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104 Cards in this Set

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Define Parasite
Organism of the animal kingdom, that lives in or on another organism
What is is an ECTOparasite?
An external parasite that lives on the outside of another animal such as fleas, ticks, mites, flies
What is an ENDOparasite?
An internal parasite that lives in tissues or body cavities of an animal.
Most endoparasites live within
the GI tract---> mouth, esophagus, small and large intestines
Most endoparasites that live in the intestines live in which intestine and this results in____
Small intestine, (mysentary is connected to SI)

results in loss of nutrients
Esophogeal parasites do what?
Burrow into tissue lining the esophagus
Ruminants endoparasites tend to make their home where?
Stomach
Endoparasites that invade the liver have eggs that pass via __________ to the intestines and then exit host via feces
Common bile duct
An example of pulmonary parasites is
lung worms
an example of circulatory system parasites is
heartworms
An example of urinary system worms is
Kidney and bladder worms
A stationary parasite is one that _____________________-
Attaches somewhere and STAYS there (i.e. Demodex- burrowing mite
A periodic parasite is one that ______
is on and off the host during part of its life cycle (ie-fleas)
Permanent parasites __________

-All internal parasites are permanent
-Some external parasites are permanent
-Some permanent parasites are stationary parasites, but not all
stay on host ALL the time
An Obligate parasite is one that
MUST live as a parasite-cannot live on its own
- much more common type
-Always have a final host ( not true for facultative parasites)
ie-lice are obligate and permanent but not stationary
A facultative parasite is one that
involves 2 generations of parasites
1. A free living generation that can live at the expense of another organism OR can live on its own (ie-Stronyloides)
2. An obligate generation that must live at the expense of another organism
What does the term host refer to?
The animal a parasite lives IN or ON at any given time. the Host "harbors" the parasite at some stage of its life cycle
A final or definitive hosts is one that____
Harbors the adult stage.

**EVERY parasite must have a final/definitive host***
An intermediate host is one that_____
harbors a larval stage and is necessary to the parasite in completion of its life cycle

-not all parasites have an intermediate host but some may have 2
A transport or paratenic host is an accidental host that
is unnecessary but convenient host that harbors larval stage of a parasite

-no development occurs in this type of stage
All parasites are Host specific but there are two types, one is Host Specific Singular (HSS) and this refers to:
Only one animal will harbor the adult stage

(ie-Toxocara canis-dogs only)
All parasites are Host specific but there are two types, one is Host specific plural (HSP) and this refers to:
More than one animal can harbor adult stage

(ie-cow and sheep)
What is a parasitic life cycle?
The reproduction and maturation series of a parasite and its development through stages
A direct life cycle (DLC) is one that means the parasite __________
does not need the use of an intermediate host but can use a paratenic host
An indirect life cycle (IDC) is one in which the parasite __________
MUST make use of an intermediate host
What are the three stages of the typical life cycle of a parasite or protozoa?
1. Egg, ova or cyst
--protozoans produce cysts
2. Larva--all have at least one stage
3. Adult--stage that causes infestation
In terms of parasites, an infestation refers to
Establishment of a parasite within or upon a host and this occurs at the adult stage of the life cycle of the parasite
Infection is something caused by bacteria and viruses and is not the same as infestation. Parasites do have an Infective stage however and this refers to:
Stage the parasite can infest the host
Routes of infestation refers to:
how the parasite enters the host. this is the point where the parasite has reached the "infective stage" and can be the egg/ova, cyst or larva
What are some common routes of infestation?
-Direct---most common
-Ingestion of paratenic host
-In utero-transplacental
-ingestion of intermediate host
-skin penetration (hookworms)
-transmammary-lactogenic)
The prepatent period (PPP) refers to:
Amount of time which elapses, from the time a final host is infested, until the parasite can be demonstrated through the detection eggs/ova, cysts or larvae.
-this is the time it takes parasite to become reproductively mature
The first growth stage of a Parasite is the __________-
Egg or ova

-Diagnosis of these via examination of feces, blood or urine

SIZE and APPEARANCE are critical in diagnosis
A cyst is a:
protozoan ova or egg
What are the major differences between eggs/ova and cysts?
-Eggs are usually larger than cysts
-Eggs have a thicker cell wall
-Cysts tend to be filled with fluid therefore are more fragile
-Ova are filled with cytoplasm, nucleus etc (hardier
What are the 4 shapes of eggs or cysts?
Majority are round or oval

One type found in cows in triangular and one with D shaped ends is found in horses
What a larva?
a growth stage following the egg or ova stage. A microscopic "baby worm"
Larval stage one is L1 although some may have as many as 5 larval stages (L1 to L5)
What is an operculum?
An indentation or protrusion on one or both ends of oval shaped eggs/ova
-can be single with an in or out
-Doubles always protrude out
Public health significance (PHS) refers to:
Damage a parasite has the potential to do to the public
Pathology and pathogenicity refer to __
the damage a parasite is capable of producing to its host
Morphology is the study of
shape
A hermaphroditic parasite is one that
contain both sets of nonfunctional sex organs that become functional once they reach the final host
A monecious parasite is one that
Contains both sets of sex organs and BOTH are functional
A dioecious parasite is one that
Has one set of either male or female sex organs that are functional
Oviparous reproduction refers to:
Production of ova within the parasite, which then passes out of the parasite and into the host, then out of the host as ova
**MOST COMMON**
Ovoviviparous reproduction refers to:
Production of ova within the parasite , that pass into the host as ova, THEN hatch into larvae and pass out of the host as LARVAE
Viviparous reproduction refers to
Production of an ova within the parasite which hatch into larvae within the parasite as well and then pass into and out of host as larvae
Parasitiasis refers to
the fact that there are parasites present in/on a host and although potentially pathogenic, host shows no outward signs
Parasitosis refers to
Parasite is present in or on host and animal exhibits outward signs and harm
What are some of the ways a parasite/protozoan can cause its host harm?
1. absorbing food meant for host (malnutrition, malabsorption)
2. Sucking blood or lymph
3. Feeding on tissues of host
4. Causing mechanical obstruction or pressure
5. Causing growth of nodules or tumors
6. Perforating tissues or vessels
7. Causing wounds through which infestation and possibly infection can occur
8. Destruction of tissue
9. Irritation of tissues
10. Transmitting some infestious disease such as malaria, viruses, blood protozoa
11. secreting toxins or otherwise harmful substances such as digestive or anticoagulatory enzymes
A Qualitative test is one of the more common tests for parasites and it tests simple for ______________
If the animal does or does not have the parasite at that given time
The less common type of the 2 general parasite tests is the Quantitative test and it refers to :
Approximate degree of infestation and is never done unless there is a positive qualitative test
Types of samples used for qualitative tests most often are:
fecal
blood
urine
If nothing is seen on a test, repeat with another sample on another day UNLESS significant signs are being shown> based on Hx, parasite may still be
In PPP and it will be best to do a follow-up test a week later
What are the 3 types of qualitative tests done most often on a fecal sample?
1. Gross or visual
2. Direct smear
3. Concentration or flotation technique
What are 7 of the 14 factors that can cause variations in results?
1. Ova producing potential varies greatly among parasites
2. With heavy infestations, females produce fewer eggs
3. Sex ratio may not be the same, though both sexes cause harm
4. Could be a large # of immature, non-egg producing worms present (parasite in the PPP)
5. Diet of host greatly affects # of eggs produced (alfalfa enhances egg production in ruminents)
6.egg output is not a constant process and number of eggs found will vary hour to hour and day to day
7. Fecal consistency affects # of eggs present
What are the other 7 of the 14 factors that can cause variations in results?
8. fecal output varies among animals due to species, age and size
9. Immune response may in some cases inhibit/stop egg production, may speed up production in some cases
10. Different diagnostic techniques used to determine number of eggs will produce varying results
11. Technician error
12. Luck--just happen to have part of sample with parasite in it
13. Inadequate sample size
14. Sample is too old
Sodium nitrate is not as efficient in floating eggs as:
Zinc Sulfate
Concentration techniques will yield __________ eggs per gram of feces compared to simple flotation techniques.
MORE
Refrigeration of fecal sample does what?
-slow down cyst rupture and larvation of the eggs
Lab test results are reported in both the ____________ and ____________
Lab log and patients file
With a fecal exam, can often see ________ with the naked eye.
adults
Tapeworm segments are usually viewed with _____ on a microscope, although they can be seen with the naked eye.
4x
To view eggs, cysts and larva, use ______ magnification and _____ to ID
10x
40x
With Giardia, the smallest cysts we come across, you use ____ to locate and ID
40x
Scanning for eggs/ova & cysts is done on __________magnification and no staining is done on these slides
10x
The exception to the scan on 10x rule is when you are scanning for Giardia and its 2 forms. What are they?
Cysts
trophazoites (kite with multiple flagella)
When scanning, it is best to use two hands, one on the ______and the other on ____________ to continuously fine focus back and forth.
fine focus knob
stage movement knob
When something is found while scanning left to right, top to bottom while scanning in an overlapping manner, you should ___________
Move to 40x, write down what you see, then go back to scanning on 10x
When you find something, you may or may not be able to give its Genus of the parasite. If you do not find something, you ___________report out__________ because____________
NEVER
negative
parasite could be in another part of the sample or in PPP
NSATT and NoPSATT are used to report nothing found and they stand for:
Nothing seen at this time

No ova/parasites seen at this time
What are the 3 tests ALWAYS done on a fecal?
1. Gross or visual- (NO microscope)

2. Direct smear

3. Fecal concentration/flotation
What are some reason for doing a direct exam on a fecal sample?
1. Tapeworms are often Dx by segments in sample
2. Sometimes adult worms are passed (roundworms)
3.Odor of feces can give hints as to type of parasite (Giardia) as well as consistency. (diarrhea can be viral/bacteriological in origin, not just parasites)
4. Excessive mucous can be indicative of Whipworms but can be
associated with colitis and not have parasites as a cause.
What are the advantages of doing a Direct Smear, the 2nd test that should ALWAYS be done on a fecal sample?
Fast-quick prep time

Cheap- just need slide, cover slip, applicator stick and PSS
The disadvantages of Direct Smear fecal test are?
1. Small amount of feces used- (can miss something)
2. May need to contend with a greater amount of fecal debris while scanning
What are the basic steps for doing a fecal Direct Smear?
1. Obtain a tiny fleck of sample
2. Use 2-3 gtts PSS
3. Mix with app. stick gently ( do NOT lay on counter)
4. Take cover slip, hold by edges at 45 degree angle, gently skim top of sample across sample then drop cover slip down
5.Place slide on stage on 10x, condenser down
What are the reasons a Direct Fecal Smear is done?
1. Only test where you are able to see larvae
2. Can see the 2 forms of Giardia
-Cysts are more fragile and more likely to rupture
-Trophozoites even more fragile and are ID 'd by their kite shape and 8 flagella
For the 3 test that is always done on a fecal sample, the Concentration or Flotation technique, the specific gravity of the flotation solution is_____?
1.180-1.200
Using the flotation solution with a particular specific gravity of 1.180 to 1.200 leads to the heavier material ________ and the lighter Ova to _____.
sinking

rising to the top
In a flotation/concentration test, larvae are about the same weight as _______ and will therefore ______
debris, sink
The cover slip touches the meniscus at the top of the test where it sits for ________ to collect Ova that may rise to the top of the solution.
10 minutes
Solutions for this floatation tests are too potent for ___________ and will therefore cause them to rupture and the sensitivity of Giardia cysts will make fewer of them seen with this technique
trophozoites
Sample size is about the size of a pea, bigger amount than used on Direct smear test, so there is a ___________
greater potential for seeing something
What are the 3 types of flotation media (solutions)?
** technically, these are drugs because they aid in the Dx of something)
1. Sodium Nitrate (NaNO3) Brand names Fecasol, Flomed, Ovassay

2. Zinc Sulfate (ZnSO4) Some studies show this to be best but is more expensive

3. Sheather's Sugar solution- has a specific gravity of 1.270 and can float any ova
Advantages of flotation/concentration techniques are:
1. greater potential for recovering eggs/cysts
2. larger sample size leads to #1
3. Less fecal debris to contend with because it sinks to the bottom
What are the 5 techniques used for flotation/concentration tests?
1. Willis
2.Fecalyzer
3. Ovassay
4. Ova-tector
5. Centrifugation
The Willis Simple Flotation technique is the first one to come out and 2 of its advantages are:
Cheap, vials can be cleaned and reused

Easy to do
What are some advantages of the Fecalyzer (green), the commercial version of the Willis test?
-Disposable
-Less debris due to secondary filter
-Easy for client to use to collect sample from their pet
What is a disadvantage of the Fecalyzer test?
Cost
The Ovassay (white) is a test that is very similar to the Fecalyzer but with some distinct disadvantages. What are they?
It is a generic version that is more cheaply made and has a poor seal that leaks
What are some disadvantages of the Ova-tector?
This less often used test is harder to use and has many pieces.
Of the 5 flotation tests, the most effective is the Centrifugation technique. Its advantages are:
1. More efficiently recovers parasite eggs parasite eggs and cysts than any other method.
2. Requires less time
3. Less egg/cyst distortion
4. Even less fecal debris than the other flotation/concentration techniques
With Centrifugation, a Swing-head centrifuge is used to allow gravity and suction to hold the cover slip on. Gravity forces ______________
lighter stuff to top and heavier stuff to the bottom to a greater degree than other flotation techniques.
What are a few items to remember when setting up the Centrifuge fecal test?
1. Tube holder has to be slightly shorter than tubes used ( needs to 5cc size)
2. Don't re-use tubes
3. Arms are numbered, so write down # on reporting lab sheet to keep sample and patient matched
4. Must be balances, so put tube with water on opposite side.
5. Spin for 3 minutes at 1200 to 1500 rpm
When is Lugol's iodine used?
To attempt to view protozoa cysts such as Coccidia and giardia.
Lugol's Iodine is used on direct smears and with concentration techniques. If cysts are present and can be seen, they will look like:
A cell with double walls that look like 2 thin black lines which have a greenish color in between them. To double check, turn fine focus back and area cell wall will look like on thick black line and then fine focus the other way to see if greenish color returns between the double walls.
When using Lugol's Iodine on a direct smear, you need _____ of iodine to see if trophozoites are present.
1 gtt
When using Lugol's Iodine with a concentration technique, never drop it directly on feces.Fill container _______, then add _______ of iodine.
2/3rds full

2 gtts
A forth type of fecal test that may be done in addition to the Gross exam, direct exam and Flotation test, is the Fecal Cytology test, aka Fecal smear, and the purpose of this test is to view:
Clostridium -looks like safety pins

Campylobacter -a spirochete/seagull appearance
What is the basic procedure for doing a Fecal Cytology/smear?
1. Obtain a fleck of of feces and roll it onto a slide and allow to dry.
2. May heat fix slide
3. Then stain the slide with Diff quick and examine on 100x.
What is the procedure for using the 3 solutions used for doing a Diff Quick stain?
#1 is the Fixative which is blue/green color and slide is dipped 5 times for 1 second.
#2 is The Eosinophilic and slide is dipped 5 times for 1 second.
#3 is Basophilic which is bluish/purplish and slide is dipped 7-10 times for 1 second.
-Rinse with cool water and allow to dry
On a fecal cytology, it is normal to see less than ___________
5/hpf as this is usually NF
Always report out the ______________
number per HPF after checking a minimum of 10 fields---average this
Some clinics will require you to set up 3 slides when doing a routine fecal exam. What tests make up the fecal 3?
Direct, Float and cytology
What are the 3 main purpose of veterinary Cytology?
Locate

ID

Treat