age group is Giant cell arteritis seen in?
>50
What are the symptoms of Giant cell arteritis?
- Insidious Presentation (fever, fatigue, weight loss)
-OR-
- Sudden Onset of Headache, Tenderness w/Swelling and redness and facial pain
- Ocular Symptoms (ophthalmic artery – why it must be treated)
How is a definitive diagnosis of giant cell arteritis made?
- Biopsy (need 2-3cm length of vessel)
> Negative biopsy doesn’t rule out disease
- Sed Rate and ESR both elevated
What disease is giant cell arteritis commonly associated with?
polymyalgia rheumatica
treatment of giant cell arteritis
steroids
Takayasu arteritis affects what size vessel?
medium and larger arteries followed by fibrous thickening of aortic arch,
what is another name for takayasus disease
pulsless disease
What are the two main symptomsof takayasus disease?
- Marked weakening of Pulses
- Ocular Disturbances
What are the major morphologic findings of takayasu arteritis?
- Involvement of Aortic Arch (pulseless disease)
- Irregular thickening of vessel wall with intima hyperplasia
- Mononuclear inflammation, Granulomatous inflammation, then Collagenous Fibrosis
what age group does takayasu arteritis usually affect
<50yrs
What is the course of Takayasu's disease?
Fatigue, weight loss and fever
Progresses to Vascular symptoms
- Weaker pulses in upper extremity
- Cold or numb fingers
- Ocular Disturbances
- Neurologic Deficits

- Course is variable, rapid progression or quiescent stage after 1-2 years
what is PAN?
polyarteritis nodosa
PAN affects what size vessels?
Necrotizing inflammation of small or medium sized muscular arteries
PAN affects renal and visceral vessels, what does it spare?
- Pulmonary vessels
What are the morphologic features of PAN?
- Segmental Transmural Necrotizing Inflammation
> Acute – Fibroid necrosis, neutrophils, eosinophils, mononuclear cells
> Healing – Transmural Scarring, continuing necrosis
> Healed – Fibrotic Thickening
Do patients get glomerulonephritis from PAN?
No, small vessels are spared
what age group does PAN affect?
young adults
Natural course of PAN with/without treatment?
with- 90% remission

Without- fatal
What is treatment for PAN?
- Corticosteroids and Cyclophosphamide
What are the three features of Churg-Strauss syndrome?
- Asthma
- Allergic Rhinitis
- Peripheral Eosinophilia
What other vasculitis has the same characteristic lesion as Churg-Strauss?
PAN
What is the other name for Kawasaki disease?
- Mucocutaneous Lymph Node Syndrome
what is the leading cause of aquired heart disease in children
Kawasaki's disease
What arteries does Kawasaki's involve?
coronary aa.
What are the symptoms of mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome?
- Fever
- Conjunctival and Oral Erythema and Erosion
- Edema of the hands and feet
- Erythema of palms and soles (later desquamation)
- Cervical Lymphadenopathy
Patients with MLNS develop what complications? (Kawasaki's)
> Untreated (20%) -->Cardiovascular Sequelae
> Treated (4%) w/IV immunoglobulin and Aspirin ---> coronary Artery Disease
What are the morphologic features of Kawasaki's?
- Transmural Necrosis Inflammation (like PAN, but not as severe)
What size vessels are affected in microscopic polyangiitis?
small vessels
what is the fatality % for kawasaki's
1-2%
How does microscopic polyangitis present?
Palpable purpura involving skin, mucous membranes, brain, lungs, GI, muscles,Heart, Kidneys
Major clinical features of microscopic polyangitis?
- Hemoptysis
- Hematuria
- Bowel Pain
-Proteinuria
- Arthragias
- Muscle Pain/Weakness
- Hemorrhage
How is a definitive diagnosis of microscopic polyangitis made?
- Skin Biopsy (often diagnostic)
- p-ANCA (MPO – ANCA’s) seen in 70%
What two features distinguish microscopic polyangitis from PAN?
- Necrotizing Glomerulonephritis
- Pulmonary Capillaritis
Morphologic features of microscopic polyangitis?
> Segmental Fibrinoid Necrosis
-OR-
> Leukocytoclasia
What is the triad that characterizes Wegener Granulomatosis?
1 – Acute Necrotizing Granulomas of upper and/or Lower Respiratory Tracts

2 – Necrotizing –OR- Granulomatous Vasculitis of Small to Medium Size Vessels
> Mostly in the Lung and Upper Airway (can have other sites though)
3 – Renal Disease
Major morphologic features of Wegeners disease?
> Upper Respiratory Tract
- Inflammatory Sinusitis (mucosal granulomas)
- Ulcerative lesions of Nose, Pharynx or Palate
> Necrotizing granulomas and necrotizing or granulomatous vasculitis
> Renal Lesions

- Focal Necrotizing, often Crescentic, Glomerulonephritis
What sex and age does Wegener's disease affect?
Males>females

ave- 40 yrs
Clinical features of Wegener's?
- Pneumonitis (lung) w/bilateral nodular and cavitary infiltrates
- Chronic Sinusitis and Ulceration of Nasopharynx (URT)
- Evidence of Renal Disease
Natural course of Wegeners's disease?
- Untreated --> 80% Die within 1 year
- Treated (Steroids, Cyclophosphamide and TNF-antagonists) -->Chronic relapsing / Remitting Disease
What is the other name for thromboangiitis obliterans?
buergers disease
What group of people get thromboangiitis obliterans?
- Heavy Cigarette Smokers (predominantly male, before age 35)
Morphologic features of thromboangiitis obliterans?
- Acute and Chronic Inflammation w/Luminal Thrombosis
- Microabscesses w/in Thrombus, Wall of Granulomatous Inflammation
What is Raynaud phenomenon?
- Exaggerated Vasoconstriction of digital arteries and arterioles
Clinical features of reynauds?
Paroxysmal pallor or Cyanosis of the digits of the hands and feet
who gets primary reynauds
young females
What is secondary Raynaud’s?
Vascular Insufficiency of the Extremities, secondary to arterial narrowing from various processes:
> SLE
> Scleroderma
> Atherosclerosis
> Buerger Disease
What veins account for majority of cases of thrombophlebitis and phlebothrombosis?
90% are deep veins
The superior vena caval syndrome is cause by what?
- Neoplasms that compress or invade superior vena cava
> Primary Bronchogenic Carcinoma
> Mediastinal Lymphoma
Clinical features of superior vena cava syndrome?
- Dusky Cyanosis
- Marked Dialation of the Veins in the Head, Neck and Arms
The inferior vena caval syndrome is caused by what?
Neoplasms that compress or penetrate the walls of the vena cava or thrombus that may propagate upwards
> Hepatocellular Carcinoma
> Renal Carcinoma
Clinical features of IVC syndrome?
- Marked Leg Edema
- Distension of Superficial veins of the Lower Abdomen
- Massive Proteinuria (involvement of the renal veins)
When does systolic dysfunction occur?
ischemic injury, pressure/volume overload, dilated cadiomyopathy
when does diastolic dysfunction occur
massive LV hypertrophy, myocardial fibrosis, deposition of amyloid, constrictive pericarditis
What three mechanisms does the cardiovascular system use to maintain pressure and perfusion in the face of damage or excess burden?
-frank-starling
-myocardial hypertrophy with/without cardiac chamber dilation
-activation of neurohumoral systems
What two features characterize CHF?
-diminished cardiac output-forward failure
-damming back of blood-backward failure
What are the three most common underlying disease states for CHF? (Account for 90%)
-Hypertension
-MyocardIal infarction
-diabetes mellitus
What are the two patterns of hypertrophy in the heart?
-Concentric hypertrophy-occurs with pressure overload ventricles
-Dilation-occurs with volume overloaded ventricles.
What four morphologic features are seen in CHF?
-increased heart weight
-progressive wall thinning
-chamber dilation
-microscopic change of hypertrophy
. What are the four most common causes of left sided failure?
-Ischemic heart disease
-hypertension
-Aortic and mitral valvular disease
-nonischemic myocardial diseases
What happens to the left atrium in left heart failure?
-It enlarges and causes atrial fibrillation.
What three changes occur in the lungs with left heart failure?
-Perivascular and interstitial transudate
-edematous widening of alveolar septa
-accumulation of edema fluid in alveolar spaces
What are heart failure cells ?
-hemoisderin containing macrophages in alveoli
What are possible clinical manifestations of the lung changes in Left sided heart failure?
-Dyspnea
-Orthopnea-dyspnea on lying down, relieved by sitting/standing
-Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea-attacks of extreme dyspmea bordering on suffocation
-cough
What is the most common cause of right heart failure?
-left sided failure
Pure right sided failure occurs with what?
-Chronic severe pulmonary hypertension and is called cor pulmonale.
What four changes occur in the liver with right sided heart failure?
-Nutmeg liver-chronic passive congestion congested red centers of liver lobules surrounded by paler peripheral regions
-Centrilobular necrosis
-Central hemorrhagic necrosis-severe, rapidly developing failure leads to rupture of sinusoids
-cardiac sclerosis-long standing severe failure, central areas become fibrotic
What happens to the spleen in right sided heart failure?
-Spenic congestion- enlarged, firm spleen, may weigh 500-600g. Fibrous thickening of sinusoidal walls=congestive splenomegaly
What is ascites?
-transudate in peritoneal cavity
What is anasarca?
extreme generalized edeema. Especially in ankle.
What five categories of heart disease account for almost all cardiac mortality?
-Ischemic heart disease
-hypertensive heart disease and pulmonary hypertensive heart disease
-certain valvular disease
-congenital heart disease
Which category of heart disease accounts for 80-90% of deaths
ischemic injury
In 90% or more of cases what is the underlying cause of myocardial ischemia?
-coronary artery obstruction
What is another name for IHD? (ischemic heart disease)
-Coronary artery disease
What four syndromes describe the clinical manifestations of IHD? (ischemic heart disease)
-angina pectoris
-myocardial infarction
-chronic ischemic heart disease
-sudden cardiac death
What two things have led to a decrease in death due to IHD?
-prevention by change in lifestyle
-diagnosis and therapeutic advances
What is acute plaque change?
-plaque that develops in the first 2cm of the LAD and LC and distal thirds of RC
What are the acute coronary syndromes?
-Unstable angina
-acute MI
-Sudden cardiac death
what are the symptoms and underlying causes of stable angina?
reduction of coronary perfusion to a critical level by chronic stenosing atherosclerosis
what are the symptoms and underlying causes of printzmetals angina? (also called varient)
angina that occurs at rest. Due to coronary artery spasm. Elevation of ST segment on EKG.
what are the symptoms and underlying causes of unstable angina? (also called crescendo)
Pain gets worse and lasts longer. Induced by fissuring, ulceration or rupture of plaque with superimposed (partial) thrombus and possibly embolization. Often prodrome of MI=preinfarction angina
What are the two types of MI?
transmural
subendocardial
what is a transmural MI?
ischemic necrosis involves the full thickness of ventricular wall
what is a subendothelial MI?
ischemic necrosis limited to the inner one-third or at most one half of the ventricular wall, extends laterally beyond perfusion area of single artery
Which sex is protected from MI until middle age?
-females
What three possible events, unrelated to atherosclerosis, occur causing an MI?
-vasospasm +/- atherosclerosis may cause deficit
-emboli from left mural thrombosis, vegatative endocarditis, paradoxic emboli from right
-unexplained-no atherosclerosis
What seven things account for the location, size and morpoholgic features of an MI?
-location, severity, and rate of development of coronary occlusion
-size of vascular bed perfused by vessel
-duration of occlusion
-metabolic/oxygen needs of at risk myocardium
-extent of collaterals
-presence site and severity of coronary artery spasm
-alterations in blood pressure, heart rate and cardiac rhythm
******Describe the sequence of events grossly and microscopically for an MI *********
-Gross features: after2-3 hours can highlight necrosis with histochemical method-triphenyltetrazolium (TTC). Colors noninfarct area red. infarct pale

-Morphologic: coagulation necrosis and inflammation. Formation of granulation tissue. Resorption of necrotic myocardium. Organization of granulation tissue from scar.
How may reperfusion to an infarct occur?
-Restore coronary blood flow by thrombolysis, baloon angioplasty, or coronary arterial bypass graft.
What two laboratory measurements are useful to diagnose an acute MI?
CK-MB and Troponin
What four factors are associated with a poor prognosis after MI?
1)Diabetes
2)Being female
3) Old age
4) Previous MI
what are the 3 types of cardiac rupture syndromes, post MI
1.Rupture of ventrivular free wall--> hemopericardium and tamponade--> death **Most common rupture** Rupture occurs 3-7 days post MI

2. Rupture of septum--> L to R shunt
3. Papillary muscle rupture--> **acute mitral regurgitation**
What three things determine complications and prognosis after an MI?
1. Infarct Size
2. Infarct Site
3. Transmural Extent
Chronic ischemic heart disease is usually due to?
by ischemic damage that resulted in CHF--> post infarction there is cardiac decomposition (the heart has been damaged many times)
Sudden cardiac death is defined as?
an unexpected death that results from cardiac causes within 1 hr with or without the onset of symptoms.
The majority of sudden cardiac death cases in adults are due to
lethal arrhythmia, or atherosclerosis. 80-90%
What are the minimal criteria for diagnosing systemic hypertensive heart disease?
1) LV hypertrophy (concentric) in absence of other causative pathology
2) History or pathologic evidence of HTN
what is the gross morphology of systemic hypertensive heart disease
1) LV pressure overload LV circumferential hypertrophy w/o dilation
2) Symmetric wall thickening (↑2cm)
3) Increased heart weight (↑500g)
4) Stiff heart impairs diastolic filling
5) Decomposition occurs with dilation, thinning of wall producing an enlarged heart
What are the two types of cor pulmonale?
1) Acute -->RV dilation due to massive pulmonary embolism
2) Chronic -->RV hypertrophy and later dilation secondary to prolonged pressure overload from pulmonary artery obstruction
What are the four groups of disorders predisposing to cor pulmonale
Diseases of the:
pulmonary parenchyma
pulmonary vessels
chest M.S. functioning
pulmonary arterial functioning
what are the 3 main, predisposing factors for cor pulmonale
1) Chronic bronchitis
2) Emphysema
3) COPD
main cause of mitral stenosis
rheumatic fever
main cause of mitral regurg (insufficiency)
MVP
(Myxomatous degeneration)
main cause of aortic stenosis
calcification
main cause of aortic insufficiency (regurg)
aortic dilation (related to HTN and age)
What are the three most common calcific valvular diseases?
1) Aortic stenosis
2) Mitral annular calcification
3) Mitral valve prolapsed
What are the two types of calcific aortic stenosis?
1) Senile calcific aortic stenosis --> **most common***Mostly age related (70-80 yrs old)
2) Congenitally bicuspid aortic valve --> 1-2% of the population have this
What is the major difference between the calcification of a congenitally bicuspid valve and a normal aortic valve?
the 2 cusps are of unequal size, the larger cusp has no midline raphe; predisposed to progressive calcification
What is the anatomic change in the heart associated with mitral valve prolapse?
Ballooning of mitral leaflets which are often thick
and rubbery
Which sex is more likely to get MVP?
more common in young women
what are the possible complications of MVP
1) Infective endocarditis
2) Mitral insufficiency
3) Stroke (systemic infarct from thrombi that accumulate on valve)
4) Arrhythmias
what are the clinical features of MVP
1) Asymptomatic --> discovered on routine exam as mid-systolic click
2) murmur and click
3) Echocardiography is diagnostic
what are the major manifestations of RF within the jones criteria
1)Migratory polyarthritis of large joints
2)Carditis
3)Subcutaneous nodules
4) Erythema of skin
5) Sydenham’s chorea (neurologic disorder)
what are the jones criteria of minor RF manifestations
1. fever
2. arthralgias
3. acute phase reactants
what are the requirements to meet the jones critera for RF
Evidence of GABHS &:

- 2 major manifestations
OR
- 1 Major & 2 minor manifestations
What are the 3 key pathologic features for acute RHD
1.vegitations on mitral valve leaflet
2. ashcroff bodies in the myocardium
3. fibrinous pericarditis
Chronic RHD presents as
mitral stenosis
what is the standard practice for individuals that have been diagnosed with RF?
prophylactic antibiotics long term
what is infective endocarditis and what are the two types?
Infection, invasion or coloniztion of the heart by a microbe

types= acute and subacute bacterial endocarditis
infection source of endocarditis
‐ Infection elsewhere‐ abscess, dental caries
‐ UTI (urinary tract infection)
‐ Dental/surgical procedure
‐ IV drug use: contaminated needles
‐ Occult source in GI tract
‐ Trivial breaks in skin
factors that predispose you to endocarditis
anomalous valves (malformed)
artificial valves
immunodeficiency
diabetes
Drug and alcohol abuse
acute endocarditis
rapid progression
new murmur (vegitations)
embolizations
mortality of 30%
subacute endocarditis
weeks to months
petechiae
structural cardiac disease develops slowl
fatal if not aggressively treated
what is the most common cause of acute endocarditis and who is most at risk for it
S. aureus (high virulence)
IV drug users
what is the cause of subacute endocarditis
Low virulence organisms:
Strep. veridans
Strep. bovis
S. epidermidis
what are the systemic complications of infective endocarditis
1- Cerebral stroke and retinal emboli
2- Mycotic aneuysm
3-Valve complications/myocardial abcess
4-Spleneomegaly
5- Pneumonia/ infarction
6- Renal infarct/ abcess/ glomerulonephritis
7- Splinter hemorrhages/ janeway lesions
8- clubbing
9- Anemia of chronic dis. Osteomyletis
10- Hematuria
morphology of infective endocarditis
Vegetations on heart valves
Friable and bulky
most common valves affected by Infective endocarditis
mitral and aortic

Tricuspid in 50% of IV drug users
cardiac complications of infective endocarditis
heart failure
valvular disease
ring abscess (valve perforation)
artificial valve dehesience
supuritive pericarditis
NBTE?
nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis

sterile deposits on valves
associated with cancer (trousseau synd)
What are the associations and consequences of Libman-Sacks endocarditis?
Autoimmunity of SLE and antiphospholipid syndrome
cause of carcinoid heart disease and Lab test for it
carcinoid tumors

5-HIAA
morphology of carcinoid heart disease
thickening of

RV
Tricuspid
pulmonic
complications with artificial valves
Thromboembolic disease
Infective Endocarditis (S. epi)
structural deterioration (in bio valves. calcify, tear)
hemolytic anemia
fibrosis of valve
leaky
what type of dysfunction is dilated cardiomyopathy?
systolic dys
what type of dysfunction is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
diastolic dys
what type of dysfunction is restrictive cardiomyopathy?
diastolic dys
morphology and characteristics of dilated cardiomyopathy?
-idopathic (c lots of predisposing factors)
-globular, enlarged, heavy LV
-mitral regurg because of dilation of LV
-mural thrombi common
-myocyte hypertrophy
-fibrosis
- EF <25%
morphology and characteristics of arrythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
RV enlargement
wall is severely thin, fatty, fibrotic
morphology and characteristics of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
100% genetic
massive hypertrophy esp IVS
reduced chamber size and SV
dynamic obstruction to outflow
a-fib with mural thrombus formation
sudden death in athletes
morphology and characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy
-decreased compliance of LV
-dilated atria
-amyloidosis (transthyratin)
-older individuals
morphology of myocarditis
viral = lymphocytes.
hypersensitivity = eosinophils & Macs
chaga = myofiber distnesion with trypanosomes
causes of myocarditis
-lyme disease (5%)
-diptheriae
-trichinosis
-toxoplasmosis, chagas disease
what is Chagas disease
Trypanisoma cruzii
pathology of iron overload on the heart
Dilated heart with Prussian blue stain.
pathology of the heart with hyperthyroidism
myocardial hypertrophy
pathology of the heart due to hypothyroidism
myxedema heart due to interstitial mucopolysacharide.
what lab results indicate heart failure (not ischemia)
BNP elevated
creatinine and BUN elevated
AST/ALT elevated
clinical findings in R to L shunts
1- Cyanotic congenital heart disease
2- Inadequate oxygenation of blood cyanosis of skin and mucos membranes
3- Paradoxical emboli
4- Clubbing of fingers
5- Polycythemia= increased hct/RBC’s
Causes of R to L shunts
1-Tetralogy of Falot= most common
2- Transposition of the great arteris (TGA)
3- Total anomalous pulmonary venous conection (TAPVC)
4- Tricuspid atresia
5- Persistant truncus arteriosis
All left to right shunts have a ??
D in the name
all right to left shunts have a ???
T in the name
clinical findings of a left to right shunt
1- Cyanosis initially abscent
2- Increased pulmonary blood flow
3- Pulmonary HTN
4- Eisenmengers Syndrome= late cyanotic congenital heart disease. L to R shunt becomes a R to L shunt due to pulmonary HTN.
causes of a left to right shunt
1- Ventricular septal defect= most common
2- Atrial septal defect
3- AV septal defect
4- Patent ductus arteriosus
All of them have a D in the name
complications of 22q11.2 deletions?
DeGeorge synd
Persistent truncus arteriosis
what are the symptoms of Degeorge synd?
CATCH 22
-cleft palate
-Absent Thymus
-Cardiac anomalies
-Hypoplasia of parathyroids (hypocalcemia)
what gene is involved in 22q11.2
T-box
what gene is involved in williams disease
elastin gene
clinical manifestations of williams disease
-supravalvular stenosis
-facial abnormalities (elfin nose, puffy eyes, fat lower lip, round face, strabismus)
most common ASD?
secundum type (90%)
what is the frequency and most common location for a VSD
20- 30%

membranous
outcomes of VSD
Large:
-RV hypertrophy
-Pulm HTN
Small:
-murmer
-higher risk for endocarditis
how do you chemically maintain a PDA?
Prostaglandin E
how do you chemically close a PDA
indomethacin or ibuprophen
presentation of PDA
machine like murmur
most common "cause" of AVSD
1/3 of downs syndrome children have it
what heart defect presents with a boot shaped heart?
Tet of Fallot
what gene is implicated in Tetrology of fallot?
notch genes
what type of transposition of the great arteries is stable?
if accompanied by VSD
tricuspid atresia
R to L shunt
complete occlusion of Tricuspid
hypoplasia of RV
high mortality
clinical features of coarctation of the aorta
1- upper body hypertension
2- Hypotension of the legs
-cold cyanotic legs, claudication, intermittant pain and limping brought on by walking.
3- Rib notching
4- murmur throughout systole with a thrill.
5- cardio megally due to LV hypertrophy.
6- berry aneurysm(circle of willis)
7- valvular defects
what genetic defect predisposes you to coarctation of the aorta
turners syndrome (XO)
what is the "adult" form of coarctation of the aorta?
postductal