Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
61 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
State five ways in which a company may benefit from setting up their own captive insurance company. |
Any five of the following: |
|
State who is responsible for regulatory status disclosure to the client/customer, in an insurance transaction involving both a producing broker and a wholesale broker. |
Each broker is responsible for making its own regulatory status disclosure to its customers. |
|
Generally there is no contract between sub-brokers and the insured. However, state two occasions in law where a sub-broker may find themselves liable to an insured. |
• Under the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999. |
|
The terms of business agreement (TOBA) includes insurance broker information and |
Any five of the following: |
|
Explain briefly how the FSA defines ‘demands and needs’. |
The Financial Services Authority describes establishing a customer’s demands and needs as the |
|
Outline what a broker must take into account when checking the suitability of a policy for a customer’s demands and needs. |
The broker must take into account: |
|
Describe briefly in what circumstances a broker can make a recommendation that does not meet all of the customers’ demands and needs, and what the broker must remember to do in this situation. |
A broker can make a recommendation that does not meet all the customer’s demands and needs, |
|
State four advantages to an insurance broker in operating a delegated authority facility or scheme. |
• May be able to negotiate enhanced rates of commission. |
|
State two advantages to an insurer in offering a delegated authority to a broker. |
• Access to profitable revenue stream without the expense of committing its own staff and resources. |
|
Explain briefly why a binding authority must be strictly controlled by a delegated authority agreement between insurer and broker. |
The delegated authority agreement needs to set out clearly what authority is given to the broker in relation to what the broker is able to bind on behalf of the insurer. |
|
List four areas a delegated authority agreement would cover. |
Any four of the following: |
|
Breadth of cover, flexibility and innovation are three factors that would be taken into account when selecting an insurer. Identify six other factors. |
Any six of the following: |
|
The risk manager of Company ABC, a UK headquartered plant manufacturing company with sites in Spain and the USA, has given you the opportunity to review the group insurance arrangements. Currently each location has independent responsibility for organising their own
State five advantages of a global approach. |
Any five of the following: |
|
State five disadvantages of a global approach. |
Any five of the following: |
|
Outline what is meant by admitted and non-admitted policies and explain how |
An admitted policy is one under which an insurer can pay claims and/or defend an insured in a |
|
State six ways that an insurance broker can demonstrate best practice when |
• To convey the terms accurately and concisely to the client. |
|
Explain the purpose of a suitability statement and what it needs to record. |
The purpose of the suitability statement is to ensure that customers have the necessary information to make an informed choice about whether or not to buy a specific insurance contract and whether a contract continues to meet their demands and needs. |
|
Following a loss where a locally issued policy has not responded, explain using |
The effect of the difference in conditions (DIC) and difference in limits (DIL) clauses (the two are usually combined), is to top up the cover available under a local policy to the same global tandard that the master policy provides. |
|
State the FSA’s definition of an insurance intermediary. |
Any natural or legal person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation, or a |
|
State the five main implications of the introduction of statutory regulation for |
• It is a criminal offence to carry on regulated activities without authorisation, unless an exemption applies. |
|
Mrs Spencer has bought a new car for the family nanny to use whilst she is living with |
(a) • Their nanny’s conviction is a material fact. |
|
(b) Explain briefly two ways a broker can ensure a customer is aware of what should |
(b) Brokers could: |
|
(c) The Marine Insurance Act 1906 clarifies the duties of brokers regarding the provision of ‘material facts’. Under Section 19 of the Act, describe briefly what the broker must disclose. |
(c) Brokers must disclose: |
|
(d) The Court of Appeal in CTI v Oceanus (1984) brought in the concept of ‘a prudent underwriter’. In relation to materiality, explain briefly how the judge interpreted the Marine Insurance Act 1906 in this case. (2) |
(d) The judge in this case interpreted the act as saying that something was material if the prudent insurer would have wanted to take it into account in deciding whether to accept the risk and if so on what terms |
|
State four circumstances when an insurance broker can act as an agent for both |
Any four of the following: |
|
Outline five main requirements of the law of agency between an insurance |
Any five of the following: |
|
You are the claims manager of the yacht division of a large insurance broker. You take |
(a) • If the service agreement clearly specifies that you agreed to deal with all claims arising in the period where you arranged cover. |
|
(b) State six general activities that you may be expected to perform when dealing |
(b) Any six of the following: |
|
State the four categories of client a broker may deal with, as specified by the |
• Policyholder. Includes anyone who is entitled to make a claim under the policy direct to the insurer. |
|
2. (a) State what ICOBS stands for, and when it came into force. |
a) • ICOBS stands for Insurance: New Conduct of Business sourcebook. |
|
(b) Explain the purpose of ICOBS and to whom it applies. |
(b) • The Financial Services Authority (FSA) uses ICOBS to reinforce its principles |
|
c) List the eight headings of ICOBS. |
(c) • ICOBS 1 Application. |
|
3. (a) State the Financial Services Authority’s definition of an insurance intermediary. |
(a) Any natural or legal person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance |
|
(b) When the UK Government made general insurance subject to statutory regulation, two EU directives were implemented into English law. State the two EU directives. |
(b) • EU Insurance Mediation Directive (2002). |
|
(c) State the five main implications of the introduction of statutory regulation for |
(c) • It is a criminal offence to carry on regulated activities without authorisation, unless |
|
4. Mr Clark has bought his son a new car before he goes to university. Mr Clark contacts his broker to arrange cover. Although his son has a speeding conviction, Mr Clark forgets to mention it. |
(a) • His son’s conviction is a material fact. |
|
(b) Explain briefly two ways in which a broker can ensure a customer knows what should be disclosed when arranging cover. |
(b) Brokers could: |
|
5. (a) (i) State the function of the proposal form, and why it must be signed by the client. |
(a) (i) The function of the proposal form is to present standardised information that will |
|
(ii) List three types of risk where a proposal form would normally be required. |
(ii) Any three of the following: |
|
(b) Following receipt of Mrs Platt’s home proposal form, insurers have issued terms to you, her broker. They also point out to you that terms are offered ‘subject to the fitting of new window locks’. In order to fully comply with |
(b) To comply with contract certainty, it is essential that any subjectivity is made clear to |
|
6. Explain briefly the purpose of the suitability statement and list what it should record. |
The purpose of the suitability statement is to ensure that customers have the necessary |
|
7. As the chief operating officer of a UK-based insurer, you and your board of directors |
(a) The Financial Services Authority requires that insurance companies hold a valid and up to date license for each class of business they write in the UK. To write a new class the insurer would need to apply for a new licence. |
|
(b) Explain, with reasons, whether it would be more complicated to have a new operation outside the EU than it would be to open a new branch within the EU. |
(b) Insurance companies wanting to operate outside their own country of domicile/ |
|
8. (a) Describe the three principal ways in which the majority of business is transacted at Lloyd’s. |
(a) • Traditional ‘face-to-face’ broking with accredited Lloyd’s brokers. |
|
(b) Lloyd’s is known as a ‘subscription’ market. Describe its operation. |
(b) A subscription market is one where the risk is shared amongst a number of participating |
|
Using an example, explain the effect that a Difference in Conditions (DIC) or a Difference in Limits (DIL) clause might have on the cover available, following a loss where a locally issued policy has not responded. In your answer, refer to the effect such a clause might have where there is no underlying policy. |
The effect of the Difference in Conditions (DIC) and Difference in Limits (DIL) clauses (the |
|
10. (a) State six factors against which claims statistics should be reviewed, in order that they are analysed in their correct context. |
(a) • Premium. |
|
(b) State the aim of the Electronic Claims File (ECF) initiative |
The aim of the Electronic Claims File (ECF) initiative is to do away with paper records and the need to copy the same paper records to co-insurers and insurers on other layers. |
|
11. IQV, a large commercial client of your broking firm, has invested in a programme of |
(a) Passive risk retention applies to situations where the organisation is unaware that a risk |
|
(b) State what IQV will need to calculate in order to decide how much loss it can afford within its own operations. |
They will need to calculate: |
|
(c) List three other considerations IQV will need to take into account when deciding how much risk to retain |
(c) The business will also need to consider: |
|
(d) State the two techniques that the risk manager may employ when projecting the |
(d) Two other techniques: |
|
12. (a) Property surveys are one of the specialist risk consultancy services that may be offered by a broker. List five others. |
(a) Any five of the following: |
|
(b) Describe the two main functions of property surveys and give an example of each |
(b) The two main functions are: |
|
13. (a) The Financial Services Authority (FSA) provides guidance on record keeping in three key areas when dealing with requests from the FSA and enquiries from customers. State three areas where it is advised to record and retain |
(a) Any three of the following: |
|
(b) State, giving reasons, what should be included on all generic standard documents. |
(b) They should include a date and reference number for identification, as it must be |
|
14. (a) Describe the broking chain from the insured to insurer where a sub-broker is involved in the placement. Include a diagram in your answer. |
a) The original retail broker usually remains liable to the insured for any defaults of the |
|
(b) Describe the case of Fisk v Brian Thornhill and Son (2007) and explain why the placing broker was found to be in breach of his duty to the insured. |
(b) The Court of Appeal confirmed that the placing broker (Thornhill) was in breach of his |
|
(a) Explain briefly the term ‘delegated authority |
(a) When a broker, other intermediary or specialist agency has negotiated an exclusive |
|
(b) Outline the role and function of a managing general agent (MGA). |
(b) With their origins in the USA, a firm that manages a delegated facility, whether broker |
|
GR |
YT |