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42 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The incidence of headache following unintentional dural puncture during epidural anesthesia is approximately __%
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80%
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The dermatome level that allows a patient to most comfortably tolerate a C-section is at?
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T4, Nipple line
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Therapeutic serum levels of magnesium for managment of pre-eclamplia are?
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4.0-8.0 meq/L
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True or False:
The classic triad of pre-eclampsia includes oliguria. |
False
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Epidural use of which narcotic results in the greatest incidence of delayed respiratory depression?
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Morphine
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True or False:
Ritodrine is tocolytic. |
True
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True or False:
Methergine is tocolytic. |
False
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A 38 year old term, multiparous patient with a history of two previous c-sections presents with painless, active vaginal bleeding. systolic BP is 90. Fetal HR is 80. A C-section is planned. The anesthetic plan most appropriate for this patient would be what?
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General induction with 0.5-1 mg/kg ketamine and 100mg Anectine.
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A likely cause of painless vaginal bleeding in the parturient is what?
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Placenta previa
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General induction is induced in a 35yr old patient scheduled for an elective C-section. No part of the glottic apparatus is visible after 2 unsuccessful attemps to intubate. mask ventilation is adequate. The most appropriate action at this point is what?
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Wake her up
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What is normal fetal HR?
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110-160
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The leading cause of maternal mortality related to anesthesia is what?
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failed intubation or aspiration
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True or False:
Generalized vasodilation is associated with preeclampsia. |
False
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True or False:
Toxic side effects of magnesium sulfate include renal failure. |
False
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True or False:
Hypertension is associated with amniotic fluid embolism. |
False
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What is the most common side effect of intrathecal narcotics in the OB patient?
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Pruritis
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Variable decelerations are most likely to occur in response to what?
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Umbilical cord compression
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True or False:
Weakness of a lower extremity after delivery is more likely to be from the placement of an epidural than from labor and positioning during deliver. |
False
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After uterine incision, how many minutes does it take for fetal hypoxia and acidosis to occur?
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three minutes
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True or False:
Methergine should not be given to the hypertensive OB patient. |
True
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What do the letters HELLP stand for?
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Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes Low Platelets |
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When is the most common time for a postdural puncture headache to occur?
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24-48 hrs after dural puncture
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Fetal heart rate monitoring should be performed on all patients starting at ___ weeks.
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15-17 weeks
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True or False:
The pre-eclamptic patient has increased sensitivity to endogenous and exogenous adrenergics. |
True
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True or False:
A PDPH will be less severe with a large dural hole |
False - more severe
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True or False:
Decreased variability in fetal heart rate is due to fetal activity. |
False
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Your OB patient has a continuous labor epidural in place when she starts to complain of an increase in pressure sensation and experience early decelerations. A plan of action should include what?
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Ask the nurse to check the patients progress
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Uteroplacental insufficiency is indicated by what?
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late decelerations
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True or False:
Drugs commonly used to treat HTN in the pregnant patient include esmolol. |
False
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True or False:
Causes of late fetal decelerations include head compression |
False
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A 29year old gravida 1, para 0 at 25 weeks gestation is to undergo an emergent Appy under GA with Desflurane, N2O, and O2. WHich of the those agents is proven to cause untoward consequences to the fetus?
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None of them
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Your OB patient has just delivered a 6500 gram infant with Apgar scores of 8 and 9. you would expect to assist with resuscitation of the infant by doing what?
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Drying the infant and keeping it warm
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The OB patient is at greatest risk for delayed respiratory depression ___ hours after the administration of epidural or intrathecal morphine.
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4-8 hours
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You have administered spinal anesthesia to your patient for a scheduled C-section. The patient is supine, prepped and draped with incision made. She states "I feel like I cant breathe" SaO2 is 99%, BP is 142/84, HR is 108. what is the most appropriate treatment?
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Maintain oxygenation with simple O2 mask, reassure, and continue to monitor respirations and SaO2
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After administration of a SAB your patients BP is 60/35, shes becoming restless and grasping for air. she is unable to raise her arms from her sides. Sat is 92% and dropping. Her weight is 260lbs. what is the most appropriate treatment?
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administer 150mg thiopental and 120mg succinylcholine with criocoid pressure and intubate
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Upon your arrival to L & D you are handed a neonate that has just delivered. The baby is floppy, cyanotic, not breating and has a HR of 60. There is thick meconium on the babys skin. Your first action should be what?
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Place the neonate under the warmer, suction the posterior oropharynx, intubate with a meconium aspirator and suction before ventilating
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What is the drug of choice to treat bradycardia that has not resolved with proper ventilation in the neonate?
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Epinephrine
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Your 28 yr old patient delivered a term infant at 3:42 AM. The surgeon wants to perform a post partum tubal ligation at 7:00 AM. Is it true that this patient is at increased risk? why?
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Yes, physiological changes of pregnancy are still present in this patient, placing her at increased risk for GA.
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You patient has just had an ultrasound that show breech presentation, is vaginal delivery possible?
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Yes, if it is frank breech
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Your 51 yr old female is delivering triplets, which baby will most likely have a higher APGAR at one minute: the first or third baby?
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the first baby
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You have been asked your opinion regarding anesthesia for a cholechystectomy for a parturient in her tenth week of gestation, what is your recommendation?
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Elective surgeries should be delayed until after delivery and urgent surgeries until after the 2nd trimester.
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True or False:
You are assigned to provide anesthesia for a chole for a female in her 28th week of gestation. Risk/benefits include informing her that the greatest risk at this time in her pregnancy is birth defects. |
False
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