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146 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is a function of blood?
A. Transport
B. Hemostasis
C. Homeostasis
D. Gas exchange
E. All of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is greater (more abundant) in males than in females?
A. Number of red blood cells
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. A & B
E. All of the above
all of the above
What is the first site of production for red blood cells?
A. Bone marrow
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Yolk sac
E. Placenta
yolk sac
Which of the following is a stimulus for red cell production?
A. Erythropoietin
B. Decreased tissue oxygenation
C. High altitude
D. A & B
E. All of the above
all of the above
What is the normal lifespan of a red blood cell?
A. 72 hours
B. 50 days
C. 10 weeks
D. 4 months
E. 2 years
4 months
Where is the majority of old red cells destroyed?
A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. GI tract
D. Spleen
E. Heart
spleen
Which of the following is the over production of red blood cells?
A. Leukemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Hemosideroses
polycythemia
Which of the following are not whole cells?
A. Basophil
B. Platelets
C. Lymphocyte
D. Monocyte
E. Neutrophil
platelets
Which of the following is the movement of a white cell through a capillary wall?
A. Margination
B. Diapedesis
C. Chemotaxis
D. Permeability
E. Migration
diapedesis
Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?
A. Neutrophils
B. B cells
C. Antibodies
D. T cells
E. Cell mediated immunity
neutrophils
Which of the following is an example of acquired immunity?
A. Lysozymes
B. Complement complex
C. Natural killer lymphocytes
D. Skin
E. Humoral immunity
humoral immunity
All of the following are part of the flight or fight response of the sympathetic nervous system except for ______.
A. Increased blood flow to exercising muscle
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased blood glucose concentration
D. Increased mental activity
E. Increased rate of digestion
increased rate of digestion
In the ANS the firing rate of the active nerve imparts the information not simply because it fires.
A. True
B. False
true
Which of the following statements is true of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)?
A. Continually produces action potentials
B. Senses the external environment
C. Composed of three components, central, sympathetic, and parasympathetic
D. Neurotransmitter is always norepinephrine
continually produces action potentials
Which of the following items is the neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nerve fibers innervating the sweat glands?
A. GABA
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine
acetylcholine
Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry parasympathetic nerve fibers?
A. III
B. VII
C. VIII
D. IX
VIII
Which of the following is a cholinergic receptor?
A. Alpha 1
B. Beta 1
C. Alpha 2
D. Muscarinic
muscarinic
Which of the following selections is the best definition a negative feedback control system?
A. Moves the controlled variable in the same direction as the disturbance
B. Utilizes data from two or more sensor systems to move the controlled variable in the opposite direction from the disturbance
C. Moves the controlled variable in the opposite direction from the disturbance maintaining homeostasis
D. Moves the controlled variable further from set point
Moves the controlled variable in the opposite direction from the disturbance maintaining homeostasis
Which of the following statements best describes a feed forward control system?
A. Normally pathological
B. Utilizes two or more sensors in order to anticipate changes in the controlled variable and rapidly return it to its set point
C. Moves the controlled variable away from its set point
D. Prevents the establishment of a set point for the controlled variable
B. Utilizes two or more sensors in order to anticipate changes in the controlled variable and rapidly return it to its set point
Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning human body hydration?
A. The average American is 56% water
B. The average hydration of the American population indicates that the American population is obese
C. Extracellular fluid is 2/3 of total body water
D. To be considered fully hydrated the human body should be 72% water
Extracellular fluid is 2/3 of total body water
Which of the following statements is true of human body control systems?
A. Prevent any deviation of controlled variables from set points
B. Are primarily endocrine or neural
C. Act only in emergency situations
D. Have efficiency ratings of 100%
are primarily endocrine or neural
Which of the following is directly responsible for antibody production?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Memory cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Lymphocytes
plasma cells
Which of the following is associated with cell-mediated immunity?
A. B cells
B. Antibodies
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages
E. T cells
T cells
Which class of immunoglobulins has the largest structure?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
IgM
Which class of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
IgG
Which class of immunoglobulins is found in the mucosal surfaces of the respiratory and GI tracts?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
IgA
Which class of immunoglobulins increases primarily during an allergic response?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
IgA
Which of the following is a method of binding antigens used by antibodies?
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Opsonization
D. Lysis
E. All of the above
all of the above
Which of the following initiates the classical pathway of the complement system?
A. Microorganism
B. Macrophage
C. Monocyte
D. Antigen-antibody complex
E. memory cells
antigen-antibody complex
Which of the following is the largest fraction of the blood volume?
A. Plasma
B. Red blood cells
C. White blood cells
D. Platelets
E. Plasma cells
plasma
Which of the following choices is the best description of an endocrine gland?
A. Releases its products through ducts leading to the body surface
B. Releases its products directly into the blood supply
C. Hormone producing cells surround a central ascini
D. Gland only produces one product
B. Releases its products directly into the blood supply
Which of the following statements apply to hydrophobic hormones only?
A. Regulated primarily by negative feedback mechanisms
B. Act on distant target cells
C. May be found in blood minutes to hours after secretion
D. Requires blood proteins for transport
requires blood proteins for transport
Which of the following is the active portion of the total hormone supply?
A. Transport protein bound
B. Free fraction
C. Glandular storage
D. hormone synthesis
free fraction
Which of the following would NOT be a function of the endocrine system?
A. Growth and development of the body
B. Maintain metabolism
C. Direct protein synthesis and degradation
D. Increase blood coagulation rate
D. Increase blood coagulation rate
Hormonal actions are very fast acting, less than a thousand of a second.
A. True
B. False
false
What is the major constituent of blood?
A. Red blood cell
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Water
E. Oxygen
water
What substance, formed in the kidneys, is a stimulator for red blood cell production?
A. Erythropoietin
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glycoprotein
E. Prostaglandins
erythropoietin
What is the end product of red blood cell degradation?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Transferrin
C. Ferritin
D. Bilirubin
E. Vitamin B-12
bilirubin
Which of the following is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
A. Lack of iron
B. Lack of oxygen
C. Aplastic bone marrow
D. Small, fragile RBCs
E. Lack of vitamin Bl2
lack of vitamin B12
Which of the following is most likely elevated during a bacterial infection?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Basophils
neutrophils
Which of the following is most likely elevated during a parasitic infection?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Basophils
eosinophils
Which of the following is most likely elevated during a viral infection?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Basophils
lymphocytes
Which of the following generally resides in the reticuloendothelial tissue as macrophages?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Basophils
monocytes
Which of the following is a term referring to the movement of neutrophils through a capillary into the surrounding tissue?
A. Inflammation
B. Margination
C. Diapedesis
D. Chemotaxis
E. Neutrophilia
diapedesis
Which of the following is released by activated macrophages to stimulate the release of neutrophils from the bone marrow?
A. Interleukin 1
B. Interleukin 2
C. Interleukin 3
D. Interleukin 4
E. Interleukin 5
interleukin 1
Which of the following is a component of pus?
A. Necrotic tissue
B. Dead neutrophils
C. Dead macrophages
D. Tissue fluid
E. All of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is the uncontrolled production of white blood cells?
A. Leukopenia
B. Leukemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Erythropoiesis
E. Hemopoiesis
leukemia
Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?
A. Tissue macrophage system
B. Immunity following expose to pathogen
C. Antibodies
D. Activated lymphocyte
E. Vaccination
tissue macrophage system
Which of the following is an example of acquired immunity?
A. Lysozyme
B. Complement complex
C. WBC phagocytosis
D. GI digestive enzymes
E. Antibody production
antibody production
Hormones act on the body in a similar to the nervous system, but there are differences. Which of the following is a difference between nervous regulation and endocrine regulation of the human body?
A. Act on receptors on target cells
B. Act in Minutes to hours
C. Release chemical agents
D. Control cellular physiological responses
Act in Minutes to hours
A normal human if well hydrated should contain about _______ water.
A. 56%
B. 42%
C .72%
D. 87%
72%
Which of the following neurotransmitters would be considered cholinergic?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Adrenaline
D. Acetylcholine
Acetylcholine
Which of the following would NOT be considered a normal endocrine gland?
A. Kidney
B. Thyroid
C. Pituitary
D. Thymus
kidney
. In the organization of the ANS which of the following would be considered the most subordinant?
A. Spinal cord
B. Hypothalamus
C. Visceral reflexes
D. Brain stem
Visceral reflexes
Which of the following would NOT be under hormonal control?
A. Normal blood ion concentrations
B. Rate of cellular metabolism
C. Synthesis of new molecules
D. Skeletal muscle contraction
Skeletal muscle contraction
Which of the following cell types is NOT normally controlled by Hormones?
A. Vascular smooth muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Kidney cells
skeletal muscle
What is the name of the process by which cells change the number of receptors they express on their surface in response to changes in the concentration of their hormone?
A. Numerical receptor regulation
B. Receptor hormone integration
C. Receptor overload regulation
D. Receptor up or down regulation
Receptor up or down regulation
Autocrine hormones act on the same cell which releases them T/F
true
How are hydrophobic hormones such as steroids and thyroid hormones transported in the water matrix of the blood stream?
A. Released only very small amounts
B. Transported attached to VLDL. HDL, or LDL
C. Transported on blood proteins
D. Transported attached to cholesterol esters
Transported on blood proteins
What is the source of biogenic amines?
A. Cholesterol
B. Proteins
C. Glucose
D. Amino acids
Amino acids
The eicosanoids hormones are short proteins. T/F
false
What is the free fraction of a hormone?
A. That portion of glandular storied hormone released to the blood stream
B. That portion of hormones which are free in the blood stream to bind receptors
C. The portion of hormones not released into the blood stream
D. The free hormones in the blood stream after they have activated a receptor and free to activate another
That portion of hormones which are free in the blood stream to bind receptors
Several hormones act through second messenger systems. Which of the following second messenger systems requires the activation of Phospholipase C ?
A. Calcium
B. IP3
C. cAMP
IP3
. Which of the following has a short preganglionic neuron and a long postganglionic neuron?
A. Sympathetic system
B. Parasympathetic system
sympathetic system
Which of the following is NOT a cholinergic receptor? (MAQ)
A. Alpha1
B. Beta1
C Nicotinic
D. Muscarinic
Nicotinic, muscarinic
Which of the following is associated with anemia?
A. decreased white cell deferential
B. elevated erythrocyte count
C. decreased hematocrit
D. elevated hemoglobin count
decreased hematorcrit
Which of the following is not a major function of red blood cells?
A. transport
B. hemosiderosis
C. hemostasis
D. homeostasis
hemosiderosis
What physical property of erythrocytes aids their flow through capillaries?
A. size
B. texture
C. shape
D. concentration
shape
Which of the following is affected by altitude?
A. hemoglobin quantity
B. RBC concentration
C. hematocrit
D. all of the above
all of the above
Where do RBCs originate?
A. yolk sac
B. liver
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
yolk sac
Which of the following is the same for all blood cells?
A. size
B. shape
C. site of maturation
D. cell origin
cell origin
Which of the following will lead to reduction in total number of RBCs?
A. iron deficiency
B. folate deficiency
C. kidney failure
D. vitamin B12 deficiency
kidney failure
Which of the following will stimulate the production of erythrocytes?
A. inactivity
B. reduced tissue oxygenation
C. high protein diet
D. high carbohydrate diet
reduced tissue oxygenation
Which of the following is associated with pernicious anemia?
A. iron deficiency
B. folate deficiency
C. vitamin B6 deficiency
D. lack of intrinsic factor
lack of intrinsic factor
What types of amino acid chains are associated with adult hemoglobin?
A. alpha and beta
B. beta and gamma
C. gamma and delta
D. delta and alpha
alpha and beta
What is the end waste product of RBC degradation?
A. bilirubin
B. urobilinogen
C. protein
D. iron
bilirubin
How many molecules of oxygen can be carried by 1 hemoglobin molecule?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4
Which of the following foods will most enhance the absorption of iron in the GI tract?
A. milk
B. orange juice
C. protein
D. carbohydrates
orange juice
Which form of iron in the body is most likely to lead to tissue damage?
A. apotransferrin
B. transferrin
C. hemosiderin
D. ferritin
hemosiderin
Which of the following is a cause of factor deficiency anemia?
A. iron deficiency
B. chronic renal disease
C. hypothyroidism
D. hemorrhage
iron deficiency
Which of the following is associated with production-defect anemia?
A. folic acid deficiency
B. bone marrow infection
C. hemorrhage
D. hemolytic anemia
bone marrow infection
Which of the following is a cause of depletion anemia?
A. hypersplenism
B. vitamin B12 deficiency
C. radiation exposure
D. aplastic anemia
hyper splenism
What RBC morphology is associated with the most common anemia?
A. microcytic, hyperchromic
B. microcytic, hypochromic
C. macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. macrocytic, hypochromic
microcytic, hypochromic
What RBC morphology is associated with pernicious anemia?
A. microcytic, hyperchromic
B. microcytic, hypochromic
C. macrocytic, hyperchromic
D. macrocytic, hypochromic
macrocytic, hypochromic
Which of the following could be a cause for a false-positive polycythemia diagnosis?
A. overhydration
B. dehydration
C. pregnancy
D. fluid retention
dehydration
Which of the following can lead to secondary polycythemia?
A. heart failure
B. high altitude
C. chronic lung disorders
D. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is associated with 8% peripheral blastic cells of myeloid origin?
A. CML
B. AML
C. CLL
D. ALL
CML
Which of the following is associated with 40% peripheral blastic cells of lymphoid origin?
A. CML
B. ANLL
C. CLL
D. ALL
ALL
Which of the following is associated with 35% peripheral blastic cells of myeloid origin?
A. CML
B. ANLL
C. CLL
D. ALL
ANLL
Which of the following is associated with 9% peripheral blastic cells of lymphoid origin?
A. CML
B. AML
C. CLL
D. ALL
CLL
. In the eye which of the following causes pupil dilation?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
sympathetic
In the GI tract which of the following increases GI activity?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
parasympathetic
All of the following are part of the Mass sympathetic response except for which of the following?
A. Increased arterial pressure
B. Increased cell metabolism
C. Shunting of blood to active sites
D. Increased GI activity
Increased GI activity
. Which of the following would define a negative feedback system?
A. A system which moves the controlled variable in the opposite direction and of equal magnitude as the disturbance
B. A system which does not attempt to correct the controlled variable
C. A system which always attempts to return the controlled variable to a set point
D. A system which acts to move the controlled variable in the same direction as the disturbance
A system which always attempts to return the controlled variable to a set point
Present automobile engines have a greater gain than does the control systems of the human body. T/F
False
. Which of the following would define a feedforward system?
A. A system which moves the control variable forward in response to a disturbance
B. A system which moves the control variable always in the positive direction
C. A system which incrementally increases the variable then stops to test the result before advancing again
D. A system which anticipates changes in the controlled variable and begins to correct the changes before they can become serious
system which anticipates changes in the controlled variable and begins to correct the changes before they can become serious
Which of the following is a normal positive feedback system of the human body?
A. Muscle contraction
B. Maturation of stem cells
C. Nutrient absorption
D. Blood clot formation
blood clot formation
What is the free fraction of a hormone?
A. Hormone free in the blood plasma that can bind to receptors
B. Hormone bound to blood proteins
C. Hormone that is released from the producing gland
D. That portion of the hormone which is actively bound to a receptor
Hormone free in the blood plasma that can bind to receptors
T F Positive feedback control systems are always pathological.
FALSE
Where do the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system synapse with the postganglionic neurons?
A. On the target organ
B. In the celiac or superior mesenteric ganglia
C. In the paravertebral ganglia
D. In the brain stem
On the target organ
How is it possible that hormones released into the body fluids can be targeted to affect just certain cells and not others?
A. Hormones are designed to seek only their targeted cells
B. The blood stream is carefully regulated so that hormones reach only their targets and no other cells
C. Hormones are specially designed so that they can only influence their target cells
D. Cells that are targeted express a specific receptor for the hormone
Cells that are targeted express a specific receptor for the hormone
T F Positive feedback control systems help to maintain homeostasis.
F
Which of the following is NOT considered a normal human regulatory system?
A. Endocrine system
B. Intrinsic control system
C. Respiratory system
D. Nervous system
Respiratory system
. Which of the following determines the cellular physiological response to ANS stimulation?
A. The neurotransmitter released
B. Cellular receptors expressed
C. The tissue type
D. The cells position in the tissue mass
Cellular receptors expressed
How does vitalism change the definition of Physiology?
A. Adds a mechanistic aspect
B. Adds a living aspect
C. Adds a spiritual aspect
D. Adds nothing
Adds a spiritual aspect
Which of the following is NOT part of the fight or flight response of the ANS?
A. Increased arterial blood pressure
B. Increased cell metabolism
C. Increased blood glucose concentration
D. Increased glucose absorption from the GI tract
Increased glucose absorption from the GI tract
T F The sympathetic nerves which innervate the piloerector muscles release norepinephrine.
F
T F The sympathetic preganglionic neuron is much longer than the postganglionic neuron.
F
Which of the following cranial nerves carries up to 75% of the parasympathetic nerves?
A. VII
B. III
C. X
D. IX
X
Which of the following is considered the master gland of the endocrine system?
A. Thymus
B. Adrenals
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
Pituitary
Sympathetic nerves normally release norepinephrine to their target cells with the exception of which of following?
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Sweat glands
D. Vascular smooth muscle
Sweat glands
. T F Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to maintain its internal environment very nearly constant.
T
Which of the following defines the free fraction of a hormone?
A. Hormone released from its producing cell
B. Portion of hormone that is bound to its receptor
C. Hormone not bound to a blood protein
D. Portion of hormone lost to the body through excretion in the urine
hormone not bound to a protein
What would the open loop gain have to be on a control system that maintained the control variable exactly at its set point at all times?
A. Zero
B. 10
C. 50
D. Infinite
infinite
Which of the following hormones are meant to cause changes in the cell that released it?
A. Endocrine
B. Autocrine
C. Paracrine
Autocrine
What is the primary purpose of the ANS?
A. Move the body
B. Control nerve traffic
C. Automatically control the viscera
D. Eliminate the need for thought
Automatically control the viscera
Which of the following is true for red blood cells?
A. oval disc shape
B. diameter is smaller than a capillary
C. concentration is greater in men than women
D. normally produced by the spleen
concentration is greater in men than women
What is the approximate adult concentration of red blood cells per cubic millimeter?
A. 5,000
B. 50,000
C. 500,000
D. 5,000,000
5,000,000
In human development, where is the original site for red blood production?
A. bone marrow
B. yolk sac
C. spleen
D. liver
yolk sac
Which of the following stimulates red cell production?
A. low altitude
B. interleukin-3
C. decreased kidney function
D. elevated O2 pressure in the atmosphere
interleukin-3
. In the adult, which of the following is a primary site for red cell production?
A. tibia
B. femur
C. humerus
D. vertebra
vertebra
What is the end product of red cell destruction?
A. bilirubin
B. biliverdin
C. urobilinogen
D. stercobilin
bilirubin
Which of the following enhances iron absorption?
A. calcium
B. vitamin C
C. dairy products
D. vitamin B12
E. intrinsic factor
vitamin C
Which of the following is a cause of megaloblastic anemia?
A. excessive folate
B. iron deficiency
C. inadequate vitamin B12
D. microcytic cells
C. inadequate vitamin B12
Which of the following is evidence of immature red blood cells?
A. microcytic cells
B. retics
C. hypochromic cells
D. hyperchromic cells
retics
Which of the following percentages is a normal hematocrit for a male living in the DFW area?
A. 33
B. 43
C. 53
D. 63
43
Which of the following is associated with pernicious anemia?
A. decreased intrinsic factor
B. elevated B12
C. decreased folic acid
D. elevated folate
A. decreased intrinsic factor
Which of the following is associated with the most common form of adult hemoglobin?
A. gamma chains
B. delta chains
C. hemoglobin F
D. hemoglobin A
hemoglobin A
Which of the following will phagocytize hemoglobin?
A. the spleen
B. liver Kupffer cells
C. bone marrow
D. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is a deficiency of red blood cells?
A. polycythemia
B. leukemia
C. anemia
D. pseudoanemia
anemia
Which of the following can lead to a factor deficiency anemia?
A. aplastic bone marrow
B. severe infection
C. poor diet
D. renal disease
poor diet
Which of the following can cause a production-defect anemia?
A. iron deficiency
B. vitamin B 12 deficiency
C. widespread malignancy
D. all of the above
widespread malignancy
Which of the following is associated with depletion anemia?
A. bone marrow aplasia
B. hemolytic anemia
C. renal failure
D. all of the above
hemolytic anemia
What morphology is seen with the most common form of anemia?
A. microcytic, hypochromic
B. microcytic, hyperchromic
C. macrocytic, hypochromic
D. macrocytic, hyperchromic
microcytic, hypochromic
Which of the following corresponds with 40% blastic cells of myeloid origin?
A. CML
B. CNLL
C. ALL
D. AML
AML
Which of the following corresponds with 8% blastic cells of lymphoid origin?
A. CLL
B. CNLL
C. ALL
D. CML
CLL
What is the most likely cause of an elevated neutrophil count?
A. bacterial infection
B. viral infection
C. allergies
D. parasites
bacterial infection
. What is the most likely cause of an elevated lymphocyte count?
A. bacterial infection
B. viral infection
C. allergies
D. parasites
viral infection
What is the most likely cause of an elevated eosinophil count?
A. bacterial infection
B. viral infection
C. allergies
D. tissue damage
allergies
Which white blood cell is least abundant?
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
E. neutrophil
basophil
Which white blood cell is most abundant?
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
E. neutrophil
neutrophil
Which of the following is associated with inflammation?
A. diapedesis
B. margination
C. chemotaxis
D. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following release interleukin-1?
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
E. neutrophil
monocyte
Which of the following is associated with the reticuloendothelial system?
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
E. neutrophil
monocyte
Which white blood cell is primarily responsible for tissue repair?
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. monocyte
E. neutrophil
monocyte
Which of the following are phagocytes?
A. neutrophils
B. monocytes
C. eosinophils
D. all of the above
all of the above