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125 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
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Stall speed in landing configuraton (Vso)?
55
Minimum controllable airspeed (Vmc)?
56
Stall speed with zero flaps (Vs)?
57
Rotation speed (Vr)?
75
Best angle of climb (Vx)?
82
Best angle of climb single-engine (Vxse)?
82
Safe-speed for intentional engine failure (Vsse)?
82
Best rate of climb (Vy)?
88
Best rate of climb single-engine (Vyse)?
88

Blue Line
Maximum flap extension speed (Vfe)?
111

Top of White Arc
Maximum gear retraction speed (Vlo Up)?
109
Maximum gear retraction speed (Vlo down)?
140
Maximum speed wit gear extended (Vle)?
140
Max Structural Cruising Speed (Vno)?
169

Top of Green Arc
Never exceed speed (Vne)?
202

Red Line
Manuvering speed at 3800 pounds (Va)?
135
Manuvering speed at 2700 pounds (Va)?
112
Maximum demonstrated crosswind?
17
How many cylinders?
4
Who is the manufacturer?
Lycoming
What is the horsepower rating?
180 h.p.
Does it have fuel injectors or a carburetor?
carburetor
Is the engine turbo-charged or normally aspirated?
Normally aspirated
Why is the right engine labeled LO-360?
Blade rotates to the left (counter-clokwise)
How are the cylinders arranged?
pistons oppose each other horizontally
How is ignition provided?
engine-driven magnetos
What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities in the 1979 model Seminole?
min: 4.5 quarts

max: 6 quarts
What are the min and max oil capacities in the 2000 model Seminole?
min: 6.5 quarts

max: 8 quarts
What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities in the 1979 model Seminole?
min: 4.5 quarts

max: 6 quarts
Who makes the propellers?
Hartzell
What does oil pressure do to the propeller?
drives a piston which moves prop blades to low pitch-high RPM
Which lever manipulates oil pressure to the propeller?
Blue propeller control handle
Which unit regulates oil pressure to the propeller?
propeller governor
What is the function of the nitrogen cylinder?
drives the blades to high pitch-low RPM when the oil pressure leaves the prop hub
What is the purpose of the spring in the prop dome?
driven by a nitrogen-charged cylinder it is atached to, the spring on the oposite side of the piston drives the blades to a High Pitch-Low RPM (feathered) position.
Define constand speed propeller?
The propeller governor automatically varies oil pressure inside the prop hub to change the PROP BLADE PITCH in order to maintain constant engine RPM.
What unit adjusts the propeller to maintain constant RPM?
Prop governor
Move prop lever FORWARD, what happens?
Oil pressure regulated by a propeller governor drives a piston, which moves the blades to a low-pitch-high RPM (unfeathered) position.
What hapens when the prop control lever is moved AFT?
oil pressure is reduced by the prop governor, allowing a nitrogen-charged cylinder with a large spring on the opposite side of the piston to drive the blades to a high pitch-low RPM (feathered) position.
Define full feathering?
When the propeller blades are in alignment with the relative wind.
Will the prop always feather?
Not if engine RPM is below 950
What are centrifugal stop pins?
prevents feathering below 950 RPM
What is the true purpose of centrifugal stop pins?
allows prop blades to remain in low pitch upon engine shutdown, which prevents excessive loads on engine starter during next start
What is a propeller overspeed?
Caused by malfunction in prop governor which allows the propeller blades to rotate to full low pitch.
What is the correct action for a propeller overspeed?
1. retard throttle;
2. prop control aft to full "DECREASE
RPM" and then set if any control is
available;
3. reduce airspeed and throttle to
2700 RPM
Describe the electrical system?
14-volt system w/ push-pull type circuit breakers
Describe the alternators?
two 70-amp, engine driven alternators
Describe the battery?
12-volt, 35-amp hour battery
How do the alternators maintain an equal load?
through the use of a voltage regulator
Wha are the indications of a failed alternator?
annunicator light AND zero indication on the ammeter
Will the engines continue to run with the alernator and battery master switches turned off?
yes; engine driven magnetos are independent of the electrical system
Describe the vacuum system?
two engine driven vacuum pumps
Which instruments are vacuum operated?
Attitude gyro and the HSI (on a/c without slaving mechanisms installed)
What are normal vacuum operating limits?
4.8-5.2 @ 2000 RPM
What indications would occur in the event of a vacuum pump failure?
1. annunicator panel light;
2. red pump inoperative indicator on
vacuum gauge
Describe the stall warning system?
2 electric stall detectors located on left wing.
What does the inboard stall warning device detect?
Detects stalls when flaps 25 or 40 are in use
What does the outboard stall warning device detect?
Detects stals when flaps 0 or 10 are in use.
What is the fuel capacity?
Two 55-gallon nacelle tanks (1 gal unusable each)
Describe the fuel pumps?
two engine-driven and two electrical fuel pumps
What type of fuel does the Seminole use?
100 low lead avgas (BLUE)
Explain how to cross-feed fuel.
(select L/R based on side to be x-fed)

1. __ boost pump on;
2. __ fuel selector to x-fed;
3. check __ fuel pressure;
4. __ boost pump off;
5. check __ fuel pressure
Describe the landing gear system.
hydraulically actuated, fully retractable, tricycle-type landing gear
How is the landing gear actuated? Describe the pump.
Hydraulic pressure for gear operation is provided by an ELECTRICALLY powered, reversible hydraulic pump
What keeps the gear in the "UP" position?
hydraullic pressure
What keeps the gear in the "DOWN" position?
Springs and downlock hooks
If hydraulic pressure is suddenly lost in flight, what indication, if any, would you have?
the gear will free-fall down
In what three situations will the landing gear horn activate?
1. gear NOT locked down with throttle
below 15" MP on one or both engines;

2. the gear is not locked down with
wing flaps selected to 25 or 40;

3. the gear handle is in the UP
position on the ground
What unit will not allow the gear to be retracted on the ground?
squat switch located on left main landing gear
What is the procedure to extend the gear manually?
1. A.S. to 100 or less;

2. Gear selector "DOWN" position;

3. PULL red emergency gear extension
knob;

4. Verify positive gear down w/ 3
green lights

2.
Are the brake and landing gear hydraulics connected?
No; the systems are independent of each other
What indicates the gear is in transit and the hydraulic pump is activated?
Red light in gear handle (?)
What type of braking system is used by he Seminole?
hydraulically-actuated disc brakes on the main landing gear wheels
Where is the brake fluid reservoir serviced?
Nose cone
What type of flaps does the Seminole have?
manual flap system
What are the flap settings on the Seminole?
0, 10, 25 and 40
What is the max takeoff/landing weight?
3800 pounds
What is the max taxi weight?
3,816 lbs
What is the max baggage capacity?
200 lbs
Define Vsse?
safe speed for intentional engine failure [82]
What are the drag factors on light twins?
Gear
Flaps
Cowl Flaps
Flight Control Deflection
Prop
Sideslip

(GFC*FPS)
Who determnines Vmc for a particular aircraft?
FAA under FAR Part 23
Define Vmc.
Vmc is the minimum airspeed at which DIRECTIONAL CONTROL can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative.

(RED RADIAL LINE)
Wh is an aft CG used in determining Vmc?
As the CG moves aft, the moment arm betwen the ruder and the CG is shortened, reducing the leverage of the rudder. This reduced leverage reduces the rudder's effectiveness and results in a higher Vmc speed.
What are the factors in determining Vmc?
1. std day conditions at sea level (max power);
2. Max power on operating engine (max yaw)
3. aft legal CG (least rudder effectiveness)
4. critical engine prop windmilling (max drag)
5. flaps t.o., gear up (least stablity)
6. Up to 5 of bank into operating engine
7. max takeoff weight

(SMAC*FUM)
(SMAC*FUM)
Define critical engine?
The critical engine is the engine that, when it fails, most adversely affects the performance and handling qualities of the airplane.
List the factors used to determine critical engine?
P P-Factor
A Accelerated slipstream
S Spiraling slipstream
T Torque
PAST
What causes an aircraft to sideslip with the loss of an engine?
An engine failure causes the thrust from the operating engine to yaw the aircraft towards the dead engine (adverse yaw). To maintain a/c hdg w/ wings level, rudder must be applied toward the operating engine. This rudder force results in the sideslip condition by moving the nose of the a/c in a direction resulting in the misalignment of the fuselage and the relative wind. It produces a high drag condition that significantly reduces a/c performance.
How do you correct sideslip condition?
Bank a/c 2-5 degrees into operating engine and splitting the ball between neutral and he operating engine.
How do you correct sideslip condition?
Bank a/c 2-5 degrees into operating engine and splitting the ball between neutral and he operating engine.
Why does zero sideslip condition give best performance with an engine out?
The zero sideslip condition aligns the fuselage with the relative wind to minimize drag and must be flown for optimum a/c performance.
How does Zero Sideslip Condition work?
1. Bank 2-5 degrees into good engine
creates a HCL;
2. This HCL aids in counteracting the
turning moment of the operating
engine;
3. which minimizes the rudder
deflection required to align the
longitudinal axis of the a/c to
the relative wind.
How much climb performance is lost when an engine fails?
80% of the a/c's excess power and climb performance is lost. (Climb power is that power in excess required for level flight; when an engine is lost, that power which was excess is now used to defeat increased drag from the dead engine. Thus, there is less excess power now to use for climb performance.
VOR checks and limits?
Every 30 days; 4 degrees for VOT, ground checkpoint and dual check.

6 degrees for an airborne check
Transponder must be checked?
24 months
Pitot static systems must be checked?
24 months
ELT's must be checked?
-12 months; or

-after alf of the batery life; or

-after 1 hour of cumulative use
Define single-engine absolute ceiling?
the maximum density altitude tha an aircraft can atain or maintain with the critical engine inoperative. Vyse and Vxse are equal at this altitude. The a/c drifts down to this altitude when an engine fails.
Define single-engine service ceiling?
the max density altitude at which the single engine best rate of climb airspeed (Vyse) will produce a 50 FPM rate of climb with the critical engine inoperative.
What documents are required to be on the aircraft?
aircraft ?
radio station license
aircraft registration
operating handbook
weight and balance data
ARROW
Explain lost comm for VFR conditions or if VFR conditions are encountered?
squawk 7600, remain VFR and land as soon as practicable
Explain lost comm for IFR conditions?
squawk 7600 and fly:
Route (first that applies)
Assigned, vectored, expected,
or filed

Altitude (whichever is highest)
Min IFR alt, expected, assigned
Will the propeller feather below 950 RPM?
No; b/c of centrifugal stop pin which prevents feathering below 950 RPM (props stay in low pitch upon engine shutdown to prevent excessive loads on the engine starter during the next engine start.
Does the Seminole have an alternate static source? If so, how activated?
Yes-located inside the cabin under the left side of the instrument panel for use in the event of static port blockage.

When using, the storm window and cabin vents must be closed, and the heater and defroster must be turned ON.
When using the alternate staic source, why must the storm window and cabin vents be closed, and the heater and defroster must turned ON?
This will reduce he pressure differential between the cockpit and the atmosphere, reducing pitot static error.
Which instruments are pitot-static?
Airspeed indicator

Altimeter

VSI (vertical velocity indicator)
Where is the pitot-static port located?
The heated pitot tube and static port are located under the lef wing.
How do you prevent a heater overheat on the ground and in flight?
ground: 3 position switch to FAN for 2 minutes w/ the air intake lever in the ope position b/f turning the switch off;

in flight: leave air intake open for a min of 15 seconds after turnin switch to off
Where are the fuel tanks located?
in the engine nacelles
What is the fuel capacity? How many gallons are unusable?
110 gallons total (55 a side), w/ 2 gallons unusable (one gallon each nacelle tank)
What grade fuel is to be used in the PA-44 Seminole?
100 low lead avgas (BLUE)
How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft?
FOUR; 2 engine driven and 2 electrical
When are the electric fuel pumps to be used?
-engine start
-takeoff
-landing
-fuel selector changes
-all in-flight manuvers except for
steep turns*(ATP op specs)
Where are the fuel selectors located?
????
What are the various positions of the fuel selector control?
-"ON"

-"OFF"

-"X-FEED"
Explain the procedure for cross-feeding fuel when operating the right engine from the left tank?
1. R engine electric boost pump "ON";

2. R fuel selector to "X-FEED";

3. check R fuel pressure;

4. R engine electric boost pump "OFF";

5. check fuel pressure
If an engine failure occurred at 5000' MSL, or a high density altitude, what would you do to get max performance from the operating engine after performing the In-Flight Engine Failure Checklist?
Lean the mixture on good engine for max power
If the ceiling head temp and oil temp approach the caution range, what can be done to assist in cooling?
-open cowl flap

-enrichen mixture
Why does manifold pressure decrease approximately 1" every 1000' during climb?
Because an increase in altitude results in a decrease in air density; Decrease in air density means there are less air molecules for the blades to "bite" into; this means reduced engine performance and prop efficiency.
When an engine is inoperative or feathered, what indication will be observed on the manifold pressure gauge?
????
Why is the manifold pressure gauge not necessarily a good indicator in determining an inoperative engine?
??????
When is an alternate NOT required?
If the wx at your destination is forecast 1 hour before to one hour after your ETA to be a least 2000 ft ceiling and visibility of at least 3 miles. (1,2,3 Rule)
If an alternate is required, what must the forecast wx be at the alternate?
Non-precision approach: at ETA must be at least 600' ceiling and 2 mile visibility;

Precision: 800' ceiling and 2 miles viz
What approach can an alternate never be used for?
airport w/ only a GPS approach
In order to descend below DH or MDA, which conditions must exist?
A. required flight viz is
met;

B. a/c normal position to
land;

C. (1)RWY enviro in sight-
descend to land;
(2)Approach lights in sight- descend to 100' above
touchdown zone until RWY
enviro in sight.
(3)Descend and land if red
terminating bars or red
side row bars are in sight