Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
430 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
|
What teeth do you need to have in a Central-Lateral radiograph?
|
Central and lateral incisor of the quadrant you want, mesial of canine of same quadrant, and contact between central incisors
|
|
|
|
Where is the film centered and x-ray central ray directed on a central-lateral PA film?
|
Centered on the contact between the central and lateral incisor; ray directed through the same contact
|
|
|
|
How much alveolar bone should be visible in a normal radiograph?
|
Approx. 4-6 mm
|
|
|
|
In a canine film, which contacts should be open?
|
The mesial contact of the canine
|
|
|
|
What is the alignment of the film and the central ray for a canine film?
|
Film centered on the midline of the canine; central ray directed through the mesial contact of the canine
|
|
|
|
Which contacts should be open in a premolar film?
|
Contact between premolars, contact between premolar and 1st molar, and distal of canine
|
|
|
|
What is the alignment of the film and central ray for a premolar film?
|
Film centered on the premolars and must include distal contact of canine; central ray directed through either the contact between the premolars or the contact between the premolar and 1st molar
|
|
|
|
T/F: Buccal and lingual cusps of posterior teeth should NOT be superimposed
|
False; the cusps SHOULD be superimposed
|
|
|
|
In a maxillary molar film, what anatomical feature of the maxilla should be present?
|
The maxillary tuberosity
|
|
|
|
What is the alignment of the film and central ray for a maxillary molar film
|
Film is centered on 2nd molar and central ray is directed through the contact between the 1st and 2nd molar
|
|
|
|
If the vertical angulation is smaller than what you need, what error will result on the film?
|
Elongation
|
|
|
|
On a mandibular molar film, what anatomic feature of the mandible should be present on the film?
|
The ascending ramus of the mandible
|
|
|
|
In intraoral radiography, why must the object-film distance be increased? What "defects" does this increased distance result in?
|
To keep the film parallel; Results in magnification and loss of definition
|
|
|
|
How do you compensate for the increased magnification in intraoral radiography?
|
Increase the source-film distance to make sure most parallel rays will be aimed at the tooth and the film
|
|
|
|
Where do you center the film on a premolar bitewing?
|
Approximately on the 2nd permolar;
|
|
|
|
What two contacts MUST you have in a premolar bitewing? (Excluding the obvious premolar-premolar contact)
|
The distal of canine of BOTH arches must be visible
|
|
|
|
What is the molar bitewing centered on?
|
The 2nd molar if 3rd molar is erupted; otherwise, it's centered on the contact between the 1st and 2nd molar
|
|
|
|
What are some common uses of an occlusal radiograph
|
Fractures, impacted teeth, foreign bodies, jaw lesions, salivary stones
|
|
|
|
At what angle should the central ray be directed for a maxillary occlusal film?
|
60-65 degrees upward from the occlusal plane
|
|
|
|
How should the central ray be directed for a mandibular occlusal radiograph?
|
Direct the central ray at the midline through the floor of the mouth approximately 3 cm below the chin; basically at a right angle to the center of the film
|
|
|
|
If the patient has a palatal tori, where should you place the film?
|
Place the film on the opposite side of the torus (away from the tooth being radiographed)--Do not rest film on the torus
|
|
|
|
If the patient has a mandibular tori, where should you place the film?
|
Between the tori and the tongue-DO NOT rest the film on the torus
|
|
|
|
What is the preferred radiographic method for an edentulous patient?
|
Panoramic radiograph
|
|
|
|
If taking a full mouth of an edentulous patient, how many films will you have in total?
|
14 films (no bite wings and only one midline shot on each arch)
|
|
|
|
What are 4 ways to reduce pain and hypersensitivity from radiographs?
|
Tissue protectors, topical anesthetics (gel or sprays), film bending, tranquilizers
|
|
|
|
What are 4 ways to redue the psychic stimuli for a gagging patient?
|
Anterior films taken first, divert patient attention, minimize film motion and contact with tissue, and premedication
|
|
|
|
What is a non-pathological radiolucent area around the neck of the tooth due to difference in tooth density that is sometimes confused with caries?
|
Cervical burnout
|
|
|
|
What is the radiopaque line surrounding the root of the tooth? What about the radiolucent area between this line and the tooth?
|
Radiopaque=lamina dura; radiolucent=PDL space
|
|
|
|
What is the normal level of alveolar crestal bone?
|
1.5-2.0 mm below the CEJ
|
|
|
|
In the mandible, which portion, anterior or posterior, has larger bond marrow spaces?
|
Posterior potion of the mandible has larger bone marrow spaces
|
|
|
|
In the maxilla, which portion, anterior or posterior, has larger trabeculae?
|
Posterior has larger trabeculae
|
|
|
|
How will the floor of the maxillary sinus appear on a radiograph?
|
Wavy radiopaque line
|
|
|
|
What two muscles attach to the genial tubercles?
|
Genioglossus and geniohyoid
|
|
|
|
What muscle attaches to the internal oblique ridge?
|
Mylohyoid muscle
|
|
|
|
What is contained within the mandibular canal (aka inferior alveolar canal)?
|
Inferior alveolar artery, vein, and nerve
|
|
|
|
What serves as the attachment for the temporalis muscle?
|
Coronoid process
|
|
|
|
How well a boundary between two areas of differing radiodensity is revealed is known as __________
|
Sharpness
|
|
|
|
How well an image reveals small objects that are close to each other is known as __________
|
Resolution
|
|
|
|
Radiographic density is defined as what?
|
The degree of "blackness on the image"
|
|
|
|
The greater the amount of x-rays reaching the image receptor, the (Greater/Lesser) the degree of darkness. (Choose one)
|
Greater the degree of darkness
|
|
|
|
What is the useful range of image receptor density? (this is a terrible question, I know, but I can't think of a better way to ask)
|
0.3 (very light) to 3.0 (very dark)
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 primary factors controlling radiographic density?
|
mA (most important), kVp, and source-image receptor distance
|
|
|
|
What are the 4 secondary factors controlling radiographic density?
|
Development conditions, image receptor type, intensifying screens, and object density
|
|
|
|
T/F: Blackness varies directly and proportionately with tube current and exposure time.
|
True; higher the mAs, greater the density
|
|
|
|
T/F: Greater the kVP, the lower the density
|
False; Greater the kVp, more speed and more penetrating the x-rays giving you a greater density
|
|
|
|
T/F: The greater the source-image receptor distance, the greater the density.
|
False; Beam intensity varies inversely with the square of the source-film distance (inverse square law) therefore, at a greater distance, you have less intensity giving you less density.
|
|
|
|
Underdevelopment will lead to (Greater/Less) density. Overdevelopment will lead to (Greater/Less) density (Choose one for each)
|
Less density; Greater density
|
|
|
|
High speed image receptors and digital sensors require (less/more) mAs to produce a density change. (Choose one)
|
Less
|
|
|
|
Which type of conventional intensifying screens require less mAs to achieve a density change?
|
Higher-speed screens (rare-earth)
|
|
|
|
Fog results in an (increased/decreased) image receptor density and (increased/decreased) contrast on the image
|
Increased; Decreased
|
|
|
|
What is defined as the differences in the densities on the image?
|
Contrast
|
|
|
|
What is the primary factor that affects contrast?
|
kVp
|
|
|
|
Long scale or low contrast is a result of (higher/lower) kVp (Choose one)
|
Higher kVp (80-90kVp)-more penetrating x-rays, therefore the density differences are small giving a lower contrast
|
|
|
|
Short scale or high contrast is a result of (higher/lower) kVp. (Choose one)
|
Lower kVp (60-65 kVP)-Less penetrating x-rays giving a larger density difference
|
|
|
|
Periapical radiographs should show relatively (low/high) contrast in order to detect _________. (Choose one and fill in the blank)
|
Low; to detect osseous changes
|
|
|
|
Bitewing radiographs should have relatively (low/high) contrast in order to detect _________. (Choose one and fill in the blank)
|
High; to detect dental caries
|
|
|
|
If kVp is increased, what two things can you alter to maintain the same radiographic density?
|
Can decrease the mAs or exposure time
|
|
|
|
Will a change in density by changing the mAs only produce an obvious change in contrast?
|
No, a change in density via changing mAs only will not produce an obvious change in contrast.
|
|
|
|
What three types of unsharpness can lead to image unsharpness?
|
Geometric unsharpness, motion unsharpness, and screen unsharpness
|
|
|
|
What is the definition of geometric unsharpness?
|
Diffusion of detail
|
|
|
|
What is the term for unsharp margins surrounding the image?
|
Prenumbra
|
|
|
|
If the object is further from the image receptor, it will generally be (magnified/smaller than normal) (Choose one)
|
Magnified
|
|
|
|
What are three reasons image unsharpness, distortion, and magnification occur?
|
1) X-rays originate from an area rather than a point.
2)X-rays travel in diverging straight lines as they radiate from the source 3) Human structures have depth, width, and length |
|
|
|
To minimize image distortion, how should the image receptor be aligned with the object? How about the image receptor and the central ray?
|
Image receptor should be parallel to long axis of tooth; central ray should be perpendicular to the image receptor
|
|
|
|
How can you minimize the loss of image clarity?
|
Make the effective focal spot as small as practical
|
|
|
|
What three things will a smaller focal spot result in?
|
1) Decrease prenumbra
2) Increased image definition 3) Decreased geometric unsharpness |
|
|
|
What are three ways to decrease image blurring and magnification?
|
1) Longer focal spot-object distance
2) Reducing the divergence of the x-ray beam 3) Shorter object-image receptor distance |
|
|
|
(Longer/Shorter) BIDs are recommended because of greater anatomical accuracy. (Choose one)
|
Longer
|
|
|
|
Adequate coverage of the region of interest depends on 3 things. What are they?
|
1) Proper alignment of image receptor and radiation beam to the area of interest
2) Proper selection of image receptor type 3) Proper selection of image receptor-projection technique |
|
|
|
The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences the image:
a) density b) contrast c) definition d) distortion (Choose best answer) |
c) Definition
|
|
|
|
Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiographer object?
a) Focal spot-image receptor distance b) Alignment of image receptor, object, and BID c) Object-image receptor distance d) Cathode size |
d) Cathode size
|
|
|
|
Why is extending the source-image receptor distance by using a longer BID a necessary adjunct to intraoral parallelling techinque?
a) To avoid unsharpness of the image b) To reduce scatter radiation c) To avoid shape distortion of the image d) To avoid anatomical superimpositions (Choose best answer) |
a) to avoid unsharpness of the image
|
|
|
|
How do you change from a long scale contrast to a short scale contrast image receptor and still maintain the density?
a) Decrease kVp & increase mAs b) Increase kVp & decrease mAs c) Decrease kVp & decrease mAs d) Increase kVp & increase mAs (Choose best answer) |
a) Decrease kVp & increase mAs
|
|
|
|
Which of the following structures appear radiopaque on the radiograph?
a) Nasal fossa b) Mylohyoid ridge c) Maxillary sinus d) External oblique ridge e) Coronoid process (Choose all that apply) |
b) Mylohyoid ridge, d) external oblique ridge, and e) coronoid process
|
|
|
|
What is the hamular process?
a) A hooked bony projection of palatine bone b) A bony projection of the medial pterygoid plate c) A bony projection of the lateral pterygoid plate d) A hooked bony projection of maxillary tuberosity e) A bony projection of the coronoid process of the mandible (Choose the best answer) |
b) A bony projection of the medial pterygoid plate
|
|
|
|
Which of the following can mimic a periapical radiolucent lesion on a dental radiograph?
a) Apical foramen of tooth not closed in an immature tooth b) Mental foramen c) Nasopalatine foramen d) Greater palatine foramen (Choose all that apply) |
All four can mimic a periapical adiolucent lesion
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is usually a sign of active eruption of a tooth?
a) The lamina dura forms a continuous line around the tooth root b) The lamina dura is perforated by many small openings c) There is widening of the periodontal ligament space d) There is a thickening of the lamina dura at the root apex region (Choose the best answer) |
d) There is a thickening of the lamina dura at the root apex region
|
|
|
|
Which of the following affects the form of the alveolar crest?
a) Tooth inclination b) State of eruption c) The shape of the interproximal tooth surface d) All of the above |
d) all of the above
|
|
|
|
Under what circumstances would you need to perform some method of object localization in a radiograph?
|
Indications for localization, pathology, impacted teeth, supernumerary teeth, fractures, and foreign bodies
|
|
|
|
What is the SLOB rule?
|
Same lingual, opposite buccal. Meaning if the object moves to the same side as the tube shift on the second film, then the object is on the lingual side of the arch and vice versa.
|
|
|
|
What is required to apply the SLOB rule?
|
Two films made with slightly different angles or positions
OR Image of the object from two different angulations |
|
|
|
When trying to apply the SLOB rule, what does it mean when there is no shift in the object after the tube head is shifted?
|
The object lies in the center of the area being radiographed
|
|
|
|
(Horizontal beam angulation/Vertical beam movement) is changed when locating vertically aligned objects. (Horizontal beam angulation/Vertical beam movement) is changed when locating horizontally aligned objects. (Choose one in each sentence)
|
Horizontal beam angulation; Vertical beam angulation
|
|
|
|
What is the right angle technique used to determine?
|
Method for determining the facial/lingual position of teeth or foreign objects
|
|
|
|
Which type of films are used in the right angle technique and what does each film show?
|
First radiograph is a PA or BW that shows inferior/superior and anterior/posterior position. Second radiograph is a cross-sectional occlusal projection revealing facial/lingual and anterior/posterior position.
|
|
|
|
What type of errors are considered technique errors?
|
Faulty film placement; apical ends cut off; wrong horizontal/vertical angulation; double exposure; reversed film; BID cut; patient movement; failure to remove eye glasses, etc.
|
|
|
|
What types of errors constitute exposure errors?
|
Film too dark or too light; non-diagnostic due to inadquate contrast
|
|
|
|
What types of things can cause darkness or fog?
|
Light leaks in the darkroom; safelight overexposure; over-exposure; expired film; over-development; dirty rollers
|
|
|
|
What are the three lights used for alignment on a panoramic radiograph?
|
1) Mid-sagittal plane light
2) canine light (should be on mesial of maxillary canine) 3) Horizontal plane light (Franfort plane-lower border of orbit to superior point of tragus) |
|
|
|
What is the central point/plane called in a pano?
|
Image layer or Focal Trough
|
|
|
|
What are some advantages of panoramic imaging?
|
1) Convenience
2) Broad anatomical covering 3) Low patient dose 4) Short imaging time 5) Readily available in most offices 6) Useful for initial screening 7) Insight provided for other projections 8) Minimal infection control needed 9) Well accepted by patients |
|
|
|
What disadvatages are there for panoramic imaging?
|
1) Lack of fine anatomic detail
2) Overlapping of the structures 3) Magnification and distortion of structure 4) Initial expense is more 5) Patient positioning is important 6) Artifacts or ghost images 7) Incorrect interpretation |
|
|
|
If patient positioning is not correct in a pano machine, what 7 errors could potentially occur?
|
1) geometric distortion
2)Magnification 3) Elongation 4) Ghost image formation 5) Superimposition of structures 6) Overlap 7) Left-right size variations |
|
|
|
What is the degree of angulation of the vertical beam used in panoramic radiography?
|
-7 to -10 degrees
|
|
|
|
Why is a moving image receptor used in panoramic radiography?
|
To equalize the horizontal and vertical magnification
|
|
|
|
The focal trough/image layer is known as the zone of _______.
|
Sharpness (structures within the focal trough are well defined while those outside of the focal trough appear fuzzy)
|
|
|
|
The longer the radius (the distance between the rotation center and center of image layer), the (wider/narrower) the image layer. (Choose one)
|
Wider the image layer
|
|
|
|
The narrower the beam, the (wider/narrower) the image layer. (Choose one)
|
Wider the image layer
|
|
|
|
In a pano, when the patient is located lingually (too far back) to the bite notch, what kind of elongation occurs?
|
Horizontal elongation
|
|
|
|
In a pano, when the patient is buccal (too far forward) to the bite notch, what kind of elongation occurs?
|
Vertical elongation
|
|
|
|
What degree of magnification is present in all panoramic images?
|
25-30%
|
|
|
|
In pano, real images are formed when the object is located where in relation to the rotation center and image receptor?
|
Real images form when the object is located between the rotation center and the image receptor.
|
|
|
|
What are two characteristics of real double images on a pano radiograph?
|
1) One image is mirror image of the other
2) Each image will have the same proporitions and same location on the opposite side |
|
|
|
Which 6 anatomic structures for real double images on a pano?
|
1) Hard palate
2) Soft palate 3) Palatal tori 4) Body of hyoid bone 5) Epiglottis 6) Cervical spine |
|
|
|
In pano, ghost images are formed when the object has what relation to the center of rotation and the x-ray source?
|
Ghost images form when the object is located between the x-ray source and center of rotation.
|
|
|
|
What are 4 characteristics of ghost images on pano films?
|
1) Same general shape as its counterpart (No mirror image formation)
2) Formed on the opposite side 3) Appears to be higher on the image receptor than the real counterpart 4) Blurred and magnified |
|
|
|
What 5 structures form ghost images on the pano radiographs?
|
1) Cervical spine
2) Horns of hyoid bone 3) Ramus of mandible 4) Hard palate 5) Neck chains, ear rings, etc |
|
|
|
Which air spaces appear on a panoramic radiograph?
|
1) Nasopharyngeal
2) Oropharyngeal 3) Palatoglossal 4) Hypopharynx 5) Maxillary sinus 6) Nasal fossa |
|
|
|
In a pano radiograph, which air space, if present, is an error and should not be seen?
|
Palatoglossal air space
|
|
|
|
Fill in the blanks:
1) Air obscures ________ 2) Soft tissues obscure ________ 3) Hard tissues obscure _________ 4) Ghost images obscure _________ |
1) Air obscures hard tissues
2) Soft tissues obscure air 3) Hard tissues obscure soft tissues 4) Ghost images obscure everything |
|
|
|
Generally, if the patient is too far forward in the pano machine, what two structures will be superimposed?
|
Cervical spine will usually superimpose the ramus of the mandible
|
|
|
|
If the patient is positioned too far back in the pano machine, what structure will generally be cut off?
|
Usually, the condyles (or at least part of the mandible) will be cut off
|
|
|
|
On a pano radiograph, what will the image generally look like if the patient's chin is tilted downward?
|
The radiograph will show a "V" shaped mandible (i.e. it will appear overly happy)
|
|
|
|
On a pano radiograph, what will the image generally look like if the patient's chin is tiled upward?
|
The radiograph will show an upside down smile and the mandible will appear fat.
|
|
|
|
T/F: Bite block should be used for edentulous patient in a pano machine.
|
False.
|
|
|
|
If enamel caries is less than 1/2 way through the enamel, what classification is it given?
|
R1
|
|
|
|
If enamel caries is at least 1/2 way through the enamel but not involving the DEJ, what classification is it given?
|
R2
|
|
|
|
If caries is through the DEJ but less than 1/2 way to the pulp, what classification is it given?
|
R3
|
|
|
|
If caries is more than 1/2 through the dentin to the pulp, what classification is it given?
|
R4
|
|
|
|
What surface is the most prevalent location for caries?
|
Occlusal surface
|
|
|
|
How will occlusal caries appear on a radiograph?
|
Triangle with the apex toward the outer surface and base toward the DEJ; cannot be seen radiographically until it reaches DEJ
|
|
|
|
Are radiographs an effective method of detection for occlusal caries?
|
Not effective until it reaches the dentin generally
|
|
|
|
Where on the interproximal surface will incipient caries most likely be found?
|
Just below the contact area
|
|
|
|
How will interproximal caries appear on a radiograph?
|
Radiolucent triangle with the apex toward the DEJ and the base toward the tooth surface
|
|
|
|
How much demineralization is usually necessary for interproximal caries to be detected on a radiograph?
|
30-40%
|
|
|
|
How does lingual/facial caries appear radiographically?
|
Will appear as a black hole or dots with the periphery of the lesion is usually well demarcated
|
|
|
|
How will root caries appear radiographically?
|
Will be ill-defined, saucer shaped, or scooped out and discolored
|
|
|
|
Which lesion has a larger surface entrance at the initial stages, chronic caries or acute caries?
|
Chronic caries
|
|
|
|
What can mask incipient proximal carious lesions and is due to over-exposure?
|
Peripheral burnout
|
|
|
|
What are three developmental or acquired defects can mimic caries?
|
1) Hypoplastic teeth
2) Abrasion 3) Attrition |
|
|
|
T/F: Dental acrylic material can be detected on a radiograph.
|
False; acrylic will not show up on a radiograph
|
|
|
|
Do periapical films or bitewings better show the distance between the CEJ and crestal bone?
|
Bitewings more accurately record that distance
|
|
|
|
For radiographic detection of periodontal disease, do you want to use a high kVp or a low kVp?
|
High kVp-gives you long scale contrast which shows better detail in the bone and roots
|
|
|
|
What percentages of change in bone mineral is needed before bone loss can be detected radiographically?
|
30-50%
|
|
|
|
Radiographs show (less/more) severe bone destruction than is actually present? (Choose one)
|
Less
|
|
|
|
What are 4 general radiographic signs of periodontal disease?
|
1) Increased width of PDL
2) Resorption of lamina dura 3) Bone loss 4) Loss of bone density |
|
|
|
What are some local irritating factors that can lead to periodontal disease?
|
1) Plaque
2) Restoration overhangs 3) Loss or open contacts 4) Deficient crown margins 5) Imperfect embrasures 6) Improper prosthesis 7) Caries |
|
|
|
What are the 5 functions of proximal contacts and embrasures?
|
1) Allow food to escape occlusal surface
2) Prevent food impaction 3) Protect the periodontium 4) Distribute forces 5) Stabilize the dental arch |
|
|
|
In general, what are 3 radiographic signs of early periodontitis?
|
1) Crestal irregularities
2) Triangulation (funneling) 3) Interdental bone changes |
|
|
|
What will happen radiographically to the lamina dura in early periodontitis?
|
Lamina dura will become indistinct and be interrupted along the mesial and distal aspect of the interdental alveolar crest
|
|
|
|
What will happen radiographically to the crest of the alveolar bone in early periodontitis?
|
Blunting of the crest in the anterior region; loss of sharp angle in the posterior region
|
|
|
|
What is triangulation (funneling)?
|
Widening of the PDL space by bone resorption along mesial or distal aspect of interdental crestal bone
|
|
|
|
The nutrient canals will become (more/less) prominent if periodontal disease exists. (Choose one)
|
More
|
|
|
|
How is bone loss defined?
|
It is the difference between the remaining coronal height and the assumed normal coronal bone level of the patient
|
|
|
|
How is horizontal bone loss defined?
|
Horizontal bone loss occurs on a plane parallell to a line connecting the CEJs of adjacent teeth
|
|
|
|
How is vertical bone loss defined?
|
Vertical bone loss occurs on a plane that is not parallel to a line joining the CEJs of adjacent teeth
|
|
|
|
T/F: The exact shape of a bony defect can only be determine by careful periodontal probing and/or by direct vision during surgery
|
True
|
|
|
|
A bony pocket or defect that is said to be crater-like is classified as a:
a) One-wall defect b) Two-wall defect c) Three wall defect d) Four wall defect |
b) Two-wall defect
|
|
|
|
A bony defect that is described as circumferential and surrounds the tooth is classified as a:
a) One-wall defect b) Two-wall defect c) Three wall defect d) Four wall defect |
d) Four wall defect
|
|
|
|
A bony defect or pocket that is described as hemiseptal can be classified as:
a) One-wall defect b) Two-wall defect c) Three wall defect d) Four-wall defect |
a) One wall defect
|
|
|
|
A three wall bony defect or pocket is described how?
|
Three walls with root forming the 4th wall
|
|
|
|
What is the normal crown length to root length ratio?
|
1:2
|
|
|
|
What is a radiographic indication of tooth mobility?
|
Widened PDL space
|
|
|
|
T/F: Furcation involvement will not be seen unless the bone resorption extends apically beyond furca
|
True
|
|
|
|
What are some radiographic signs of mild adult chronic periodontitis?
|
1) Interproximal localized erosion
2) Blunting and bone loss in anterior region 3) Loss of sharp angle between lamina dura and alveolar crest in posterior region |
|
|
|
How long may it take radiographic signs to appear with mild adult chronic periodontitis?
|
6-8 months
|
|
|
|
What are some radiographic signs of moderate chronic adult periodontitis?
|
1) Increased areas of radiolucency in bone
2) Buccal or lingual cortical bone loss 3) Bone loss may be generalized horizontal with localized vertical 4) Possible tooth mobility |
|
|
|
How is mild horizontal bone loss defined?
|
1-2 mm of loss (up to 20%)
|
|
|
|
How is moderate horizontal bone loss defined?
|
Up to midpoint of root or furcation area (50% loss)
|
|
|
|
How is severe horizontal bone loss defined?
|
Anything beyond 50% bone loss
|
|
|
|
What are some radiographic signs of severe chronic adult periodontitis?
|
1) Excessive bone loss
2) Furcation involvement 3) Mobility 4) Drifting 5) Horizontal and vertical bone loss |
|
|
|
In what type of patients is aggressive periodontitis generally seen?
|
Children, adolescents, and young adults-Healthy adolescent with little or no plaque and inflammation
|
|
|
|
What is the rate of bone loss in aggressive periodontitis?
|
3-4 times faster than that of chronic periodontitis
|
|
|
|
What are 3 radiographic signs of active resorption?
|
1) Interdental bone crest is rough
2) Lack of radiopacity in bone 3) Prominent nutrient canals |
|
|
|
Which of the following is most common?
a) Chronic periapical abscess b) Periapical cyst c) Dental granuloma d) Condensing osteitis e) Residual cyst (Choose one) |
c) Dental Granuloma
|
|
|
|
Which of the following usually is/are associated with nonvital pulp of teeth?
a) Hypercementosis b) Cementoma (periapical cemental dysplasia) c) Periapical cyst d) Perioapical osteosclerosis e) All of the above (Choose one) |
c) Periapical cyst
|
|
|
|
Which of the following would best differentiate condensing osteitis from a periapical cementoma (periapical cemental dysplasia)?
a) Pulp of tooth is nonvital in condensing osteitis b) Conensing osteitis affects mandibular incisors 80% of the time c) Condensing osteitis is seen mostly in women in the postmenopausal age group d) Periapical cementomas are attached to root, whereas condensing osteitis is not e) Periapical cementomas are seen mostly in teenagers and are usually associated with a carious mandibular first molar (Choose one) |
a) Pulp of tooth is nonvital in condensing osteitis
|
|
|
|
Which of the following would most likely cause the most pain and many times would not be seen on the radiograph?
a) Periapical granuloma b) Periapical cementoma c) Chronic apical abscess d) Acute apical abscess e) Periapical cyst (Choose one) |
d) Acute apical abscess
|
|
|
|
Which of the following can mimic a periapical radiolucent lesion on the dental radiograph?
a) Apex region of immature tooth b) Mental foramen c) Nasopalatine foramen d) Greater palatine foramen (Choose all that apply) |
All of them will
|
|
|
|
Which of the following may be associate with acute apical periodontitis?
a) Vital tooth b) Occlusal trauma c) Irreversibly inflamed or necrotic pulp d) High restoration recently placed e) All of the above |
e) All of the above
|
|
|
|
Which of the following would most often not reveal a periapical lesion on the radiograph?
a) Apical condensing osteitis b) Apical cyst c) Apical granuloma d) Chronic apical abscess e) Acute apical abscess (Choose one) |
e) Acute apical abscess
|
|
|
|
Apical granuloma is:
a) A periapical tumor b) Composed principally of granulomatous tissue c) Composed of granulation tissue d) An advanced form of chronic apical periodontitis e) A painful, localized collection of pus (Choose all that apply) |
b) Composed principally of granulomatous tissue
d) An advanced form of chronic apical periodontitis |
|
|
|
Which of the following differentiate radiographcially the apical cyst and apical granuloma?
a) Apical cyst is more circumscribed b) Apical cyst is more radiolucent c) Apical cyst is more often bounded by an unbroken line of sclerotic bone than an apical granuloma d) Apical cysts are usually larger than apical granulomas e) All of the above (Choose one) |
e) All of the above
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is most often found in patients younger than 20 years of age?
a) Apical granuloma b) Acute apical abscess c) Apical condensing osteitis d) Chronic apical abscess e) Apical cyst (Choose one) |
c) Apical condensing osteitis
|
|
|
|
Which of the following lesions are usually associated with vital teeth?
a) Hypercementosis b) Chronic apical abscess c) Apical granuloma d) Apical cyst e) Chronic apical abscess (Choose one) |
a) Hypercementosis
|
|
|
|
Which of the following apical conditions causes the most pain?
a) Acute apical periodontitis b) Apical granuloma c) Apical cyst d) Acute apical abscess e) Chronic apical abscess (Choose one) |
d) Acute apical abscess
|
|
|
|
What tooth is usually involved with apical condensing osteitis?
a) Upper lateral incisor b) Lower first molar c) Upper second molar d) Upper first premolar e) Lower canine (Choose one) |
b) Lower first molar
|
|
|
|
Which teeth are usually involved with apical cementosis?
a) Upper incisors b) Lower incisors c) Lower molar d) Upper molar e) Lower premolars (Choose one) |
b) Lower incisors
|
|
|
|
Which of the following most accurately describes the radiographic findings of a chronic apical abscess without a fistula?
a) Rounded, well circumscribed, dark radiolucency bounded by a thin radiopaque border b) Slight widening of periodontal ligament space at apical region c) Rounded, well-circumscribed, gray appearing radiolucency d) Diffuse radiolucency with irregular borders e) Well circumscribed, radiopaque mass bounded by a thin radiolucent line (Choose one) |
d) Diffuse radiolucency with irregular borders
|
|
|
|
T/F: In conventional tomography, the objects of interest in the focal plane are blurred out.
|
False
|
|
|
|
T/F: Panoramic technique is a form of tomography, where image slice is taken of the maxillofacial structures but there is still superimposition.
|
True
|
|
|
|
T/F: In conventional tomography, the overlapping is further reduced as compared with panoramic imaging.
|
True
|
|
|
|
T/F: Advantages of conventional tomography include relatively short imaging time and low dose compared with more advanced techniques like computed tomography (CT)
|
True
|
|
|
|
T/F: TMJ arthrography consists of injection of radiopaque contrast material into joint space followed by a radiographic exam like tomography.
|
True
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is not true about TMJ arthrography?
a) Invasive procedure due to injection b) Ionizing radiation is not required c) Improper injection may lead to altered occlusion d) May cause patient discomfort (Choose one) |
b) Ionizing radiation is not required
|
|
|
|
Which of the following techniques do not require ionizing radiation?
a) Conventional tomography b) Computed tomography c) MRI d) Nuclear medicine e) Ultrasonography (Choose all that apply) |
c) MRI
e) Ultrasonography |
|
|
|
Which of the following devices used in sonography converts the electrical impulses into high frequency sound waves?
a) Tomographic layer b) Transducer c) Cephalostat d) Gamma camera (Choose one) |
b) Transducer
|
|
|
|
Which of the following advanced imaging technique provides only means of assessing physical changes that are direct result of biochemical alterations?
a) MRI b) Computed tomography c) Nuclear medicine d) Ultrasound (Choose one) |
c) Nuclear medicine
|
|
|
|
T/F: Ultrasoography utilizes radiotracers that allow measurement of tissue function & provide an early marker of disease through measurement of biochemical change
|
False
|
|
|
|
T/F: CBCT date is much less accurate and not truly a 1:1 display of maxillofacial structures as compared to panoramic radiography.
|
False
|
|
|
|
What is hyperdontia?
|
Extra or supernumary teeth
|
|
|
|
What is a mesiodens?
|
Extra tooth in the maxillary midline
|
|
|
|
What is a distodens?
|
A tooth that erupts distal to the 3rd molar
|
|
|
|
What three syndromes are associated with extra teeth?
|
1) Gardner
2) Apert 3) Down |
|
|
|
What is oligodontia?
|
Several missing teeth
|
|
|
|
What is Anodontia?
|
Absence of all teeth
|
|
|
|
What is hypodontia?
|
One or a few missing teeth
|
|
|
|
What syndrome is associated with multiple missing teeth?
|
Ectodermal dysplasia
|
|
|
|
What three characteristics can be used to characterize a primary tooth?
|
1) Roots are more divergent
2) Constriction at neck 3) Smaller crowns |
|
|
|
What are the four most commonly missing teeth in rank order from most common to 4th most common?
|
1) Maxillary 3rd molars
2) Mandibular 3rd molars 3) Mandibular 2nd premolars 4) Maxillary permanent lateral incisors |
|
|
|
What is macrodontia and what can it cause?
|
Larger than normal tooth; may cause crowding and periodontal disease
|
|
|
|
What is microdontia?
|
Smaller than normal tooth
|
|
|
|
What is the most common microdont?
|
Maxillary lateral incisor (peg lateral)
|
|
|
|
What is transposition or translocation?
|
The interchange of position between two teeth
|
|
|
|
Does crowding occur with transposition/translocation?
|
No it does not
|
|
|
|
What is tipping or drift?
|
Movement of an erupted tooth when either mesial or distal contact is lost
|
|
|
|
What is ectopic eruption? Does it cause crowding?
|
Eruption of a tooth into abnormal position in arch; it does cause crowding
|
|
|
|
What is the difference between an impacted tooth and an embedded tooth?
|
An impacted tooth is when a physical entity prevents eruption whereas an embedded tooth fails to erupt and remains buried (ankylosed) in the bone
|
|
|
|
What is migration?
|
Abnormal movement of an unerupted tooth
|
|
|
|
What is fusion (synodontism)?
|
Union of two adjacent tooth buds by dentin and/or enamel
|
|
|
|
What will be the number of teeth in the mouth if fusion occurs?
|
Reduced number of teeth if union is between two normal teeth
|
|
|
|
How many pulp canals and chambers will be present in a fused tooth?
|
Two separate pulp chambers and canals
|
|
|
|
Where is fusion most common in primary and permanent dentition?
|
Primary: More common between lateral incisor and canine
Permanent: More common between central and lateral incisors |
|
|
|
What is gemination (schizodontism)?
|
A single tooth bud attemps to divide
|
|
|
|
What will the number of teeth in the mouth be if gemination has occured?
|
Normal tooth number
|
|
|
|
What are the radiographic findings of gemination?
|
Enlarged pulp chamber that may be partially divided; Y-shaped pulp with two coronal portions and one root portion
|
|
|
|
What teeth is gemination common in?
|
Incisors
|
|
|
|
What is concresence?
|
Union between roots of two or more adjacent teeth by cementum only
|
|
|
|
Can concrescence be easily diagnosed radiographically?
|
No
|
|
|
|
What is taurodontism?
|
Tooth appears normal in shape and size visually but radiographically will show enlarged pulp chambers and short roots
|
|
|
|
In which teeth is taurodontism common?
|
Molars
|
|
|
|
What is dilaceration?
|
Sharp bend, twist, or curve in the root
|
|
|
|
What is the etiology of dilaceration?
|
Trauma or disturbance in tooth development
|
|
|
|
Which teeth is dilaceration common in?
|
Maxillary premolars and incisors
|
|
|
|
What is dens in dente or dens invaginatus?
|
Invagination of enamel resembling a deep lingual pit with close proximity to the pulp
|
|
|
|
What will be the radiographic appearance of dens in dente?
|
Appears as tear drop or hourglass shaped invagination of enamel with narrow constriction at the opening of the tooth surface
|
|
|
|
In which teeth is dens in dente most common?
|
Maxillary lateral incisors
|
|
|
|
What is dens evaginatus?
|
Outfolding of enamel on occlusal surface that appears as an enamel covered tubercle
|
|
|
|
What tooth is dens evaginatus common in ?
|
Mandibular premolars
|
|
|
|
What is enamel hypoplasia?
|
Incomplete or defective enamel formation caused by mechanical trauma or infection from primary tooth
|
|
|
|
What tooth is enamel hypoplasia most common in?
|
Premolars
|
|
|
|
What is erosion?
|
Loss of tooth substance by nonbacterial chemical process
|
|
|
|
What are some causes of erosion?
|
1) Excessive vomiting
2) Gastric reflux 3) Excessive intake of acidic foods and beverages |
|
|
|
How will erosion appear radiographically?
|
As radiolucent defects
|
|
|
|
What is abrasion?
|
Pathologic wearing away of tooth structure through any abnormal mechanical process
|
|
|
|
How will abrasion appear radiographically?
|
Can appear as V shaped notch in cervical area if toothbrush abrasion; may be well defined semilunar radiolucent areas on teeth; can be confused with caries
|
|
|
|
What is attrition?
|
Physiologic wearing away of tooth structure from tooth to tooth contact
|
|
|
|
What are the radiographic findings of attrition?
|
1) Short crowns
2) Flat occlusal planes 3) Smaller pulp chambers due to secondary dentin 4) Widened PDL space |
|
|
|
What is a talon cusp an exaggeration of?
|
The cingulum
|
|
|
|
What is a pulp stone?
|
Foci of calcification in dental pulp
|
|
|
|
How will pulp stones appear radiographically?
|
Radiopacities of varying shapes and size
|
|
|
|
What is internal resorption?
|
Resorption of tooth structure from the inside of the tooth with no apparent connection to the outer portion of the tooth
|
|
|
|
How will internal resorption appear radiographically?
|
Round/oval or elongated radiolucencies within a root or crown
|
|
|
|
What is external resorption?
|
Resorption of tooth from outward surface into the center of the tooth
|
|
|
|
What are some causes of external resorption?
|
1) Reimplantation of teeth
2) Tumors 3) Cysts 4) Excessive orthodontic and occlusal forces 5) Impacted teeth |
|
|
|
How will external resorption appear radiographically?
|
1) Blunting of root apex
2) PDL space and lamina drura intact if no periapical pathology exists |
|
|
|
What is an enamel pearl?
|
Globule of enamel usually found on the root that may have dentin and pulp horn
|
|
|
|
How will enamel pearls appear radiographically?
|
Ovoid radiopacity in cervical portion of tooth
|
|
|
|
What is regional odontodysplasia?
|
Also known as ghost teeth; it's where the teeth are almost non-existent on a radiograph
|
|
|
|
How will regional odontodysplasia appear radiographically?
|
Ghost like teeth with large pulp chambers and canals with thin hypoplastic enamel and dentin
|
|
|
|
What is amelogensis imperfecta?
|
Hereditary form of enamel hypoplasia in which the ameloblasts fail to form enamel correctly
|
|
|
|
What are the radiographic findings of amelogensis imperfecta?
|
Square shaped crowns, devoid of normal mesial and distal contours
Generally have normal pulp chambers |
|
|
|
What is the appearance of type 1 amelogenesis imperfecta?
|
Normal but thin amount of enamel
|
|
|
|
What is the appearance of type 2 amelogenesis imperfecta?
|
Soft and mushy enamel that wears away easily
|
|
|
|
What is the appearance of type 3 amelogenesis imperfecta?
|
Enamel normal in amount, but poorly mineralized, pitted, or chalky;
snow capped cusp tips which lead to reduced radiographic density |
|
|
|
What is dentinogensis imperfecta?
|
A hereditary disorder in which the odontoblasts fail to form the dentin and DEJ correctly
|
|
|
|
What is the radiographic appearance of dentinogenesis imperfecta?
|
1) Bulbous crowns
2) Constriction of cervical portion of teeth 3) Progressive obliteration of pulp canals 4) Teeth may have short tapered root |
|
|
|
What is type 1 dentinogenesis imperfecta usually associated with?
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta (osseous fractures, blue sclera, and skeletal defects)
|
|
|
|
What is going on in type 2 dentinogensis imperfecta?
|
Dentin mineralization defect only
|
|
|
|
What is dentin dysplasia?
|
A hereditary disorder in which there exists normal enamel and dentin at the DEJ, but the tooth is dysplastic throughout the rest of the tooth
|
|
|
|
What is type 1 dentin dysplasia?
|
Dentin dysplasia where there are short, abnormal roots and obliteration of the pulp chambers prior to eruption
|
|
|
|
What is type 2 dentin dysplasia?
|
Dentin dysplasia with changes in the pulp chambers and canals seen after eruption; can have flame shaped or thistle shaped pulp chambers in single rooted teeth
|
|
|
|
Often, normal anatomy is (unilateral/bilateral) where as most abnormal conditions are (unilateral/bilateral). (Choose one in each)
|
Bilateral; unilateral
|
|
|
|
What two comparisons can you make/use when interpreting radiographs?
|
1) Compare the same area on the adjacent images
2) Also compare with corresponding area on the other side |
|
|
|
What are the 7 things that are analyzed for an osseous lesion?
|
1) Position and distribution
2) Size and shape 3) Internal structure 4) Borders 5) Effects of the lesion on surrounding structures like bone and teeth 6) Periosteal reactions 7) Differential diagnosis |
|
|
|
How can the position of the lesion be described?
|
1) Either by describing the actual location (mandible, maxilla, anterior/posterior)
2) Localized or generalized 3) Unilateral or bilateral 4) Single or multiple lesions |
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) of the lesion is coronal to the tooth, what tissue composes the abnormality?
|
Odontogenic
|
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) of the lesions is abocve the mandibular canal, what tissues composes the abnormality?
|
Odontogenic
|
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) is below the mandibular canal, is the tissue composing the abnormality odontogenic?
|
No, it is unlikely to be odontogenic
|
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) is within the mandibular canal, what tissues composes the abnormality?
|
Neural or Vascular in nature
|
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) is within the condylar region, what tissues composes the abnormality?
|
Cartilaginous
|
|
|
|
If the epicenter (point of origin) is within the maxillary sinus or antrum, is the lesion odontogenic?
|
No, it is non-odontogenic
|
|
|
|
What is the term for a border that is a series of contiguous arcs or semicircles?
|
Scalloped
|
|
|
|
What does a scalloped lesion indicate?
|
1) Rapid growth
2) Bone destruction |
|
|
|
What is meant by the term mixed lesion?
|
A lesion that is both radiopaque and radiolucent
|
|
|
|
What is meant by the term multilocular?
|
The lesion has septa and is actually multiple compartments
|
|
|
|
What happens to the trabeculae in response to inflammation?
|
It thickens
|
|
|
|
When a lesion has a thin fairly uniform radiopaque line of reactive bone at the lesion periphery, it is said to have a _____________ border.
|
Corticated
|
|
|
|
If the lesion has no bone reaction immediately adjacent to the abnormality, it is said to be a ___________.
|
Punched-out lesion
|
|
|
|
A sclerotic border is defined as what?
|
Wide radiopaque margin of reactive bone that is not uniform in width and not well defined
|
|
|
|
What will a sclerotic border indicate?
|
Slow growth or potential for lesion to stimulate the production of surrounding bone
|
|
|
|
What does a loss in the PDL space indicate?
|
Ankylosis?
|
|
|
|
What does a generalized, wide PDL space indicate?
|
Periodontal disease; orthodontic tooth movement; severe bruxism
|
|
|
|
What does a localized, wide PDL space indicate?
|
Traumatic occlusion; irregular widening as a sign of aggressive malignant growth; metastatic disease
|
|
|
|
What does a loss of the lamina dura indicate?
|
Periodontal disease
|
|
|
|
What does a localized, wide lamina dura indicate?
|
Traumatic occlusion
|
|
|
|
What does a generalized, wide lamina dura indicate?
|
Osteopetrosis
|
|
|
|
What disease/pathology is indicated by a loss of alveolar bone?
|
Periodontal disease; uncontrolled diabetes; loss of teeth
|
|
|
|
What does a localized enlargement of alveolar bone indicate?
|
Bone beneath bridge; osteosarcoma; chondrosarcoma
|
|
|
|
What kind of appearance will osteosarcoma have radiographically?
|
Sun-burst appearance
|
|
|
|
What does an onion-skin type periosteal bone reaction on a radiograph indicate?
|
Inflammatory response such as osteomyelitis
|
|
|
|
What does a sun-burst effect on periosteal bone in a radiograph indicate?
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
|
|
In a radiograph, presence of reactive bone usually means what?
|
Slow, benign growth and possibly ability to stimulate osteoblastic activity in the surrounding bone
|
|
|
|
What are four radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion?
|
1) Hypercementosis
2) Root resorption 3) Alteration of lamina dura 4) Alteration of PDL space |
|
|
|
Is outer cortical plate maintained in slow-growing bening lesions or rapidly growing lesions?
|
Slow-growing lesions
|
|
|
|
Identify information that cannot be obtained from radiographs concerning the diagnosis of periodontal disease:
a) Root length and shape b) Existence or absence of periodontal pocket c) Morphology (Shape) of bone deformities d) Clinical crown to clinical root ratio e) Approximate gross amount of bone destruction f) Position of maxillary sinus in relation to periodontal deformity g) Position or condition of structures on the facial and lingual aspects of the mouth (Choose all that apply) |
b) Existence or absence of periodontal pocket
c) Morphology of bone deformities g) Position or condition of structures on the facial and lingual aspects of the mouth |
|
|
|
Which of the following are benefits of the dental radiograph in periodontal diagnosis?
a) The position of the septal bone between the teeth is usually recorded in one plane b) The clinical crown to clinical root ratio is documented c) Root length and root morphology are recorded (Choose all that apply) |
All three are correct
|
|
|
|
Which of the following statements are true concerning periodontitis?
a) Juvenile periodontitis is a localized periodontitis occurring in teenagers and young adults b) A normal crown to root ratio is 1:2 c) Calculus plays a primary inflammatory role in initiating periodontal disease d) The crater bone deformity is the most common osseous deformity in periodontitis e) The infrabony osseous deformity is a three wall infrabony pocket (Choose all that apply) |
a) Juvenile periodontitis is a localized periodontitis occurring in teenagers and young adults
b) A normal crown to root ratio is 1:2 d) The crater bone deformity is the most common osseous deformity in periodontitis e) The infrabony osseous deformity is a three wall infrabony pocket |
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of periodontal disease?
a) Overhanging restorations b) Dental calculus c) Bacterial plaque d) Malocclusion e) Habitually grinding the teeth (Choose one) |
c) Bacterial plaque
|
|
|
|
Which of the following radiographic techniques using D speed film will most minimize the limitations of use of the radiograph in diagnosing periodontal disease?
a) High kVp technique b)Low kVp technique c) Long BID disecting angle technique d) Long BID paralleling technique e) Short BID bisecting technique (CHoose all that apply) |
a) High kVp technique
d) Long BID paralleling technique |
|
|
|
What is the most reliable method of locating periodontal pockets?
a) Long BID paralleling radiograph b) Short BID bisecting angle radiograph c) Hirschfeld calibrated silver points placed in the pocket before x-ray exposure d) Probing with a periodontal instrument e) Gutta percha root canal placed in the pocket before x-ray exposure (Choose one) |
d) Probing with a periodontal instrument
|
|
|
|
The use of the radiograph in diagnosing a mobile tooth is limited to which of the following?
a) A tooth PDLS (PDL space) thickening is in the mesiodistal aspects of contact areas b) A tooth PDLS thickening is in the faciolingual aspects of supporting structures c) A tooth PDLS thickening is in all aspects of the tooth root d) Mesiodistal calculus on tooth. Early alveolar bone loss on mesiodistal aspects of tooth (Choose one) |
a) A tooth PDLS thickening is in mesiodistal aspects of contact areas
|
|
|
|
The Nabors probe is used for which of the following?
a) Detection of calculus b) Tooth mobility c) Early bone loss d) Depth of periodontal pocket e) Early furcation invovlement (Choose one) |
e) Early furcation involvement
|
|
|
|
Triangulation or "funneling" is defined as which of the following?
a) Indistinctness of continuity of lamina dura on mesial or distal aspect of tooth b) Widening of PDL space by resorption of bone along either mesial or distal aspect of crestal bone c) Interseptal bone changes d) Vertical bone loss (Choose one) |
b) Widening of PDL space by resorption of bone along either mesial or distal aspect of crestal bone
|
|
|
|
What is vertical bone loss?
a) It occurs when bone loss is present on a plane that is parallel to a line drawn from CEJ of a tooth to that of an adjacent tooth b) It occurs when there is a greater degree of bone destruction on interproximal aspect of one tooth than adjacent tooth c) It is the same as a three-wall infrabony pocket or defect d) It is a furcation invovlement e) It is usually a consequence of localized juvenile periodontitis (Choose one) |
b) It occurs when there is a greater degree of bone destruction on interproximal aspect of one tooth than adjacent tooth
|
|
|
|
What is the most common osseous defect of periodontal disease?
a) Hemiseptum defect b) Rampin defect c) Osseous crater d) Furcation invovlement e) Horizontal bone defects (Choose one) |
c) Osseous crater
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is the most important radiographic consideration in planning to use certain teeth as bridge abutments?
a) Interproximal calculus deposits b) Food packing areas c) Periodontal functional factors d) Crown-root ratio e) Activity of the periodontal destructive process (Choose one) |
d) Crown-root ratio
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is a local predisposing factor in periodontal disease?
a) Calculus deposits b) Open interproximal contacts c) Overhanging restorations d) Overcontoured dental restorations e) All of the above (Choose one) |
e) All of the above
|
|
|
|
What are the radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion?
a) Increased width of PDL space on mesiodistal surfaces of a tooth b) Increased width of PDL space on faciolingual surface of a tooth c) Vertical bone loss d) Horizontal bone loss (Choose all that apply) |
a) Increased width of PDL space on the mesipdistal surface of a tooth
c) Vertical bone loss |
|
|
|
Open contacts are due to which of the following:
a) Caries b) Attrition c) Plunger cusps d) Supraeruption of teeth e) All of the above (Choose one) |
e) all of the above
|
|
|
|
What is the prominent feature in taurodontism?
a) Enamel hypoplasia b) Abnormal dentin c) Extension of the pulp chamber deep into the root portion of the tooth d) Pulp cavity has been obliterated and the entire tooth is more opaque (Choose one) |
c) Extension of the pulp chamber deep into the root portion of the tooth
|
|
|
|
Radiographically, the teeth in amelogenesis imperfecta show what?
a) Dentin with significant disturbances; enamel is normal b) Dentin and enamel with significant disturbances c) Pulp and dentin are abnormal d) Very thin or defective enamel; dentin is normal e) None of the above (Choose one) |
d) Very thin or defective enamel; dentin is normal
|
|
|
|
Radiographically, the teeth in dentinogenesis imperfecta show what?
a) Pulp is abnormal; dentin is normal b) Dentin only shows disturbances c) Enamel is missing; dentin formation is normal d) Shortened roots, obliterated root canal, and pulp spaces e) None of the above (Choose one) |
d) Shortened roots, obliterated root canal, and pulp spaces
|
|
|
|
When two teeth appear to be joined by cementum alone, the condition is termed?
a) Fusion b) Gemination c) Concresence d) Dilaceration (Choose one) |
c) concrescence
|
|
|
|
An enamel pearl is usually seen:
a) At the cervical region of the tooth b) Within the pulp chamber c) As a tubercle on the occlusal surface of the tooth d) On the lingual of the anterior teeth e) On the cusp tips of newly erupted incisors (Choose one) |
a) At the cervical region of the tooth
|
|
|
|
When one tooth takes the place of another in the arch, the condition is termed:
a) Migration b) Distal drift c) Translocation d) Ectopic eruption (Choose one) |
c) Translocation
|
|
|
|
When teeth are larger than normal, they are termed:
a) Microdontia b) Macrodontia c) Distomolars d) Paramolars (Choose one) |
b) Macrodontia
|
|
|
|
The pathologic wearing away of tooth structure by a mechanical process is termed:
a) Attrition b) Erosion c) Abrasion d) None of the above (Choose one) |
c) Abrasion
|
|
|
|
What is Turner's tooth?
a) Hereditary hypoplasia of enamel of dominant character b) Hypoplasia of enamel of local origin c) Hereditary hypoplasia of enamel of recessive character d) Hypoplasia of enamel from congenital syphilis e) A tooth characterized by significant hypoplasia and hypocalcification of enamel and dentin (Choose one) |
b) Hypoplasia of enamel of local origin
|
|
|
|
In discussing radiologic caries interpretation, how is the phenomenon of cervical burnout explained?
a) Tissue density and thickness in the cervical area of the tooth is less than the adjacent tooth and bony tissues b) Tissue density in the cervical region of the tooth is greater than the adjacent tooth and bony tissues c) The cervical region of the tooth is more receptive to dental caries d) The cervical region of the tooth attenuates the x-ray beam more than the rest of the tooth e) The exposure time used is too low (Choose one) |
a) Tissue density and thickness in the cervical area of the tooth is less than the adjacent tooth and bony tissues
|
|
|
|
In most cases, which pattern of caries development describes the smooth surface caries?
a) Saucer-shaped with the base of the saucer toward the DEJ b) Triangular with the base toward the periphery of tooth enamel c) Triangular with the base toward the DEJ d) Hair-like line penetrating enamel toward the DEJ e) Flame-like configuration with the base at periphery of enamel of tooth (Choose one) |
b) Triangular with the base toward the periphery of tooth enamel
|
|
|
|
Which of the following statements are true concering acute caries?
a) Initial lesion is small at the surface b) Large initial lesion at the surface is in incipiency c) More common in children d) More common in adults e) Progress is slow f) Progress is rapid (Choose all that apply) |
a) Initial lesion is small at teh surface
c) Common in children f) Progress is rapid |
|
|
|
Recurrent or secondary caries in most cases occurs because of which of the following?
a) Inadequate extension of the cavity preparation? b) Improper adaptation of the restorative material to margins of the cavity preparation c) Incomplete removal of the caries from the tooth before placing the restoration d) All of the above (Choose one) |
d) All of the above
|
|
|
|
How is root (cemental) caries usually reveal on the radiograph?
a) A radiolucent area just beneath a restoration b) An ill-defined, radiolucent, saucer shaped area located in the interproximal region just below the CEJ c) A V-shaped radiolucent area in the enamel just below contact point d) A black circle on either of the facial/lingual surfaces (Choose one) |
b) An ill-defined, radiolucent, saucer-shaped area located in the interproximal region just below the CEJ
|
|
|
|
What are the primary factores in the cause of caries?
a) Saliva and teeth b) Calculus c) Diet d) Occlusal trauma e) Plaque (Choose all that apply) |
a) Saliva and teeth
c) Diet e) Plaque |
|
|
|
Can carious lesions develop without plaque?
a) Yes b) No |
b) No
|
|
|
|
Dental caries is essentially a process of which of the following?
a) Atrophy b) Decalcification C) Infection d) Malnutrition e) Chemical imbalance (Choose one) |
b) Decalcification
|
|
|
|
Interproximal enamel caries is usually recognized on the radiograph as a radiolucency with which of the following shapes or configuration?
a) Flame-shaped b) Line-shaped c) W-shaped d) Half-moon shaped e) Triangular-shaped (Choose one) |
e) Triangular shaped
|
|
|
|
How does lamellar careis appear on a radiograph on an interproximal enamel surface?
a) Thin line radiolucency b) Mushroom shaped radiolucency c) V-shaped radiolucency d) Flame-shaped radlucency e) Small cone-shaped radiolucency (Choose one) |
a) Thin-line radiolucency
|
|
|
|
Rampant caries can be seen in which of the following?
a) Primary teeth of young children b) PErmanent teeth of teenagers c) Adults with xerostomia d) Manibular permanent incisors e) All of the above (Choose one) |
e) All of the above
|
|
|
|
Which of the following tooth surfaces is the most prevalent location for caries in the oral cavity?
a) Facial b) Posterior interproximal c) Occlusal surfaces d) Lingual surfaces e) Root surfaces (Choose one) |
c) Occlusal surfaces
|
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true of chronic caries?
a) Commonly seen in adults 25 years of age and older b) Slow penetration of enamel c) Large initial entrance of caries d) All of the above (Choose one) |
d) All of the above
|
|
|
|
Why does root caries frequently occur in the elderly?
a) More gingival recession in the elderly b) Cementum seems to be less resistant to careis than enamel c) Elderly seem to have more food packing areas d) Elderly are more prone to xerostomia e) All of the above (Choose one) |
e) All of the above
|
|
|
|
The majority of replacements of amalgam restorations is due to which of the following?
a) Different cavity preparation b) Recurrent caries c) Poor oral hygeine d) Root caries e) Radiopaque layer of dentin under a restoration (Choose one) |
b) Recurrent caries
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is not misrepresented in the radiograph as a carious lesion?
a) Cervical "burnout" areas b) Anterior silicate restorations c) Anterior plastic or resin restorations d) Anterior composite restorations e) None of the above (Choose one) |
d) Anterior composite restorations
|
|
|
|
How does "toothbursh abrasion" appear on posterior teeth on the radiograph?
a) Small, circular radiolucet areas on occlusal surfaces of teeth b) Dark cavity on the occlusal or incisal surfaces c) V-shaped, radiolucent depressions on the root side of CEJ of the teeth d) Black, round holes appearance on the facial/lingual surface of the tooth (Choose one) |
c) V-shaped, radiolucent depressions on the root side of CEJ of the teeth
|
|
|
|
How will a palatal torus appear radiographically?
|
1) Dense homogenous radiopacity shadow below and attached to hard palate
2) May be superimposed over the periapical area 3) Well defined lobulated outline |
|
|
|
How will a mandibular tori appear radiographically?
|
1) Radiopaque homogenous shadow superimposed over the roots of teeth
2) Well defined anteriorly but less defined in posterior mandible |
|
|
|
How will exostoses appear radiographically?
|
Well-defined, radiopacity that is homogenous and has smooth outline
|
|
|
|
What is subpontic hyperostosis?
|
Proliferation of normal bone on alveolar ridge beneath a fixed bridge pontic
|
|
|
|
How will a subpontic hyperostosis appear radiographically?
|
1) Dense, radiopaque area like cortical bone
2) Variable shape (mound-like, nodular, saddle shaped, etc) |
|
|
|
What is distal mandibular pseudohyperostosis?
|
Anatomic variation characterized by an apparent increase in the height of the alveolar bone on the distal of the last molar in mandible
|
|
|
|
What are common features of distal mandibular pseudohyperostosis?
|
1) Missing tooth either mesial or distal
2) Periodontal status within normal limits 3) A small bony protuberance distal to last molar 4) A mandibular molar location |
|
|
|
What is an odontoma?
|
A benign tumor characterized radiographically and histologically by the production of mature enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp tissue
|
|
|
|
What is complex odontoma?
|
An odontoma that consists of non-descriptive masses of dental tissue
|
|
|
|
What is compound odontoma?
|
An odontoma that consists of multiple well-formed teeth (denticles)
|
|
|
|
When does odontoma formation begin? When is it completed?
|
Begins forming while normal dentition is developing; Development ceases with completion of teeth development
|
|
|
|
Which is more common, compound odontoma or complex odontoma?
|
Compound odontoma
|
|
|
|
Where are the majority of compound odontomas located?
|
62% of compound type occur in anterior maxilla in association with crown of an impacted canine
|
|
|
|
Where are the majority of complex odontomas located?
|
70% of complex type are found in mandibular 1st and 2nd molar region
|
|
|
|
How will the periphery of an odontoma appear radiographically?
|
Well defined, corticated with a soft tissue capsule
|
|
|
|
How will the internal structure of an odontoma appear radiographically?
|
Variable radiopacities that contain tooth-like materials
|
|
|
|
What other problems are odontomas usually associated with?
|
1) Impaction
2) Malpositioning 3) Diastema |
|
|
|
What is an osteoma?
|
A slow-growing, benign mesodermal tumor
|
|
|
|
What is the bone composition of an osteoma
|
Either cancellous bone or compact bone or a combination of both
|
|
|
|
What may be the only symptoms of osteoma?
|
1) Asymmetry
2) Hard swelling |
|
|
|
Where is a common location for osteomas?
|
More common in posterior mandible on lingual aspect of ramus or on inferior mandibular border below the molars
|
|
|
|
What is the radiographic appearance of an osteoma?
|
Well defined periphery with a radiopaque internal structure
|
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of Gardner's Syndrome?
|
1) Multiple osteomas
2) Multiple enostosis 3) Cutaneous sebaceous cysts 4) Multiple polyps of small and large intestines which can undergo malignant transformation |
|
|
|
How will a patient with Gardner's syndrome present in clinic?
|
With multiple unerupted supernumerary and permanent teeth
|
|
|
|
How will shovel-shaped incisors appear radiographically?
|
They will have a radiolucency on the crown that can be confused with caries
|
|
|
|
What is the term for resorption with no obvious cause?
|
Idiopathic resorption
|
|
|
|
Where along the root do most horizontal root fractures occur?
|
Mid-root level
|
|
|
|
How will horizontal root fractures appear radiographically?
|
Sharp radiolucent line but the only evidence may be increased PDL space as plane of fracture is not in alignment with x-ray beam
|
|
|
|
Can vertical root fractures be visualized radiographically?
|
The fracture has to be pretty severe; may not be visible as x-ray beam is rarely aligned with the plane of fracture
|
|
|
|
What plane is the crack oriented in on a vertical root fracture?
|
Facial-lingual plane
|
|
|
|
What is the clinical feature of vertical root fracture?
|
Dull, persistent pain
|
|
|
|
If there is inflammation surrounding a vertical root fracture, what radiographic symptoms will you see?
|
1) Widening of the PDL
2) Loss of lamina dura 3) Bone loss |
|
|
|
What will be the radiographic appearance of a tooth that has rotated?
|
1) Loss of contact
2) Buccal and lingual cusps visible 3) Pulp canal appears wider mesiodistally |
|
|
|
What is the etiology of mucus retention psudocyst?
|
1) Blockage of secretory ducts of seromucus glands in the sinus mucosa which may result in pathologic submucosal accumulation of secretions OR
2) Cystic degeneration within an inflammed thickened sinus lining |
|
|
|
What is the radiographic appearance of a mucus retention pseudocyst?
|
Bilateral or single; non-corticated, smooth dome shaped radiopaque mass with a homogenous internal structure
|
|
|
|
What radiographic view do you use to visualize all the naxillary sinus?
|
Water's view
|
|
|
|
What is the etiology of dystrophic calcification of tonsils?
|
Occur when repeated bouts of inflammation enlarge tonsillar crypts and incomplete resolution of bacteria and pus serve as the nidus of dystrophic calcification
|
|
|
|
What is the radiographic appearance of dystrophic calcification of tonsils?
|
Single or mulitple radiopacity that overlap midportion of mandibular ramus where dorsal surface of the tongue crosses the ramus in the glossopharyngeal air space
|
|
|
|
How can you radiographically visualize arterial calcifications arthrosclerosis?
|
May be visible in the pano film in the soft tissues of the neck adjacent to the greater cornu of the hyoid bone and C3-C4
|
|
|
|
What is a sialolith?
|
It is a salivary duct stone
|
|
|
|
What is the etiology of a sialolith?
|
Conditions causing slow flow rate and physicochemical characteristics of the gland contribute to precipitation of calcium and phosphate salts
|
|
|
|
How will a sialolith appear radiographically?
|
Irregular homogenous radiopacity that may have multiple layers
|
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of Eagle's syndrome/Stylohyoid syndrome (ossification of the stylohyoid ligament)?
|
Radiographic findings of ossification with pain in pharynx on swallowing, head turning, or opening of mouth; neck trauma
|
|
|
|
What are the dimensions of film used for a Posterior-Anterior film or lateral ceph? For pano? for lateral oblique view of mandible
|
PA/Lateral Ceph: 8x10 inches
Pano: 15X30 cm Lateral oblique: 5x7 inch |
|
|
|
How does an intensifying screen work?
|
Energy of x-ray is converted to light by the phosphors. (Emit light when exposed to radiation)
|
|
|
|
Why do you have to follow the manufacturer's recommended matching of film and intensifying screen for extra-oral radiography?
|
Different intensifying screens have different emission and different films have different absorption characteristics
|
|
|
|
What is the effective dose of a single panoramic film with a calcium tungstate intensifying screen?
|
14 uSv
|
|
|
|
What is the effective dose of a single pano film with a rare earth intensifying screen?
|
7 uSv
|
|
|
|
What is the effective dose of a Posterior-Anterior film?
|
7-17 uSv
|
|
|
|
In order to use extraoral radiography for comparisons, what must the machine standardize?
|
Must have a method for fixing the patients head positioning
|
|
|
|
The exposure parameters for extra-oral radiography will vary with three factors. What are the three factors?
|
1) Type of machine
2) Source-object distance 3) Screen film combination |
|
|
|
What does the Frankfort plane connect?
|
Superior border of external auditory meatus to infraorbital rim
|
|
|
|
Lesion
|
Tissue destruction.
|
A brain lesion is a naturally or experimentally caused destruction of brain tissue.
|
|
|
What are the four general uses of PA cephs and Lateral cephs?
|
1) Study craniofacial growth
2) Diagnosis 3) Orthodontic treatment planning 4) Evaluation of treated cases |
|
|
|
What are some specific uses of a PA ceph?
|
Evaluation of:
1) Skull 2) Pathology 3) Trauma 4) Developmental abnormalities 5) Progressive changes in mediolateral dimension 6) Asymmetrical growth 7) Ethmoid sinuses 8) Nasal fossa 9) Orbits |
|
|
|
How is the film cassette placed in a PA ceph?
|
Vertically in a holding device
|
|
|
|
How is the patient's head positioned for a PA ceph?
|
Centered in center of film cassette with midsagittal plane of patient perpendicular to floor
Canthomeatal line forms 10 degree angle with horizontal plane Frankfort plane is perpendicular to the film |
|
|
|
How is the central ray directed in a PA ceph?
|
Directed perpendicular to the film; source should be coincident with midsagittal plane of head at level of bridge of nose
|
|
|
|
What is the source distance from midcoronal plane in a PA ceph?
|
60 inches
|
|
|
|
Where is the petrous ridge located in a posterior-anterior radiograph?
|
In the lower third of the orbit
|
|
|
|
How is the patient oriented for a lateral ceph?
|
Left side of patient's face is closest to the cassette and the midsagittal plane parallel with the film
|
|
|
|
How is the central ray directed in a lateral ceph?
|
Central ray directed toward external auditory meatus and perpendicular to plane of film and midsagittal plane
|
|
|
|
How is it possible to see the anterior soft tissue on a lateral ceph?
|
A wedge-filter is placed over the anterior side of the beam which absorbs some of the radiation striking the soft tissue thereby reducing the anterior beam intensity
|
|
|
|
What is the distance between the source and the midsagittal plane in a lateral ceph?
|
60 inches or 152.4 cm
|
|
|
|
How is the patient positioned in a Water's projection?
|
Chin is raised to elevate canthomeatal line 37 degrees above the horizontal plane
|
|
|
|
Where should the petrous portion of the temporal bone lie in a Water's project?
|
Should lie below the apex of the maxillary sinus
|
|
|
|
What are you trying to visualize with a Caldwell projection?
|
Orbital view; Frontal sinus; Superior orbital fissure; Ethmoid air cells
|
|
|
|
How is the central ray projected in a Caldwell projection?
|
Central ray enters patient's head about 3 cm above occipital protuberance, directed 23 degrees caudal to canthomeatal line & exits glabella
|
|
|
|
What are you trying to image with a reverse-towne's projection?
|
Condyle; ramus of mandible; posteriolateral wall of maxillary sinus; nasal septum;
This view eliminates superimposition of mastoid and zygoma over the condylar neck |
|
|
|
How is the patient positioned for a Reverse-Towne's projection?
|
Forehead in contact with the film; Canthomeatal line oriented 30 degrees downward and patient has mouth open
|
|
|
|
How is the central ray directed in a Reverse-Towne's projection?
|
Central ray parallel with floor and directed to film sagittal plane through occipital bone
|
|
|
|
What is a submentovertex projection used to visualize?
|
Base of skull, curvature of mandible, condyles, sphenoid sinus, zygomatic arches
|
|
|
|
How is the patient positioned in a submentovertex projection?
|
Patient's head/neck extended backwards with vertex of skull on center of cassette; Frankfort plane or canthomeatal line is parallel to film plane
|
|
|
|
How is the central ray directed in the a submentovertex projection?
|
Directed from below mandible and enters midline between condyles; directed perpendicular to film plane
|
|
|
|
What are you visualizing mandibular lateral oblique projection?
|
The body and ramus of the mandible
|
|
|
|
How is the patient positioned in a mandibular lateral projection?
|
Long, axis of head tilted towards side being examined with mandible protruded; Cassette against patient's cheek with patient holding the cassette
|
|
|
|
Where is the central ray directed for a mandibular body projection?
|
Towards 1st molar from a point 2 cm below angle of the mandible on tube side
|
|
|
|
What is the mandibular ramus projection useful for evaluating
|
3 molar regions of maxilla and mandible
|
|
|
|
How is the central ray directed in a mandibular ramus projection?
|
Directed towards center of ramus on the side of interest from a point 2 cm below the inferior border of the 1st molar region on the mandible on the tube side
|
|
|
|
What is the concept of cross-sectional imaging?
|
You take slices of a structure and combine these slices in order to evaluate the structures without the superimposition or overlapping of the structures.
|
|
|
|
What are the uses of conventional tomography in dentistry?
|
1) TMJ analysis
2) Implant diagnostics |
|
|
|
In conventional tomography, blurring is greater under two conditions. What are these two conditions?
|
1) Longer distance between the structure and the focal plane
2) More complex the tube motion |
|
|
|
What are 4 advantages of computed tomography?
|
1) No superimposition of structures
2) Good bony contrast 3) Enhanced soft tissue contrast 4) Non-invasive |
|
|
|
What are 5 used of computed tomography?
|
1) Suspected pathology
2) Facial fractures 3) Dental implant sites 4) TMJ evaluation 5) Abnormalities |
|
|
|
What are 3 disdvantages of computed tomography?
|
1) Cost
2) Radiation dose 3) Streak artifacts |
|
|
|
What are 4 advantages of MRI?
|
1) High soft tissue contrast
2) Multiplanar reconstruction (MPR) 3) No ionizing radiation (radio-waves are used) 4) Non-invasive procedure (if no contrast medium is used) |
|
|
|
What are 6 uses of MRI in dentistry?
|
1) TMJ disorders
2) Articular disc evaluation 3) Orofacial soft tissue lesions 4) Salivary gland imaging 5) Paranasal sinus imaging 6) Nasopharyngeal lesions |
|
|
|
What are the contraindications for MRI?
|
1) Cannot take certain things into the MRI (metal, cardiac pacemakers, etc)
2) Claustrophobia 3) Availability & Cost |
|
|
|
What advantages are there to CBCT?
|
1) Lower scan cost
2) Lower dose (30-500 uSv) 3) Viewing software designed for dentistry 4) Measurement analysis 5) Computer generated patient models 6) Reduced metal artifacts |
|
|
|
What are some indications for CBCT?
|
1) Pre-implant assessment
2) Assessment of the facial bones for infection, trauma, and congenital/developmental deformities 3) Localization and identification of important anatomic structures 4) TMJ hard tissue evaluation |
|
|
|
What advanced imaging techniques are best for hard tissues?
|
Conventional tomography or computed tomography
|
|
|
|
What advanced imaging technique is best for evaluation of soft tissues?
|
MRI
|
|
|
|
Nuclear medicine is used to assess physical changes that are a direct result of _________ ___________.
|
Biochemical alterations
|
|
|
|
The basis of ultrasonography/sonography is the conversion of ______ __________ into ______ _______ _________ _________.
|
Electrical impulses; high-frequency sound waves
|
|
