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73 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Match the salivary gland to it's duct
- Stenson's duct - Wharton's duct - Ducts of Rivinus / Bartholian A. Parotid B. Sublingual C. Submandibular |
A. Parotid = Stenson's duct
B. Sublingual = Ducts of Rivinus / Bartholian C. Submandibular = Wharton's duct |
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Match the salivary gland to it's secretion
- mucus - serous - mixed A. Parotid B. Sublingual C. Submandibular D. Minor |
A. Parotid = serous
B. Sublingual = mucous C. Submandibular = mixed D. Minor = mucous |
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This salivary gland duct crosses ____ the lingual nerve.
A. over B. under A. Wharton's duct B. Stenson's duct C. Ducts of Rivinus/Bartholin |
A. over (lingual nerve)
A. Wharton's duct (submandibular) |
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During a sialography, an abnormality in salivary gland secretion occurs if the iodine dye is retained for:
A. >1 min B. >2 min C. >3 min D. >4 min E. >5 min |
E. >5 min
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An abnormal sialography with a "sausage-link" pattern
A. sialadenitis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. sialodochitis |
C. sialodochitis
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An abnormal sialography with a "pruning of the leaves" or "tree in winter" pattern
A. sialadenitis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. sialodochitis |
A. sialadenitis
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Sialoliths are most common in ______ gland
A. Parotid B. Sublingual C. Submandibular D. Minor |
C. Submandibular
(longest duct) (salivary flow against gravity) |
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If a sialolith cannot be treated with regular hydration & antibiotics, you can treat by removing the _____ from the _____
(select all) - gland - stone A. anterior B. posterior |
A. anterior = stone
B. posterior = gland (intraorally) |
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Match the abnormality to it's location in the mouth
- floor of mouth - labial/buccal mucosa A. mucocele B. ranula |
A. mucocele = mucocele
B. ranula = floor of mouth (simple ranula = sublingual space) (plunging ranula = submandibular space & neck) |
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T/F
Secondary Sjogren's Syndrome is associated with lupus |
False
(rheumatoid arthritis) |
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The biopsy of which gland is the best to diagnose Sjogren's Syndrome?
A. parotid B. labial minor salivary gland C. sublingual D. submandibular E. palatal minor salivary gland |
B. labial minor salivary gland
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Most salivary gland tumors are:
(select all) A. benign B. malignant C. major glands D. minor glands E. in females F. in males |
A. benign
C. major glands (parotid) E. in females |
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What percentage of salivary gland tumors are benign for the following glands:
- major glands (parotid) - minor glands (palate) A. 35% B. 50% C. 65% D. 80% |
- Major glands = (D) 80%
- Minor glands = (B) 50% |
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What is the most common BENIGN salivary gland tumor?
A. Pleomorphic Adenoma B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Wharthin's tumor E. Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma |
A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
(Parotid Gland) |
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What is the most common MALIGNANT salivary gland tumor?
A. Pleomorphic Adenoma B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Wharthin's tumor E. Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma |
B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(10% Parotid) (20% Palate) |
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Match the tumor to it's description.
- salivary epithelium trapped in lymph nodes - slow growing, painless mass in parotid gland - painful, ulcerated, and my have bluish tinge - found at junciton of hard & soft palate involving multiple tissues & forms - can have facial nerve involvement with paralysis (neurotropic) A. Pleomorphic Adenoma B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Wharthin's tumor E. Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma |
A. Pleomorphic Adenoma = slow growing, painless mass in parotid gland
B. mucoepidermoid carcinoma = painful, ulcerated, and my have bluish tinge C. adenoid cystic carcinoma = can have facial nerve involvement with paralysis (neurotropic) D. Wharthin's tumor = salivary epithelium trapped in lymph nodes E. Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma = found at junciton of hard & soft palate involving multiple tissues & forms |
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What are the advantages of Intraseptal alveoloplasty?
(select all) A. reduces lingual undercuts B. maintains ridge height C. reduces labial undercuts D. maintains ridge width |
B. maintains ridge height
C. reduces labial undercuts (reduces width) |
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Buccal exostoses occur more often in the:
A. maxilla B. mandible |
A. maxilla
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What is a major concern of the "tunnel technique" of bone graft material?
(select all) A. mental nerve paresthesia B. lingual nerve paresthesia C. particle migration D. decreased keratinized tissue |
A. mental nerve paresthesia
C. particle migration (Infraorbital nerve [V2] paresthesia if in maxilla) |
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What is the common bone graft material for a mandibular Superior Border Augmentation?
A. hydroxylapatite B. freeze dried bovine bone C. freeze dried allogenic bone D. rib/iliac crest block graft |
C. freeze dried allogenic bone
(classically was hydroxylapatite) (tunnel technique) |
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What is the common bone graft material for a mandibular Superior Border ONLAY Augmentation?
A. hydroxylapatite B. bovine bone C. freeze dried allogenic bone D. rib/iliac crest block graft |
D. rib/iliac crest block graft
(significant resorption) |
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What is the major advantage of the pedicled/interpositional bone augmentation of the mandible?
A. no risk of nerve damage B. maintains blood supply C. no muscle involvement D. reduced scar formation |
B. maintains blood supply
(visor osteotomy) |
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What is the major advantage of the LeFort Osteotomy bone augmentation of the mandible?
A. no risk of nerve damage B. maintains blood supply C. no muscle involvement D. reduced scar formation |
B. maintains blood supply
(can also correct Class III) |
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A transpositional flap vestibuloplasty (lip switch) can only be done if the anterior MANDIBULAR bone height is:
A. >5 mm B. >10 mm C. >15 mm |
C. >15 mm
(labial mucosa flap → depth of vestibule) (periosteum → lip mucosa) |
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Torus palatinus occurs more often in:
A. men B. women |
B. women
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T/F
If a patient has a palatal torus, there is a good chance he has a mandibluar torus as well |
True
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A palatal abscess is most commonly associated with:
(select all) A. central incisor B. lateral incisor C. canine D. palatal root of 1st premolar E. palatal root of 1st molar |
B. lateral incisor
D. palatal root of 1st premolar E. palatal root of 1st molar |
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Which of the following is an indication of antibiotic use?
(select all) A. periapical abscess B. dry socket C. trismus D. drained alveolar abscess E. multiple extractions |
C. trismus (if due to infection)
(multiple extractions - only if in compromised patient) (UIC does for multiple extracitons anyways - just to cover their ass) |
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T/F
A bacterial culture is usually not needed for an odontogenic infection |
True
UNLESS - spreads beyond alveolar process - non-responsive to antibiotics - recurrent infection - compromised host defenses |
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Antibiotics which interfere with cell wall production of growing bacteria, killing the cells
A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic |
A. bactericidal
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Antibiotics which interfere with bacterial reproduction and growth.
A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic |
B. bacteriostatic
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What do the following prescription abbreviations mean?
- q. - b.i.d. - p.r.n. - stat |
- q. = every
- b.i.d. = twice a day - p.r.n. = as needed - stat = immediately |
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T/F
Schedule II and III drugs must be written in words and numbers |
False
(controlled substances must be) |
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Penicillin is:
A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic |
A. bactericidal
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Erythromycin is:
A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic |
B. bacteriostatic
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Which antibiotic is helpful against upper respiratory infections?
A. penicillin B. azithromycin C. erythromycin D. cephalosporin E. clindamycin F. tetracycline G. metronidazole |
B. azithromycin
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Which antibiotic has a risk of GI problems?
A. penicillin B. azithromycin C. erythromycin D. cephalosporin E. clindamycin F. tetracycline G. metronidazole |
C. erythromycin
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Which antibiotic has a risk of pseudomembranous colitis?
A. penicillin B. azithromycin C. erythromycin D. cephalosporin E. clindamycin F. tetracycline G. metronidazole |
E. clindamycin
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Spread of infection to which maxillary spaces can become life threatening?
(select all) A. buccal B. vestibular C. orbital D. infraorbital E. subcutaneous F. infratemporal G. Maxillary & paranasal sinuses H. palatal |
C. orbital
D. infraorbital F. infratemporal G. Maxillary & paranasal sinuses |
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Which mandibular spaces make up the perimandibular space?
(select all) A. body of mandible B. submandibular C. pterygomandibular D. sublingual E. submental |
B. submandibular
D. sublingual E. submental |
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Trismus can be caused by infection to which of the following spaces?
(select all) A. buccal B. submental C. sublingual D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. temporal |
D. submandibular??
E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. temporal |
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Trismus becomes an emergency when the patient can't open their mouth more than
A. 50 mm B. 35 mm C. 25 mm D. 15 mm |
D. 15 mm
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The space most commonly involved with infection is:
A. vestibular B. buccal C. subcutaneous D. palatal |
A. vestibular
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Loss of nasolabial fold describes infection to:
A. buccal B. submental C. sublingual D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. infratemporal H. infraorbital |
H. infraorbital
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An apical abscess can drain into the vestibular space when the apex of the root is _____ to the buccinator
A. apical B. cervical |
B. cervical
(apical = buccal space) |
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An early sign of Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis is involvement of:
A. CN III (Oculomotor) B. CN IV (Trochlear) C. CN V (Trigeminal) D. CN VI (Abducens) |
D. CN VI (Abducens)
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Floor of mouth swelling & tongue elevation describes infection to:
A. buccal B. submental C. sublingual D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. infratemporal H. infraorbital |
C. sublingual
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Loss of inferior border of mandible describes infection to which space(s):
(select all) A. buccal B. lateral pharyngeal C. submandibular D. masseteric E. pterygomandibular |
C. submandibular
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Ludwig's Angina involves infection of which spaces?
(select all) A. buccal B. submental C. sublingual D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. infratemporal H. infraorbital |
B. submental (x1)
C. sublingual (x2) D. submandibular (x2) |
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What spaces communicate with the Lateral Pharyngeal Space?
(select all) A. buccal B. retropharyngeal C. sublingual D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. temporal H. infraorbital |
B. retropharyngeal
D. submandibular E. masseteric F. pterygomandibular G. temporal |
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What drugs can be used to treat xerostomia?
(select all) A. pilocarpine B. cevimeline C. erythromycin D. prednisone |
A. pilocarpine
B. cevimeline (stimulate parasympathetics) |
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X-Ray treatment for squamous cell carcinoma is usually:
A. <5000 cGy B. 5000-54000 cGy C. 54000-6000 cGy D. 6000-6300 cGy |
D. 6000-6300 cGy
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X-Ray doses of ______ are associated with DECREASED risk for osteoradionecrosis
A. <5000 cGy B. 5000-54000 cGy C. 54000-6000 cGy D. 6000-6300 cGy |
A. <5000 cGy
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Which has a higher chance of osteoradionecrosis
A. maxilla B. mandible |
B. mandible
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Bisphosphonates inhibit bone ______ by suppressing ______
A. resorption B. formation C. osteoclasts D. osteoblasts |
A. resorption
C. osteoclasts |
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T/F
Patients taking oral bisphosphonates for <3 years require a drug holiday |
False
(OVER 3 yrs = drug holiday) (3 months before & 3 months after) |
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During fetal development, PRIMARY pneumatization occurs during
A. 2nd month B. 3rd month C. 4th month D. 5th month |
B. 3rd month
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During fetal development, SECONDARY pneumatization occurs during
A. 2nd month B. 3rd month C. 4th month D. 5th month |
D. 5th month
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The ostium lies ___ up the distance up the medial wall of the maxillary sinus
A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 2/3 D. 3/4 |
C. 2/3
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What is the gold standard of maxillary sinus examination?
A. visual inspection B. palpation C. transillumination D. CT scan |
D. CT scan
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Only ____ of all maxillary sinusitis can progress & involve ALL sinuses
A. 2-3% B.5-8% C. 10-12% D. 15-17% |
C. 10-12%
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T/F
Sinus perforation of <8 mm can lead to spontaneous closure |
False
(<5 mm) |
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Osteomyelitis occurs mainly in the:
A. maxilla B. mandible |
B. mandible
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Drug of choice for actinomycosis is:
A. penicillin B. tetracycline C. clindamycin D. erythromycin |
A. penicillin
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Tetracyclines are:
A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic |
B. bacteriostatic
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What is a concern with taking metronidazole for antibiotic use?
A. emergence reactions B. disulfiram effect C. pseudomembranous colitis D. photosensitivity |
B. disulfiram effect
(nausea & vomiting with alcohol) pseudomembranous colitis = clindamycin photosensitivity = tetracyclines |
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A patient having had a joint replacement within the last _____ are at risk of infection and should premedicate with antibiotics
A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 2 years E. 18 months |
C. 2 years
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In the PAROTID gland, infections are ______ to stones
A. primary B. secondary |
A. primary
(Infection = primary) (stones = secondary) |
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In the SUBMANDIBULAR gland infections are ______ to stones
A. primary B. secondary |
B. secondary
(stones = primary) (infection = secondary) |
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Stenson's Duct is controlled by:
A. CN V2 B. CN V3 C. CN VII D. CN IX |
D. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
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T/F
Loss of taste can occur during long-term x-ray therapy |
False
(During SHORT-TERM therapy) (also erythema → mucositis) (long-term = poor healing) |
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If a patient requires undergoes X-Ray Therapy, when is the best time to extract teeth?
A. before XRT B. during XRT C. after XRT |
A. before XRT
(only after XRT if emergency) |
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Loss of angle of mandible describes infection to which space(s):
(select all) A. buccal B. lateral pharyngeal C. submandibular D. masseteric E. pterygomandibular |
B. lateral pharyngeal
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