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136 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A. T. Still
fxnal restrictions = source of visceral dysfxn & disease
Louisa Burns
correlated CT changes with somatic dysfxn - 1900s
Irvin "Kim" Korr & J. Stedman Denslow
scientific evidence for OMM
1940s-60s
what are the 3 models of somatic dysfxn initiation
1. circulation / fluid distribution
2. CT
3. neural / autonomic
**who is the founder of circulatory model of somatic dysfxn?
Gordon Zink
failure of **lymphatic & **blood circulation
toxins not removed from tissue
localized edema & inflam. --> mechanical restriction
fluids spread dysfxn distally
what is wrong with the circulatory model?
-doesn't account for autonomic arousal
-doesn't account for segmental specificity
-would create irreversible texture changes
**it is a component of somatic dysfxn, but not THE cause
who coined CT model?
Louisa Burns

SD is accompanied by microscopic **extravasation of blood, edems, & inflam in CT of affected joints & mms
what is the process of CT model?
extravasation --> thickened CT --> restriction of mobility & pain
discribe CT changes
-normal elastin / collagen fibers = parallel to force

-abnormal tissue fibers = random pattern
-resistant to stretch
-weaker along original axis
-it takes about 3 DAYS to begin this process
**CT model - consequences of immobilization and chronic m. stretch??
immobilization =
-decrease fiber diameter
-increase m. mass

chronic muscle stretch =
-MUSCLE "CREEP"
-laxity at "neutral"
CT model SD?
SD=
-tissue displaced FROM normal neutral
-restricted motion TOWARD neutral
-increased range of motion AWAY from neutral

both injured muscle & ITS ANTAGONIST undergo CT changes - maintains abnormal ROM
**
passive ROM?
active ROM?
motion loss?
passive = elastic barrier to restrictive barrier

active = physiolocgic barrier to restrictive barrier

motion loss = what motion the restictive barrier is keeping you from achieving
what are the shortcommings of CT model?
-doesn't acount for:
-segment specificity
-acute somatic dysfxn
-autonomic arousal associated w SD

**useful in development of secondary SD or postural adjustments to SD

**CT model = pictures of scoliosis and also lady aging and becoming more bent over
who termsd neural / autonomic mechanims?
Korr & Denslow
N/A accounts for?
-operates quickly, quick onset of SD and releif w manipulation
-autonomic arousal - autonomic & motor neruons share interneurons
-hyperexcitability in motorneurons
tissues without nociceptors?
-brain parenchyma
-hyaline cartilage
where do nociceptrs synapse?
rexed's lamina I or II, or with dendrites of interneurons from lamina V
what segment has the most input from the heart from nociceptor input?
T2 (some T1, T3, T4 & T5)
nociceptors NTs
peptide (substance p, etc.)
**how does referred pain work?
bc nocioceptors diverge as they leave the SC, a pain perceived in one location may in fact by due to noxious stimulation from another area
**T /F: referred pain is based on a spinal reflex
FAIL.
nope, it sure isn't
why is it?
visceral pain = diffuse, poorly-localized
somatic pain = sharp, well-localized
bc there are FAR FEWER afferent fibers from viscera than from the soma
T/F:
there is no evidence for any ascending pathway that transmits ONLY VISCERAL signals from the SC to the brain
true!
T/F:
reflexes are monosynaptic
false
they can be mono or polysynaptic
what reflex is regulated by the golgi tendon apparatus?
myotatic reflex = tonic contraction of the mm. in response to stretching force, due to stimulation of m proprioceptors

this is the simplest of reflexes
what are the 4 types of reflexes?
somato-somatic
viscero-visceral
somato-visceral
viscero-somatic
what reflex?
intestinal distention --> increase contraction of intestinal m?
viscero-visceral reflex:
visceral afferent nociceptor --> SC interneurons --> efferent to SANS or PANS motoneurons
what reflex?
injury to m --> increased HR
somato-visceral reflex

peripheral afferent nociceptor --> SC IN --> efferent to SANS or PANS
what reflex?
withdrawal from noxious stimuli?
somatosomatic reflex

peripheral afferent nociceptor --> INs (central gray matter) --> ventral horn motoneurons --> somatic m. contraction

at least one IN

may affect distant sites
**TQ**
what reflex?
chronic asthma produces tissue texture changes in upper thoracic region?
viscero-somatic reflex

visceral afferent nociceptor --> SC INs --> ventral horn motonerutons --> somatic m contraction

usuallly affect small rotators (rotatores)
what type of SD does viscerosomatic reflexes exhibit
non-neutral (TYPE II) SD
increased moisture (skin drag)
increased temperature
poorly defined end point = rubbery
what are the 3 types of reflex modifiers?
1. sensitization
2. habituation
3. facilitation
**what modifier protects against repeat injuries by maintenance of a pool of neurons in a state of partial or subthrshold excitation?
facilitation

ex: the music in a scary movie
what modifier?
progressive amplification of a response follows repeated administration of stimulus
sensitization

if the stimulus is terminated, neurons return to baseline

ex: rub your arm for aprolonged period
what modifier allows us to "tune out" that which isn't important through a decrease in response to stimulus after repeated exposure to the stimulus over time?
habituation

if the stimulus is terminated, neurons return to baseline
what is axonal transport?
non-impulse (AP) inegration btw viscera, soma, & nerve cell bodies

- anterograde
- retrograde
T/F:
nerve growth factor = family of chemicals which use action potential & Ca++ dependent release of NT to maintain health of nerves & end organ tissues maintain
false
NGF use AXONAL TRANSPROT to maintain health
what are the rates for axonal transport?
slow
med
fast
very fast
slow = 0.52 mm/day
med = 25 mm/day
fast = up to 400 mm/day
very fast = up to 2000 mm/day
there are 12 steps to SD...
1. nociceptors are stimulated
2. nociceptor activation send impulses to ather axon branches of the same nociceptor & into SC
3. impulses in axon branches cause release of peptide NTs
- vasodilation, extravasation of fluid, attraction of immune cells
= all LOWER the threshold for nociception
4. impulses entering the SC stimulate spinal neurons
-CSN = pain appreciation
-spinal intermediolatersal system - preganglionic autonomic neurons
-spinal motoneurons - nocifensive reflexes
5. pain may be poorly localized (if perceived at all)
6. most nocioautonomic reflexes involve the sympathetic nervous system
-local immune respnse is increased, but other immune responses are suppressed
7. single or multiple segmental responses attempt to min the noxious input from the affected nociceptors
-m shortends, overlying muscle contract the guard
8. axonal reflex & sympathetic vasodilation engorge the affected mms
-direct, mechanical restiction
-seratonin, histamin, bradykinin, PCl
9. any attempt to stretch tissue to "normal" will cause nociceptor firing
-m creep!
10. continued contraction of affected mm = cause fatigue & further nociceptor firing
11. if abnormal position is held long enough (hrs to days) CT (fibrocytes) reorganize into non-parallel fashion
-m creep & chronic stress
12. SD becomes chronic
-continuous autonomic activation
-visceral dysfxn & immune deficits
**T/F:
referred pain is a reflex
NO!!!
of course it isn't!
T/F:
SD alters the 4 reflexes & reflex modifiers
true
what neuron can eventually be degraded from chronic somatic dysfxn?
inhibitor neurons (permanent loss)
T/F:
if nociceptors are damaged by chronic firing, A-beta fibers (light touch, vibration) can be recruited to take their place
true
what is the famous quote regarding SD from Fred Mitchell??
"implicit in the term "SD" is the notion that manipulation is APPROPRIATE, EFFECTIVE, and SUFFICIENT tx for it"
tissue manipulation stimulates release of?
NO
-free radical properties
-immune, vascular, and neural signaling molecule
-antibacterial & antiviral
-stimulates release of endocannabinoids
what does ME do?
isometric contraction of antagonist m.
= resets Golgi
= voluntary activation of motor neurons black spinal nociceptive pathways
what does CS do?
shortens already shorteded area = COMPLETELY deactivates nociceptor activity
= improbes local circulation
= release from chronic sympathetic activity
what does myofascial release do?
initial shortening followed by gradual lengthening of tissue
= ****benefits of CS + stretching of ME!!!
what does HVLA do?
restricted tissue carried to its abnormal limit
=small additional stretch (swift reorganization of CT)
= low amplitude decrease likelihood of recurrence
= ENDOGENOUS MORPHINE is released after high-impact motion
what are chapman's reflexes? what kind of reflex are they???
**viscerosomatic relexes = palpable as "gangiform contractions"

result of hypercongestion of local lymphatics

anatomic "map" for specific points (each point relates to specific disease or condition)
who's chapman? how many points did he find and chart??
Frank Chapman, DO

discovered & charted over 200 reflexes

Kirksville 1897 graduate
who was chapman's bro-in-law who continued his work, but stressing importance of "pelvic-thyroid syndrome?"
Dr. CHarles Owens

one of the first to describe interrelated
NEURO-ENDOCRINE-IMMUNE SYSTEMS
T/F:
every systemic condition has anterior AND posterial reflex
true
**TQ** a bunch of random easy shit about "gangliform contractions" (palpable, hypercongestion, tenderness, etc) and then, again, what type of reflex is champman?
viscerosomatic reflex
what is the etiology of chapmans?
organ
-irritated
-diseased
-stressed

--> increased sympathetic tone

--> myofascial nodule
-boggy
-ropy
-shotty
-thickened
what are the 3 components to chapman's gangliform contractions?
1. neurologic
2. lymphatic
3. myofascial
what component?
localized congestion secondary to sympatheticotonia, tissue stasis & accumulation of pro-inflammatory substances, painful/tender?
lymphatic
what component?
lymphatic vessels innervated by sympathetic fibers, facilitation from visceral irritation leds to constriction of lymphatic vessels?
neurologic
what component?
palpable tissue changes, mostly intercostal & spinal area, some extremities?
myofascial
what are some acute palpatory characteristics of chapmans?
acute
-tender, NON-RADIATING
-pea feeling
-smooth, circumscribed
-firm (DENSE, not hard)
-discretely palpable
-moves slighly, but otherwise fixed
-in deep aponeurosis or fascia
**how do chapman's reflexes differ from jones CS points?
chapmans points:
-tenderness, while present, is NOT sole criteria
-lymphatic congestion & myofascial tissue changes more important criteria
-NOT TRIGGER POINTS
what are some chronic palpatory characteristics of chapmans?
chronic/residual
-less tender
-less discrete, somewhat confluent
-generalized increased tension, rubbery, stringy, ropy, firm

**in chronic or severe cases:
coalescent mats or even "stings of pearls" may be felt, sepecially with the points on the lower extremities
anterior of posterior reflex?
follow intercostal sympathetic nns, reflexes are more descrets, first in tx sequence?
anterior
located in intercostal spaces near sternum
a or p?
less descrete, more rubbery feel of classic viscerosomatic reflex, oftern resolve with treatment of the other side reflex
posterior
located btw spinous process & transverse process of adjacent vertebrae

**often resole with tx of anterior reflex
T/F:
chapman's reflexes are considered to be more Sp than Sn indicators of disease?
false

chapman's reflexes are considered to be
MORE SENSITIVE
than specific indicators of disease?
what are wilson's rules?
1. NEVER make dx solely on NON-tender chapman's reflex

2. NEVER ignore or trivialize a TENDER chapman's reflex
T/F:
presence of points in hospitalized pts with pneumoniea is a current application. points classified for "lung" relationship occurs within the first 72 hours
true

(study described in class)
appendix?
tip of 12th rib on R
T10-11 SP/TP on R
how do you tx chapman's reflex?
-start w anterior reflex
-light massage
-small circular motion
-15-20 sec (or longer) until lymphatic congestions diminishes / change in myofascial tissue

-next, tx posterior reflex
-recheck anterior side and retreat is still there
T/F:
do not use excessive pressure on points, you get results more quickly & with more lasting effect by gentle menas
true
avoid excess pressure during txmt
ENT screen

middle ear
sinuses
tonsils
larynx
anterior- around sternum at claviacal, rib 1, rib 2 (pic)
pulmonary screen

larynx
bronchus
upper lung
lower lung
anterior- 3 points on each side of sternum, btw ribs 2-3, 3-4, & 4-5
cardio

myocardium
bronchus
esophagus
thyroid
anterior- 1 point on each side of sternum btw ribs 2-3
upper GI screen
starting under rib 5 (btw ribs 5-6) on each side and going down:

R
pylorus
liver
gall bag & liver
small intestine
APPENDIX!

L
pylorus
stomach (acidity)
stomach (peristalsis)
spleen
**TQ**
colon can be "cut" and "flipped" open onto legs
right colon = right femur
left colon & sigmoid= left femur

rectum is actually on both sides of proximal femur (see pic)
urinary screen

adrenal
kidney
urethra
urinary bladder
ureter
adrenal ---- R & L around upper umbilicus
kidney ----- R & L below adrenal
urethra ----- midline just about umbilicus
urinary bladder ----- midline
ureter ------ R & L around umbilicus lower
genital screen

ovary
uterus
broad ligament / prostate
ovary -------- R & L on pubes
uterus ------- R & L below and lateral to ovary
broad ligament / prostate ------- down lateral femor
R prostate / BL = R femur
L prostate / BL = L femur
discribe the respiratory epithelium
pseudostratified, columnar, ciliates, goblet cells

mucociliady clearance
respiratory mucosa has what protective enzymes & immunoglobuline?
lysozymes
IgA
mucociliary clearance
ciliary action
movement of mucous blanket
clearing debris
T/F:
the dependent drainage of maxillary sinus requires active mucous transport
true
what is the anterior sinus drainage pattern?

the posterior?
a = osteomeatal unit under middle turb.

p = sphenoethmoid recess
name some things that influence ciliary activity
-tobacco smoke & pollutanta
-antihistamines
-iflammation
-viscosity of mucous
neurogenic inflammation
afferent nns from nose CN V
protective reflex:
irritation --> sneeze
release of neuropeptides --> NEUROGENIC INFLAMMATION
which acute phinosinusitis pathophys involves HYPOactive SNS?
non-alergic (vasomotor)
increases nasal airway resistance
what is rhinitis medicamentosa?
overuse of topical decongestants
factors in mucociliary transport
viscosity of mucus
primary ciliary dyskinesia (rare)
drying of mucosa
--antihistamines
--poor hydration
cigarette smoke
inflammation of mucosa
chronic infection & diabetes
what does auditory tube do?
-connects middle to nasopharyns
-balances pressure
-clears debris & secretions
-protects middle ear from noxious agnets in nasopharynx
infant vs adult auditory tube
infant
-courses btw temporal bone (petrous) & sphenoid
-1/2 the length of adult tube
-more horizontal

adult
-1/3 in temporal bone
-2/3 in cartilage
-tube narrowest at jxn
-adult tube length by 7 y/0
T/F:
otitis media with effusion usually resolves with antibiotic treatment & this hastens resolution
FALSE
otitis media with effusion usually RESOLVES SPONTANEOUSLY
& antibiotic treatment does not hasten resolution
what are some risk factors for otitis media?
-genetic
-male
-low birth weight
-# of siblings
-day care
-not breastfed
-pacifier use
-smoking exposure
-low socioeconomic status
T/F:
3 months of breastfeeding reduces OM
TRUE!
breast is best (for ears, too)
what is the name of the technique designed by Dr. Galbreath to assist in opinging the auditory tube and decrease lymphatic congestion?
Galbreath Technique:
Mandibular Drainage
what does sympathetic regulation do to blood flow?
vasoconstriction & mucosal drying
inrease airway patency
overdrying puts mucosa at risk
what areas correspond sympathetic regulation of blood flow?
T1-T3
superior cervical ganglia C2-C3
parasympathetic regulation of mucous production
increases goblet cell secretions
neuromediators (sub P) also influence mucosal gland fxn

among neuropeptides associated with PNS in nose = NO (cilia effect!)
what areas correspond parasympathetic regulation of mucous production
CN VII (facial)
Pterygoid canal (sphenoid)
Pterygopalatine ganglion
OMT for upper respiratory
-lymphatic drainage
-autonomic NS balance
OMT lymph / venous drainage?
start centrally, work peripherally
-thoracic inlet = lymph enters at jxn of subclavian & internal jugular vv.
what are the thoracic inlet structures?
rib 1-2
T1-T2
SC
AC
(nice pic in ppt)
OMT cervical & face
cervical mm.
cervical facet joints
cranial base (OA decompression)

effleurage over sinuses
infraorbital/supraorbital pressure points
mandibular drainage
OMT thorax
diaphragm release
thoracic lymphatic pump
OMT SNS upper respiratory
T1-T3
C2-C3 (superior cervical ganglion)
OMT PNS upper respiratory
Cranium
-OA decompression
-vagus, glossopharyngeal
sphenopalatine ganglion
rib attachments?
-2 thoracic vertebrae
-transverse process of the LOWER vertebra
accessory mm. of respiration:
-anterior scalene
-middle scalene
-posterior scalene
-SCM
scalene
-anterior = 1st rib
-middle = 1st rib
-posterior = 2nd rib
-SCM = ...really?
other mm of INhalation:
-pec minor
-latissimus dorsi
-serratus anterior
pec minor = corocoid process to ribs 3-5

lats = lower T's & ribs 10-12
-thoracolumbar fascia
-iliac crest
-intertubercular groose of humerus

serratus anterior = ribs 1-8 to medial border of scapula
direction of internal & external intercostals??
internal = hands in your BACK pocket

external = hands in your FRONT pocket
m of posterior chest wall?
transversus thoracis
diaphragm attachments
diaphragm = lower 6 ribs
L1-L3
xyphoid process
phrenic n
C3,4,5 keep diaphragm alive
intercostal nn
DRG??
DRG = sympathetic innervation
respiratory rate & depth are controlled in __ .
medulla
Parasympathetic innervation
Sympathetic innervation
Parasympathetic innervation
-vagus
-increase secretions
-bronchoconstriction

Sympathetic innervation
-T2-T7
-bronchodilation
-decreased secretions
T/F:
asthma rates in children under 5 have increases more than 160% from 1980-1994
true

100 million asthmatics by 2025
each year:
13 million school days missed
10.1 million missed work days
500,000 hospitalizations
what kind of lower airway obstructions take place in asthma? is it reversible?
mucous plugging
hyperiflation

usually reversible
OMT asthma
somatovisceral reflexes = ex. T2FSRL

chronic viscerosomatic reflexes = group curve

techniques:
-HVLA
-ME
-Still
-articulation (rib raising)
OMT asthma - nervous system
-sympathetic chain ganglia
-phrenic n.
-vagus
**older study suggested that OA decompression may INCREASE BRONCHOSPASM and should be avoided in severe cases

techniques:
-soft tissue
-rib raising
-MF release
lymphatics (mucus plugging, hyperinflation) techniques
-thoracic pump
-pedal pump
-pec lift
-diaphragm release
pneumonia most serious for?
<2 or >65
what fraction of pneumonia is viral?
1/3
pneumonia techniques?
HVLA (outpt)
ME
Still
Artivulation - rib raising
T/F:
OMT decreases need for IV antibiotics, and LOS in hospital for pneumonia?
true
ant. chapman's reflexes:
69% Sn
64% Sp
87% PV-
T/F:
abdominal lymphatic pump increases leukocytes 2 fold and flow through the thoracic duct 2 fold
false
abdominal lymphatic pump increases leukocytes TWO (2) fold and flow through the thoracic duct FOUR (4) fold
sympathetic
**TQ** celiac ganglion??
celiac T5-T9
-esophagus T1-T6/8
-stomach
-proximal duodenum
-liver/gall
-spleen
-pancreas
sympathetic
superior mesenteric ganglia??
SMG = T10-T12
-distal duodenum
-jejunum & ileum
-ascending colon
-proximal 2/3 trans colon
sympathetic
inferior mesenteric ganglia
IMG = L1-L2
-splenic flexure to rectum
sympathetic
esophagus?
esophagus:
cervical T2-T4
thoracic T3-T6
abd T5-T8
sympathetic
liver/gall
liver/gall = T6-T9
sympathetic
small intestine
SI = T9-T11
sympathetic
colon / rectum
colon / rectum = T10-T12
parasympathetic
-pelvic splanchnics
-vagus
parasympathetic
-pelvic splanchnics
left colon
rectum

-vagus = everything else

from the splenic flexure down, PSs, everything else = vagus
parasympathetic
cranial - sacral

tx: O/A & sacrum!!
**abdominal diaphragm
LES
IVC & cisterna chyli
vagus passes through
**TQ**
lymph pours from mesentery to join lumbar lymph & celiac vessels at ___ .
cisterna chyli

-nestled under the diaphragm
-leading to the thoracic duct