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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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origin of blood supply to the upper extremities
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subclavian artery
(L subclavian originates directly from the aortic arch and the R subclavian originates from the brachiocephalic trunk) |
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the subclavian artery passes between what
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between the anterior and middle scalenes
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location of subclavian vein in relation to the scalenes
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passes anterior to the anterior scalene
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subclavian artery directly becomes what artery, and where does this occur
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axillary artery (occurs at the lateral border of the 1st rib)
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axillary artery directly becomes what artery, and where does this occur
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brachial artery (occurs at the inferior border of teres minor)
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first major branch off the brachial artery
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profunda brachial artery
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the profunda brachial artery accompanies what nerve
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radial nerve
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the brachial artery terminates by becomming what arteries, and where does this occur
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ulnar and radial arteries (occurs under the bicipital aponeurosis)
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course of the radial artery
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along the lateral aspect of the arm
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course of the ulnar artery
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along the medial aspect of the arm
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the radial artery becomes what
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deep palmar arterial arch
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the ulnar artery becomes what
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superficial palmar arterial arch
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where does the R UE drain to
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R lymphatic duct
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where does the L UE drain to
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thoracic duct
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aka as tennis elbow
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lateral epicondylitis
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aka golfer elbow
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medial epicondylitis
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only bone to connect the UE to the axial spine
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clavicle
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functional (not anatomical) joint of the shoulder
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scapulothoracic
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muscles of the rotator cuff
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supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis
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primary flexor of the shoulder
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anterior deltoid
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MOST important abductor of the shoulder
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middle portion of the deltoid
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primary adductors of the shoulder
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pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
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primary external rotators of the shoulder
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infraspinatus and teres minor
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primary internal rotators of the shoulder
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subscapularis
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primary extensors of the shoulder
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latissimus dorsi, teres major, and posterior deltoid
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for every 3 degrees of shoulder abduction, what is the ratio of glenohumeral to scapulothoracic motion
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2:1
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what is the most common somatic dysfunction of the shoulder (i.e. restricted in what motion?)
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restriction in internal/external rotation
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3 locations of TOS
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1. between the anterior and middle scalenes
2. between the clavicle and 1st rib 3. between the pectoralis minor and upper ribs |
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test to assess for TOS between the anterior/middle scalenes
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Adsons
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test to assess for TOS between the clavicle and 1st rib
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Halstead (military)
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test to assess for TOS between pectoralis minor and the upper ribs
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Wright's test (aka hyperabduction test)
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condition characterized by pain during shoulder abduction (especially between 60-120 degrees); gradual onset; ROM is still intact and there is no sign of muscle atrophy
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supraspinatus tendonitis
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characterized by pain during shoulder abduction and a positive armdrop test; muscle testing reveals atrophy; loss of full ROM; pain is worse at night; origin of dysfunction is usually trauma
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rotator cuff tear (usually supraspinatus)
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characterized by severly decreased ROM of the UE; restriction in abduction and internal/external rotation is most common; pain occurs at the end of ROM exercises; may last years; caused by prolonged immobility of the UE
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adhesive capsulitis ("frozen shoulder")
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muscle and nerve affected in "winged scapula"
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serratus anterior muscle and long thoracic nerve
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MOST common brachial plexus injury
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Erb's palsy
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nerve roots affected in Erb's palsy
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C5, C6
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nerve roots affected in Klumpke's palsy
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C8, T1
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nerve affected in "crutch palsy" (aka "saturday night palsy")
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radial nerve
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nerve injured in wrist drop
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radial nerve
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name the 8 bones of the wrist going from lateral to medial and starting proximally
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scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capate, and hamate
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most common fractured bone of the wrist
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scaphoid
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most common dislocated bone of the wrist
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lunate
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muscular origin for the flexors of the wrist and hand
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medial epicondyle
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muscular origin for the extensors of the wrist and hand
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lateral epicondyle
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primary supinator of the forearm
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biceps
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innervation to the thenar muscles
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median nerve
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innervation to the hypothenar muscles
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ulnar nerve
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ONLY thenar muscle NOT innervated by the median nerve (and what nerve innervates this muscle)
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adductor pollicis brevis (ulnar nerve)
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median nerve innervates what lumbricals
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1st and 2nd
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ulnar nerve innervates what lumbricals
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3rd and 4th
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action of the dorsal interossei muscles
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abduction
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action of the palmar interossei muscles
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adduction
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definition of cubitus valgus
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carrying angle > 15 degrees; characterized by abduction of the ulna and adduction of the wrist
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definition of cubitus varus
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carrying angle < 3 degrees; characterized by adduction of the ulna and abduction of the wrist
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what is the parallelogram effect
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increased carrying angle (i.e. abduction of the ulna) causes adduction of the wrist- and vice a versa
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how does the radial head glide during supination
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anteriorly
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how does the radial head glide during pronation
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posteriorly
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anterior radial head is caused from what type of fall
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falling backwards (onto a supinated forearm)
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posterior radial head is caused from what type of fall
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falling forward (onto a pronated forearm)
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how does the olecranon deviate with abduction of the ulna
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medially
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how does the olecranon deviate with adduction of the ulna
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laterally
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nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome
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median nerve
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OMM tests (4) to asses for carpal tunnel syndrome
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tinel's, phalen's, provocation, and prayer tests
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symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome
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paresthesias in the thumb, index finger, and lateral side of the middle finger; dull pain on palmar side of wrist may also be present
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gold standard test for carpal tunnel syndrome
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nerve conduction / electromyography studies
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treatment options for carpal tunnel syndrome
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1. splints, NSAIDS, steroid injections, surgery
2. rib raising 3. treat cervical and myofascial restrictions to enhance brachial plexus functioning 4. direct treatments to the carpal tunnel |
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swan-neck deformity and boutonniere deformity result are seen in what disease
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rheumatoid arthritis
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nerve(s) affected in claw hand
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median and ulnar nerves
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nerve(s) affected in ape hand
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median nerve
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nerve(s) affected in bishop's deformity
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ulnar nerve
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cause of Dupuytren's contracture
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contracture of palmar fascia
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MOST common direction of glenohumeral dislocation
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anterior and inferior
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nerve that courses along the head of the humerus
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axillary nerve
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nerve that courses along the SHAFT of the humerus
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radial nerve
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innervation to the pronator muscles of the UE
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median nerve
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articulation fossa of the femoral head
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acetabulum
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primary extensor of the hip
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gluteus maximus
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primary flexor of the hip
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iliopsoas
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muscles that make up the quadriceps
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rectus femoris, vastus lateralis/medialis/intermedius
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muscles that make up the hamstrings
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semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris
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how does the femoral head glide during external rotation of the hip
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anteriorly
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how does the femoral head glide during internal rotation of the hip
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posteriorly
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somatic dysfunction associated with external rotation of the hip is MOST associated with what 2 muscles
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piriformis and iliopsoas
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ligament that originates at the posterior aspect of the femur and attaches to the anterior aspect of the tibia
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ACL
(name it for where it attaches to the tibia) |
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ligament that originates at the anterior aspect of the femur and attaches to the posterior aspect of the tibia
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PCL
(name it for where it attaches to the tibia) |
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ligament that prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur
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PCL
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ligament that prevents anterior translation of the tibia on the femur
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ACL
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which collateral knee ligament attaches on the tibia
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MCL
(LCL attaches to the fibula NOT the tibia) |
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which collateral knee ligament attaches on the fibula
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LCL
(MCL attaches to the tibia, NOT the fibula) |
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what are the 3 major joints of the knee
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tibiofemoral, patellofemoral, and tibiofibular
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how does the fibular head glide with pronation of the foot
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anteriorly
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how does the fibular head glide with supination of the foot
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posteriorly
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position of the foot/ankle with posterior fibular head dysfunction
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plantar flexion and inversion (supination of the ankle)
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position of the foot/ankle with anterior fibular head dysfunction
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dorsi flexion and eversion (pronated ankle)
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movements that characterize supination of the ankle
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plantar flexion, inversion, and adduction; fibular head will be posterior
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movements that characterize pronation of the ankle
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dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction (DEA); fibular head will be anterior
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this nerve is the largest of the lumbar plexus; it arises from L2-L4; it descends through the psoas muscle beneath the inguinal ligament; it innervates the quadriceps, sartorius, and pectineus; it also provides sensation for the medial and lateral aspects of the leg
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femoral nerve
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2 divisions of the sciatic nerve
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tibial and common peroneal (aka common fibular)
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what foramen does the sciatic nerve go through as it leaves the spinal cord
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greater sciatic foramen
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what is coxa valga
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the angle between the neck and the shaft of the femur is > 135 degrees; the legs bow out
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what is coxa vara
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the angle between the neck and the shaft of the femur is < 120 degrees; the legs bow in
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what is the Q angle
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angle formed by the intersection of a line from the ASIS through the middle of the patella, and a line from the tibial tubercle through the midline of the patella (normal angle is 10-12 degrees)
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what is genu varum
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knee has a Q angle < 10 degrees; lower leg bows in
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what is genu valgum
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knee has a Q angle > 12 degrees; lower leg bows out
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nerve that lies directly posterior to the proximal fibular head
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common peroneal nerve
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which compartment of the LE is MOST affected in compartment syndrome
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anterior compartment
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what is the "terrible triad" (aka O'Donahue's triad)
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injury to the ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus; caused by a lateral -> medial force applied to the knee
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MOST stable position of the foot
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dorsiflexion
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MOST commonly injured ankle ligament
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anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
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ligament(s) injured in a grade 1 sprain of the ankle
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ATFL
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ligament(s) injured in a grade 2 sprain of the ankle
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ATFL and the calcaneofibular ligament
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ligament(s) injured in a grade 3 sprain of the ankle
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ATFL, PTFL, and the calcaneofibular ligament
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the ATFL, PTFL, and calcaneofibular ligament can all be potentially damaged by inversion or eversion of the ankle
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inversion
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are inversion or eversion ankle sprains more common
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inversion
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ligament injured in eversion sprains
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deltoid ligament
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ligament that supports the medial longitudinal arch of the foot
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calcaneonavicular ligament (aka spring lig.)
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ligament that prevents hyperextension of the knee
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ACL
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ligament that prevents hyperflexion of the knee
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PCL
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characterized by an imbalance of the musculature of the quadriceps (very strong vastus lateralis and very weak vastus medialis) causing the patella to deviate laterally; Q angle is increased; pain is worst when climbing stairs; patient will have patellar crepitus; more common in women
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lateral patellofemoral tracking syndrome
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bones that make up the medial longitudinal arch
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talus, navicular, cuneiforms, and the 1st,2nd,3rd metatarsals (123TNCn)
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bones that make up the lateral longitudinal arch
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calcaneous, cuboid, and the 4th,5th metatarsals (45CaCb)
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which cervical vertebrae do the vertebral arteries pass through
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C1-C6
(NOT C7) |
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which ribs insert on which scalenes
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rib 1 attaches the anterior/middle scalenes
rib 2 attaches the posterior scalene |
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condition characterized by spasming of the SCM
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torticollis
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characteristic of the spinous processes of C2-C6
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the spinous processes are bifid
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what foramen do the vertebral arteries pass through in the cervical vertebrae
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transverse foramen
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ligament that holds the odontoid process (aka the dens) in place
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transverse ligament
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conditions (2) associated with weak alar and transverse ligaments increasing the risk of AA subluxation
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RA and Downs
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what are the joints of Luschka
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joints that connect the uncinate processes of 2 vertebral bodies
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nerve roots that make up the brachial plexus
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C5-T1
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nerve roots in the cervical vertebrae exit above or below the corresponding vertebrae
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Above
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which fryette law(s) apply to the cervical vertebrae
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Fryette Type III only
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primary motion of OA
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flexion/extension
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primary motion of AA
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rotation
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how do sidebending and rotation occur in relation to another in C2-C7
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same side
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characterized by increased pain with extension of the neck, a positive Spurling's test, and paraspinal muscle spasms
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cervical foraminal stenosis
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MOST common cause of cervical foramen stenosis
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degeneration of the joints of Luschka
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cervical vertebrae being assessed when the head is flexed 45 degrees and rotated until dysfunction is discovered
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C1 (AA joint)
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vertebral level where the spinal cord ends
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L2
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MOST common location of a disc herniation
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L4-L5
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in what directions do most herniated discs occur
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posterolaterally
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what muscles make up the erector spinae
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spinalis, iliocostalis, and longissimus
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origin and insertion of the iliopsoas
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origin: T12-L5 vertebral bodies
insertion: lesser trochanter of the femur |
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which muscle in the lumbar region most commonly presents as a type II dysfunction
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rotatores
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test to assess for iliopsoas dysfunction
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Thomas test
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what is considered a positive Thomas test
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while supine, flexing one knee and leg at the hip causes the contralateral leg to rise off the table and/or flex at the knee
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level of the iliac crest
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L4-L5
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orientation of the cervical facets
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backwards, upwards, and medial (BUM)
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orientation of lumbar facets
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backwards and medial (BM)
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define spina bifida occulta, meningocele, and myelomeningocele
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spina bifida occulta: defect in the lamina of the vertebrae, but nothing herniates through
meningocele: meninges herniate through the defect in the vertebrae myelomeningocele: meninges and the spinal cord herniate through the defect in the spinal cord |
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MAJOR motion of the lumbar vertebrae
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flexion/extension
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how does dysfunction of L5 relate to sacral dysfunction
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L5 ALWAYS sidebends TOWARDS the oblique axis of the sacrum
L5 ALWAYS rotates AWAY from the side of rotation of the sacrum |
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normal Ferguson angle
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25-35 degrees
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define Ferguson's angle
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the lumbosacral angle formed by the intersection of a horizontal line through the sacrum with the angle of inclination of the sacrum
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MOST common cause of lower back pain
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iliolumbar ligament dysfunction
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do lumbar nerve roots exit above or below the corresponding vertebrae
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below
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2 conditions suggested by a positive straight leg test
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tight hamstrings or herniated disc
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test to assess the difference between a tight hamstring or herniated disc after a positive straight leg test
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braggard's test
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describe a positive braggard's test
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during the straight leg test, when pain is first initiated, slightly lower the leg and quickly dorsiflex the foot; pain would be a positive test and suggest a herniated disc; no pain would be a negative test and suggest tight hamstrings
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causes (6) of psoas syndrome unrelated to general somatic dysfunction (think disease)
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appendicitis, sigmoid colon dysfunction, kidney stones, ureter dysfunction, prostate cancer, salpingitis
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characterized by increased pain when standing/walking, tenderpoint medial to the ASIS, type II dysfunction at L1/L2, pelvis is shifted to the opposite side, contralateral piriformis spasms
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psoas syndrome
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anterior displacement of a vertebrae in relation to the one below it due to a defect of the pars interarticularis
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spondylolithesis
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defect of the pars interarticularis withOUT anterior vertebral displacement; can be visualized best in an oblique xray as a "Scotty Dog" fracture
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spondylolysis
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radiographical term for degenerative changes within the IV disc and adjacent vertebrae
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spondylosis
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characterized by saddle anesthesia, decreased DTRs, decreased rectal sphincter tone, and incontinence
|
cauda equina syndrome
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treatment of cauda equina syndrome
|
IMMEDIATE surgical decompression
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There is 1 chapman point in the LE; where is it and what organ is it for
|
IT band - transverse colon and prostate
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test that assesses vertebral insufficiency in the cervical region
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Wallenberg's (aka Underberg's) test
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test to assess the ROM of the UE
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Apley's scratch test
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test to assess the integrity of the supraspinatus
|
drop arm test
(you can also use the full can and empty can tests but these are less reliable) |
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2 tests to assess the biceps tendon
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Speed's and Yergason's test
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test to assess blood supply to the hand
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Allen's test
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test to assess for tenosynovitis in the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons in the wrist
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Finkelstein test
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a positive hip drop test would considered with what degree of drop
|
less than 20 degrees
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test to assess a tight tensor fascia lata and IT band
|
Ober's test
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test to assess ROM at the hip joint
|
FABERE's test (aka patrick's test)
(*FABERE stands for flexion, abduction, external rotation, and extension of the LE*) |
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how to do a straight leg test in malingerers
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have patient sit upright and flex leg at the hip keeping the leg straight; dont say anything to the patient; the patient will have immediate pain upon starting the technique if the pain is real
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this test assesses the stability of the ACL and is more reliable than the anterior draw tests
|
Lachman's test
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test to assess possible tears in the meniscus
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McMurray's test
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test to assess for chondromalacia patallae
|
patellar grind test
|
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what are valgus and varus stress tests
|
pushing the knee medial (with a lateral force) and pulling the lower leg laterally is a valgus stress test
(varus stress test is the opposite) |
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nerve root tested with the biceps reflex
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C5
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nerve root tested with the brachioradialis reflex
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C6
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nerve root tested with the triceps reflex
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C7
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dermatome of the thumb
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C6
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dermatome of the 4th and 5th digits of the hand
|
C8
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dermatome of the medial aspect of the arm
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T1
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dermatome of the shoulder
|
C4
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muscle responsible for the first 30 degrees of arm abduction
|
supraspinatus
|
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muscle responsible for the last 150 degrees of arm abduction
|
middle deltoid
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contents of the carpal tunnel
|
4 tendons of the FDP
4 tendons of the FDS 1 tendon of the FPL median nerve |
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roof of the carpal tunnel
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flexor retinaculum
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dermatome of lateral aspect of the ankle and foot
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S1
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dermatome of the big toe
|
L4
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dermatome of the medial aspect of the ankle and foot
|
L4
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which motion comes first in type 1 dysfunctions
|
sidebending
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which motion comes first in type 2 dysfunctions
|
rotation
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which fryette type is characterized by rotation towards the concavity
|
type II
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orientation of golgi tendon organs
|
series
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orientation of muscle spindle fibers
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parallel
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which chapman points are used for diagnosis and which are for treatment
|
anterior points are used for diagnosis and posterior points are used for treatments
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treatment of posterior cervical counterstrain points
|
C1 inion flex, C1-C7 extend and SARA
exception: C3- flex and STRAW |
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treatment of anterior cervical counterstrain points
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C1 rotate away, C2-C8 flex and SARA
exception: C7- flex and straw |
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direction of HVLA for the upper, middle, and lower cervical segments
|
upper cervical- opposite eye
middle cervical- across the shoulder lower cervical- down the other side |
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If C4-C7 are RrSr, and HVLA with sidebending emphasis is performed, how do you lock out the other vertebrae
|
rotate to the R
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MOST common ulnar dysfunction
|
abduction (increased carrying angle)
|
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what are the sympathetic levels for the head, neck, and arms
|
T2-T8
|
|
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muscle energy technique in someone whose dysfunction is so exaggerated that the area can't be directly manipulated
|
crossed extensor reflex
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describe how to do a still technique if C4-C7 is RrSr
|
RrSr and then quickly RlSl (indirect -> direct)
**remember to maintain compression** |
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which muscles need to be STRENGTHENED rather than stretched
|
serratus anterior, middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, and rectus abdominis
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which muscles need to be STRETCHED rather than strengthened
|
levator scapulae, upper trapezius, SCM, scalenes, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis minor
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counterstrain point for the long head of the biceps
|
biceps tendon in the bicipital groove
|
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counterstrain point for the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
|
coricoid process
|
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where is the piriformis tenderpoint
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midway between the greater trochanter and an imaginary point located halfway between the ipsilateral PSIS and ipsilateral ILA
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treatment setup for piriformis tenderpoint
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monitor tenderpoint; extend and externally rotate leg and hold for 90 seconds
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2 tests that assess rotator cuff IMPINGEMENT
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Neer and Hawkins tests
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test(s) to assess glenohumeral instability
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apprehension and relocation test
(*there will be a positive sulcus sign*) |
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areas of the spine most susceptible to injury
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transition zones
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Steps of the Spencer technique (in order)
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1. shoulder extension with elbow flexed
2. shoulder flexion with elbow extended 3. shoulder abduction with elbow flexed 4. shoulder adduction with elbow flexed 5. shoulder adduction with elbow flexed and externally rotated behind the back 6. circumduction with elbow flexed and applying compression 7. circumduction with elbow extended and applying traction 8. stretching of shoulder tissue with elbow extended to enhance fluid drainage |
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what 3 techniques are applied during Spencer's technique
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muscle energy, articulation, and lymphatics/myofascial
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how does the patient lie to do a lumbar role
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lateral recumbent with the rotated side up
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what is pes cavus
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an overly exagerated arch to the foot
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what is pes planus
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a flat foot
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MOST common cause of chondromalacia
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overuse
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where does the sciatic nerve branch into the tibial and common peroneal nerves
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popliteal fossa
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nerve affected in piriformis syndrome
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sciatic nerve
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origin and insertion of the piriformis
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origin: S2-S4
insertion: greater trochanter of the femur |
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differentiating location in pain distribution between sciatica and psoas syndrome
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pain does NOT radiate past the knee in psoas syndrome; in sciatica the pain travels down the entire knee
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difference between a dislocated and separated shoulder
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dislocated shoulder involves the humerus dislocating from the glenoid fossa; a separated shoulder involves tearing of the AC and CC ligaments
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2 components of the CC ligament in the shoulder
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conoid and trapezoid ligaments
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course of the lymphatics for the UE
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lateral axillary nodes -> central axillary nodes -> apical axillary nodes -> subclavian lymphatic trunk -> thoracic duct (L arm) or R lymphatic duct (R arm)
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innervation to the wrist flexors is primarily from what nerve root
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C8
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innervation to the wrist extensors is primarily from what nerve root
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C6
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what is anterior scalane syndrome
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TOS occuring between the anterior/middle scalenes
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what is hyperabduction syndrome
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TOS occuring between pectoralis minor and upper ribs
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what is costoclavicular syndrome
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TOS occuring between the clavicle and 1st rib
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the 2 major pronators of the forearm
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pronator quadratus and the pronator teres
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MOST common and clinically significant somatic dysfunction found in newborns
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occipital condylar compression
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characterized by poor sucking, swallowing difficulties, emesis, hiccups, torticollis, and pyloric stenosis in newborns
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occipital condylar compression
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what type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint
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saddle joint
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test to assess acromioclavicular ligament integrity
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cross-arm test
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anatomical landmark on vertebrae used to assess rotation
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articular pillars (aka transverse processes)
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sympathetics to the head are from what levels
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T1-T4
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which cervical vertebrae has NO vertebral body
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C1
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headache muscle
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splenius capitus
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what vertebrae is directly involved in a "hangman's fracture"
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C2
(C1 becomes anterior displaced and is thus indirectly affected) |
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what is whiplash
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injury resulting from sudden hyperextension followed by sudden hyperflexion
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receptors activated by prolonged stretch, injury, pressure, thermal/chemical changes, pain, and ischemia
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nociceptors
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thoracic duct and R lymphatic duct drain into what vein
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subclavian vein
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characterized by pain and tenderness accompanied by vasomotor instability, trophic skin changes, and rapid development of bone demineralization
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reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
(aka complex regional pain syndrome) |
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peak age (decade) for TOS
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4th decade
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describe EAST's test (aka Roo's test) and what does it assess
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shoulder abducted 90 degrees and elbows flexed 90 degrees; open and close hands repeatedly for 3 minutes; assesses TOS
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how do you treat a medial coracoid tenderpoint
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extend, abduct, and internally rotate the arm while monitoring tenderpoint; hold for 90 seconds
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counterstrain point for pronator teres
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medial epicondyle
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what carpal bones are compressed to do an opponen's roll
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pisiform and scaphoid
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reflex to asses L4 nerve root
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patellar
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reflex to asses S1 nerve root
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achilles
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reflex to asses L5 nerve root
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there is NO reflex for this nerve root!
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when doing muscle energy (using the osteopathic salute) for a type 1 somatic dysfunction in the lumbar region, does the physician's arm go under or over the patient's arm
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under
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tenderpoint for the iliolumbar ligament
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1 inch superior and 1 inch lateral from the PSIS (at L4,L5)
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Are spinal deformities are more common in men or women?
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women
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what are the 5 types of spondylolithesis
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type I (dysplastic/congenital)
type II (isthmic) type III (degenerative) type IV (traumatic) type V (pathologic) |
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dysplastic articular processes, axially oriented, dysplasia of the superior articular end plate, and commonly seen in spina bifida are all characteristics of what type of spondylolithesis
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type 1 (dysplastic)- this is the congenital form
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defective pars interarticularis and elongated pars are characteristics of what type of spondylolithesis
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type II (isthmic)
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which type of spondylolithesis is associated with neoplasms
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type V (pathologic)
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what are Waddell's signs of a malingerer's response to back pain
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pain crossing over anatomic lines, axial loading equals back pain, sensory loss without motor loss, and exaggerated overreactions
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what is the MOST common neonatal somatic dysfunction pertaining to the hip/LE
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developmental dysplasia of the hip
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tests (2) to assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip in neonates
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Ortolani's test and Barlow's test
(will also have a positive galeazzi sign) |
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disease characterized by a non-inflammatory, self-limited deformity of the weight bearing surface of the femoral head usually due to vascular insufficiency; most common in young boys; characterized by an antalgic gait
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Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (LCPD)
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condition characterized by anterior displacement with external rotation of the femoral head, but it still remains in the acetabulum; most common in obese african american boys during puberty (secondary to hormonal changes)
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Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
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avascular necrosis to the femoral head involves what artery
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medial femoral circumflex artery
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condition characterized by joint space narrowing, sclerosis of the bone, cystic changes, and osteophyte formation within the joints; most common in the elderly
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osteoarthritis
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causes (3) of inflammatory arthritis
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autoimmune (rheumatoid), gout, and infection
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OTC NSAID with best response for treating arthritic conditions
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sodium naproxene (aleve)
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MOST common foot injury due to overuse
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plantar fascitis
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what is the MOST mobile region of the spine
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cervical
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when is cervical lordosis FIRST noticeable
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when the child first starts to lift his head on his own (months 3-4)
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when does cervical lordosis begin to develop
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before birth
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what muscle is the primary connection between the head/neck and upper extremity
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trapezius
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what are the 3 anatomical joints connecting the UE to the trunk
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sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and glenohumeral joints
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predisposing factors to adhesive capsulitis
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female, diabetes, thyroid disease, humeral lesions, personality disorder, autoimmune disease
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what happens to the interosseous membrane during pronation and supination
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becomes taut during supination and becomes relaxed during pronation
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which finger(s) has 2 rather than 3 phalanges
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thumb
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what muscles make up the thenar eminence
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abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis (OAF muscles)
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action of the lumbricals
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flex at the MCP joints and extend at the DIPs and PIPs
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sympathetic innervation to the LE
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T11-L2
(*remember, the spinal cords ends at L2*) |
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from lateral to medial, how are the vessels in the femoral triangle oriented
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nerve, artery, vein, lymphatics ("NAVeL")
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what joint is the "shock-absorber" of the foot
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talocalcaneal joint
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when does the lumbar curve begin to develop
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when the child begins to walk (around year 1)
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characterized by 6 sacral vertebrae and 4 lumbar vertebrae
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sacralization (aka "batwing deformity")
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characterized by 4 sacral vertebrae and 6 lumbar vertebrae
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lumbarization
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which posture puts the most strain on the lumbar vertebrae
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sitting slouched forward
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which posture puts the least strain on the lumbar vertebrae
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lying supine
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which vertebral ligament limits extension of the spine
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anterior longitudinal ligament
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iliolumbar ligament attaches at what vertebrae
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L4, L5
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what nerve goes through Guyton's canal
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ulnar nerve
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what carpal bone does the ulnar nerve traverse over
|
hamate (specifically the hook of the hamate)
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how is the navicular bone affected in pes planus
|
more prominent
(less prominent in pes cavus) |
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Carpal bone associated with the anatomical snuff box
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Scaphoid
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