Omm Boards Review

Front 1

What does TART stand for?

Back 1

Tissue Texture Changes
Assymmetry
Restriction
Tenderness

Front 2

What is a physiological barrier?

Back 2

a point at which a patient can actively move any given joint

Front 3

What is an anatomic barrier?

Back 3

a point in which a Dr can passively move any given joint; any movement beyond this barrier will cause ligament, tendon, or skeletal injury

Front 4

What is a restrictive (pathological) barrier?

Back 4

This barrier lies before the physiological barrier and prevents full range of motion of that joint

Front 5

Describe the tissue findings in acute somatic dysfunction

Back 5

edematous, erthymatous, boggy with increased moisture; muscles are hypertonic

Front 6

Describe the tissue changes in chronic somatic dysfunction

Back 6

decreased or no edema, no erythema, cool dry skin, with slight tension; decreased muscle tone, flaccid, ropy, fibrotic

Front 7

Contrast the assymmetry, restriction, and tenderness changes in acute vs/ chronic somatic dysfunction

Back 7

Acute: assymmetry is present, restriction is present and there is pain with movement; severe/sharp
Chronic: assymmetry is present with compensation in other areas of the body; there is restriction with decreased or no pain; dull, achy, burning

Front 8

What is Fryette Law 1?

Back 8

Neutral position, sidebending and rotation occur in opposite directions
(One=Opposite)

Front 9

What is Fryette Law 2?

Back 9

Non-neutral, flexed or extended, rotation and sidebending occur in the same directions
(Two=Together)

Front 10

What is the orientation for the superior facets for the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions?

Back 10

Cervical: backward, upward, medial (BUM)
Thoracic: backward, upward, lateral (BUL)
Lumbar: backward, medial (BM)

Front 11

What does a DIRECT treatment mean?

Back 11

Towards the barrier (tissues are moved through the restrictive barrier)

Front 12

What does an INDIRECT treatment mean?

Back 12

Away from the barrier (tissues are moved away from the restriction towards the direction of freedom)

Front 13

Contrast ACTIVE vs. PASSIVE treatments

Back 13

Active: patient assists during treatment
Passive: patient relaxes during treatment

Front 14

Fryette Laws 1 and 2 apply to which segments of the spine?

Back 14

only applies to the thoracic and cervial vertebra (NOT the cervical)

Front 15

What is the main motion of the OA segment?

Back 15

flexion and extension; SB and rotation occur to opposite sides

Front 16

What is the main motion of the AA segment?

Back 16

Rotation, with SB to the opposite side

Front 17

What is the main motion of C2-C4?

Back 17

Roation, with SB to the same side

Front 18

What is the main motion of C5-C7?

Back 18

Sidebending, with rotation to the same side

Front 19

What is the main motion of the thoracic spine?

Back 19

ROTATION

Front 20

What is the Rule of 3's mean?

Back 20

A useful way to refer to ID the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra
T1-T3: SP is located at the same level as the TP
T4-T6: SP are located 1/2 segment below the TP
T7-T9: SP are one segment below the TP
T10-SP is one segment below
T11-SP is 1/2 segment below
T12-SP is even with TP

Front 21

Which ribs are considered "atypical" ribs?

Back 21

rib 1, 2, 11, 12 (sometimes 10); REMEBER: atypical ribs have #1 and #2 in them

Front 22

What is a true rib?

Back 22

Ribs 1-7; attach to the sternum through costal cartilages

Front 23

What is a floating rib?

Back 23

Ribs 8-10; do not attach directly to the sternum; attach via costal cartilage to the cartilage of the superior rib

Front 24

What is a false rib?

Back 24

Ribs 11-12; remain unattached anteriorly

Front 25

What are the 3 classifications of rib movement?

Back 25

1. Pump handle: upper ribs 1-5
2. Bucket handle: middle ribs 6-10
3. Caliper motion: Ribs 11-12

Front 26

What is an Inhalation rib dysfunction mean?

Back 26

The dysfunctional rib will move cephalad during inhation, but will not move caudad during exhalation; rib appears to be "held up"

Front 27

What does an Exhalation Rib dysfunction mean?

Back 27

The dysfunctional rib movs caudad during exhalation, but does not move cephalad during inhalation; rib appears to be "held down"

Front 28

What is the "key" rib in an inhalation vs. exhalation dysfunction?

Back 28

Inhalation: key rib is the lowest rib of the dysfunction
Exhalation: key rib is the uppermost rib of the dysfunction

Front 29

Name the muscles included in the Erector Spinae group:

Back 29

"SILO"
Spinalis, Iliocostalis, LOngissimus

Front 30

What does Spina bifida mean?

Back 30

a developmental anomaly where there is a defect in the closure of the lamina of the vertebral segment; usually occurs in the lumbar spine

Front 31

What are the 3 types of spina bifida?

Back 31

1. Spina bifida occulta: no herniation thru the defect; patch of hair over site; rarely has neuro deficits
2. Spina bifida meningocele: herniation of meninges thru the defect
3. Spina bifida menigmyelocele: herniation of meninges and nerve roots thru the defect; neuro deficits

Front 32

What is the main motion of the lumbar spine?

Back 32

Flexion and Extension

Front 33

What is a flexion contracture of the iliopsoas associated with?

Back 33

associated with a non-neutral dysfunction of L1 and L2

Front 34

What does spondylolisthesis refer to?

Back 34

anterior displacement of one vertebra in relation to the one below it; often occurs at L4-L5

Front 35

What does spondylolysis mean?

Back 35

A defect in the pars interarticularis without anterior displacement of the vertebral body; oblique radiographic views show it as a "collar" on a scotty dog

Front 36

What does spondylosis mean?

Back 36

A radiographic term for degenerative changes within the intervertbral disc and ankylosing of adjacent vertebral bodies

Front 37

How do you name the curves for scoliosis, if it sidebends left vs. if is sidebends to the right?

Back 37

Curve that is SB to left with scoliosis to the right= Dextroscoliosis
Curve that is SB to the right with scoliosis to the left= Levoscoliosis

Front 38

What are the 4 causes of scoliosis?

Back 38

Idiopathic, congenital, neuromuscular, acquired

Front 39

What is significant about the sacrospinous ligament?

Back 39

It divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen

Front 40

What are the four types of sacral motion?

Back 40

"DRIP"
1. Dynamic: motion that occurs during ambulation
2. Respiratory: motion occurs about the superior transverse axis of the sacrum
3. Inherent: same as respiratory; during craniosacral extension the sacrum nutates ("nods forward) and during flexion the sacrum rotates posteriorly ("counter-nutates)
4. Postural: motion occurs about the middel transverse axis of the sacrum

Front 41

What are the rules of L5 on the sacrum?

Back 41

1. if L5 is SB, a sacral oblique axis is engaged on the same side as the SB
2. if L5 is rotated, the sacrum rotates opposite on an oblique axis
3. seated flexion tests is found on the opposite side of the oblique axis

Front 42

Now, put all of the 3 rules together regarding L5 and the sacrum:
1. L5 is FRrSBr--means?
2. L5 is NSB(left)R(right)-means?
2. L5 is

Back 42

1. there is a + seated flexion test on the left, sacrum will be rotated to the left on a right oblique axis (left on right)
2. + seated flexion test on the right, sacrum will be rotated left on a left oblique axis (left on left)

Front 43

In sacral torsions, L5 will always rotate how?

Back 43

L5 will always rotate opposite the direction of the sacrum

Front 44

What is a common dysfuntion in the post partum patient due to birth mechanics?

Back 44

bilateral sacral flexion

Front 45

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

Back 45

"SITS"
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

Front 46

How do you remember the brachial plexus?

Back 46

Roots exit spinal cord to form
Trunks which form
Divisions which form
Cords which form
Branches

Front 47

What is the most common type of brachial plexus injury?

Back 47

Erb- Duchenne Palsy: Upper arm paralysis caused by injury to C5 and C6 nerve roots usually during childbirth ("waiter's tip")

Front 48

Name the Carpal bones, starting with the proximal row on the radial side:

Back 48

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetral, Pisiform, Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate

Front 49

What attaches to the Distal Interphalangeal joints (DIP)?

Back 49

Deep Finger Flexors (flexor digitorum profundus)

Front 50

Describe the movment of the ulna and wrist if the carrying angle is increased? decreased?

Back 50

Increased: ulna is ABducted, wrist ADduction
Decreased: Ulna is ADDucted and wrist is ABducted

Front 51

What are the 3 movement components of Pronation of the ankle?

Back 51

dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction

Front 52

What are the 3 movment components of Supination of the ankle?

Back 52

plantarflexion, inversion, adduction

Front 53

The common peroneal nerve (common fibular nerve) is located where and why is its location significant?

Back 53

Lies directly posterior to the proximal fibular head; a posterior fibular head fracture or fracture of the fibula will interfere with the nerve function

Front 54

What makes up O'Donahue's Triad? (terrible triad)

Back 54

injury to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus

Front 55

In what position is the ankle most stable?

Back 55

Dorsiflexion

Front 56

What is the most commonly injured ligament in the foot?

Back 56

Anterior TaloFibular ligament
("Always Tears First")

Front 57

What are the components (5) of the Primary Respiratory Mechanism (PRM)?

Back 57

CNS, CSF, Dural membranes, Cranial bones, Sacrum

Front 58

The dura projects caudally down the spinal canal and has firm attachments to what 4 things?

Back 58

Foramen Magnum, C2, C3, S2

Front 59

What are the four components constituting a Craniosacral Flexion?

Back 59

1. Flexion of Midline bones
2. Sacral Base Posterior
3. Decreased AP diameter of cranium
4. Ext Rotation of paired bones

Front 60

What are the four components constituting Craniosacral extension?

Back 60

1. extension of midline bones
2. sacral base is anterior
3. increased AP diameter of the cranium
4. Int Rotation of paired bones

Front 61

What does a compression strain of the SBS result in?

Back 61

A severely decreased C.R.I and is usually due to trauma, especially to the back of the head

Front 62

Vagal Somatic dysfunction can be due to what?

Back 62

Due to OA, AA, and/or C2 dysfunction

Front 63

Dysfunction of CN VIII can cause what?

Back 63

Can cause tinnitis, vertigo, hearing loss

Front 64

Occipital Condylar Compression (CN XII) can result in?

Back 64

Can result in poor suckling in a newborn; dysfunction of CN IX and X at the jugular foramen can also cause suckling dysfunctions in the newborn

Front 65

CV4: Bulb decompression will do what to the C.R.I?

Back 65

It will increase it

Front 66

PNS innervations:
1. CN III-midbrain:Cilliary ganglion-->
2. CN VIIpons:Sphenopalatine ganglion--> ? and Submandibular ganglion--> ?

Back 66

1. Pupils
2. Lacrimal/nasal glands and then submandibular/sublingual glands

Front 67

PNS innervations:
1. CN IX: medulla-Otic ganglion
--> ?
2. CN X: medulla --> ?

Back 67

1. parotid gland
2. heart, bronchial tree, esophagus (lower 2/3), stomach, sm intestine, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, Ascending/Transverse colon, ovaries/testes, kidney/upper ureter

Front 68

PNS innervations:
S2-S3-S4 (Pelvic splanchnics) ---> (3 areas) ?

Back 68

1. lower ureter/bladder
2. uterus, prostate, genetalia
3. Descending colon, sigmoid, and rectum

Front 69

SNS: organ and corresponding nerve levels
1. Head and neck
2. Heart
3. Resp system

Back 69

1. T1-T4
2. T1-T5
3. T2-T7

Front 70

SNS: organ and corresponding nerve levels
1. Esophagus
2. Upper GI tract (stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, parts of pancreas and duodenum)

Back 70

1. T2-T8
2. T5-T9

Front 71

SNS: Organs and corresponding nerve levels:
1. Middle GI tract (portons of pancreas/duodenum, jejunum, ileum, ascending colon, prox 2/3 of transverse colon)
2. Lower GI tract (distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending, sigmoid colon, rectum)

Back 71

1. T10-T11
2. T12-L2

Front 72

SNS Innervation for:
1. appendix
2. kidneys
3. adrenal medulla
4. Upper ureters
5. Lower ureters

Back 72

1. T12
2. T10-T11
3. T10
4. T10-T11
5. T12-L1

Front 73

SNS Innervations for:
1. bladder
2. gonads
3. uterus/cervix
4. erectile tissue of penis/clit
5. Prostate

Back 73

1. T11-L2
2. T10-T11
3. T10-L2
4. T11-L2
5. T12-L2

Front 74

SNS Innervation for:
1. Arms
2. Legs

Back 74

1. T2-T8
2. T11-L2

Front 75

Condylar Compression causes what in newborns?

Back 75

suckling difficulties

Front 76

What is the Chapman's point for the appendix?

Back 76

At the tip of the 12th rib

Front 77

What refers pain when pressed-Trigger points or tender points?

Back 77

Trigger points refer pain when pressed, not tender points

Front 78

What are the 5 steps of the Myofascial Release procedure?

Back 78

1. Palpate restriction
2. Apply compression or traction
3. Add twisting or transverse forces
4. Use enhancers
5. Await release

Front 79

Where is the tenderpoint for L5 located?

Back 79

Located 1cm lateral to the pubic symphysis on the superior ramus

Front 80

What is a memory tool to help you remember the patient position for forward and backward sacral torsions?

Back 80

Forward torsions= patient lies Face down
Backward torsions= patient lies on their back

Front 81

What are the absolute contraindications for HVLA?

Back 81

Osteoporosis, Osteomyelitis (including Potts Dz), fractures in area of thrust, Bone mets, Severe RA, Downs syndrome

Front 82

What are the relative contraindications for HVLA?

Back 82

Acute whiplash, Preggers, Post-Surgical conditions, herniated nucleus pulposus, pts on anti-coag therapy or hemophiliacs, vertebral artery ischemia

Front 83

What is the purpose of the Hip drop test?

Back 83

Evaluate Sidebending (lateral flexion) of the lumbar spine

Front 84

When will the lumbar spring test be positive?

Back 84

In all dysfunctions in which the sacral base moves posterior

Front 85

What will you say after you finish taking the COMLEX exam?

Back 85

"suck it"