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159 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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A woman weighs 99 lbs. Assuming she lives a sedentary life-style, how many Calories does she use perday? (to the nearest 100 Cal) |
1300 |
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A 35 Y.O. sedentary male patient weighing 120 kg was experiencing angina (chest pain) and other signs ofcoronary artery disease. His physician, in consultation with a registered dietitian, concluded a 3-day dietaryrecall. The Patient consumed and average of 585 g of carbohydrate, 150 g of protein, and 95 g of fat each day.Additionally, he drank 45 g of alcohol. The patient's diet is best described by which one of the following?
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He had a fat intake within the range recommended in current dietary guidelines. |
A: He consumed between 2,500 and 3,000 kcal/day. B: He was deficient in protein intake. C: He had a fat intake within the range recommended in current dietary guidelines. D: He consumed 50% of his calories as alcohol. E: He was in negative caloric balance. |
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Mrs. Jones is a sedentary 83-Y.O. woman who is 5' 4" tall and weighs 125lb. She has been at this weight for abouta year. She says that a typical diet for her includes a breakfast of toast (no butter), a boiled egg, and coffee withcream. For lunch, she often has a cheese sandwich (white bread) and a glass of whole milk. For supper, sheprefers cream of chicken soup and a slice of frosted cake. Mrs. Jones' diet is most likely to be inadequate inwhich one of the following?
[Egg: 14g Fat, 2g Carb, 17g Protein; Bread (slice): 1g Fat, 13g Carb, 2g Protein;Cheese (slice): 5g Fat, 1g Carb, 3g Protein; Milk: 8g Fat, 13g Carb, 8g Protein; Chicken Soup: 8g Fat, 10g Carb, 3gProtein; Cake (slice): 10g Fat, 35g Carb, 3g Protein] |
Vitamin C |
A: Protein
B: Calories C: Vitamin B12 D: Vitamin C E: Calcium |
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Which is an essential fatty acid? |
linoleic acid |
A: Oleic Acid
B: Caproic Acid C: Butyric Acid D: Linoleic Acid E: Stearic Acid F: Palmitic Acid |
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The number of caloric intake with caloric expenditure is necessary for good health.
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True |
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Jan, a 36 kg adolescent female has recently switched from being a picky eater and carnivore to being a pickyeater and strict vegetarian (vegan). Jan's parents observer that Jan is more of a carbotarian (a large amount ofpasta and olive oil) than vegetarian. After a couple of months, it is notice that Jan is lethargic and she reportsfeeling tired and 'out of it.' At the physicians office, her blood is tested and it is noted that Jan has a lowhematocrit and a low red blood cell count. What might be wrong with Jan?
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Jan is lacking enough essential amino acids due to her vegan diet |
A: Jan is lacking enough calories due to her vegan diet B: Jan is lacking enough Vitamin C due to her vegan diet C: Jan is lacking enough Vitamin A due to her vegan diet
D: Jan is lacking enough essential fatty acids due to her vegan diet E: Jan is lacking enough essential amino acids due to her vegan diet |
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Which of the following do you NOT want to exceed? |
UL |
A: BMR B: RDA C: UL D: EAR E: AI |
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Which of the following is true about insulin?
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Insulin is the result of proteolysis and disulfide bond formation |
A: Insulin is synthesized from two distinct peptide and fused together with disulfide bonds B: Insulin is a linear polypeptide
C: Insulinase is responsible for activating insulin D: Insulin is transported into the cell to help initiate anabolic metabolism E: Insulin is the result of proteolysis and disulfide bond formation |
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Steric acid is broken down to which metabolic component?
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Acetyl CoA
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A: Pyruvic acid
B: Acetyl CoA C: A TCA cycle intermediate D: An electron transport intermediate E: Glucose |
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Ketonuria (DKA) is associated with which phenomena?
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Abdominal pains
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A: Low blood glucose levels
B: Abdominal pains C: Increased glycolysis D: High blood pH E: Loss of Chloride ions to the urine |
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Kwashiorkor is the result of to few calories in the diet |
False |
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Which one of the following is an acute complication of diabetes?
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Hypoglycemia |
A: Retinopathy
B: Nephropathy C: Hypoglycemia D: Atherosclerosis |
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Which one of the following organ is NOT associated with pathophysiology of diabetes?
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Lungs |
A: Pancreas B: Liver C: Brain D: Lungs |
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Which dietary therapy would be most helpful in reducing chylomicron levels in a patient with elevatedchylomicron levels? |
Reduced fat intake
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A: Reduced overall caloric intake B: Reduced fat intake
C: Reduced cholesterol intake D: Reduced starch intake E: Reduced sugar intake |
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Which of the following is a source of energy for muscle found in the blood after 12 hours of fasting?
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Acetoacetate
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A: Phenyl ketone
B: Acetate C: Acetoacetate D: Glucose E: Amino Acids |
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The primary effect of the consumption of excess protein beyond the body's immediate needs will be:
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An increase in the amount of adipose tissue |
A: An enhancement in the amount of circulating plasma proteins B: An increase in the amount of adipose tissue C: An increase in the "storage pool" of protein D: An increased synthesis of muscle protein E: Excretion of the excess as protein in the urine |
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After a meal, a normal person has a blood glucose concentration of
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120-140 mg/dL
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A: < 30 mg/dL
B: 50-70 mg/dL C: 80-90 mg/dL D: 120-140 mg/dL E: >180 mg/dL |
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Under which condition would you expect to see insulin levels rise?
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Post-prandial
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A: Post-prandial
B: Post-absorptive C: Pre-prandial D: Onset of starvation |
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In a well-nourished individual, as the length of fasting increases from overnight to 1 week, which one of thefollowing is most likely to occur?
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Muscles decrease their use of ketone bodies, which increase in the blood.
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A: Adipose tissue triacylglycerols are nearly depleted.
B: Blood glucose levels decrease by approximately 50% C: The brain begins to use fatty acids as a major fuel. D: Red blood cells switch to using ketone bodies E: Muscles decrease their use of ketone bodies, which increase in the blood. |
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Of two people with approximately the same weight, the one with the higher basal energy requirement would mostlikely be:
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Taller |
A: Taller
B: Female if the other were male C: Older D: Under less stress E: All of the above |
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The RDA is best described by which one of the following?
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The average amount of a nutrient required each day to maintain normal function in 50% of the US population. |
A: The average amount of a nutrient required each day to maintain normal function in 50% of the US population.
B: The average amount of a nutrient ingested daily by 50% of the US population. C: The minimum amount of a nutrient ingested daily that prevents deficiency symptoms. D: A reasonable dietary goal for the intake of a nutrient by a healthy individual. E: It is based principally on data obtained with laboratory animals. |
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If you are exhibiting a respiratory quotient of 1.0, you are likely doing what?
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Sprinting |
A: Starving
B: Sleeping C: Just waking up D: About to go to bed E: Sprinting |
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Otto Shape, an overweight medical student, discovered that he could not exercise enough during his summerclerkship rotations to lose 2 to 3 lb/wk. He decided to lose weight by eating only 300 kcal/day of a dietarysupplement that provided half the calories as carbohydrate and half as protein. In addition, he consumed amultivitamin supplement. During the first 3 days on this diet, which statement best represents the state of Otto'smetabolism?
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Both his adipose mass and his muscle mass decreased. |
A: He developed severe hypoglycemia.
B: Both his adipose mass and his muscle mass decreased. C: His protein intake met the RDA for protein. D: His carbohydrate intake met the fuel needs of his brain. E: He remained in nitrogen balance. |
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A man is 5' 10" tall, what is his maximum healthy weight to the nearest Kg?
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79 |
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An individual has been shown to have a deficiency in an intestinal epithelial cell amino acid transport system forleucine. However, the individual shows no symptoms of amino acid deficiency. This could be due to which of thefollowing?
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There are multiple transport systems for leucine.
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A: The body synthesizes leucine to compensate for the transport defect.
B: The kidney reabsorbs leucine and sends it to other tissues. C: There are multiple transport systems for leucine. D: Isoleucine takes the place of leucine in proteins. E: Leucine is not necessary for bulk protein synthesis. |
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Which of the following statements is true?
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The primary protein sequence contains all of the information required to fold a protein into its native state |
A: Prions have only one folded form
B: Amyloidosis (AL) is an autoimmune disease that impair cognitive function C: Different Chaperonins fold a nacent polypeptide into different three dimensional conformations D: The primary protein sequence contains all of the information required to fold a protein into its native state E: All "Heat Shock Proteins" hydrolyze ATP to fold a protein |
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Autopsies of patients with Alzheimer disease show protein aggregates called neurofibrillary tangles and neuriticplaques in various regions of the brain. These plaques exhibit the characteristic straining of amyloid. Which ofthe following structural features is the most likely characteristic of at least one protein in these plaques?
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A high content of beta-pleated sheet structure |
A: A high content of helical structure
B: A high content of random coils C: A low-energy native conformation D: Disulfide bond cross-links between polypeptide chains E: A high content of beta-pleated sheet structure |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of globular proteins?
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Tertiary structure is formed by amino acid side chains using hydrophobic, electrostatic, and hydrogen bonding interactions and by hydrogen bonds between peptide bonds
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A: Tertiary structure is formed by amino acid side chains using hydrophobic, electrostatic, and hydrogen bonding interactions andby hydrogen bonds between peptide bonds.
B: Hydrophobic amino acids tend to be on the outside. C: Hydrophilic amino acids tend to be on the inside. D: Covalent disulfide bonds are necessary to hold the protein in a rigid conformation. E: Secondary structures are formed principally by hydrophobic interactions between amino acids. |
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Based on the structure and function of hemoglobin and myoglobin, which of the following statements is true?
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Deoxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that deoxymyoglobin lack. |
A: Sickle hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly than does myoglobin.
B: Deoxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that deoxymyoglobin lack. C: Oxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that oxymyoglobin lack. D: Polymers of sickle hemoglobin arise due to electrostatic interactions not found in normal hemoglobin. E: Normal hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly than does myoglobin. |
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If the following (below) peptide is subjected to complete digestion by trypsin (specific for basic amino acids) andthen the product is subjected to complete digestion by carboxypeptidase B (specific for basic amino acids) underappropriate conditions, what will be the length of the longest remaining peptide? Ala-Lys-Ala-Cys-Thr-Ser-Arg-Cys-Trp-Met-Thr
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4 |
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 11 |
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It is found that a protein is activated by serine phosphorylation, what amino acid substituion might make theprotein activated all of the time?
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Substitue the Serine for an Aspartate |
A: Substitue the Serine for an Aspartate
B: Substitue the Serine for an Arginine C: Substitue the Serine for a Threonine D: Substitue the Serine for a Tyrosine E: Substitue the Serine for an Alanine |
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Which of the following residues is essential for human life? |
Methionine |
A: Tyrosine
B: Alanine C: Aspartate D: Arginine E: Methionine |
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At physiological pH, which of the following residues, when found in a protein, is most likely to make a hydrogenbond with its own amide nitrogen?
|
Serine |
A: Lysine
B: Serine C: Cysteine D: Glycine E: Tyrosine |
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Di Abietes's different preparations of insulin contain some insulin complexed withprotamine that is absorbed slowly after injection. Protamine is a protein preparation from rainbow trout spermcontaining arginine-rich peptides that bind insulin. Which of the following provides the best explanation ofcomplex formation between protamine and insulin?
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Arginine is a basic amino acid that binds to the alpha-carboxylic acid groups at the N-terminals of insulin chains. |
A: Arginine is a basic amino acid that binds to negatively charged amino acid side chains in insulin
B: Arginine has a side chain that forms peptide bonds with the carboxyl terminals of the insulin chains. C: Arginine forms disulfide bonds with the cysteine residues that hold the A and B chains together. D: Arginine is a large bulky hydrophobic amino acid that complexes with leucine and phenylalanine in insulin. E: Arginine is a basic amino acid that binds to the alpha-carboxylic acid groups at the N-terminals of insulin chains. |
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In a polypeptide at physiologic pH, hydrogen bonding may occur between which of the following?
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The amide group in the peptide bond and an aspartyl side chain |
A: The terminal alpha-amino group and the terminal alpha-carboxyl group
B: The side chains of an aspartyl residue and a glutamyl residue C: The side chains of a leucine residue and a lysine residue D: The -SH groups of two cysteine residues E: The amide group in the peptide bond and an aspartyl side chain |
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A family of proteins is defined by which of the following?
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The proteins share similar composition at certain sequence positions
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A: The proteins have the identical composition but different sequences
B: The protein is identical in the father, mother, and sons C: The proteins share identical sequences D: The proteins share similar composition at certain sequence positions E: The protein is similar in the father, mother, and children |
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In a protein sequence, which of the following is considered to be the most conservative substation for aglutamate residue?
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Aspartate |
A: Asparagine
B: Valine C: Aspartate D: Glutamine E: Arginine |
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An individual has been shown to have a deficiency in an intestinal epithelial cell amino acid transport system forleucine. However, the individual shows no symptoms of amino acid deficiency. This could be due to which of thefollowing?
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There are multiple transport systems for leucine. |
A: The body synthesizes leucine to compensate for the transport defect.
B: The kidney reabsorbs leucine and sends it to other tissues. C: There are multiple transport systems for leucine. D: Isoleucine takes the place of leucine in proteins. E: Leucine is not necessary for bulk protein synthesis. |
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Which of the following statements is true?
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The primary protein sequence contains all of the information required to fold a protein into its native state |
A: Prions have only one folded form
B: Amyloidosis (AL) is an autoimmune disease that impair cognitive function C: Different Chaperonins fold a nacent polypeptide into different three dimensional conformations D: The primary protein sequence contains all of the information required to fold a protein into its native state E: All "Heat Shock Proteins" hydrolyze ATP to fold a protein |
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Autopsies of patients with Alzheimer disease show protein aggregates called neurofibrillary tangles and neuriticplaques in various regions of the brain. These plaques exhibit the characteristic straining of amyloid. Which ofthe following structural features is the most likely characteristic of at least one protein in these plaques?
|
A high content of beta-pleated sheet structure |
A: A high content of helical structure
B: A high content of random coils C: A low-energy native conformation D: Disulfide bond cross-links between polypeptide chains E: A high content of beta-pleated sheet structure |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of globular proteins?
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Tertiary structure is formed by amino acid side chains using hydrophobic, electrostatic, and hydrogen bonding interactions and by hydrogen bonds between peptide bonds.
|
A: Tertiary structure is formed by amino acid side chains using hydrophobic, electrostatic, and hydrogen bonding interactions andby hydrogen bonds between peptide bonds.
B: Hydrophobic amino acids tend to be on the outside. C: Hydrophilic amino acids tend to be on the inside. D: Covalent disulfide bonds are necessary to hold the protein in a rigid conformation. E: Secondary structures are formed principally by hydrophobic interactions between amino acids. |
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Based on the structure and function of hemoglobin and myoglobin, which of the following statements is true?
|
Deoxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that deoxymyoglobin lack. |
A: Sickle hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly than does myoglobin.
B: Deoxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that deoxymyoglobin lack. C: Oxyhemoglobin is stabilized by intermolecular salt-bridges that oxymyoglobin lack. D: Polymers of sickle hemoglobin arise due to electrostatic interactions not found in normal hemoglobin. E: Normal hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly than does myoglobin. |
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It is found that a protein is activated by serine phosphorylation, what amino acid substituion might make theprotein activated all of the time? |
Substitue the Serine for an Aspartate |
A: Substitue the Serine for an Aspartate
B: Substitue the Serine for an Arginine C: Substitue the Serine for a Threonine D: Substitue the Serine for a Tyrosine E: Substitue the Serine for an Alanin |
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Which of the following residues is essential for human life?
|
Methionine |
A: Tyrosine
B: Alanine C: Aspartate D: Arginine E: Methionine |
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At physiological pH, which of the following residues, when found in a protein, is most likely to make a hydrogenbond with its own amide nitrogen?
|
Serine |
A: Lysine
B: Serine C: Cysteine D: Glycine E: Tyrosine |
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At which structural level(s) can salt-bridges be found? |
Tertiary Quaternary |
A: Primary
B: Secondary C: Tertiary D: Quaternary |
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The two insulin peptide chains are produced from an alpha and a beta insulin gene. |
False |
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Differences in tertiary structure between Myoglobin and Hemoglobin explain the differences in ligand affinity.
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False |
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The dominant force in the formation of tertiary structure is disulfide bond formation.
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False |
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One of the residues that have been implicated in the hydride transfer reaction catalyzed by alcoholdehydrogenase is Isoleucine?
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False |
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During which phase of digestion are large peptides reduced to mainly small peptides
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Pancreatic |
A: Intestinal
B: Pancreatic C: Post-intestinal (inside intestinal cells) D: Gastric |
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Digested fats and lipids do what after a balanced meal?
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They proceed directly to the adipose tissue as triglycerides where they are broken down in the capillaries into fatty acids and glycerol prior to being absorbed by adipose tissue. |
A: They proceed directly to the adipose tissue as triglycerides where they are broken down in the capillaries into fatty acids andglycerol prior to being absorbed by adipose tissue.
B: They remain in the small intestine for future caloric needs C: They proceed to the liver where they are repackaged as VLDLs and stored in the adipose tissue D: They are broken down in the intestine to free fatty acids and glycerol and then proceed to adipose tissue for storage. E: They are broken down in the intestine to free fatty acids and glycerol and then proceed to muscle, kidney, and liver to satisfythe energy needs of the cell. |
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Hepatic cells detect excess blood glucose and signal its presence to other organ systems.
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False |
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Which level of structure never includes covalent bonds in order to be formed? |
Secondary structure |
A: Primary structure
B: Secondary structure C: Tertiary structure D: Quaternary structure |
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The following peptide segment is part of a beta-sheet. Phe1-Thr2-Tyr3-Tyr4-Arg5-Val6-Glu7-Arg8-Phe9-Lys10-Thr11-Val12 Which two residues could be making a intra-beta-strand salt-bridge?
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Arg5 and Glu7 |
A: Thr2 and Tyr4
B: Glu7 and Lys10 C: Glu7 and Arg8 D: Arg5 and Glu7 E: Arg8 and Lys10 |
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A patient gets diarrhea after carbohydrate rich meals. He is gives a positive hydrogen breath test after given abolus of table sugar. What is the patients possible problem? (Pick all that apply)
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A partial defect in his sucrase:isomaltase protein;
A partial defect in his GLUT5 transporter; A partial defect in his SGLT1 transporter |
A: A partial defect in his sucrase:isomaltase protein
B: A partial defect in his GLUT1 transporter C: A partial defect in his GLUT4 transporter D: A partial defect in his GLUT5 transporter E: A partial defect in his SGLT1 transporter |
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Humans are not capable of cleaving b-1,4-disaccharide bonds.
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False |
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Which organ does not contribute to the chemical digestion of carbohydrates?
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The stomach |
A: The mouth
B: The stomach C: The small intestine D: The pancreas |
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Which of the following compounds represent a minor source of carbohydrates in the US diet?
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glucose |
A: starch
B: lactose C: sucrose D: glucose |
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Which of the following compounds represent a monosaccharide?
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galactose |
A: galactose
B: lactose C: sucrose D: trehalose E: isomaltose |
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If missing from an otherwise normal diet, which of the following amino acids would lead to a negative nitrogenbalance?
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Phe |
A: Tyr
B: Gln C: Ala D: Phe E: Glu |
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Which combination of foods would be an example of complentary proteins?
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Rice and Beans |
A: Barley and Oats
B: Cashews and Sunflower seeds C: Peppers and Cabbage D: Peanuts and Peas E: Rice and Beans |
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What molecule stimulates the release of CCK-PZ (Cholecystokinin) from intestinal endocrine cells?
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Free amino acids from gastric digestion |
A: Free amino acids from gastric digestion
B: Free amino acids from pancreatic digestion C: Elevated levels of blood glucose D: Depressed levels of blood glucose E: Elevated levels of thyroid hormone |
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In football, offensive linemen get almost all of their energy through anaerobic metabolism. If the lineman'smuscles were to use two (2) moles of blood glucose during the course of a game, how many moles of ATP wouldthe lineman's liver consume to maintain glucose homeostasis?
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12 |
A: 2
B: 4 C: 6 D: 8 E: 10 F: 12 |
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Which of these molecules is associated with increased pyruvate kinase transcription?
|
glucose |
A: Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
B: Glucose C: Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D: 1,3-phosphoglycerate E: Pyruvate |
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Which molecule is a "feed-forward" activator?
|
A: Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
B: Glucose C: Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D: 1,3-phosphoglycerate E: Pyruvate |
Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
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To transfer the electrons made during aerobic glycolysis, the cell does what?
|
Transfers the electrons to DHAP to form glycerol-3-phosphate, glycerol-3-phosphate then transfers its electrons to a FAD molecule bound to a mitochondrial enzyme, which in turn transfers the electrons to CoQ. |
A: Transfers a FADH2 molecule into the matrix of the mitochondria
B: Transfers a NADH molecule into the matrix of the mitochondria C: Transfers the electrons to a FAD molecule bound ETF, which then transfers the electrons to a FAD molecule bound to ETFQO,which in turn transfers the electrons to CoQ. D: Transfers the electrons to DHAP to form glycerol-3-phosphate, glycerol-3-phosphate then transfers its electrons to a FADmolecule bound to a mitochondrial enzyme, which in turn transfers the electrons to CoQ. E: Transfers the electrons to pyruvate to form lactate which is then passed to the liver via the blood to make new molecules ofglucose in a process called gluconeogenesis. |
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During glycolysis which step is regulated by citrate?
|
3 |
A: 1
B: 2 C: 3 D: 4 E: 6 F: 7 G: 10 |
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In the liver, which glycolytic step is down regulated by elevated glucagon levels in the blood?
|
Pyruvate Kinase |
A: Phosphoglycerate mutase
B: Pyruvate Kinase C: Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase D: Hexokinase E: Aldolase A |
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In the velocity vs. substrate concentration curve, what is the Km of the Native (uninhibited) enzyme?
|
1.5 |
A: 0.5
B: 1.5 C: 3.3 D: 4.5 E: 10 |
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An enzyme has a Vmax of 18 s-1, and a Km of 3 mM, calculate the velocity if the Substrate concentration is6mM? If a competitive inhibitor has a KI of 2 mM, how much inhibitor will it take to reduce the velocity ofthe enzyme by 50% under these conditions? [Please give answers to the nearest tenth of a s-1 andnearest tenth of a mM]
|
12 6 |
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If the green triangles represent 2 mM of inhibitor X. What is the concentration of inhibitor X for the bluediamonds? mM [Please give answer to the nearest tenth of a mM, do not include units] |
6 |
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Assuming that the green and blue triangles represent different quantities of the same inhibitor, what sort ofinhibitor is this?
|
Non-competitive |
A: Competitive
B: Non-competitive C: Uncompetitive D: Mechanism based |
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In the figure above, the concentration of the inhibitor is M, what is the Ki? [please give answer tothe nearest whole M, do not include units]
|
30 |
|
|
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What sort of inhibitor is this? |
Non-competitive |
A: Competitive
B: Non-competitive C: Uncompetitive D: Mechanism based |
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During Glycolysis which step produces a molecule of ATP?
|
7 |
A: 1
B: 3 C: 6 D: 7 E: 9 |
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Using the table above, which reaction will be thermodynamically favorable?
|
Pyruvate + NADH == Lactate + NAD+ |
A: Pyruvate + NADH == Lactate + NAD+
B: Cytochrome c(Fe2+) + Ubiquinone (CoQ) == Cytochrome c(Fe3+) + Ubiquinol (CoQH2) C: Malate + NAD+ == Oxaloacetate + NADH D: 2 cytochrome a3(ox) + H2O == 2 cytochrome a3(red) +½ O2 + 2H+ E: Succinate + CO2 +NADH == alpha-ketoglutarate + NAD+ |
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Using the table above, what is the net E° for Malate + NAD+ <--> Oxaloacetate + NADH? Is it favorable?
|
-0.218V, unfavorable |
A: -0.218V, unfavorable
B: 0.218V, favorable C: -218V, favorable D: 0.218V, unfavorable E: 0.422V, favorable F: -0.422V, favorable |
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What do the following reactions demonstrate? ATP + H2O ßà ADP + Pi DG° = -7.2kcal/mol Glucose + Pi ßà Glucose-6-phospate DG° = +3.3 kcal/mol ATP + Glucose ßà Glucose-6-phosphate + ADP DG° = -4.0 kcal/mol
|
The additivity of free energy |
A: The additivity of free energy B: The coupling one reaction to another
C: The formation of activated intermediates D: That G6P will be made under any condition E: That ATP is kinetically unstable. |
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In the reactions above which reaction forms a high energy bond?
|
5 |
A: 2
B: 4 C: 5 D: 6 E: 7 |
|
|
Which enzyme activity is associated with Complex II in the mitochondria?
|
Succinate dehydrogenase |
A: Succinate dehydrogenase
B: Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C: Fumarase D: Malate dehydrogenase E: Succinyl-CoA synthetase |
|
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Which of the following enzymes require biotin for their activity? |
Pyruvate carboxylase |
A: Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B: Pyruvate carboxylase C: Pyruvate kinase D: Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase E: Isocitrate kinase |
|
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Which of the following molecules contains a high energy bond?
|
Creatine phosphate |
A: Glucose 6-phosphate
B: Glucose 1-phosphate C: Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate D: 2-Phosphoglycerate E: Creatine phosphate |
|
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Which of the following molecules are brought to hepatic cells by chylomicron remnants?
|
Cholesterol esters |
A: Cholesterol esters B: Fatty acids C: Apo C-II D: Lysophospholipids E: Glycerol |
|
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The most abundant component of chylomicrons is which of the following?
|
Triglyceride |
A: apoB-48
B: Triglyceride C: Phospholipid D: Cholesterol E: Cholesterol ester |
|
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A lack of the enzyme ETF-QO oxidoreductase leads to death. This is caused by which of the following reasons?
|
The energy yield from fatty acid use is dramatically reduced. |
A: The energy yield from glucose use is dramatically reduced.
B: The energy yield from alcohol use is dramatically reduced. C: The energy yield from ketone body use is dramatically reduced. D: The energy yield from fatty acid use is dramatically reduced. E: The energy yield from glycogen use is dramatically reduced. |
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The ATP yield from the complete oxidation of 2 mols of Oleic acid (C18:1 cis-to carbon dioxide and waterwould be what? Assume that an NADH is worth 2.5 ATPs and and FADH2 is worth 1.5 ATPs
|
237 |
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An individual with a deficiency of an enzyme in the pathway for carnitine synthesis is not eating adequateamounts of carnitine in the diet. Which of the following effects would you expect during fasting?
|
Levels of dicarboxylic acids in the blood are increased. |
A: Fatty acid oxidation is increased.
B: Ketone body synthesis is increased. C: Blood glucose levels are increased. D: Levels of dicarboxylic acids in the blood are increased. E: Levels of very long-chain fatty acids in the blood are increased. |
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Which regulatory mechanism(s) does acetyl CoA carboxylase undergo?
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Feedback regulation Feedforward regulation Energy-state regulation |
A: Feedback regulation
B: Product regulation C: Feedforward regulation D: Energy-state regulation E: Neuronal (Ca+2-calmodulin) regulation F: Proteolytic regulation |
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In the first 12 hours of fasting, which enzyme is contributes to glycerol phosphate synthesis in the adipose?
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Hormone sensitive lipase |
A: PFK-1
B: Hormone sensitive lipase C: PEPCK D: Glycerol kinase E: Lipoprotein lipase |
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What cells other than hepatic cells tissue are capable of synthesizing fatty acids?
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Lung cells, Intestinal cells, Adipose cells
(all of them) |
A: Lung cells
B: Intestinal cells C: Adipose cells D: All of these E: None of the above |
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Malonyl CoA is used to do what?
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Act as a substrate for fatty acid synthase |
A: In liver, it is used in the synthesis of cholesterol B: Regulate beta oxidation C: Regulate CPT II D: Regulate fatty acid acylation E: Act as a substrate for fatty acid synthase |
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Which molecule is used as a substrate by fatty acid synthase?
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Malonyl CoA |
A: Succinyl CoA
B: Palmitoyl CoA C: Malonyl CoA D: Methylmalonyl CoA E: Propionyl CoA |
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Certain prostaglandins, when binding to their receptor, induce an increase in intracellular calcium levels. Thesignal that leads to the elevation of intracellular calcium is initiated by which of the following enzymes?
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Phospholipase C |
A: Protein kinase A
B: Phospholipase C C: Phospholipase A2 D: Protein kinase C E: Cyclo-oxygenase |
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In humans, prostaglandins are derived primarily from which of the following?
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Arachidonic acid |
A: Glucose
B: Acetyl-CoA C: Arachidonic acid D: Oleic acid E: Leukotrienes |
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Aspirin will inhibit which of the following reaction pathways?
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Arachidonic acid thromboxanes |
A: Arachidonic acid thromboxanes
B: Arachidonic acid leukotrienes C: Arachidonic acid phospholipids D: Linoleic acid arachidonic acid E: Acetyl-CoA linoleic acid |
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Which of the following drugs lead to a covalent modification of both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?
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aspirin |
A: Aspirin
B: Tylenol C: Celebrex D: Vioxx E: Advil |
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Thromboxane A2, which is found in high levels in platelets, aids in wond repair through induction of which of thefollowing activities?
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Vasodilation |
A: Inhibits COX-2 gene expression
B: Inhibits COX-1 gene expression C: Vasoconstriction D: Vasodilation E: Bronchodilation |
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Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most dense to least dense
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HDL/LDL/IDL/VLDL/chylomicrons |
A: HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/IDL
B: HDL/LDL/IDL/VLDL/chylomicrons C: LDL/chylomicrons/HDL/IDL/VLDL D: VLDL/chylomicrons/IDL/LDL/HDL E: HDL/IDL/LDL/VLDL/chylomicrons |
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Considering the final steps in cholesterol biosynthesis, when squalene is eventually converted to lanosterol,which of the following statements is correct?
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Squalene monooxygenase is considered a mixed-function oxidase because it catalyzes a reaction in which only one of the oxygen atoms of O2 is incorporated into the organic substrate. |
A: All of the sterols have three fused rings (the steroid nucleus) and are alcohols with a hydroxyl group at C3
B: The action of squalene monooxygenase oxidizes C14 of the squalene chain, forming an epoxide C: Squalene monooxygenase is considered a mixed-function oxidase because it catalyzes a reaction in which only one of theoxygen atoms of O2 is incorporated into the organic substrate. D: Squalene monooxygenase uses reduced flavin nucleotides, such as FAD(2H), as the cosubstrate in the reaction. E: Squalene is joined at carbons 1 and 30 to form the fused-ring structure of sterols |
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Which of the following steps in the biosynthesis of cholesterol is the committed rate-limiting step?
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The reduction of beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) to mevalonate |
A: The condensation of acetoacetyl-CoA with a molecule of acetyl-CoA to yield beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) B: The reduction of beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) to mevalonate C: The conversion of mevalonate to two activated isoprenes D: The formation of farnesyl pyrophosphate E: Condensation of six activated isoprene units to form squalene |
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Of the major risk factors for the development of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD), such assedentary lifestyle, obesity, cigarette smoking, diabetes, mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, which one, ifpresent, is the only risk factor in a given patient without a history of having had a myocardial infarction thatrequires that the therapeutic goal for the serum LDL cholesterol be <100 mg/dL?
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Diabetes mellitus |
A: Obesity
B: Cigarette smoking C: Diabetes mellitus D: Hypertension E: Sedentary lifestyle |
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Which one of the following apoproteins acts as a cofactor activator of the enzyme lipoprotein lipase (LPL)?
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ApoCII |
A: ApoCIII
B: ApoCII C: ApoB100 D: ApoB48 E: ApoE |
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Which regulatory mechanism(s) does acetyl CoA carboxylase undergo?
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Feedback regulation; Feedforward regulation; Energy-state regulation |
A: Feedback regulation
B: Product regulation C: Feedforward regulation D: Energy-state regulation E: Neuronal (Ca+2-calmodulin) regulation F: Proteolytic regulation |
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What cells other than hepatic cells tissue are capable of synthesizing fatty acids?
|
Lung cells, Intestinal cells, Adipose cells |
A: Lung cells
B: Intestinal cells C: Adipose cells D: All of these E: None of the above |
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In adipocytes, the regulation of the release of fatty acids into the blood stream under fasting conditions isregulated by which of the following?
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Glyceroneogenesis |
A: Glyceroneogenesis
B: Gluconeogenesis C: Proteolysis D: AMP-dependent kinase (AMPK) E: Insulin |
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A molecule of palmitic acid, attached to carbon 1 of the glycerol moiety of a triacylglycerol, is ingested anddigested. The fatty acid is stored in a fat cell and ultimately is oxidized to carbond dioxide and water in a musclecell. Choose the molecular complex in which the palmitate residue is carried from the lumen of the gut to thesurface of the gut epithelial cell. |
Bile salt micelle |
A: VLDL
B: Chylomicron C: Fatty acid-albumin complex D: Bile salt micelle E: LDL |
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Which molecule stimulates lipoprotein lipase? |
Apolipoprotein CII |
A: Apolipoprotein B-48
B: Apolipoprotein B-100 C: Apolipoprotein CII D: Protein Kinase A E: AMP Kinase |
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In the intestine, what cellular compartment is used to make triacylglycerol?
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The endoplasmic reticulum |
A: The cytoplasm
B: The endoplasmic reticulum C: The golgi D: The nucleus E: The mitochondria |
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What is the origin of the molecule in a chylomicron remnant that is recognized by a liver receptor?
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HDL particles found in the blood |
A: Lipoprotein lipase found in the walls of capillaries
B: Intestinal cells C: HDL particles found in the blood D: VLDL particles from the liver E: CETP |
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In the lumen of the intestine, what happens to triacylglycerol?
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It is hydrolyzed into monoacylglycerol and fatty acids that are taken up by intestinal cells |
A: It is transported into intestinal cells
B: It is hydrolyzed into glycerol and fatty acids that are taken up by intestinal cells C: It is hydrolyzed into diacylglycerol and fatty acids that are taken up by intestinal cells D: It is hydrolyzed into monoacylglycerol and fatty acids that are taken up by intestinal cells E: It is hydrolyzed into diacylglycerol and fatty acids that are transported into intestinal cells |
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The apoproteins B-48 and B-100 are similar with respect to which of the following?
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They are synthesized from the same gene. |
A: They are synthesized from the same gene.
B: They are derived by alternative splicing of the same hnRNA C: apoB-48 is a proteolytic product of apoB-100 D: Both are found in mature chylomicrons E: Both are found in very low-density lipoproteins |
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Type III hyperlipidemia is caused by a deficiency of apoprotein E. Analysis of the serum of patients with thisdisorder would exhibit which of the following? |
Elevated triglyceride levels |
A: An absence of chylomicrons after eating
B: Higher than normal levels of VLDL after eating C: Normal triglyceride levels D: Elevated triglyceride levels E: Lower than normal triglyceride levels |
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The major regulated step of the urea cycle is which one of the following?
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Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I |
A: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B: Ornithine transcarbamoylase C: Argininosuccinate synthetase D: Argininosuccinate lyase E: Arginase |
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Pyridoxal phosphate, which is required for transaminations, is also required for which of the following pathways?
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Glycogenolysis |
A: Glycolysis
B: Gluconeogenesis C: Glycogenolysis D: The TCA cycle E: Fatty acid oxidation |
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Which one of the following enzymes can fix ammonia into an organic molecule? |
Glutamate dehydrogenase
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A: Alanine-pyruvate aminotransferase
B: Glutaminase C: Glutamate dehydrogenase D: Arginase E: Argininosuccinate synthetase |
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If an individual has a vitamin B6 deficiency, which of the following amino acids could still be synthesized and beconsidered nonessential?
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Tyrosine |
A: Tyrosine
B: Serine C: Alanine D: Cysteine E: Aspartate |
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A newborn infant has elevated levels of phenylalanine and phenylpyruvate in her blood. Which of the followingenzymes might be deficient in this baby?
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Dihydropteridine reductase |
A: Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
B: Phenylalanine oxidase C: Dihydropteridine reductase D: Tyrosine hydroxylase E: Dihydrofolate reductase |
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Pyridoxal phosphate is required for which of the following reaction pathways or individual reactions?
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Methionine cysteine ketobutyrate |
A: Phenylalanine tyrosine
B: Methionine cysteine ketobutyrate C: Propionyl-CoA succinyl-CoA D: Pyruvate acetyl-CoA E: Glucose glycogen |
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Propionic acid accumulation from amino acid degradation will result from a deficiency inwhich of the following vitamins?
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Vitamin B12
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A: Vitamin B6
B: Biotin C: Folic acid D: Vitamin B12 E: Vitamin B1 F: Vitamin B2 |
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A dietary vitamin B12 deficiency can result from which of the following?
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Pancreatic insufficiency
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A: Excessive intrinsic factor production by the gastric parietal cells
B: Eating a diet that is high in animal protein C: Pancreatic insufficiency D: Increased absorption of folic acid E: Inability to conjugate the vitamin with glutamic acid |
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? Forgot the question lol |
N5-methyl tetrahydrofolate |
A: N5,N10-methylene tetrahydrofolate
B: N5-methyl tetrahydrofolate C: N5, N10-methenyl tetrahydrofolate D: N10-formyl tetrahydrofolate E: N5-formimino tetrahydrofolate |
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Which of the following is true?
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Protoporphyrin IX plus iron leads to protoheme IX |
A: Protoporphyrin IX plus iron leads to protoheme IX
B: Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase is specific for uroporphyrinogen III C: ALA is stands for alanine D: Porphobilinogen is a protoporphyrinogen E: The catalytic conversion of the linear tetrapyrrole to uroporphyrinogen retains the order of acetate and propionate groups |
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A patient comes into your pharmacy with noticeably yellow sclera. The nurse practitioner in your pharmacy drawssome blood and you perform the van den Bergh reaction on it and find nearly normal direct bilirubin, but highlyelevated indirect bilirubin. What disease do you suspect your patient has?
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Hemolytic anemia
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A: Hepatitis
B: Hemolytic anemia C: Bile duct blockage |
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Which of the following is true?
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Protoporphyrinogen is the least soluble porphyrinogen |
A: Protoporphyrinogen is the least soluble porphyrinogen
B: Heme is a porphyrinogen C: Coproporphyrogen is the least soluble porphyrinogen D: Uroporphyrinogen is the least soluble porphyrinogen |
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Which of the following is the product of a Phase I enzyme acting on acetaminophen?
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NAPQI |
A: Chloroethylene oxid
B: Acetaminophen glucuronate C: Mercaptouric acid D: NAPQI E: Salicyluric acid |
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Porphyrins differ from porphyrinogens by which of the following characteristics?
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The number of double bonds |
A: The number of propionate moieties
B: The number of vinyl groups C: The number of double bonds D: The number of acetate moieties E: The number of methyl groups |
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What is the product of heme oxidase?
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Biliverdin |
A: Biliverdin
B: Urobilinogen C: Protoheme D: Conjugated Bilirubin E: Unconjugated Bilirubin |
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In which tissue is bilirubin conjugated?
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Liver |
A: Blood
B: Small Intestine C: Kidney D: Brain E: Liver |
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Which of the following is a phase I enzyme?
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Alcohol Dehydrogenase |
A: Glutathione S-transferase
B: Acetyltransferase C: Alcohol Dehydrogenase D: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase E: Methyltransferase |
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The reaction: Ribu5P Ribo5P |
is catalyzed by an epimerase
|
A: is catalyzed by an isomerase
B: is catalyzed by a transaldolase C: is catalyzed by an epimerase D: is catalyzed by a transketolase |
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Which molecule is unique to the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?
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A 6-carbon sugar phospholactone |
A: A 6-carbon sugar phospholactone
B: A 3-carbon sugar phosphate C: A 5-cabon sugar phosphate D: A 5-cabon sugar phospholactone E: A 7-carbon sugar phosphate |
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The reaction: Xylu5P + Ribo5P G3P + Sed7P
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is catalyzed by a transketolase |
A: is catalyzed by an isomerase
B: is catalyzed by a transaldolase C: is catalyzed by an epimerase D: is catalyzed by a transketolase |
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Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes what to happen? |
Sensitivity to certain drugs |
A: Sensitivity to certain drugs
B: Sickle cell disease C: Megaloblastic anemia D: Failure to thrive |
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In red blood cells what is the purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?
|
To provide a source of NADPH |
A: To provide ribose 5-phosphate
B: To provide an alternative route when glycolysis is blocked C: To provide a source of NADPH D: To provide a mechanism to get rid of excess NADH made during glycolysis |
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Which of the following molecules is not a source for gluconeogenesis?
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Acetyl-CoA |
A: Alanine
B: Glycerol C: Acetyl-CoA D: Lactate E: Succinyl-CoA |
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Where does gluconeogenesis take place?
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In both the cytosol and mitochondria of liver cells |
A: Exclusively in the cytosol of muscle cells
B: Exclusively in the mitochondria of liver cells C: Exclusively in the cytosol of liver cells D: In both the cytosol and mitochondria of muscle cells E: In both the cytosol and mitochondria of liver cells |
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In insulin signaling, what is the role of Grb2?
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The SH2 domain binds phosphorylated IRS and then the SH3 domain activates SOS |
A: The SH2 domain binds the activated tyrosine kinase and then the SH3 domain activates SOS
B: The SH2 domain binds phosphorylated IRS and then the SH3 domain activates SOS C: The SH2 domain binds the activated tyrosine kinase and then the SH3 domain activates Phospholipase C(PLC) D: The SH2 domain binds phosphorylated IRS and then the SH3 domain activates PI-3 Kinase E: The SH2 domain binds phosphorylated IRS and then the SH3 domain activates RAF |
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Which of the following is a membrane bound and activates or inactivates a signaling pathway enzyme or ionchannel?
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PI 3,4,5-tris-phosphate |
A: PI 3,4,5-tris-phosphate
B: PI 4,5-bis-phosphate C: Inositol 1,4,5-tris-phosphate D: cAMP E: Phosphatidyl choline |
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What kind of signalling system uses catecholamines?
|
Endocrine System |
A: Nervous System
B: Endocrine System C: Immune system D: Eicosanoids E: Growth Factors |
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Which of the following molecules regulate Pyruvate Carboxylase?
|
Acetyl CoA |
A: NADH
B: ATP C: Acetyl CoA D: Citrate E: Calcium |
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In the liver, fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase is down regulated by which molecule?
|
Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate |
A: Fructose 6-phosphate
B: Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate C: Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate D: Citrate E: ATP |
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A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that inhibits phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase (PEPCK). In this patient, then, under these conditions, glucose production from which of thefollowing precursors would be inhibited?
|
Alanine |
A: Alanine
B: Glycerol C: Even-chain-number fatty acids D: Phosphoenolpyruvate E: Galactose |
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An accumulation of hydrogen peroxide in a cellular compartment can be converted to dangerous radical forms inthe presence of which metal?
|
Iron |
A: Selenium
B: Iron C: Manganese D: Magnesium E: Molybdenum |
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Which of the following molecules is does not help suppress reactive oxygen?
|
NADPH oxidase |
A: Glutathione peroxidase
B: NADPH oxidase C: Superoxide dismutase D: Glutathione reductase E: Catalase |
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Usingthe table below, what happens when lipoate is reduced by an equal amount ofglutathione? |
They form anequilibrium where ~10% of the lipoate molecules are reduced |
A. They form anequilibrium where ~10% of the lipoate molecules are reduced B. They form an equilibrium where ~99% of the lipoate moleculesare reduced C. They form an equilibrium where ~50% of the lipoate moleculesare reduced D. Nothing much happens, lipoate cannot be reduced byglutathioneE. The glutathione is oxidized and the lipoate is reduced. |
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Whatclass of enzyme catalyzes this reaction? |
Transferase |
A. Oxidoreductase B. Transferase C. Hydrolase D. Ligase E. Isomerase F. Lyase |
|
What class of enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
|
lyase |
A. Lyase B. Isomerase C. Hydrolase D. Transferase E. Oxidoreductase F. Ligase |
|
Thetype of reaction shown fits into which of the following classifications? |
Group transfer |
A. Carbon-carbon bond breaking B. Group transfer C. Isomerization D. Carbon-carbon bond formation E. Oxidation-reduction |
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Thetype of enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is which one of the following? |
Glycosyltransferase |
A. Transaminase B. Isomerase C. Kinase D. Dehydrogenase E. Glycosyltransferase |
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Insulin release in the fedstate will lead to which of the following metabolic changes? |
C |
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WhichCurve represents competitive inhibition? |
D |
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Inthe velocity vs. substrate concentration curve, what is the Km of the Native(uninhibited) enzyme? |
1.5 |
A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 3.3 D. 4.5 E. 10 |
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Inthe velocity vs. substrate concentration curve, which curve, A, B, or Crepresents competitive inhibition? |
A |
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Inthe Lineweaver-Burk plot, which inhibition curve A, B, or C represent theinhibited enzyme with the greatest apparent Vmax?A. A |
A |
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In the Lineweaver-Burk plot, which inhibition curve A, B, or C represents pure non-competitive inhibition?
|
B |
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Whatis the slowest step in the TCA Cycle? |
2 |
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Aninhibitor blocks Citrate Synthase, which molecule will likely build up? |
F |
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Whichenzyme is embedded in the inner mitochondrial matrix? |
5 |
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