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127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Trilafron: Class and mode of action

Anti-Nauseants. Antidopaminergic blocks dopamine pathways in vomiting centre chemoreceptor trigger zone .

Gravol : Class and mode of action

Anticholinergic, sedative, and H1 blocking contribute to antiemetic effect

Odansetron: Class and Mode of action

antiserotonergic. blocks 5ht receptors on neurons located peripheral or central nervous system.

Dexamethasone: Class and mode of action

Anti-nauseant. MOA unknown

Mechanism that causes renal toxicity

Normal: decrease Hb Volume=decrease renal Hb flow = decrease GFR= Increase vascular resistance+Na retention. PGE1 and PGE2 counters this.



NSAIDS: No Cyclooxygenase = No PGE1 and PGE2=No counter= Uncontrolled increase of renal vascular resistance = renal failure!

Typical Dosage for Ibuprofen (Adult and Child):

Adult: 600mg po q6h


Child: 10mg/kg po 6h

Typical Dosage for Naproxen (Adult and Child):

Adult: 500mg po q12h


Child: 5mg/kg po 12h

Typical Dosage for Acetominophen (Adult and Child):

Adult: 650-1000mg q4h max 4000mg/24h


Child: 10-15mg/kg q4h max65 mg/kg/24h

Typical Dosage for Ketoprofen SR (Adult and Child):

Adult: 200 mg po q24h


Child: not indicated under 12

What are the components in Tylenol 1

15mg Caffeine


300mg Acetominophen


8mg Codeine

What are the components in Tylenol 2

15mg Caffeine


300mg acetominophen


15mg Codeine

What are the components in Tylenol 3

15mg Caffeine


300mg acetominophen


30mg Codeine

What are the components in Tylenol with Codeine elixir

160mg Acetominophen/5ml


8mg Codeine

What are the components in 292

375mg ASA


15mg Caffeine


30mg Codeine

What are the components in Percocet-demi

325mg Acetominophen


2.5mg Oxycodone

Amoxicillin Dosage for Prophylaxis?

Adults: 2gram 1 hour prior


Children: 50mg/kg 1 hour prior

Clindamycin dosage for prophylaxis?

Adults: 600mg 1 hour prior


Children: 20mg/kg 1 hour prior


(As per AHA guidelines)

Contraindications for NSAIDs

1)PUD


2) Hypersensitivity


3) RIsk of renal failure

Contrindications for Acetominophen

1) Hypersensitivity


2) Alcoholics

Contraindications for Opioids

1) Hypersensitivty


2)Diarrhea caused by poisoning


3) Acute respiratory depression, acute asthma attack, upper airway obstruction


4) MAO Inhibitors


5)Morphine


What is one mechanism in which NSAIDs can cause PUD

PGE normally inhibits Acid (H+) release in parietal cells. Since NSAIDs prevent production of PGE (normally downstream product of COX but it's knocked out by NSAIDS), you get uncontrolled acid release which causes destruction of GI lining and Ulcers

Pathophysiological effects of NSAIDs

1) GI=ulcer, pain, nausea


2) Allergic reactions


3) CVS: CHF, elevated BP


4) Renal: Acute renal failure


5) Hemostasis: reversible decrease in TXA2, decrease platelet function

9 risk factors for NSAID induced Renal failure

Age >60


Arteriosclerotic Cardiovascular disease


Use of Diuretics


Acute Gouty Arthritits (caused by over production of uric acid)


CHF


Renal Disease


SLE


Severe liver disease and cirrhosis


Intravascular volume depletion

What percentage of IANB fail?

15-20%

% of infection that are: Aerobe? Anaerobe? both?

5% Aerobe


35% Anaerobe


65% both

List the instruments on a standard oral surgery tray

Bishops/Austin/Minnesota/Retractor


Fraser Suction


#15 Blade


#3 Bard parker handle


#9 Molt Periosteal Elevator


#34 straight elevator


Reverse Cutting Needle


Plain Gut suture Needle

If Warfarin is stopped as part of the pre-op preparation, when should the patient stop taking warfarin?

72 hours pre-op. Day before=useless

If a Diabetic patient is about to undergo surgery but does not require NPO, how should they be managed?

normal diet & oral hypoglycemics; if anticipate difficulty with eating post-op, hold am hypoglycemic til able to eat post-op

If a Diabetic patient is about to undergo surgery and requires NPO, how should they be managed?

Oral hypoglycemics should be withheld 24 hrs pre-op if the patient is made NPO

How long does Plain Gut last and when should it be used?

4-7 days, quick healing mucosa

How long does Chromic Gut last and when should it be used?

9-14 days, quick healing mucosa

How long does Vicryl (Polyglactic acid) last and when should it be used?

20-30 days, subcutaneous sutures, mucosa, muscle

How long does Dexon last and when should it be used?

14-21 days, subcutaneous sutures, mucosa

What are major risks of tooth extraction?

a) Altered sensation: 1% permanent


b) Vital organ infection


c) Fracture of the mandible (>0.01%) and maxillary tuberosity


d) injury and litigation

Risks of not extracting 3rd molar?

a) Infection (20-40%)


b) Trismus


c) Caries which may lead to loss of second molars d) Development of pathological condition such as cyst (3%) or tumor (0.2%)


e) Vital Organ infection


f) Resorption of adjacent tooth


g)Increase risk of permanent nerve injury if have to remove when root fully developed

Components of Alvogyl

Iodoform, Butyl paraminobenzoate, Eugenol, Penghawar, Excipient

MOA of Alvogyl

Antiseptic, Analgesic

Contraindications to Alvogyl

Allergy to Procaine type anesthetics, hypersensitivity to iodone

What forceps are used to take out A? 

What forceps are used to take out A?

222

What forceps are used to take out B? 

What forceps are used to take out B?

17, 23

What forceps are used to take out C? 

What forceps are used to take out C?

203, 74

What forceps are used to take out D? 

What forceps are used to take out D?

151,151A

What forceps are used to take out A? 

What forceps are used to take out A?

121S

What forceps are used to take out B? 

What forceps are used to take out B?

53R/L


88 R/L


89/90

C and E?

C and E?

150 and 150A

D?

D?

1, 99C

Minor transient risks of intervention (surgery)?

1. Sensory Nerve alteration


2. Alveolitits


3. Trismus


4. Infection


5. Hemorrhage


6. Dentoalveolar fracture


7. Displacement of Tooth


8. Oral-Antral fistula

What some minor PERMANENT risks of injury?

Periodontal Injury


Adjacent tooth injury


TMJ injury

Likely pathogens. What Bacterias belongs in Box A

Likely pathogens. What Bacterias belongs in Box A

Strep (Viridans)

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box B

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box B

Peptostreptococcus

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box C

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box C

Lactobacillus

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box D

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box D

Nothing.

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box E, F and G? 

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box E, F and G?

Nothing!

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box H? 

Likely pathogens. What bacteria goes in Box H?

Bacteroides


Porphyromonas


Prevotella


Fusobacterium

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box A? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box A?

Staph

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box B? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box B?

Nothing

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box C? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box C?

Cornybacterium

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box D? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box D?

Actinomycetes

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box E? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box E?

Moraxella

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box F? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box F?

Veillonella

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box G? 

Less Common Pathogens What bacteria goes in Box G?

Enterobacteriaceae


Eikenella

What percent of cleft patients have other anomalies?

7-13% CL


20-50% CP


2-11% CL/CP

What percent of cleft palates have other anomalies associated with a syndrome?

2-4%

What is involved in an assessment to determine whether an alveolar bone graft is required for a cleft patient?

1. Oronasal fistula (do you get ice cream going through your nose?, clinical exam)


2. Lack of alveolar bone stock (by xray, clinical exam)

What are the goals of alveolar bone grafting in the cleft patient?

1) Closure of vestibular and palatal oral nasal fistulae


2) Provision of bone of sufficient quality and quantity to allow eruption of permanent LI and Canine


3) Provisional of support of lateral ala of nose and skeletal nasal base


4) Provision of suitable bone architecture of premaxilla and anterior face of maxilla on cleft side to support accurate nasolabial muscle reconstruction.


5) Establishment of functional nasal airway on cleft side

Reasons for removing root tips

1) Superficial


2) Tooth was infected


3) Tooth is far from Vital structures


4) future implant

Reasons for not removing the root tip

1) Small (less than 5mm)


2) Deep


3) Near vital structures

What type of needle is 1? 

What type of needle is 1?

Tapered

What type of needle is 2? 

What type of needle is 2?

Cutting

What type of needle is 3? 

What type of needle is 3?

Reverse Cutting

What is the most likely emergency associated with asthma?

Bronchospasm

What medication should be administered to the patient in the event of a bronchospasm?

Salbutamol

What is mechanism of action of a Beta 2 agonist?

Stimulates Beta 2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscles leading to increased cAMP and bronchodilation

What are contraindications to the drug of choice (Ventolin)?

Hypersensitivty, tachyarrhythmia, hypokalemia

What are the side effects of Salbutamol?

Nervousness, tremor, headache, tachycardia, palpitations, nausea, weakness, hypokalemia

In the event of a bronchospasm, how much salbutamol should you administer to the patient?

1-2 puffs (100-200ug) PRN

What are 3 indications for biopsy a lesion?

1) Persists for more than two weeks with no apparent cause


2) Persistant tumor-like structure either visible/palpable


3) Interferes with local function

Does 81mg have a antiplatelet effect?

Yes

List 6 risk factors for NSAID associated GI toxicity in the general population

Age >60 years


Concommitant use of corticosteroids


Previous upper GI bleed


Use of excessively high NSAID doses


History of peptic ulcer disease


History of CVD

What spectrum of activity does Penicillin V target?

Strep, peptostrep, +/- actinomyces

What spectrum of activity does Amoxicillin target?

Strep, peptostrep, actinomyces, prevotella, +/- H.influenza

What spectrum of activity does Amoxicillin w/Clavulanic acid target?

Strep, S. Aureus, H. Influenza, M. Catarrhalis, actinomyces, prevotella, peptrostrep

What spectrum of activity does metronidazole target?

Anaerobes (Bacteroides, prevotella, peptostrep)

What spectrum of activity does Clindamycin target?

Strep, S. Aureus, Actinomyces, bacteroides, prevotella

Patient is having a MI. List 4 first line agents including dose and administration you will use

1. Nitroglycerin sublingually 0.3-0.6mg every 5 minute up to 3 times (if systolic >90)


2. ASA 325mg chewed. 1 more taken orally


3. Morphine 5-10mg IM/SC


4. Oxygen 4L/min nasal canula

6 year 44lb (20kg). 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 epi. You injected 3 carpules. How much lido in mg did you inject?

36mg lidocaine/carpule x 3 carp=108mg

6 year 44lb (20kg). 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 epi. You injected 3 carpules. How much epi did you inject?

0.018mg epi/carp x 3carp=0.054mg

6 year 44lb (20kg). 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 epi. You injected 3 carpules. How much epi did you inject?


What is the max dose of lido you can give her?


What is the Max epi you can give her?

Max =7mg/kg x 20=140mg lido


0.2mg Epi MAX

Write a prescription for pain medication

Name, Date


Age


Address


Rx: Tylenol 3 (three)


Dispense 24 (twenty four) tabs


Directions: take 2 tabs PO q4h PRN pain


Do NOT Refill


Signature and name

Please write prescription for amoxicillin

Name, Date


Age


Address


Rx: Amoxicillin 500mg


Dispense 22 (twenty two) tabs


Directions: take 2 tabs (1g) STAT, and then T 1 tab (500mg) po q8h until finished


Signature and name

Indications for antibiotic prophylaxis

1)Artificial Heart valves


2) History of infective endocarditits


3) Certain specific, serious congenital heart conditions such as:


-Unrepaired or incompletely repaired cyanotic congenic congenital heart disease including those with palliative shunts and conduits


-Completely repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or device by surgery or catheter intervention during the first 6 months after the procedure


-repaired congenital heart defect with a residual defect at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or a prosthetic device


4) Cardiac transplant recipients who develop cardiac valulopathy

Technical goals of overcoming complex extractions?

Improve Mechanical advantage


Reduce resistance


Correct an inadequate path

What are some methods of achieving the technical goals in complex extractions?

Improved Access: Flap, bone removal


Improved MA: bone removal


Reduced resistance: bone removal, section teeth


Correct path of removal: Remove bone, section teeth

4 general contraindications for vertical releasing incisions

1. Canine prominence


2. Palate


3. Over mental foramen


4. Lingual of the mandible


5. Bony Defects


6. Over incisive papilla

List signs and symptoms of Acute MI

Visceral or precordial chest pain, crushing, heavy, squeezing, burning, or dull ache, +/- radiation to neck jaws, back, shoulders or arms, dyspnea, diaphoresis, restlessness, presyncope, n/v, diarrhea

Draw surgical flap incision for tooth 46 below. 

Draw surgical flap incision for tooth 46 below.

Draw surgical flap incision for tooth 37 

Draw surgical flap incision for tooth 37

Draw where you would make the biospy 

Draw where you would make the biospy

Draw where the knife would cut for a biopsy in the longitudinal view 

Draw where the knife would cut for a biopsy in the longitudinal view

Draw where the knife would cut for a biopsy in the cross-section view

Draw where the knife would cut for a biopsy in the cross-section view

Definition of Local infiltration

Anesthesia that targets terminal branches of the nerves to block transmission

Definition of Conscious sedation

A depressed level of consciousness via the use of oral, inhaled or IV drugs

Regional block definition

Blocks transmission in a entire dermatome

GA definition

State of reversible loss of sensation and consciousness causing reversible drug induced coma

What are the three ways to use a elevator?

Displacement: putting it into PDL space


Lever Action: Engaging tooth through purchase point and using bone as fulcrum to life tooth up


Wheel and axle: When elevator engages purchase point and handle is roated and tooth is displaced laterally to line of shaft.

Definition of Osteogenesis

new bone formation by surviving pre-osteoblasts and obsteoblasts within the graft

Definition of Osteoconduction

Vascular tissue invades the graft, bringing with it the osteoblasts that deposit new bone = creeping substitution

Definition of Osteoinduction

Components in bone graft (e.g. BMP) stimulate recipient cells to form new bone

Name the function of axon:

Long projection of neuron that conducst electrical impulses away from cell body

Name the function of Cell body

contains nucleus and other organelles

Name the function of Dendrites

branched projections of neuron that receives signals from body

Three components of LA and their functions

Lipophilic- allows it to cross cell membrane


Intermediate- determines if it’s amide/ester (ester metabolized in tissue by plasma


esterase and amide in the liver by CYPs)


Hydrophilic- allows it to dissolve in interstitial fluid

Biochemically why is it difficult to anaesthetize an infected area?

Infectious environment is an acidic one thus it is difficult to achieve anesthesia as there will not be enough free base from RN


RNH+ <-- --> RN + H+


Vasovagal syncope – what is it, cause, and tx for it?

Loss of consciousness resulting from inadequate blood flow to brain.
Cause: pain, fear. Simultaneous loss of sympathetic tone and increased parasympathetic Vagal activation.
Management:


1. Stop


Supine position


ABC and CPR


4. Oxygen

What do you do when anesthetic fails?

Find out if it’s psychological/ physiological.
If physio: demonstrate patient difference between pressure and pain by perio Probe in area (they should just feel it when it moves not when you place it)-->try Different technique, allow more time, make sure anatomical landmarks correct. If psyc: reduce stress level by TLC, consider sedation/ nitrous oxide/ GA.

What is akinosi?

Closed mouth IANB.
Anesthetize all teeth on that side, body of mandible, inferior portion of ramus, buccal mucosa in front of mental foramen, ant 2/3 of tongue, FOM, lingual soft tissues. Aim for MGJ of maxillary teeth.

Where to take bone from for a graft? How to prevent p/o complications

Ramus, zygoma, chin, iliac crest (ant/post), rib, tibia, calvarium
Give antibiotics, antiseptic agent, analgesics post-op.

Radiograph with 2 fractures – describe fractures, list 10 clinical features of trauma and where to place plates



localized pain


localized swelling


intraoral hematoma


intraoral laceration/bleeding


trismus


malocclusion


crepitations


mobility of teeth


loss of teeth


fetid oral malodor


- If anterior to mental foramen, need to place 2 plates because you need to resist movement in two plates.

Sequence of treatment for cysts/tumors:

1) Ablative procedures =take tumor/cyst out


2) Soft tissue reconstruction


-Mycocutaneous flaps


-Immediate nerve repair(remove nerve from tumor then reanastamose to NV bundle)


3) osseous reconstruction


4) Denture ready surgery

Steps and age at which they are performed for Cleft and palate surgery
1) Lip repair and Soft palate repair at 5-6 months

2) Primary hard palate repair with primary gingivoperiosteoplasty at 12 months


3) Alveolar bone graft at 5-6 years


4) Orthognathic surgery at 13-17 years

What is the definition of Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome?

-Characterized by repetitive episodes of apnea and/or hypopnea


-Due to obstruction of upper airway during sleep


-Assoc w excessive daytime sleepiness


-Relatively common, known to be assoc w significant health + social consequences


Obstructive apnea = no airflow for 10 sec while there is still effort for respiration

What is the Apnea hyponea index? What is the threshold of the AHI before a patient is dxed as Obstructive sleep apnea?

# of apneas + hypopneas per hour of sleep


.


AHI of at least 5 is associated with excessive daytime sleepiness

List symptoms of Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome

Prominent snoring


-Excessive daytime sleepiness


-Early morning headaches


-Impaired memory


-Dry throat on awakening


-Enuresis (uncontrolled urination)


-Nocturnal choking/gasping


-Depression


-Recurrent awakenings from sleep

Medical complications with OSAS

Hypertension


CV and Cerebrovascular disease


Neurocognitive functions



Range of success rate for maxillomandibular advancement for tx of OSAS?

Overall 70%


With uvulopalatopharyngealoplasty-85%


With Genioplastiy-100%

What are the advantages of performing a bone graft in a cleft patient just after eruption of the central incisor rather than canines erupt?

+:


1)If bone graft is done at beginning of maxillary permanent central incisor, then the 2 centrals will be the same length on both the normal and cleft side. If wait till permanent canines, then the teeth on the cleft side will be 25% shorter than normal side. Therefore, good aesthetics


2) Second reason: much better perio support of the permanent teeth on the cleft side if graft done earlier

Analgesic ladder(dosages)

Ketoprofen SR (200mg q24h)


T3: 2 tab q4h prn pain


Percocet: 1 tab q4h prn pain


OxyContin: 10-20mg q12h pain


Dilaudid(hydromorphone): 2-4mg q4h pain