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52 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is Job's syndrome? ------
autosomal recessive disorder of neutrophils, characterized by abnormal chemotaxis leading to "cold" soft tissue abscesses due to Staph aureus. Increased IgE is the signal.
Leukemoid reaction
------ Benign leukocyte reaction exaggerated leukocyte response
What is an important effect of hypocortisolism on eosinophils?
------ No sequestering of eosinophils in the lymph nodes = eosinophiliaCorticosteroids sequester eosinophils in the lymph nodes
What should you consider with basophilia?
------ myeloproliferative disease
What are the causes of benign lyphocytosis?
------ Viral (mononucleosis)Bacterial (whooping cough)Drugs (phenytoinGraves disease
With what infection does a rash arise when placed on ampicillin?
------ Epstein-Barr virus...mono
What are the causes of lymphopenia? ------
HIVImmunodeficiency (Digeorge or SIDS)Immune destruction (SLE)Corticosteroids (apoptosis)Radiation
What are the causes of monocytosis?
------ Chronic infection (TB, Endocarditis)Autoimmune (rheumatoid arthritis, cirrhosis)Malignancy (carcinoma, lymphoma)
Definition of Leukemia ------
malignant transformation of marrow stem cellsarises in bone marrow and disseminates
Most common leukemia and cancer in children
------ Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Most common overall leukemia
----- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute testicle and CNS involvement
------ ALL
Key finding in acute leukemia? --
--- Blasts > 20% in the bond marrow
Key finding in chronic leukemia
------ Bone marrow blasts < 10%
What are the four chronic myeloproliferative disorders (neoplastic)?
------ Polycythemia vera (most common)Chronic Myelogenous LeukemiaMyeloid metaplasia with myelofibrosisAcute myeloblastic leukemiaEssential thrombocythemia
What is the common cause of polycythemia vera?
------ mutation of the JAK2 gene on the short arm of chromosome 9.
What is the common sign and dangerous aspects of polycythemia vera?
------ Pruritis after bathing (mast cell degranulation), Thrombotic events
What is the best initial test for P. vera?
------ EPO, it will be decreased.
Only polycythemia with increased PV and decreased EPO
What is the treatment or polycythemia vera?
------ Phlebotomy
What is the age range for CML?
------ 40-60+ years of age
What is the genetic marker for CML?
------ philidelphia chromosome = chromosome 22 with translocation (BCR/ABL fushion gene, most specific CML test)
What is the characteristics of CML after 5 years?
------ Blast crisis; myeloblasts or lymphoblasts; no Auer rods
What separates CML from other leukemias?
----- Only leukemia with thrombocytosis
What is the mutation for Myelofibrosis and myeloid metaplasia (MMM)?
------ mutation of the JAK2 gene on the short arm of chromosome 9
Classic signs for MMM?
------ extramedullary hematopoiesismarrow fibrosismassive splenomegaly
Classic laboratory findings for MMM?
------ tear drop RBC'sleukoerythroblastic smear (reaction)
What is the treatment for MMM?
------ HydroxyureaInterferon-alpha
Where is the essential thrombocythemia (ET) gene mutation?
------ Due to the mutation of JAK2 gene on the short arm of chromosome 9. (Same as PV and MMM)
What is the pathogenesis of ET?
------ excess formation of dysplastic/non-functional platelets. Platelet count is very high.
What is the treatment for ET?
Hydroxyurea
What are the findings in myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
------ CytopeniasHypercellular marrowmen age 50 to 80
What is the problem with MDS?
------ >30% progress to acute leukemia
What is the cytogenetic abnormality in Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) (specifically M3)?
------ t(15:17)point is that cytogenetic translocations are common
What is the common sign of acute monocytic leukemia?
------ Gum infiltration
What is the key presentation for most AML?
------ Auer rods in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts(not present in CML)
What is the treatment for AML?
------ Induction therapy: cytarabine + daunorubicinConsolidation therapy: aggressive chemo with or without radiationMaintenance therapy: cytarabine
What antigens are common in ALL?
------ CD10 and TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidly transferase)Note that T-cell ALL does not have CD10
What chromosomal translation offers a favorable result in ALL?
------ t(12:21)
How many people are cured in ALL?
------ Two Thirds
What is adult t-cell leukemia associated with?
------ T cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1)
What is the pathogenesis of Adult t cell leukemia?
------ Activation of TAX gene which inhibits the TP53 suppressor gene
What is the common findings in all T-cell malignancies?
------ Skin Lesionslytic bone lesionshypercalcemia
What is the most common cause of generalized lymphadenopathy in those over 60 years old?
------ Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
What are the classic laboratory findings in CLL?
------ hypogammaglobulinemia smudge cells (fragile leukemic cells)
What is the treatment for CLL?
------ Chlorambucil
What is the classic lab finding for HCL?
------ Leukemic cells with hair-like projectionsPositive tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain
What are the clinical findings in hairy cell leukemia (HCL)?
------ Spleen is the primary site for neoplastic cellsAbsence of lymphadenopathy
Treatment for HCL?
------ Drugs of choice are purine analogs (ex. 2-chloro-2 deoxyadenosine)
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (pre-B cell type
------ Most common leukemia in kidsNewborn to 14 years oldCALLA (CD10) and TdT positivet(12;21) offers a good prognosis
Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia
------ Virgin B-cell leukemiaPatients > 60 years oldMost common generalized lymphadenopathy in that age
bracketHypogammaglobulinemia
Adult T cell leukemia
------ HTLV-1 associationLeukemic cells CD4 positive and TdT negativeSkin InfiltrationLytic Bone Lesions with hypercalcemia
Hairy cell leukemia
------ B cell leukemiaCytoplasmic projectionsTRAP stain positiveSplenomegaly (site of neoplastic cell proliferation)Absence of lymphadenopathyPancytopenia Dramatic response to purine nucleosides