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129 Cards in this Set

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giardia lamblia life cycle (4)
1. cysts ingested in water/food
2. in GIT, cysts excyst, releasing trophozoites
3. trophozoites colonize duodenum
4. 2 trophozoites encyst and leave in feces
cysts have ___ nuclei, trophozoites have ___
4
2
___ are reservoir for G. lamblia
beavers
g. lamblia symptoms
diarrhea (not bloody)
dehydration
diarrhea from g. lamblia is very smelly because
fat is not digested in small intestine and is fermented by colonic bacteria
g. lamblia drugs
metronidazole
Trichomonas vaginalis has ___ flagella and ___ nuclei
4
1
T. vaginalis is endemic to ___. It is the only ___ parasite
worldwide
sexually transmitted
T. vaginalis requires an abnormally high ___ to survive
vaginal pH
T. vaginalis drugs
metronidazole
T/F: 90% of those infected with Entamoeba histolytica are asymptomatic
true
T/F: 50% of those infected with E. dispar are asymptomatic
false: 100%
E. histolytica grows on ___ culture, whereas E. dispar grows on ___ culture.
axenic (no bacteria)
xenic
E. histolytica eats ___ (2) and lyses ___
bacteria
RBCs
host cells
E. histolytica life cycle (5)
1. trophozoites in intestine encyst
2. cysts released in feces
3. cysts ingested in water/food
4. cysts excyst in intestine
5. trophozoites colonize large intestine
trophozoites can leave large intestine and go to ___ (3). This move may be triggered by ___
brain
liver
lungs
drop in intestinal Fe
if a trophozoite goes to the liver, it can only ___; it can't ___
release hepatotoxins
encyst
E. histolytica have ___ nuclei and lack ___
4
mitochondria
chronic E. histolytica amebiasis causes ___. ___ effects are rare
mucosal ulceration of GIT
brain
E. histolytica uses ___ to adhere to epithlium. This binds ___ and ___ on epithelial cells. It has ___ subunits linked by ___. Adhesion can be inhibited by adding ___.
Gal-lectin
Gal
GalNAc
2
disulfide
Gal
E. histolytica uses ___ to kill cells
amebapores
amebapore activity is ___ dependent
pH
although E. dispar expresses amebapores, it causes less damage because ___ (2)
it makes less of them
it makes a less active version
E. histolytica drugs
metronidazole
iodoquinol
metronidazole mechanism
converted by amebic pyruvate-ferridoxin oxidoreductase to a nitroso free radical
E. histolytica ___ can be observed in solid feces, but ___ can be observed in diarrhea, because it has intestinal mucus
cysts
trophozoites
Cryptosporidium parvum life cycle (4)
1. thick-walled oocyst leaves ileal epithelial cell
2. oocyst released in feces
3. oocyst ingested in contaminated water
4. oocyst releases sporozoites (yeasts) to ileum
c. parvum may be identified with ___ stain
Ziehl-Neelsen
c. parvum has ___ as revervoir
domestic animals
c. parvum drugs
spiramycine
3 forms of leishmaniasis
cutaneous
mucocutaneous
visceral
cutaneous leishmaniasis is aka ___. it is caused by ___ (3)
oriental sore
l. tropica
l. major
l. mexicana
mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by
l. braziliensis
visceral leishmaniasis is aka ___. it is caused by ___ in india and ___ in mediterranean
kala azar
l. donovani
l. infantum
the most dangerous kind of leishmaniasis is ___, which is endemic to ___.
visceral
india
Leishmania has 2 stages, ___ and ___. In the former stage, ___ is present, and in the latter, ___ is present. Like ___, it has a ___.
promastigote
amastigote
a flagellum
no flagellum
trypanosoma
kinetoplast
leishmania life cycle (7)
1. promastigotes in blood are eaten by macrophages
2. promastigotes become amastigotes
3. amastigotes proliferate inside macrophage, sometimes lysing it
4. sand fly sucks blood with infected macrophages
5. in fly gut amastigotes are released and switch to promastigotes
6. promstigotes swim from gut to salivary glands
7. sand fly injects promastigotes into human
in a sandfly you will see ___ote, and in human you will see ___ote
promastig
amastig
the kinetoplast contains
supercoiled DNA
kDNA has genes for (2)
rRNA
electron transport chain proteins
L. major and L. tropicana cause ___ leishmaniasis with a ___ course for ___ weeks followed by ___ in ___months.
cutaneous
acute
1--3
healing
2--12
reservoirs for L. major and L. tropicana (2)
rodents
dogs
L. mexicana causes ___, located on ___.
chiclero's ulcer
ear
cutaneous leishmaniasis is diagnosed by ___
scraping from ulcer and examining with LM
cutaneous leishmaniasis drugs
antimonials
mucocutaneous leishmaniasis starts like cutaneous but then spreads via ___. it is endemic to ___
lymphatics
new world
L. braziliensis causes metastatic lesions at ___, and may cause death from ___.
nasal and buccal mucosae
secondary infection
L. braziliensis drugs
liposomal amphotericin B
antimonials
L. braziliensis reservoir (2)
sloths
anteaters
incubation for visceral leishmaniasis is ___
1--4 months
L. donovani reservoir is ___
L. infantum reservoir is ___ (3)
doesn't exist!
dogs
jackals
foxes
visceral leishmaniasis symptoms (4)
fever
anemia
hepatosplenomegaly
wasting
visceral leismaniasis drugs
miltefosine
pentamidine isothionate
antimonials
Leishmania virulence factor categories (4)
resistance to respiratory burst
lipophosphoglycan
gp63
A2
enzymes for respiratory burst resistance (3)
SOD
catalase
trypanothione reductase
in the vector, LPG does ___ (2)
in human, LPG does ___
inhibits protease release
helps attach to gut
inhibit respiratory burst
gp63 is present in ___ stage of ___
its function is (2)
promastigote
L. major
mimic fibronectin
degrade lysosomal enzymes
A2 gene is present in ___ and ___ but only expressed in ___.
its function is ___
L. major
L. donovani
L. donovani
unknown
the 2 kinds of trypanosomiasis are
african sleeping sickness
chagas' disease
sleeping sickness is caused by (2)
T. brucei rhodesiense
T. brucei gambiense
Chagas' disease is caused by
T. cruzi
T. b. gambiense is localized to ___ and causes a ___ disease.
rivers
chronic
T. b. rhodesiense is localized to ___ and causes a ___ disease. Its hosts are ___ (3)
savannah
acute
humans
antilopes
deer
sleeping sickness vector
tsetse fly
trypanosoma in the host is in the ___ stage, and in the vector in the ___ stage
trypomastigote
epimastigote (and trypomastigote)
in fly, trypanosoma switches from ___ stage to ___ stage after ingestion, and then back before injection
trypomastigote
epimastigote
t. brucei is pathogenic because ___
antigenic shift allows it to evade immune system
the characteristic lesion of trypanosomiasis is ___, which is
winterbottom's sign
cervical lymphadenomegaly from T. brucei infiltration
somnolence in trypanosomiasis is caused by ___. they also cause ___ (3)
toxic metabolitates of aromatic AAs
immunosuppression
vascular damage
temperature change
sleeping sickness drugs
pentamidine
suramin
melarsoprol
eflornithine
suramin is a ___ drug and works by ___. it is used for the ___ phase of disease.
arsenical
inhibits glycolysis
early
eflornithine works by ___. it is used for ___ phase of disease.
inhibiting DNA replication
advanced
antigenic variation is provided by ___. there are ___ possible loci to express. ___ of these are expressed at one time.
variant surface glycoprotein
20
1
___ is used to select the active locus, and ___, which is a modified ___, is used to repress transcription of the inactive ones.
crossing over
base J
uracil
Chagas' disease is spread by ___ aka ___
reduvid bug
assassin bug
Chagas' disease life cycle (5)
1. amastigotes in skin eaten by macrophages and spread via lymp and blood
2. amastigotes ingested by vector
3. amastigotes become epimastigotes
4. epimastigotes become trypomastigotes
5. vector poops trypomastigote on host
clinical syndromes of chagas' disease (3)
asymptomatic
acute
chronic
in asymptomatic syndrome, no symptoms are present, but ___ is
anti-T. cruzi IgG
in acute syndrome, ___ is present, which is a ___. This is called ___ if present on eye. ___ take 10 days to appear in blood
chagoma
inflammatory nodule
romana's sign
trypomastigotes
___% of people progress from asymptomatic stage to ___. symptoms include enlargement and dysfunction of ___ (5)
10--30
chronic
liver
heart
spleen
esophagus
colon
T/F: high levels of parasite are present in blood in chronic infection.
false: low
T. cruzi triggers autoimmunity via ___ which resembles cardiac myosin and ___ which resembles skeletal muscle
B13
cruzipain
T. cruzi drugs
these help with ___, but not with ___
nifurtimox
benzimidazole
acute phase
chronic phase
systemic symptoms in acute chagas' disease take ___ to develop and include ___
2--3 weeks
fever
myalgia
CNS symptoms
malaria is caused by ___ (4)
Plasmodium vivax
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. falciparum
The most virulent malaria is caused by ___. The most widespread is caused by ___. The rarest is caused by ___.
P. falciparum
P. vivax
P. ovale
The DH of plasmodium is ___. The IH is ___.
mosquito
human
Plasmodium life cycle (12)
1. oocyst outside mosquito gut ruptures, releasing sporozoites
2. sporozoites travel to salivary gland
3. mosquito injects sporozoites when it bites IH
4. sporozoites home to hepatocytes
5. in liver, sporozoite matures into schizont
6. schizont matures into merozoites
7. merozoites infect RBCs
8. merozoites multiply inside RBCs and lyse them
9. merzoites become gametocytes
10. mosquito sucks RBCs with gametocytes
11. gametocytes fuse in mosquito gut, making zygote
12. zygote matures into oocyst
P. ovale and P. vivax have a ___ stage after ___ and before ___.
hypnozoid
invasion of hepatocyte
schizont
merozoites inside RBCs can proliferate by becoming ___ which proliferate into ___
trophozoites
erythrocytic schizonts
infection stages (4)
mild
cold
hot
sweating
cold stage symptoms (3)
fever
chills
shaking
hot stage symptoms (4)
high fever
nausea
headache
dizziness
sweating stages
sweating
drop in temperature
hemolysis occurs at ___ stage
cold
people feel better after crises because ___
new RBCs are made with better O2 binding
cerebral malaria is most commonly seen with ___. it is caused by ___ due to ___
P. falciparum
ischemia
emboli of infected and healthy RBCs blocking cerebral capillaries
cerebral malaria may be caused by ___. P. falciparum may use this to ___
P. falciparum erythrocyte membrane proteins (PfEMP)
evade destruction in spleen
tertian cycle means fever every ___. quartan cycle means fever every ___.
___ have tertian cycles, and __ has quartan.
48h
72h
P. falciparum
P. ovale
P. vivax
P. malariae
___ may cause infections up to 30 years without treatment.
P. malariae
plasmodium diagnosis is via
PCR
serology
mosquitos use ___ (2) to directly fight parasitic infection
these degrade ___ and ___
proteases
p25, p28
asexual plasmodium
gametocytes that haven't formed ookinetes
mosquitos use ___ to indirectly fight parasitic infection. ___ inhibits this and enhances plasmodium infection
gram negative bacteria
antibiotics
stages in mosquito gut (4)
gamete
zygote
ookinete
oocyst
___ is required for invasion of P. vivax
Duffy Ag
Antibodies against ___ (5) help fight malaria
sporozoites
infected RBC antigens
gametocytes
gametes
ookinetes
___ kills infected RBCs and ___ kills infected hepatocytes
cytokines
CD8 cells
___ (2) can inhibit invasion of liver
IFNg
cytokines
sickle cell trait helps by ___
lowering intracellular K+
chloroquine sensitivity is present in ___ (2)
middle east
mexico
___ is recommended prophylactic in sensitive areas. ___ (4) is recommended in resistant areas.
chloroquine
mefloquine
doxycycline
malarone
primaquine
___ can cause CNS symptoms
mefloquine
___ is not available in Israel because ___. It works on the ___ stage of ___ (2).
primaquine
G6PD function is required
hypnozoid
p. ovale
p. vivax
malarone is good but ___. it kills parasites in ___ and ___. it has (fewer/more) side effects than mefloquine. ___ (2) are resistant, though.
expensive
blood
liver
fewer
p. vivax
p. ovale
artemisin causes ___ by ___
denaturation of plasmodium proteins
free radical release
___ (2) are antifolate drugs which work on ___
pyrimethamine
proguanil
dihydrofolate reductase
chloroquine works by ___
___ is toxic to plasmodium, but not ___
inhibiting Hb aggregation to Hz
Hb
Hz
DH of Toxoplasma gondii is ___
cat
T/F T. gondii infection is asymptomatic in most immunocompetent people
true
T. gondii can cause ___ in immunosuppressed people and ___ (2) in congenitally infected babies
CNS disease
blindness
mental retardation
in cats, T. gondii replicates by ___ (2). In humans, it replicates by ___ in ___.
schizogony
gametogenesis
endodyogeny
macrophages
T. gondii cysts in cat
oocyst
pseudocyst
humans are infected by ___
ingesting oocyst or pseudocyst
bradyzoites are present in ___. when they lyse a cell they release ___ into ___.
pseudocysts
tachyzoites
blood
tachyzoites stain with
giemsa
T. gondii can cause ___ (2) to fetus. Greatest risk for transmission is during ___. ___% have severe damage and ___% abort.
abortion
malformation
1st trimester
30
9
T. gondii diagnosis
serology
PCR for immunosuppressed
T. gondii drugs
for mom
for fetus (3)
for immunosuppressed (2)
spiramycine
pyramethamine
sulfadiazine
folinic acid
pyramethamine
sulfadiazine
E. histolytica drugs (2)
metronidazole
iodoquinol