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38 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

what does PoM mean in the BNF?

Prescription only medicine

Preparations considered less suitable for prescribing but may be justifiable in certain circumstances

what does CD mean in the BNF?

Controlled drug - subject to requirements of the misuse of drugs act

Detail the Medicines Act 1968

1. General sales list meds (GSL) - no need for presence of pharmacist




2. Pharmacy meds (P) - Pharmacist must see pt before drug sold




3. Prescription only meds (PoM)



Detail the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971

Deals with manufacture, supply and posession of 'controlled drugs'




3 classes:


A - cocaine, diamorphine, MDMA


B - codeine, cannabis


C - buprenorphine, benzos

Detail the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001

Defines classes of person who are allowed to supply and posses controlled drugs while acting in their professional roles




Lay down conditions under which these activities may be carried out




Divides drugs into 5 schedules - CD1, CD2, CD3, CD4-1, CD4-2

What advice would you give to a patient when prescribing a drug?

1. take drugs at correct time and finish course


2. STOP in event of unexpected reactions and contact prescriber


3. Discuss known side effects and interactions


4. keep medicines safe, esp with children

What type of virus is HIV?

RNA retrovirus

How does HIV infection affect the immune system?

Infects T-lymphocytes and binds to CD4 receptors, T-cells unable to function in surveillance for infections and cancer

How is HIV diagnosed?

ELISA test - antibody test

How is the viral load of HIV monitored? And what is the significance of this?

HIV RNA test


Gives indication of prognosis

When might diagnostic tests produce 'false negative' results?

6-12 wks post infection

When might oral fungal infections be seen in HIV infected patients?

Relatively early in CD4 dip, 500/mm^3

Which oral lesions are strongly associated with HIV?

1. Candidosis


2. Hairy leukoplakia - EBV


3. Kaposi's sarcoma


4. Non-hodgkin's lymphoma


5. Perio diseases eg ANUG


6. candida-associated lesions eg angular cheilitis

When should you be suspicious of HIV infection with regards to candidal infections?

1. Pseudomembranous candidosis more anteriorly - steroid inhalers hit further back


2. Erythematous candidosis with no denture


3. Treatment not making it better

What are the histological features of hairy leukoplakia?

Keratin overgrowth in columns
Koilocyte = virally active cell

Keratin overgrowth in columns


Koilocyte = virally active cell

What are the causes of an upper motor neurone lesion?

1. CVA (stroke)


2. Cerebral tumour


3. trauma

What are the causes of a lower motor neurone lesion?

1. Middle ear infection


2. MS


3. HIV


4. Lyme's disease


5. Sarcoidosis


6. Misplaced LA


7. Bell's palsy


8. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

What is the clinical difference between an upper motor neurone lesion and a lower motor neurone lesion?

UMN spares the upper half of the face - ability to wrinkle forehead maintained

How can HSV cause a bells palsy?

HSV reactivated, causes nerve to swell, nerve constricted by stylomastoid foramen

How can a bells palsy be treated?

Oral predisnolone 50-80g/day in one dose for 10 days


Anti-inflammatory - allows nerve to return to normal

How may gonorrhoea present in the mouth?

Dry, burning sensation with diffuse mucosal erythema + lymph node enlargement

Describe primary syphilis

chancre - painless round ulcer at point of infection
Resolves 2-3 months
Regional lymphadenopathy

chancre - painless round ulcer at point of infection


Resolves 2-3 months


Regional lymphadenopathy

Describe secondary syphilis

1-4 months after primary infection
Macular skin rash
Snail-track ulcers 
Generalised rash and lymphadenopathy
Oral papules
Resolves 2-6 weeks

1-4 months after primary infection


Macular skin rash


Snail-track ulcers


Generalised rash and lymphadenopathy


Oral papules


Resolves 2-6 weeks



Describe tertiary syphilis

Gumma of palate - bone and ST lesions - perforation
Many years after first infected

Gumma of palate - bone and ST lesions - perforation


Many years after first infected

What is the treatment for syphilis?

high dose penicillin / tetracycline

which human herpes virus is associated with kaposi's sarcoma?

HHV-8

what are the clinical features of herpes simplex virus infection?



1. gingivostomatitis


2. herpes labialis


3. keratoconjunctivitis


4. herpetic whitlow


5. bells palsy


6. Genital herpes

What is the pathogenesis of HSV?

1. Replication in epithelium


2. Uptake by sensory nerves


3. Retrograde transport to sensory ganglia


4. a) productive replication in neurones


b) establishment of latent infection


5. Anterograde transport to mucosal and cutaneous sites


6. Release from nerve ending


7. Viral replication


8. Lesion formation


9. Viral shedding

How would you sample vesicle fluid from a viral infection?

dacron tip swab

What is varicella?

'Chicken pox'


Primary infection with varicella-zoster virus

What is zoster?

'Shingles'


Reactivation of latent VZ virus from sensory ganglion

When do you produce IgM?

The first time you produce an immune response

When do you produce IgG?

The second time you produce an immune response

What are the clinical features of EBV?

1. infectious mononucleosis


2. oropharyngeal lymphadenopathy and sore throat


3. Duration 2-3 wks


4. oral hairy leukoplakia in HIV pts

What is the pathogenesis of EBV

stimulation of T-cells in cytotoxic response to EBV infected B cells

What are the clinical features of kaposi's sarcoma?

Vascular tumour with different clinical manifestations
Dusky coloured areas on oral mucosa and skin
AIDS associated

Vascular tumour with different clinical manifestations


Dusky coloured areas on oral mucosa and skin


AIDS associated

Which virus is a risk factor for head and neck squamous cell carcinoma?

Human papilloma virus HPV-16