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New COURSE: Ocular Disease IV
ocular disease II, III and IV notecards were made from lecture recordings and lecture powerpoints. ocular disease I was made from only the lecture powerpoints and not the lecture recordings.
New lecture: 1GlcAssessST2010
deciding if a pt has glaucoma or not and WHEN to treat is much harder than deciding how to tx them (what drugs to start with etc.)
you see what you look for, not what you look at.
glaucoma is many different diseases and which one it is can have a large impact on the prognosis and tx.
what is the definition of glaucoma
"a group of ocular diseases with various causes that ultimately are associated with a progressive optic neuropathy leading to loss of vision function". -this implies that in order to say that a person has glaucoma they need to have optic nerve involvement and vision loss (including field loss). without both of those thing you are probably dealing with a glaucoma suspect or an ocular hypertensive.
you do not have to have a diagnosis of glaucoma in order to tx. you can tx in a preventative manor.
most people agree that what IOP is high enough to treat based on IOP alone
30 mmHg or higher (between 30 and 24 there are a lot of different opinions; but most people agree that below 24, that is not high enough to tx based on IOP alone)
at this point, IOP is the only risk factor for glaucoma that we know how to tx relatively effectively. it is the only risk factor that we can monitor on a fine enough scale to see changes in the short term (field loss and ONH changes occur too gradually for us to effectivly use to monitor glaucoma progression in the short term)
how common is glaucoma in caucasians and african peoples
about 2% of caucasians. 6% of individuals of african descent. -that's not that common, but not that rare either.
consider baseline IOP when establishing a target IOP
what are the traditionally accepted risk factors associated with glaucoma
1. increasing age 2. geneder (male more likely to develop primary open-angle glaucoma; females more likely to develop narrow angle glaucoma) 3. race (africans; native americans and asians fall inbetween caucasians and africans in terms of their prevelance of glaucoma) 4. vascular conditions (migraine HAs, heart problems, vasculitis) 5. inflammatory conditions 6. medications (corticosteroids; oral and topical) 7. trauma 8. surgery (can change the aqueous flow) 9. refractive status (myopes deveop primary open-angle glaucoma more) 10. increased IOP 11. visual field status 12. ONH (larger cup)
when was the OHTS study published
2002
the OHTS study is a multicenter randomized clinical trial. which tells you that it was controlled pretty well, and usually that there was a pretty high N (number of participants). the OHTS study has 1636 participants with ocular hypertension (one eye with an IOP between 24 and 32, and the other eye between 21 and 32). they were divided into two groups, treated and untreated; and they were followed for 5 years. then they evaluated the ones that did develop glaucoma and tries to determine which risk factors were associated with the development of glaucoma. risk factors evaluated by OHTS: age, self-identified race, gender, vertical CD ration, horizontal CD ratio, IOP, family history of glaucoma, visual field indices, myopia, heart disease, high blood pressure, low blood pressure, use of oral calcium channel, blockers, use of oral beta-blockers, cerebrovascular accident, diabetes mellitus, migraine, central corneal thickness.
why is high blood pressure considered as risk factor for glaucoma? why is low blood pressure considered as risk factor for glaucoma?
high BP: high blood pressure causes atherosclerosis. which causes poor perfusion to the tissue low BP: low blood pressure causes poor perfusion to the tissue (particularly if there is high IOP; arteries in the eye are a very low pressure system, so the pressure in the eye can actually be higher than the pressure in the artery, which leads to poor perfusion)
to what range of IOP do the results of the OHTS study apply
generally accepted to apply to IOPs in the range of 24-32.
calcium channel blocker were looked at in the OHTS because they cause peripheral vasodilation. there was one study that claimed that calcium channel blockers actually reversed visual field loss due to glaucoma. this study is now believed to be false and that the improvements were actually due to a learning effect on the part of the participants.
what was the most significant risk factor for glaucoma that they found in the OHTS
central corneal thickness.
to whom do the results of the OHTS study apply
people with OCULAR HYPERTENSION. you CAN NOT apply the results of the OHTS study to people who do not have ocular hypertension. -it may be that they do apply, but that is not what the study showed, and we do not have any proof that they do apply to people without ocular hypertension.
what is the difference between multivariant and univariant risk factors
multivariant: means that you recognize that there are multiple variables that could be influencing it and you try to compensate for that univariant: looks at one variable at a time and does not consider wheather or not it is being influenced by another variable -you notice that the grass turns brown in the summer and you think that it is related to the amount of sun. then you do statistical analysis comparing the amount of sun to the amount of brownness in the grass. that is univariant analysis. if you think about it, increased sun means decreased rain, and decreased rain means borwnness of the grass. it's also possible that the sun its self is causing the brownness of the grass. figuring out how much is due to lack of rain and how much is due to sun exposure is multivariant analysis. -in the OHTS study we know that IOP increases with age, but both are a risk factor for glaucoma. how much is due to IOP and how much is due to age? it is possible that age is not a risk factor and that increasing IOP with age is the only reason that you get increased glaucoma with age. to isolate these factors you take people in many different age categories, but with the exact same IOP and see if there is a difference in the incidence of glaucoma. this is a mutivariant example. -multivariant is usually considered to be a stronger statistic than univariant.
name the multivariant and the univariant risk factors found in the OHTS study
multivariant: 1. age (1.22 per decade) 2. vertical CD ratio (1.32 per 0.1 larger) 3. horizontal CD ratio (1.27 per 0.1 larger) 4. IOP (1.10 per mmHg) 5. central corneal thickness (1.71 per 40 microns thinner) univariant: 1. male gender (1.87; probably because males have more of the other risk factors than females) 2. self-identified race: african american (1.59; if you have an african american and a caucasian with exactly the same IOP, CD, corneal thickness and other risk factors, then individuals of african american descent were no more likely to develop glaucoma than caucasians) 3. heart disease (2.11) -univariant risk factors were significan on univariant analysis AND not significan on multivariant analysis.
what are the traditional risk factors that were NOT found to be significant in the OHTS study
1. family history of glaucoma (still generally accepted as a risk factor OHTS admits that they didn't do this part of the study right, because they didn't do a background check and relied entirely on pt report. almost all other studies support family history as a risk factor for glaucoma) 2. vascular disease (diabetes and migraine) 3. diabetes mellitus (study actually found that diabetes was protective for glaucoma. this disagrees with every other study done. every other study has either found no association or that is was a risk factor. once again they did not conformation of wheather or not the subject had diabetes; they relyed entirely on pt report. they also excluded anyone with diabetic retinopathy from the study. Dr. Lingle doesn't know of anyone who thinks that diabetes is protective for glaucoma) 4. high OR low blood pressure (low blood pressure is probably not a risk factor for glaucoma, but one one thought that it was a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma, it is thought to be a risk factor for normotensive glaucoma) 5. cerebrovascular accident 6. oral calcium channel blockers 7. oral beta-blockers 8. myopia (there are a lot of studies that show high myopia as a risk factor for glaucoma. the OHTS study did not have many high myopes and most experts still consider it a risk factor)
if your mother has glaucoma it is more of a risk factor than if your father has glaucoma. if a sibling has glaucoma it is more of a risk factor than if either of your parents have glaucoma.
remember that the results of the OHTS study only apply to people with ocular hypertension (IOP between 24 and 32). be vary cautious about applying the results of this study to people with IOPs outside this range. they may well apply, but we don't know that they do.
there is a calculator based on the results of the OHTS study that will tell you what your risk of developing glaucoma within the next five years with and without treatment. talks about this on slide 19 of powerpoint 1GlcAssessST2010. Dr. Lingle did an example and the risk was 15% with tx and 9% without tx. it is important to know this when deciding with the pt wheather to tx or not.
why is it important to look at pupil size when evaluating a glaucoma suspect
because pupil size will influence visual field results, and if we ignore pupil size we may misinterprate visual field results -anything else that will influence the amount of light getting in the eye (cataract, corneal/lenticular opacities, pterygium) will impace the visual field.
what refractive error is most likely to have krukenberg's spindle
high myopes.
where does the pigment come from in krukenburg's spindle and why
-pigment comes from the back of the iris from it rubbing on the zonules. the iris is often concave.
how do you do iris transillumination
magnification: 10X. if you mag. is too high you will lose your contrast. illumination: dark you: you should be dark adapted beam: it doesn't really matter what shape the beam is, it just needs to be inside the pupil -you should be looking in the mid-periphery (zonules rubing on iris)
describe the prognosis of pseudoexfoliative glaucoma compared to other forms of glaucoma
has a worse prognosis. response less to tx. usually requires surgery much faster and results in more field loss.
how do you find pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
you have to dilate the pt and THEN do biomicroscopy
remember that there are several studies that indicate that beta-blockers increase cataracts. if you see worsening fields and don't consider that it may be from increasing cataracts, you might think that the therapy is not working.
making a diagnosis of glaucoma is not urgent, because it is a slowly progressive disease. you can wait until you are more sure of the diagnosis before you decide. consider that studies show that just by telling someone that they have glaucoma, their quaility of life decreases because they worry about it. so you don't want to take the diagnosis of glaucoma lightly, but you don't want to ingore it either. also consider that once you diagnose someone with glaucoma there are not very many people that will "undiagnose" them. your diagnosis is pretty permanent, so if you're not sure it is a good idea to wait. Dr. Lingle has only removed the diagnosis of glaucoma on one pt in her entire carear
studies have shown over and over again that visual fields are not very repeatable. if it were not for the human component, it would probably be a much more repetable test; so you really need to pay attention to what is going on during the visual field. (type A will wait until they are sure that they see the light)
what is the sensitivity and specificity of diagnosing glaucoma based on using an IOP measurement of >24
sensitivity: 34% specificity: 99%
what is the sensitivity and specificity of diagnosing glaucoma based on a visual field SCREEING
sensitivity: 52% specificity: 90% -you need to use several different findings to diagnose glaucoma
what is the sensitivity and specificity of a GDX screen
sensitivity: 80% specificity: 90%
visual fields, tonometry and CD together with any one being abnormal yields 90% sensitivity and 90% specificity
what is the sensitivity and specificity for early glaucoma of the FDT
sensitivity: 80% specificity: 93% -appears to be excellent screening tool for glaucoma especially when used in the threshold mode. accurately predicted location and relative depth of scotomas found with humphrey visual field
what are the advantage of FDT
1. very fast 2. skill level required of technician much lower than other field tests 3. blur has a limited effect
how do you interpret the FDT
abnormal if any of the following: 1. any defect in central five locations 2. two or more mild defects in the outer twelve locations 3. one or more moderate or severe defects in the outer twelve locations 4. longer than 90 seconds to perform the test on one eye
FDT is useful for as a glaucoma screening, but humphrey visual field is useful for glaucoma diagnosis and is often used as a test to prove diagnosis in studies.
recognize that there is a learning effect to humphrey visual field. also remember that you need to compare your visual field results to the appearance of the optic nerve head. you need to do dilation on the same visit as a field, not 3 months later. if you can't, you need to at least look undilated.
how do you determine if a visual field is reliable (specifically)
1. fixation losses: gaze monitoring, blind spot testing (20% or less is reliable (up to 33% in older pts)), false positives (<33% is reliable), false negatives (<33% is reliable), short term fluctuation (flagged if outside of norm).
what is a short-term fluctuation
there are 10 predetermined points in a humphrey visual field that are always retested (if short-term fluctuations are turned on), then they use a mathmatical model to measure variability (check variablility on that test. short-term fluctuations are considered an indication of unreliability).
how could short-term fluctuations be a very early sign of a visual field defect
short term fluctuations could also be a very early sign of a visual field defect, because there is a certain angular distance between the closest areas that lights are presented in a visual field, if you have a very small visual field defect that is right inbetween the two closest spots that lights are presented if the pt were only slightly misaligned between the two presentations, they may see it one time and not another time. this is how short-term fluctuations could be a sign of a very early defect. if a pt has really good reliability in every other way except for short-term fluctuations, you should consider that it might be because of an early, shallow defect.
how many degrees seperate two lights in a humphrey 30-2
6 degrees
what is a false negative
false negative: present a stimulus in a spot that you have previously said that you could see that is much brighter. you should see it, if you say that you don't, it is a false negative.
how does blind spot testing work
the instrument places a stimulus where it thinks the blind spot should be and sees if you indicate that you see it.
what do upward and downward spikes on gaze monitoring mean
upward: true deviation downward: blink or unable to track (long downward stroke means the pt blinked. short downward stoke means the machine lost its ability to track) -downward strokes are better than upward strokes.
how does a field machine accomplish gaze monitoring
reflections off the cornea. as the pt keeps their eyes open for longer and longer periods of time the reflections off the cornea get worse, so it is common for us to see more downward spikes as the test goes on.
what is the raw data display
true threshold in dB (not adjusted for age)
what is the function of the grayscale
should be ignored by the practitioner. used for pt education only. -for one thing, lights are present a minimum of 6 degrees apart; the gray scale will make extrapolations in between these points that are not necessairly correct.
what does the glaucoma hemifield test do
compares similar points above and below the horizontal midline. (will say within normal limits, outside, or boarderline). even if it says they are outside normal limits, you should NOT say that the pt has glaucoma based soley on this. there are many other conditions that would cause the glaucoma hemifield test to be outside normal limits (anterior ischemic optic neuropathy for example (altitudinal defect))
are high dBs brighter or dimmer than low dBs in visual fields
higher dBs are more sensative areas, so they are dimmer stimuli
what is an absolute scotoma and what would it measure in dBs
an area where there is no light perception. zero decibels (really saying that the pt has no light perception at the brightest stimulus the instrument can present)
what is the total deviation plot of a visual field test
the difference between what is expected for age and the achieved.
what does a negative number on a total deviation plot mean
the pts performance was less sensitive than expected for their age
is it more common to have a positive or negative number on the total deviation plot? why?
more common to get negative numbers. you would expect that they would be positive half the time and negative half the time, but it is negative because of the learning curve. the average person in the humphrey database performed the test every 6 months and were more experienced than your average pt.
what is the probability plot of the total deviation of a visual field
how likely the total deviation is due to chance. also age adjusted, but based on a very well trained normal database.
humphrey will not give us information about the demographic in their normalized data base because they say that it is proprietary information
what is the pattern deviation of a visual field
the instrument compensates for any overall depression or overall increase in sensitivity. if you look at the picture, all the points on this persons field (with the exception of one or two points) are far enough away from normal that they would be the darkest black on the total deviation probability plot. so the whole field would be black an you could miss the fact that there is a pattern indicitative of some disease process unless you adjust for an overall depression for the fild (look at the pattern deviation). (example: a cataract could prevent you from detecting glaucoma unless you look at the pattern deviation plot). -it is age adjusted because it is based on the total deviation
name some things that could cause a person to have an overall depression in sensitivity of their visual field
-anything that reduces light to the retina 1. cataract 2. tinted contact lenses 3. very small pupils 4. corneal scar 5. a pt who doesn't want to push the button until they are absolutely positivethey see the light -many other things
after cataract surgery a person may have an overall increase in sensitivity of their visual field compared to their age.
name the global indicies of a visual field
1. mean deviation 2. pattern standard deviation 3. short term fluctuation 4. corrected pattern standard deviation
what is the mean deviation of a visual field
overall depression or elevation of visual sensitivity. not very specific, can be influenced by cataracts or very deep depressions (just like any other mean it can be significantly influenced by outliers). it is related to the total deviation and can be considered an average of the values in the total deviation plot. -it is calculated from age matched values
what is the pattern standard deviation of a visual field
look at how much the visual field has variations from the normal shape of the visual field (hill of vision; sesative in middle and drops off in the periphery). looks at the pattern to see how the points compare in terms of what is expected compared to its neighboring point. related to the pattern deviation plot; a single number that represents the variation from normal on the pattern deviation plot. -also calculated from age matched values
what are short term fluctuations
takes certain preassigned points and evaluates them to determine how much variation the pt is giving us on a single day
what is the corrected pattern standard deviation
number representing the pattern standard deviation corrected by short term fluctuations. adjusts for pt reliability. if pt variability was greater that day, it will accept more variability as normal.
name the types of visual field defects found in glaucoma
early (most to least common) 1. partial arcuate 2. paracentral 3. nasal step 4. temporal wedge later loss 5. arcuate 6. altitudinal
what is a partial arcuate field defect
visual field loss in the nerve fiber bundle that extends incompletely from the blind spot to the nasal meridian. generally they are contiguous with either the blind spot or the masal meridian. in order to be called a partial arcuate the field must have at least 1 abnormal spot in the temporal field. (picture is two different examples of partial arcuate, they are not the same pt)
what are paracentral scotomas
small isolated scotoma in the nerve fiber bundle region. they are generally NOT contiguous with either the blind spot or the nasal meridian (if they were they would probably be called an early arcuate). they do not involve points outside 15 degrees that are adjacent to the nasal meridian (that would be a nasal step). superior temporal portion most commonly involved.
how do you determine how many degrees away from central fixation a defect is
remember that each point is 6 degrees away from each other, but that the points closest to the center of fixation are only three degrees away from fixation (but they are still 6 degrees away from each other). in the picture the defect is 15 degrees away from central fixation.
what is a nasal step field defect
limited field loss adjacent to the nasal horizontal meridian. includes at least one abnormal spot at or outside 15 degrees on the meridian. they tend to develop more in the periphery first and move towards the center. can not include more than 1 significant point on either plot in the nerve fiber bundle region on the temporal side. also, it can't be from a neurologic cause.
what is a temporal wedge defect
small defect temporal to the blind spot from damage to the nasal disc fibers. they typically do not respect the horizontal midline.
notice that glacoumatous field loss (partial arcuate, paracentral, nasal step, temporal wedge) tend to be in EITHER the superior or inferior field. this creates an asymmetry between superior and inferior fields (glaucoma hemifield test). why does this occur?
the area of the optic nerve head that tends to be damaged is the area furthest from the central retinal artery truck.
what are arcuate scotomas
significant field loss in nerve fiber bundle layer. extends across contiguous abnormal points from the blind spot to at least 1 poing outside 15 degrees that is adjacent to the nasal meridian. -you would be able to see the damage to the ONH by the time it gets to this stage.
what is an altitudinal field defect
severe field loss in one hemifield that respects the horizontal midline. most points in hemifield have P<.05 on total deviation. typically the entire horizontal midline is abnormal. -this is caused by other things besides glaucoma (AION)
how would you tell if a longstanding altitudinal visual field loss was due to glaucoma or anterior ischemic optic neuropathy based on the appearance of the optic nerve head
longstanding: in glaucoma there would extreme changes to the cup. in AION the nerve would be pale but there would not be changes to the cup.
generalized depression in the visual field can be caused by glaucoma, but usually it is from other causes.
this is not glaucoma. what is it
this is a central defect. the fibers around the macula tend to be spared in glaucoma.
this is not glaucoma. what is it
quadranopsia
this is not glaucoma. what is it?
hemianopsia
this is not glaucoma. what is it?
defect from trial lens
what type of defect is this
double arcuate
what type of defect is this
temporal wedge
what type of field defect is this
nasal step
what type of field defect is this
partial arcuate
how do you tell is a field is significant for glaucoma
has to be repeatable AND consistant with a defect caused by glaucoma AND any of the following: 1. a single non-edge point worse than P<0.5% 2. 2 or more adjacent non-edge points that exist at P<5% level, with one of them at P<1% (adjacent is horizontal or verticle, not diagonal) 3. 3 or more adjacent non-edge points existing at P>5% level 4. 2 adjacent points that differ from points across the horizontal midline by at lead 10 dB (nasal step) 5. corrected pattern standard deviation in <5% of normal 6 glaucoma hemifield test not within normal limits -these are very stringent guidelines. they are from the OHTS study, which had very well trained participants. you might have to fudge them a little bit in clinical practice (particularly #1)
at about what pupil size will we start to see an overall depression in the visual field
3mm and below
New lecture: 2GlcAssessST2010
corneal thickness has an effect on IOP measurement. the thicker the cornea the higher the measured IOP, but exactly what that relationship is is still under debate.
goldmann tonometry was created for corneas of thickness 520 microns. mean corneal thickness is 534 to 554. caucasians tend to have thicker corneas. there is a large amount of variability from individual to individual though.
how does the average central corneal thickness compare to normal for pts with normotensive gluacoma and for pts with ocular hypertension
normotensive: lower CCT than normal OHT: higher CCT than normal
how does corneal size in pts with ocular hypertension effect their risk of developing primary open-angle glaucoma
thinner corneas with ocular hypertension show an increased risk of developing POAG in OHTS -remember that this only applies to people with ocular hypertension, we don't know what effect central corneal thickness has on people who don't have ocular hypertension
people used to think you needed 10 measurements for accuracy in pachymetry. but studies have shown that you only need to take three measurements to be accurate.
it is hard to find any support in the literature that indicates that there is any kind of linear or repeatible effect of corneal thickness change on IOP. the belief is that a thicker cornea will result in higher IOP measurement, but to what extent and how to adjust for that we still up for grabs. picture has plotted measured IOP and corneal thickness. if there was a clear relationship between corneal thickness and IOP you would expect a tighter grouping in this graph. you notice that you do measure higher IOP with increasing corneal thickness, but notice the variability. as it is, it is hard to say exactly how corneal thickness affects IOP measurement.
when you see charts for adjusting IOP based on corneal thickness you should take that with a grain of salt. also, there are multiple different methods of conversion. some say subtract 1 mmHg for every 50 microns of thickness. some say 10% change in thickness changes IOP 1-3.5 mmHg. some say change 1 mmHg for every 10 microns. you should realize that increasing corneal thickness does increase measured IOP, but we don't know the exact relationshiop. you are exchanging one false IOP for another flase IOP. the only way we can know the true IOP is by sticking a probe inside the eye.
how does diurnal variability of IOP affect the risk of developing glaucoma
studies have show that increased diurnal variability of intra-ocular pressure SIGNIFICANTLY increases the risk of developing glaucoma.
you should consider measuring IOP at different times of day on glaucom suspects. also, as far a therapy it is importnant that if you rx a drop bid that they actually take it two times a day, because otherwise they are increasing their diurnal variability which is a significant risk factor for IOP
what is normal diurnal variation in IOP
about 4 mmHg. above 7 is abnormal.
name some things that can influence your measured IOP besides corneal thickness
1. exercise (increase) 2. repeated tonometry (decrease (pushing on the eye)) 3. apparel (tie can increase) 4. gonioscopy (decrease (same as tonometry)) 5. visual fields
tonometry should be used more in the management of glaucoma than in the diagnosis
gonioscopy should be performed on all glaucoma suspects when they become a suspect and then yearly. why does it need to be done yearly?
because as the lens changes the appearance of the angle can change. you can have a glaucoma pt that you have been managing successfully for years and then all of a sudden they come in and their IOP is up and you change their meds around but that doesn't seem to help, then you check gonioscopy and realize that they now have a narrow angle glaucoma.
during gonioscopy don't forget to look at the iris (including the pupillary ruff). how is the iris usually classified on gonioscopy
1. concave (wide angle) 2. flat 3. convex (narrow angle)
what colors do the ciliary body, scleral spur, trabecular meshwork, and schwalbe's line tend to be
ciliary body: dark (usually), light tan scleral spur: white (glisens if you move your light around) trabecular meshwork: white, pink, brown, tan schalbe's line: white
how can you tell clinically on gonioscopy where schwalbe's line is
if you use a slit and look carefully, the beam will split into two and then join back into one when it hits schwalbe's line. one portion of the light is reflected off the endothelium and one poriton of the light is reflected off the epithelium
how do you record for gonioscopy
1. pt name 2. date 3. drops used 4. time 5. eye 6. make an X and write the deepest structures you could see in that meridian 7. PAS (peripheral anterior synechiae) 8. record iris approach 9. record the amount of pigment in the TM in all four quadrants
good site for learing to recognize gonioscopy: http://www.gonioscopy.org/index.html
when we rate the amount of pigment in the trabecualr meshwork it is important to recognize that we are not rating the darkness (color) of the TM, but how many granules of pigment there are in the TM.
what structure can the iris processes help you distinguish
they tend to point to the trabecular meshwork. not always the case, but can help you find it
what is in this picture
blood vessels from the major circle of the iris. it is very important to be able to distinguish them from neovasularization (rubeosis iridis) (how to distinguish them is next question)
how do you distinguish normal blood vessels of the major circle of the iris (normal) from rubeosis (pathologic)
normal blood vessels are large and ropy. neo can be pretty ropy, but along with the ropy blood vessels there is a fine net of blood vessels (net won't be there in normal blood vessels). vessels of the major circle will tend to be circumfrential around the iris; neovascularization tends to follow no pattern at all. normal vessels of the major circle tend to have a "lock ness" appearance meaning that they come up from the iris and then dive back down (like a bunch of half circles). neovascularization will tend to run along the surface of the iris and not dive down into the stroma. finally, with vessels of the major circle, if you look really closely, you will be able to see the glistening of the vessel wall. neovascularization tends to be fine enough vessels that you don't see the wall. neo of the iris can start at the pupil or in the angle. it is very important to be able to distingish between them.
optic nerve head evaluation is one of the best tests for assessing glaucoma. even so, the more tests you do that support the diagnosis the better. in most cases tissue is lost in the ONH before there is field loss. the best view is with a goldman contact fundus lens. you need to take pictures though; think about putting a lobster into boiling water and it jumps out, but is you put it in room temp water in a pot and slowly turn up the heat you can boil it. the same is ture with ONH evaluation, changes are so slow that you WON'T see them over time. you need to take pictures so you can compare ONH changes over time.
when does the rim tissue end and the cup begin
when the contour changes (not the color)
what is the normal shape of the optic nerve head
oval. vertical greater than horizontal
what is the normal shape of the cup
round. if elongated it is usually horizontal greater than verticle.
what color is the normal rim tissue
pink
what is the normal size of the ONH
verticle: 1.88 mm horizontal: 1.77 mm -normal variation is quite large though.
how does ONH size affect CD
larger nerve head is associated with larger CD ratio
describe the procedure of measuring the ONH with the slit lamp beam
adjust the slit lamp beam to a known height and measure it to make sure the measurement device on the slit lamp is calabrated. measure horizontal and vertical disc diameters by adjusting slit beam height. apply the appropriate correction factor for your lens (1.33 for 90D ?)
how do you calculate the disc area after you have measured it in the vertical and horizontal directions
Horizontal disc diameter X vertical disc diameter X ?/4 = disc area
what is an easy but accurate way of comparing the size of the ONH between the two eyes
adjust the slit height to the size of one of the ONHs and then move over to the other side without adjusting the height of the beam at all and see if they are the same.
how many fibers are there in each optic nerve
1.2 million.
in glaucoma you are looking for contour changes of the rim, cup and disc vessels and NOT pallor in the center of the disc (that is not important)
is thinning of the neuroretinal rim the same thing as notching
no. all notching is thinning, but not all thinning is notching
what part of the ONH tends to lose ganglion cells first
usually superior and inferior first (inferior temporal most frequently). nasal and temporal later in disease. results in vertical elongation (picture).
the evaluation of rim tissue thickness is more important than the CD in glaucoma. what is the rim/disc ratio and how do you evaluate it in each quadrant
-rim/disc: the distance between the edge of the cup and the edge of the disc Determined rim/disc ratio in each quadrant Needs to add up to 1.0 with C/D ratio in each meridian Allows increased sensitivity in noting change
you can double check your CDs by estimating rim/disc ratios in each quadrant and seeing if they add up to 1 in each meridian
can you use the rim/disc values to make an inference about wheather the ISNT rule is met or not
no. the disc may have a total diameter that is different in the vertical and horizontal directions. since these values are a ratio you can't compare one meridian to the other.
what is this graph telling us
on the vertical axis we have the smalles rim/disc ratio and on the horizontal axis we have the diameter of the disc (in the meridian of the smallest rim/disc ratio). it indicated the likihood of glaucomatous damaged (as you can see the larger the diameter the smaller the rim/disc ratio that is considered normal). you should take graphs like these with a grain of salt, because most temporal rims are very thin if you look at contour and most of these graphs were made when they were looking at color. these graphs are not really useful, it should just remind us that as we have a larger disc diameter a smaller rim/disc ratio is acceptable. if you do try to use it clinically you should probably ignore the temporal rim.
what value for the horizontal CD over the vertical CD is normal
greater than 1 (1.15-1.19 typically). only 7% of normals have value of less than 1. usually if it is less than one you can find some reason for it like malinserted disc or odd shaped nerve head.
careful evaluation of the vessels of the ONH can help you detect subtle glaucomatous changes.
where is the central retinal artery trunk located in the majority of people
superior nasal is the most common position
what is the significance of the location of the central artery trunk
the area of the ONH that is farthest from the CRA trunk is most likely to experience rim tissue loss first in glaucoma -2 theories as to why: mechanical support from the trunk prevents blockage of axoplasmic flow. or they could be getting nutrients from the CRA trunk
when do you see diffuse arteriole narrowing
found in most types of ONH damage, not just glaucoma
look for shifts in vessel position on the ONH; the tissue that was once supporting them is no longer there. they can serve as a sensitive marker in photos.
give two names for the hemorrhage near the ONH commonly associated with glaucoma
splinter hemorrhage, drance hemorrhage
name some causes of splinter hemorrhage
glaucoma, posterior vitreous detachment, resolving branch retinal vein oclusion, diabetic retinopathy
what shape are splinter (drance) hemorrhages
flame-shaped when just off the ONH. blot-like when on the disc
what location on the ONH are splinter (drance) hemorrages from glaucoma most likely to occur? why?
inferior pole. central retinal artery trunk most likely in superior half
example of a drance hemorrhage
what other ONH sign is typically associated with drance hemorrhages DUE TO GLAUCOMA
usually associated with an area of notching underneath them after they resolve. (if due to other conditions there is usually no such damage)
how long does it typically take for a drance hemorrhage to resolve
10 weeks (2-35 weeks; since they are asymptomatic there is not way to know how long they have been there when we first see them)
do drance hemorrhages tend to recur
it is farily common for them to recurr in the same spot after about 6 months. it is more common for this to happen in normotension glaucoma than primary open-angle
what is the prognosis associated with drance hemorrhage
poorer prognosis (if due to glaucoma and not some other factor like PVD). strong indication for intervention if you are not treating or increased intervention if you are.
peripapillary pigmentary changes indicate an increased risk of glaucoma. this is atrophy (not scleral or choroidal crescent). cause a mottled appearance to the RPE seen around the disc.
what is the peripheral alpha zone and the central beta zone
-peripapillary pigmentary changes peripheral alpha zone: start of peripapillary pigmentary changes seen as a darkening and irregularity to the pigment (hyper and hypo pigmentation). it tends to touch or be in contact with normal retina central beta zone: as time progresses alpha peripapillary atrophy tends to get worse. if atrophy get so bad that we lose all pigmentation and we have a white coloration. beta is worse. -also known as alpha and beta peripapillary atrophy?
how does beta peripapillary atrophy differ from a scleral crescent in appearance
beta atrophy does NOT have smooth boarders; they are less well defined. (picture is beta). also color is not a nice clean white in beta atrophy as it is in a scleral crescent. also beta progresses from alpha atrophy.
do you ever see alpha or beta peripapillary atrophy in normal eyes
it is very common to see alpha peripapillary atrophy on the temporal side of ONH in normals. but it is quite UNcommon to find beta peripapillary atrophy in normal eyes.
beta peripapillary atrophy is usually found in advanced damage and is often associated with rim loss in the same quadrant.
what causes beta peripapillary atrophy
we dont' know for sure, but we think it has to do with ischemia in the nerve fiber layers of the retina in that area. fluorescein angiography shows poor choriocapillaris perfusion in the area of beta atrophy.
are acquired pits of the ONH due to glaucoma common or uncommon
pretty uncommon
in what type of glaucoma are acquired pits of the ONH most common
more common in pts with normal tension glaucoma
what are acquired pits of the ONH
sharply localized depressions of lamina cribrosa due to loss of laminar architecture.
do acquired pits of the ONH tend to be larger or smaller than congenital pits
acquired pits tend to be smaller
where do acquired pits of the ONH tend to be localized
usually found in outer edge of disc. most likely in inferior temporal quadrant (farthest from central retinal artery trunk). -then tend to be white in appearence like in this picture.
how can you tell the difference between an acquired and congenital ONH pit based on appearence
acquired: white in color, smaller, rounder congenital: more grey in color, larger, not round
is this a congenital or acquired optic pit
looks more like a congenital (and it is)
are congenital pits of the ONH relatively common or rare
relatively common
what is the white ring around the outside of this ONH
a scleral ring (not called a scleral crescent). most people have it to some degree or another. you should NOT include it when you are measuring the CD ratio.
this is definately notching inferiorly
New lecture: 3GlcAssessST2010
describe the normal appearance of the nerve fiber layer
casts a whitis haze over underlying retinal structures. we are seeing reflections off the bundles of the NFL
how can we get an idea of the thickness of the nerve fiber layer with high plus or BIO and why is that important
the brighter the reflections the thicker the NFL. we expect the reflections to be equal between between the inferior and superior archades AND to be equal between the two eyes
we expect nerve fiber layer to be thick enough that it covers smaller blood vessels when you are looking at it with high plus or BIO
what is the best way to see the nerve fiber layer
BIO with the red free filter. you have a larger field of view and that is important for seeing overall differences in brightness or any defects. BIO is preferable over high plus. -you need to use pretty high illumination which will be uncomfortable for the pt, but you need to do it to see the NFL otherwise you might as well not do the technique
how does the color of the fundus affect your ability to see the nerve fiber layer
the lighter the fundus the harder it is to see the nerve fiber layer.
name the types of glaucomatous defects are you looking for when you examine the nerve fiber layer
1. slit defect 2. wedge defect 3. diffuse atrophy
what causes a slit defect
retrograde degeneration of the ganglion cell axons back to the cell body in the retina
what do slit defects look like
dark slits about the size of an arteriole that travel back to the disc
what type of nerve fiber defect is this
superior is a slit defect. inferior is a wedge defect
how common is it to see a slit defect in a normal person
can be seen in up to 10% of normals (but raises level of suspicion of glaucoma)
what is a wedge defect
an expanding loss of ganglion axons in the same area of the optic nerve. wedge shaped, they are more narrow as they get toward the optic disc and widen out as they go away.
what is the most common type of nerve fiber layer defect? what is the least common?
most common: diffuse atrophy least common: wedge defect
there is usually corresponding visual field loss with wedge defects; they are helpful to confirm glaucomatous damage, but they are often not the first sign. easiest to see, but the least common pattern
what is the hardest type of glaucomatous damage to the NFL to see clinically
diffuse atrophy
in what type of glaucoma is diffuse atrophy more common
high tension glaucoma
what is diffuse atrophy
atrophy to the NFL that occurs in the superior and inferior arcades. it appears as a decrease in the light intensity that is reflected back when we are looking at the NFL clinically. this is hard to recognize and is why it is important to know what normal brightness should be for differently pigmented retinas. sometimes you get an apperance like someone has drug a rake or a comb through the retina, but often times you don't. (picture is mild-moderate diffuse atrophy. notice that there is not a difference in light intensity between the superior and inferior arcades. also notice that you can see even the small blood vessels because the reflection is not too bright for you to see them).
what is nerve fiber layer reversal
in advanced diffuse atrophy you can have a pattern reversal (nerve fiber layer reversal) where the papillomacular area becomes brighter than the superior and inferior arcades.
what other objective retinal signs are associated with diffuse atrophy
1. thinning of corresponding neuroretinal rim 2. small, ordinarily indistinct vessels become visible 3. depressed level of green light reflection from the retina 4. diffuse depression or constrinction of corresponding field
if you think you have diffuse atropy of the NFL you need to compair one eye to the other. you need to look at the NFL of one eye right after the other and go back and forth between the two eyes. (don't do BIO on the second eye before you look at the NFL if you have looked at the NFL last on the first eye)
name four nerve fiber analyzers
Stratus Optical Coherence Tomographer (OCT III) Heidelberg Engineerings Retinal Tomograph (HRT 3) Laser Diagnositic Technologies GDx Talia/Marco: Retinal thickness Analyzer (RTA) One study showed reproducibility highest in the following order (reproducibility doesn't necessarily mean that your findings are accurate, just that they are the same every time) GDX, HRT, OCT (RTA not tested) -each of them has grown to become more like the others over time.
to become good with a nerve fiber analyzer you need to become very familiar with one type of instrument and work with that instrument exclusively
most studies show that nerve fiber analyzers have similar sensitivities and specificities, but that they are all better at diagnosing moderate glaucoma than early glaucoma. the best reason to have a nerve fiber analyzer is to monitor the same pt over time. not useful for monitoring late glaucoma because there is not enough nerve fiber left to be useful. they are NOT to be used as a single test to diagnose glaucoma. they tend to match ONH findings more than visual fields. they provide objective information (observation with BIO is really subjective estimation). they cost $60,000-$100,000 each. you need repeatable tests for them to be considered reliable. some require operator skill to set ONH boarders.
what is the reference plans (in reference to nerve fiber analyzers)
how it determines where the cup is. it says that anything farther than a set distance (50 microns in the picture) from the top of the nerve fiber layer is part of the cup. -if you have a slowly sloping cup then you will estimatie it differently with high plus than the instrument will assess it (if there are steep boarders you and the instrument will agree, if there are very slowly sloping boarders you and the instrument will disagree)
why is 50 microns used as the reference plane in many of the nerve fiber analyzers
they did monkey studies and the average thickness of the papillomacular nerve fiber layer in monkeys was 50 microns.
glaucoma decreases NFL thickness, so reference plane may change with time. so, as the fibers get thinner the reference plane drops; so even if the cup were getting larger the instrument might measure it as no change.
how does the OCT set its reference plane
it finds the level of the bottom of the NFL and sets the reference plane 150 microns up (inner). (this is a more stable baseline than measuring it from the top)
how does the OCT measure the retina
uses echo delay time of light returned from layers of the retina. similar to ultrasound but using near infrared light. then uses a computer to create a 2-D cross section of the ocular tissue.
describe the normal database of the OCT
has about 300 pts and about 80% of them are caucasian. it is age adjusted. showed glaucoma as decreased thickness in NFL usually in interotemporal and superotemporal
what do the TSNIT graphs tell you in this OCT printout
the black line is the pts NFL thickness. if the black line is within the green section then they are considered normal as compared to their database.
what is the most useful way to use the OCT
retinal nerve fiber layer thickness serial analysis report. compares the NFL thickness on a single pt over a period of more than one visit. allows you to monitor changes in the NFL thickness.
OCT was origionally designed to look for elevations in the nerve fiber layer; but since glaucoma analysis is so important they adapted it to look at thinning as well.
how does the HRT measure retinal nerve fiber thickness
uses confocal scanning laser (makes light parallel before they send it into the eye) to measure ONH and NFL height. (because lihgt is parallel, they can measure through a very small pupil). multiple images at different depth are reconstructed by a computer which allows for a 3-D map to be made. allows manipulation of image
what is the HRT's "claim to fame"
how well it analyzes the optic nerve head.
HRT depends on subjective placement of contour line for analysis that looks at the ONH. it has a whole pamphlet on how and where to place the line and it makes a big difference in the analysis where it is placed. however, it uses the same placement each time you do the test on an individual (this could be bad if the inital line was not place well, but allows you consistancy on serial analysis). -the newer HRT does NOT rely on subjective placement of the contour line. the instrument determines this on its own (this is considered to be an advantage).
describe the database for the HRT
excellent age matched norms: >700 caucasians >200 african origin >100 southeast asian -hispanic and asian database in process -it does consider ethnicity when doing analysis
for the HRT what value is considered to be a good quality image
anything below 30
how does the GDx measure NFL thickness
uses confocal scanning laser polarimeter. indirectly measures NFL thickness by measuring the slowing of light after it passes through the retinal nerve fiber layer twice. it uses a mathmatical model to calculte retinal thickness (indirect measurement, not direct; this does NOT use a reference plane)
pts eyes can not be dilated for GDx
describe the norm database for the GDx
540 normal eyes, 271 abnormal eyes (does not correct for ethnicity)
GDx comes up with a number which according to the manufacturer indicated risk of glaucoma Higher number indicates increased risk 0-30 = normal, 31 – 70 = suspect, 71 – 100 = glaucoma however, there is enough variability that you can only go by the category that a score places you in. for instance if you have a score of 26, you can infer that this is normal, but statistically you can NOT infer that they are at any more risk than a person with a score of 1. don't rely on the number, just analyze the data yourself (lots of normal variations can influence these numbers; tilted disc for example).
if the vessels bifricate early it is possible for a nerve fiber analyzer to pick up the depression inbetween them as thinning.
how do you assess quality of an image on GDx
Q: equals quality value. range is from 1-10. 10 is the best.
how does the RTA measure retinal thickness
it is a scanning laser ophthalmoscope. it uses a helium neon laser beam bounding off the retina to determine the depth between the NFL and the RPE. considers this difference the NFL thickness. (values can be influenced by corneal curvature) -it can map the optic disc, the posterior pole and the peripapillary region.
what is the major difference between the RTA and the other NFL analyzers
advocates use of the macular fiber depth for early glaucoma detection.
why does the RTA advocate looking at the macular for early glaucoma detection
since the central 20 degrees of the macula contains 50% of the retinal ganglion cells, and because we know that the ganglion cells are affected early in glaucoma we should be looking at the macula for early detection (there is good support for this theory) -they look at the disc too
OCT: needs dilation. norm data exists. there's no subjective countour line. HRT: small pupil is okay. better normal database. can do statistical analysis to compre to self (changes over time) GDx: no dilation. there is no reference plane. more intuitive to evaluate printout. RTA: looks at the macula. allows statistical analysis for change over time.
recommendations on scanning lasers from Dr. Lingle: if you have a big co-management practice where you are doing a lot of surgical evaluation you might chose an OCT because it looks for glaucoma but it is also very good at looking for macular edema from cystoid macular edema after surgery. it would also be good if you had a big diabetes practice because it looks really nicely at retinal thickness. if you have a general practice that is not heavily into any of those areas you might want an GDx because it is simple and easy and your tech can do it without any formal training and no dilation is needed, so it is a good screening tool. if you were really big into glaucoma you might want an HRT because of the ethnic backgrounds diversity in the normal database. it is most important to get used to one and to know its nuances and evaluate the data it gives you, not just look at wheather the instrument tells you they have glaucoma or not.
ocular blood flow analyzers analyze the blood flow to the ONH for evaluation of glaucoma. they are not mainstream yet and are only used in reasearch settings at this point.
certain medicare pts do have the right to have a glaucoma screening every year at no charge to them. we need to be aware of this. it is a dilated eye exam with IOP measurement and either a direct ophthalmoscopy exam (not a good idea) or a slit lamp exam using high plus. people who are considered high risk are eligable for this. they are:
1. diabetics 2. those with family history of glaucoma 3. african americans age 50 or older 4. hispanic americans age 65 or older -you have to be on medicare to be eligable for this
New lecture: 4POAGMngmntst2010
name some goals for the tx of glaucoma
1. maintain usable vision for the rest of the pts life 2. maintain pts quality of life (psychological (just telling a pt they have glaucoma has been shown to decrease quality of life), physical, financial) 3. do no harm
the decision of wheather or not to tx glaucoma is not cut and dry: 16% of POAG have normal IOP. furthermore, there are estimated to be 10 million ocular hypertensives and OHTS has shown that 9.5% develop nerve damage in 5 years.
the effectriveness of treatment of glaucoma is not cut and dry either. studies vary in results. all tend to show that treatment helps SOME pts. some studies find a correlation between IOP and progression and some do not. IOP is the only risk factor that we can really treat at this time.
what is the collaborative normal tension glaucoma study and what did it show
140 eyes of 140 pts. 61 treated 79 untreated. these were people withOUT ocular hypertension who were already determined to have glaucoma for some reason. 35% of control eyes and 12% of treated eyes showed continuing glaucomatous damage (they already thought these people had glaucoma and it wasn't due to IOP; even in the people they chose not to treat 65% did not progress). they were pretty agressive in their treatment (30% IOP reduction for normotensive glaucom).
what did the ocular HTN treatment study show about the treatment effectivness of glaucoma
goals for treated pts were to decrease IOP by 20% or down to 24 mmHg, whichever was lower. 4.4% of the treated group developed POAG in 5 years and 9.5% of the non-treated group did. (the drug companies took this and said that treatment can prevent development of glaucoma in 50% of pts. realize that 90% of them would not have developed glaucoma anyway). we don't know what happens after 5 years. Proves that treatment helps, but that a lot of people aren't going to progress anyway.
what did the Hattenhauer study published in 1998 show us
attempted to determine probability of developing legal blindness in either one or both eyes from newly diagnosed and treated open angle glaucoma. it was retrospective and looked at 295 pts diagnosed between 1965 and 1980 with a mean follow up of 15 years. they were treated with either medical, surgical or both. these were all pts who were being treated: 27% went blind in one eye and 9% in both eyes. it is important to realize though that in 1955 we had one medication for treating glaucoma and it wasn't particularly effective or conducive to compliance. although we are more effective at treating IOP we are still only treating this one risk factor and it was shown to only be effective in some people.
what did the Kwon study published in 2001 tell us
take home on this one: for most patients on standard glaucoma therapy, rate of VF loss in open angle glaucoma is slow but unrelenting. looked at 40 eyes of 40 pts and followed them for at least 8 years (mean of 14). it showed 68% had decreased visual field. five eyes became legally blind. cumulative rate of blindness from glaucoma was 19% at 22 years. higher IOP was associated with an increased loss.
what did the early manifest glaucom trian (EMGT) tell us about glaucoma treatment
attempted to evaluate the effectiveness of reducing IOP in early previously untreated open angle glaucoma and understand the role of IOP and natural hx of glaucoma. 255 pts aged 50-80 with EARLY glaucoma. treated with trabeculoplasty plus topical betaxolol bid or not tx at all. results: average IOP reduction was 25%. progression found in 45% of treated and 62% of controls. progression occurred on average at 66 months for treated and 48 months for control. But they noted a significant side effect of increased incidence of cataracts in treated pts (what we would expect for either surgery or beta blocker). on average for every 1 mmHg drop in IOP there was a 10% reduction in risk of glaucoma progression. (one of the more positive studies in terms of IOP correlation to progression).
what did the advanced glaucoma intervention study tell us about glaucoma treatment
looked at 586 glaucomatous eyes separated into groups based on IOP after treatment with ALT or trabeculectomy. looked at worsening of visual fields. seperated into two groups eyes with IOP less than 18 at 100% of visits over 6 years and eyes with IOP less than 18 for 50% of visits. <18 100% of the time had almost completely stable visual fields. <18 50% of the time had definite worsening of visual fields. suppots idea that IOP level is related to loss of visual field -supports idea that stability of IOP is important
summary of glaucoma treatment study outcomes: we know that it is a chronic disease. at best we can stabilize visual function. disease progression is variable among patients with some patients never progressing and some progressing even with treatment. our treatment of the risk factor of IOP MAY slow progression. the level of IOP reduction must be individualized for the pt
when should you begin treatment for glaucoma
1. when IOP exceeds 30 mmHg 2. changes in ONH, NFL or visual field (make sure they are consistent with each other, and that they are consistent with glaucoma) 3. possible if the pt requests initiation of therapy 4. if pt demonstrates vascular changes (vascular occlusion, drance hemorrhage) 5. when risk factors outweigh equivocal findings
point system for determining the appropriatness of treatment in glaucoma. have to consider current meds available and side effects, cost, life expectancy is hard to estimate and system represents aggressive treatment. 7 points or more is appropriate to treat 3 points or fewer is inappropriate to treat. there are other point systems.
the more initial glaucomatous damage you see the more aggressive therapy you should use. (it is like spraining an ankle; once there is damage there is more likely to be damage in the future)
describe the stages of primary open angle glaucoma. -not the best classification system clinically because there is so much variability in glaucoma. but they are AOA guidelines and could hold up in court.
1. mild if they have ANY of the following: mild concentric narrowing or partial localized narrowing of the neuroretinal rim, disc hemorrhage (from NO other cause), asymmetry between the two eyes in terms of ONH appearance, nerve fiber changes (less bright reflex, fine striations, large retinal blood vessels clear), visual field (isolated paracentral scotomas, nasal depression or step, diffuse depression (mean deviation)) 2. moderate if they have ANY of the following: concentric narrowing of the ONH rim, increased area of central disc pallor, loss of neuroretinal rim in one quadrant, focal notching of rim, vessel undermining, NFL changes (minimal reflex brightness, all vessels clear), visual field changes (complete arcuate scotoma in at least one hemifield) 3. severe if: complete absence of the neuroretinal rim in at least 3 quadrants, vessel bayonetting, markedly increased central disc pallor, NFL changes (all vessels clear, dark reflex), visual field changes (complete arcuate scotoma in both hemifields with 5-10 degree central island of vision)
the AAO has different guidelines for staging of glaucoma
what is vessel undermining
the shape of a vessel on the ONH has changed because it has lost tissue underneath it.
what is vessel bayonetting
where there is a vessel that appears to go underneath the rim of the ONH
general considerations for selection of target pressure
Consider all risk factors Consider current level of damage and rate of progression Consider presenting IOP Consider patient age Consider medical history No set amount or "established" target Will need to be re-evaluated constantly Generally try to decrease IOP 20- 50%
what is a target pressure
your first best guess at what you think is going to be necessary to prevent progression of glaucoma -if you don't meet your target and they don't have progression that is fine. if they meet your target and do have progression you need to change it. (remember some pts will progress regardless of what target you set) -if you don't meet your target pressure you can't just say oh well, you need to do what it takes to lower them if you can
what are the recommended target pressures from evidence based studies
1. ocular hypertension with risk factors: decrease 20% (OHTS) 2. visual field loss or ONH notching: decrease 30-35% (collaborative normotension treatment study 3. extreme visual field loss or cupping: decrease 50% (AGIS) -AAO has guidelinse of it's own. they are pretty similar, but suggest that you lower 20% or <20mmHg, which ever is a larger reduction.
true notching of the ONH is NOT an anatomical variation you would expect to see. it would almost always be due to pathological changes.
what are is target IOP based on Cole/Lewis in review of opt.
take the initial IOP and reduce it by the percent of whatever the raw IOP was in mmHg Original IOP of 20 mmHg: Decrease IOP by 20% Original IOP of 30 mmHg: Decrease IOP by 30% Generally considered minimum reduction Doesn’t consider severity of damage or other risk factors
what are the target IOP guidelines base in Jampel
Target IOP = Maximum IOP- Maximum IOP% (same as cole/lewis) -Z Z = optic nerve damage severity factor 0 = normal ONH and VF 1 = Abnormal disc and normal VF 2 = VF loss not threatening fixation 3 = VF loss threatening or involving fixation
which method of estimating target IOP is the most aggressive
Hartelben (by far)
describe the hartelben method of target IOP estimation
Target = IOP – IOP% - MD on visual field
for setting target IOP most people do calculations using more than one method and then make adjustments based on other risk factors, level of damage, pts expected life span and clinical judgment. remember that you will constantly need to be re-evaluating your target IOP based on how it is controlling progression.
calculate target IOP base on evdence based data, AAO, Cole/Lewis, Jampal, and Hartelben guidelines for the following case: 58 yo male with 28 mmHg IOP with possible thinning of inferior rim and possible but not statistically significant paracentral scotoma in superior visual field with a MD of -5 dB
Evidence based: 22 AAO: 20 (everyone should be 20 or less) cole/lewis: 20 Jampal: 19 (cole/lewis - 1mmHg; this one is debatable) Hartelben: 15
New lecture: 5POAGMngmnt2010stwpics
how should you decide what treatmet to start with for management of glaucoma
1. start with medications (in US; in europe they start with surgery) 2. start with safest drug (often pts have contraindications to all the drugs and you have to chose the least offensive one) 3. efficacy 4. factors influencing compliance (drops per day, price, side effects) 5 start with lower concentration (why use higer if lower will work) 6. as few medications as possible 7. uniocular trial
target pressures should always be set for each eye individually
what is the problem with uniocular trials
a lot of drugs will lower IOP in both eyes some amount even if you only put the drop in one eye (particularly beta blockers).
you should use a sample medication if one is available until you are convinced treatment is effective (usually 2-3 weeks). about 1/5 of people just won't respond to a particular drug, or class of drugs. so you don't want them to go and pay for the medication unless you know that it is going to work.
you should rx the largest bottle available for glaucoma meds. studies show that pts waist about 1 out of 3 drops because they don't know how to instill them properly, so if you rx a small bottle they will run out before they are eligable to get another bottle.
you should tell the pt about side effect that are either very common or very severe because they need to know about these. but realize that when you mention a side effect to a pt they are more likely to think that they have it.
do oral beta blockers used for some other systemic condition lower IOP
yes. it is considered inappropriate to rx topical beta blockers if a pt is on oral beta blockers because you will not get much effect out of them.
there is a program on word that will tell you what grade level whatever you have typed is at. realize that the average person in the US is at a 5-6th grade reading level and that even the simplist medical literature is at a 12th grade level. when we are writing out medication instructions we need to make sure that it is simple enough for the average pt to understand.
the glaucoma research foundation makes excellent pamphlets to give to pts for education on glaucoma
it is a good idea to attach eye drop schedule to something that the pt does in their dialy routine: one in the when get up in the morning and one when you bruch your teeth at night.
can pts put more than one glaucoma drop in there eyes back to back
no, they need to space them out by at least 5 minuets.
you should teach your pts how to put drops in their eyes if you are rxing glaucoma drops. also, punctal occlusion has been shown in the literature to significantly reduce systemic side effects even if it is just for 1 minute (2 is better) and to increase increases amount of medication that gets to the eye.
you should always have your glaucoma pts bring their drops in with them for their exam. you need to make sure that they are taking the right drop on the right dosing schedule and they won't remember the names, so you won't know if they are doing it right unless they bring in the bottles so they can show you.
it is important how you word things when warning the pt about taking medications. if you tell them that if they don't take the med the will lose their sight, then every time they take the drop they will think about going blind. but if you say if more positively, like these drops will help you keep their sight, then they will think about keeping their sight when they are taking their drops.
what are the AOA guidelines for glaucoma follow up for mild, moderate and severe cases
mild/moderate: follow every 2 weeks until target pressure reached severe: follow every 1 week until target pressure reached -follow up is less often after target pressure is reached (look it up) -AOA guidelines are pretty strict. after you get more experienced you can decide for yourself; but if you follow them you definitely won't get sued
what do you do at a glaucoma follow up
IOP (evaluate target), fields, and lot of education, history (compliance, side effects, changes in meds or general health), VA, blood pressure, pulse and lung copacity, Biomicroscopy (glaucoma meds are suggested to cause ocular surface disease and allergy), gonioscopy (yearly) -won't be doing dilation or GDx on every follow up visit
we tend to have pts put prostaglandins in at night because they have their peak effect about 8 hours after instillation and we want the peak effect in the morning. so it would make sense to have them come in late in the day and not early in the morning because you want to see what IOP is when the drop is not working its best, not when it is.
if you rx lotanoprost you can look for thinkening of the lashes as a sign of compliance
for glaucoma follow ups you want to get an idea of the stability of IOP, so it makes sense to have them back at different times of the day to get an idea of diurnal variation of IOP
all glaucoma drugs have a "honeymoon" period where they lower IOP a certian amount initially, but then there effectiveness goes down slightly over time (very slowly). it is a good idea to have a graph or a chart that looks at their change in IOP over time.
what is a reverse uniocular trial
you take a pt off drops on only one eye and see if the pressure in that eye is worse than baseline (to look for progression).
for glaucoma follow up you need to do the same type of visual field each time (if you start with SITA standard, you need to do SITA standard on each of the follow ups)
how often should you dilate a person you are following for glaucoma
yearly unless unstable.
name some indications of a need to change glaucoma treatment
1. poor medication tolerance 2. optic nerve head changes 3. higher than desired IOP 4. visual field changes
what are you looking for in a visual field to indicate that the pt is progressing (general)
1. a new defect in a previously normal area 2. deepening of a pre-existing defect 3. expansion of a pre-existing scotoma into contiguous points 4. generalized depression (could be caused by other things) -make sure that changes are consistant with what you would expect from glaucoma
STATPAC have a couple different ways of comparing serial visual fields
every computer system that looks for progression tends to use the same guidelines to determine progression. what are the guidelines for a new defect in a previously normal area
1. a cluster of 3 or more nonedge points, each of which declines greater than or equal to 5 dB compared to baseline on two consecutive fields OR . . . 2. a single non edge point that declines greater than or equal to 10 dB compared to baseline on two consecutive fields OR . . . 3. a cluster of 3 or more nonedge points, each of which declines p <5% level compared to baseline on two consecutive fields.
what are the guidelines for deepening of a pre-existing defect to determine progression of a visual field
1. a cluster of 3 nonedge points, each of which declines greater than or equal to 10 dB compared to baseline on two consecutive fields. the confirming points may differ if they are part of contiguous cluster OR . . . 2. a cluster of 3 nonedge points, or 3 point that are part of the same scotoma, each of which declines at least 5 dB and is compared to baseline at p<5% level on two consecutive fields. the confirming points may differ if they are part of a contiguous cluster.
what are the guidelines for expansion of a pre-existing scotoma to determine progression of a visual field
1. at least 2 previously normal points withing the central 15 degrees or three additional previously normal points outside 15 degrees, each of which declines greater than or equal to 10 dB each on two consecutive fields OR . . . 2. at least 2 previously normal points withing the central 15 degrees or three previously normal points outside 15 degrees, each of which is depressed at a p<0.5 level compared to baseline on two consecutive fields.
what are the guidelines for generalized depression to determine progression of a visual field
1. a decline in the mean deviation that is significant at the p<1% level and is not explained by media opacity or pupil size 2. a CPSD that shows an obvious trend based on at least five consecutive fields OR . . . 3. a decline of greater than or equal to 3 dB at all points on two consecutive fields that is not explained by media opacity or pupil size
if your treatment is not effective the first thing you should consider is that the pts was not compliant. it is very difficult to predict who will and who will not be compliant
New lecture: 6POAGMngmnSTt32010
there is a word document titled "Glaucoma Meds Side Effects" in the ocular disease IV folder that has a chart with the important side effect and contraindications to the glaucoma medications. this is very important.
if you are going to rx a medication that has as one of the side effects or contraindications anything to do with heart or lungs you need to check blood pressure, pluse rate and evaluate the lungs (forced expiratory volume) before you rx the medication.
what types of allergies tend to react with cardonic anhydrase inhibitors
sulfa allergies
a lot of times older pts will have contraindications to all the glaucoma meds. so we need to determine which one will have the least negative impact or if the risks outweigh the benefits.
what drugs do we typically rx first for glaucoma
a prostaglandin analog, or a beta blocker
what is the dosing schedule (and timing) for prostaglandins
given once a day at bedtime
what is the dosing schedule (and timing) for beta blockers
either once a day in the morning, or bid
how would you decide if you want to start out a glaucoma pt on a prostaglandin analog or a beta blocker
consider things like which is covered by their insurance. if they are using it in only one eye prostaglandins tend to change the color of the iris and most people don't like having each eye a seperate color. also consider contraindications
which is more expensive prostaglandins or beta blockers
prostaglandins are definately more expensive (however one of the prostaglandins is going to become a generic in march of 2011)
if you are rxing a beta blocker for first line care of normotensive glaucoma which drug do you need to use and why
betaxolol; it is a selective beta blocker and selective beta blockers don't reduce blood flow to the ONH like non-selective beta blockers do
what should your next move be if your target pressure is not met after rxing a first line drug (prostaglandin, beta blocker) for glaucoma treatment
increase the concentration if available (prostaglandins often only come in one concentration because they are not more effective if you increase concentration)
are there any circumstances where it is okay to give a prostaglandin analog twice a day
no, there effectiveness actually decreases if you give them too high a concentration. since they are give qd you don't EVER want to rx them more often than that.
what should your next move be if your target pressure is not met and you have already tried increasing the concentration of the medication
try switching to a different medication. you could change classes, but sometimes switching to a different drug in the same class will cause the pt to respond better.
what is your next move if you've tried increasing the concentration of your first line drug (prostaglandin, beta blocker) and you've tried switching to another drug or the other class (or both are contraindicated)
consider switching to a combo med or brimonidine
combination glaucoma drugs are good for compliance, but they are more expensive
what is your next move in glaucoma tx if you have tried all your options and can't reach target IOP with a single medication
some recommend last tx at this point. some suggest going to a 2nd drug before surgery. -the concern is that laser therapy can diminish efficacy of future meds and become less effective with time.
describe the process of chosing a second drug for glaucoma therapy
prostaglandins and beta blockers tend to work well together because beta blockers decrease production and prostaglandins increase outflow (different mechanisms). you could also go with a combo drug (usually have two different mechanisms). if prostaglandin is used and beta blockers are contraindicated you could add brimonidine or dorzolamide or brinzolamide.
if you add a second glaucoma medication WILL you get and additional drop in IOP that is equal to what it would be if the drop was used alone?
no; you will get less and less of an effect with each additional drop you add.
name the surgical options for tx of glaucoma
1. laser: SLT and ALT 2. microsurgery: trabeculetomy with bleb, canaloplasty, filtration devices, trabectome 3. cyclo-destructive procedures (destroyes part of the ciliary body)
what did the advance glaucoma intervention study show us about which surgery was the best first surgery for glaucoma and why
in african americans ALT best surgery. in caucasians trabeculectomy best 1st surgery. darker pigmentation increases the effectiveness of the laser and that is why ALT worked better in african americans than caucasians. -there are a lot of pt characteristics on which the surgen will decide which surgery will be best for the pt
what two surgeries fall into the category of a laser trabeculoplasty (LTP)
1. ALT 2. SLT
what is a laser trabeculoplasty
reshaping the trabecular meshwork with laser to enhance outflow; exach mechanism is unknown.
what do we think is the mechanism for ALT
mechanical from thermal burn causing contraction of tissue and opening adjacent areas of trabecular meshwork. (if I pull in in one area, you are going to be stretching the surrounding areas). there is also some evidence that phagocytotic cells in the area of the trabecular meshwork become active because of excitation.
why do we think that ALT loses its effectiveness over time
scarring caused by laser continues with time
what does ALT stand for
argon laser trabeculoplasty
what does SLT stand for
selective laser trabeculoplasty
what do we believe is the mechanism of SLT
has effect on pigmented trabecular meschwork cells only. there is not scarring, but activation of biological cells which causes chemotactic and vasoactive agents to be released which increase outflow
which are larder the ALT or the SLT laser burns
ALT: 50 microns SLT 400 microns
can you repeat ALT
no. it is generally believed that if you treat ALT in a previously treated area it causes so much scarring that IOP actually goes up. -wait untill you really need it
can you repeat a SLT proceedure
most of the literature supports the fact that you can repeat this proceedure. -treatment of choice for many because of this fact.
is SLT or ALT believed to be more effective
we believe they are about equally effective
why is laser trabeculoplasty used more in open angle glaucoma than normotension glaucoma
because the higher the IOP the more reduction in IOP you get
in what percent of eyes treated with laser trabeculoplasty will there actually be a reduction in IOP (for at least 1 year)
reduces IOP in 85% of treated eyes
when it is effective, by how much does laser trabeculoplasty lower IOP
25-30% when effective -may help flatten diurnal variation in IOP
how long do we think laser trabeculoplasty usually works
1-5 years.
how does ALT compare to medication at controlling IOP (according to glaucoma laser trial)
ALT as initial therapy alone controlled IOP in 44% of eyes ALT combined with a beta-blocker controlled IOP in 70% ALT combined with 2 meds controlled IOP in 89% In comparison: Single drug controlled IOP in 30% Two medications controlled IOP in 66% At 7 years: ALT first showed lower IOP and less VF loss -note that none of the studies that are published at this point are large sclae studies, but small case based studies. there are currently larger studies that are being conducted right now so we should have better information in the future.
what are the complications associated with laser trabeculoplasty
1. pain 2. spike in IOP first few hours after proceedure (tx w/ alpha-agonist) 3. mild iritis (topical steroids) 4. ALT may worsen glaucoma by scarring the TM and development of peripheral anterior synechia in some cases
describe your followup for post-operative care for laser trabeculoplasty if you are co-managing the pt
1. follow in 3-10 days to assess IOP and inflammation 2. follow in 4 weeks: if significant drop in IOP consider dropping one med. if IOP drop not significant consider treating the remaining 180 degrees or filtering proceedure.
why is laser trabeculoplasty only done 180 degrees at a time
becuase when you put a laser in the eye you get a spike in IOP because of inflammation. that is why you only do half at a time.
what is the oldest glaucoma surgery
trabeculectomy. it has been around the longest.
what is a trabeculectomy
you take out a piece of the trabecular meshwork, which creates a pathway from the anterior chamber to the sub-tenon's space underneath the conj
at what position on the iris is trabeculectomy usually performed (360 degrees) and why
superionasally. because very commonly we get this bulg that forms under the conj (bleb) and it is nice cosmetically if the bleb is hidden by the upper lid.
why are sub-conjunctival injections given inferiorly
to save the superior area from scarring in case they ever need a glaucoma surgery (trabeculectomy) any time in the future.
what is the difference between a partial-thickness and a full-thickness trabeculectomy
with a partial, you leave a scleral flap to cover the pathway. this provides some resistance to fluid leaving the anterior chamber. in a full-thickness proceedure only tenon's capsule and conjunctiva are left on top of the hole created by the sclerotomy.
describe the procedure of a partial-thickness trabeculectomy
flap of slcera is removed. hole is made through the trabecular meshwork into the anterior chamber. a peripheral iridectomy is performed to prevent iris from closing the channel. then the slcera is losely sutured back on (not a water tight seal, aqueous is allowed to flow through it). antimetabolites are then administered (5-fluorouracil) to inhibit fibroblastic activity. the procedure results in a balloon-like filtering bleb.
when is a full thickness trabeculectomy indicated
only in very severe cases where very low IOP levels are desired (<10 mmHg)
canaloplasty is a new proceedure. by how much does it lower IOP
30-35%
what happens during a canaloplasty
they inserta a small tube through schlemm's canal 360 degrees, which increases the size of the schleamms canal. then the tube is removed and a suture is placed in the same area where the tube was to maintain tenstion on the canal. hope to reduce IOP by 30-35%. (there is not bleb)
why is not having a bleb an advantage (canaloplasty)
because the bleb can perforate and result in infection. it can also result in a dellen on the cornea because the lid is lifted off the surface of the eye and so tears and mucin are not spread evenly across the cornea.
how do filtration devices work as a glaucoma surgery and how is it implanted
a flap of tissue just outside the limbal area is removed and a tube is inserted parallel to the iris and creates a duct for aqueous to flow out of the anterior chamber underneath the conj and sub-tenon's space where it is absorbed by the venous system. allow for more control of aqueous outflow. there is no way that the iris is going to block the tube, so iridectomy is not needed.
by how much is a filtration device surgery able to reduce IOP
greater than or equal to 40%. there is acutally less chance of hypotony though because we are able to control the diameter of the tube.
what does ab interno mean
from inside
how does a surgeon perform an ab interno trabeculectomy
make a small incision in the cornea similar to when doing cataract extraction. then a small hand held unit is inserted into that corneal incision, then electrocautery is done (run along schlemm's canal and we ablate or remove a front portion of schlemm's canal around the eye)
by how much does an ab interno trabeculectomy reduce IOP
30-40%
is a bleb formed in an ab interno trabeculectomy
no bleb
what are cyclo-destructive procedures and why do you perform them
destroy part of the ciliary body tissue in oder decrease aqueous production.
when are cyclo-destructive procedures indicated
used in blind painful eyes or eyes with neovascular glaucoma where the aqueous can't get out. typically used as an end-stage procedure.
what are the two ways you can do a cyclo-destructive procedure
transscleral: diode laser outside the globe endoscopic: performed through a limbal incision with direct application of laser to ciliary body.
do optometrists generally do follow up for glaucoma surgery
usually done by the surgeon (but that used to be the case with cataract surgery too, so this may change in the future).
how do you check for a bleb leak
look for siedel's sign just as in any other traumatic injury to the eye.
what would help on follow up of glaucoma surgery if the eye is hypotenous
discontinue steroids to allow scar formation and allow healing (fine line)
what could you do (or the surgeon) on a glaucoma surgery follow up if there is not bleb when one is expected
1. apply digital massage (pts are often told to do digital message daily to keep the bled open) 2. increase steroid (if they are in the healing stage to decrease healing and scar formation) 3. administer 5-FU 4. can also lyse the flap suture.
they are trying to develop a contact lens that will deliver medications for 1 month. they are also working on a device that is basically like a punctal plug that releases medication over a 3 month period.
New lecture: 7ACG2010wpicst
what is the most common type of angle closure glaucoma
relative pupillary block angle closeure glaucoma (RPB ACG). (if someone says angle closure glaucoma, unless they say differnetly you should assume that they are talking about relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma)
what are the risk factors for RPB angle closure glaucoma
1. family history 2. age (as we age the lens increases in size) 3. female (they have smaller eyes) 4. hyperopia (smaller eyes) 5. ethnicity (rare in african americans, more common in inuit and asian)
ethnicities that are more at risk for developing angle closure glaucoma tend to develop a more acute form (more easily recognizable), and ethnicities that are less likely to develop angle closure glaucoma (african americans) tend to develop a more chronic and smolering form (easier to mistake for another kind of glaucoma)
what are the subjective symptoms associated with angle closure glaucoma
1. blurred vision 2. halos 3. HA (very common) 4. pain (very common, not limited to the globe, follows the course of the trigiminal nerve (jaw, ear, cheak) 5. photophobia (common) 6 eye redness (common) -if you cause the angle closure with drops then it happens quickly enough to cause nausea and vommitting, but usually if it occurs on its own you will NOT have this symptom. drug you use to treat it can cause nausea and vommitting.
chronic smoldering forms of angle closure glaucoma can cause no symptoms other than blurred vision
decongestants list on the medication glaucoma as a contraindication. really they are only at risk for angle closure. open angle glaucoma is NOT a contraindication, but the packaging is not specific enough.
how much is vision reduced in angle closure glaucoma
can be any where from 20/25 to light perception depending on how badly the nerve fiber layer is damaged. most of the time they are in the 20/30 to 20/40 range though.
how fast can the IOP increase in angle closure glaucoma
IOP can increase 1 mmHg/min
how high does the IOP generally have to be in order for the pt to see halos
in the 50s
how do the pupils appear in angle closure glaucoma and why
almost always mid-dilated and fixed. the reason is that increased IOP causes ischemia of the iris (pressure in the eye is greater than pressure in the iris blood vessels), and the ischemia causes the iris muscles to work poorly (think of claudication)
what signs on the iris indicate previous angle closure episodes
1. iridectomy 2. scarring and fibrosis of the iris 3. irregularly shaped pupil 4. generalized cataract -all are in the picture
you HAVE to do gonioscopy to diagnose angle closure glaucoma. you can't diagnose it unless you look at the angle (it is the one test that you absolutely have to do to diagnose ACG). both fundoscopy and gonioscopy can be hard to do in an acute angle closure attack, because the eye is edematous and is hard to see through. what can you do to see through it.
-place a drop of glycerine in the bowl of the gonio lens and place it on the eye. the glycerine is hyperosmotic and will draw fluid out of the cornea and at least allow you a view.
why would you want to consider doing a refraction if you have an angle closure glaucoma that is not acute
to differentiate from uveal effusion glaucoma
how does uveal effusion glaucoma affect the refractive error
can shift refractive error by 6-8 diopters (pretty gross refraction would help to differentiate)
what does the depth of the lesion in glaucomfleken tell you
the deeper in the len the longer ago the previous episode of angle closure glaucoma occured
name the objective signs associated with angle closure glaucoma (including signs of previous attacks)
1. fixed mid-dilated pupils 2. iridectomy 3. iris fibrosis and scarring 4. irregularly shaped pupil (current and past) 5. anterior peripheral synechia 6. posterior synechia 7. glaucomflecken 8. optic nerve head edema 9. optic nerve atrophy 10. circumlimbal injection 11. IOP 40-90 mmHg 12. corneal edema 13. gonioscopically closed angles
why is this a common appearance for the iris in angle closure glaucoma
the iris is twisted. this is because the muscles are ischemic and working unevenly causing the iris to appear twisted.
how much of the eye do you expect to be closed (of 360 degrees) before you experience the symptoms of angle closure galucoma
about 75% or more
describe the mechanism associated with relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma
the iris comes into contact with the lens. they are not attached to each other they are just touching each other. but by touching each other they make it harder for the aqueous to get to the anterior chamber. as aqueous is produced, pressure in the posterior chamber increases and that pressure causes the iris to balloon forward (typically in the mid-peripheral area). that ballooning forward of the iris ends up blocking the angle.
why does relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma tend to happen most commonly when the iris is in the mid-dilated state
because when it is only mid-dilated the iris is most "floppy" and the tissue is more able to balloon forward.
if you have an angle closure glaucoma that you think is relative pupillary block, you have better make sure that that is what it actually is before you start treating, because some of the differentials are actually treated in exactly the opposite way from the way you would tx relative pupillary block. name all the differentials
1. glaucomatocyclitic crisis 2. pseudoexfoliative glaucoma 3. glaucoma associated with ICE 4. plateau iris 5. malignant glaucoma 6. mobile lens 7. uveal effusion 8. neovascular
how does treatment for relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma differ if it is acute vs. chronic
if it is acute then you want to break the attack using medical therapy. then you will have a peripheral iridotomy or surgical iridectomy performed. and allways evaluate the fellow eye for consideration of tx if it si at risk. -if they are chronic or at risk, then we perform a peripheral iridotomy or lensectomy (IOL implant is thinner than crystaline lens). then evaluation fellow eye for consideration of tx. medical tx is the same as with acute forms, but it tends to be less responseive to tx and is less of an emergency because pressure is not raising as quickly.
describe in detail the tx of angle closure glaucoma
-in order of steps: 1. oral acetazolamide (two 250 mg tablets) -not to be used in pts with sulfa allergy or in pts with severe kidney disease 2. apraclonidine 1% (Iopidine): one to two drops 3. timolol 0.5% (timoptic): one drop at time of diagnosis -betaxolol 0.25% in pts with pulmonary problems (use as with timolol) 4. pilocarpine 2%: one to two drops every 15-60 minuets (not to exceed more than 4 drops in a 2-3 hour time frame) 5. check IOP every 15 minuets: if IOP < 20 mmHg, perform gonioscopy to confirm angle is open. 5a. if angle is open, maintain pt on 2% pilocarpine OU qid and rx prednisolone acetate 1% qid until laser peripheral iridotomy is performed (2-7 days later). 5b. if IOP is still elevated or angle closed after one hour, repeat all topical medications, and add oral hyperosmotics if available 6. oral hyperosmotics: glycerine 50% solution (caution for diabetics), or isosorbide 50% (safe for diabetics). use 1-2 ml/lb (220 ml bottle for adults) served over crushed ice. drink within 5 minuets, NO water within first 2 hours 7. at this point you can do corneal indentation: 30 seconds on 30 seconds off for 10-15 minuets (pt may be too uncomfortable to tolerate) 8. if IOP is still elevated and angle closed after 2 hours, pt shoudl have laser gonioplasty
what is the first drug that you will give if you have angle closure glaucoma (and specific dosage)
oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. two 250 mg tablets. (500 mg total; but recongnize that the single 500 mg tablets are slow release and you DON'T want to use that)
what are the contra indications to giving oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors for angle closure glaucoma
1. allergy to sulfa 2. severe kidney disease (you are drawing fluid out of the body which can put stress on the kidney)
why is Iopidine typically reserved for use in acute angle closure
because if it is used long term, pts tend to develop allergies to it
what alpha-agonist is used in angle closure glaucoma (specific dosing)
apraclonidine 1% (Iopidine). one to two drops at time of diagnosis. repeat once in one hour if needed.
what beta blocker is used in angle closure glaucoma (specific dosage)
timolol 0.5% (timoptic). one drop at time of diagnosis, repeat once in one hour if needed. if they have pulmonary disease use betaxolol 0.25% (Betoptic S) (used the same as timolol)
some people urge the use of timolol, 1 drop q 12 h until laser peripheral iridotomy can be performed.
what miotic is used for angle closure and the specific dosage?
pilocarpine 2% one to two drops every 15-60 minuets. don't exceed more than 4 drops in any 2-3 hour time frame. it is important that you use the 2% formulation and NOT the 4% formulation because 4% has been shown to thicken the iris, which would be very bad.
when do you expect pilocarpine to be effective in angle closure glaucoma
-iris ischemia tends to occur at 40 mmHg; when we use pilocarpine we are stimulating the iris sphincter to contract; if the pressure is higher than 40 mmHg, we don't expect to get much of an effect from pilocarpine because the tissue is ischemic. you could instill the drops and then when the pressure drops below 40 you will start to see an effect (takes 15-20 minuets after instillation to get full effect), or you could wait until you measure the IOP at 40 or less to instil the drops; opinions on this vary.
some people recommend treating the fellow eye with pilocarpine in angle closure if it is predisponsed to prevent an angle closure attack.
in angle closure the pts eye will be painful and they will not like having gonio done. when the pressure drops below 20 why do we still need to check with gonio to see if the angle is open
because we have stoped aqueous production and fulled fluid out of the eye with diamox. so the angle could still be closed even though the pressure is less than 20 mmHg. the last thing you would EVER want to do is to get the pressure below 20 and release them to see the ophthalmologist the next day and the angle is actually still closed. because their pressure will go right back up where it was and YOU will be liable. we typically don't perform gonio until the pressure is below 20 because their eye is painful and you don't want to do it more than necessary, but you HAVE to check to make sure that the angle is actually open before you release them.
why do you wait 2-7 days after an angle closure attack to schedule them for laser peripheral iridotomy
because they eye is going to be swollen from the attack and it is hard for a laser to punch through swollen tissue. also the laser is going to contribute to inflammation. also, the cornea is typically not very clear. LPI is better if we wait until the eye is quiet.
oral hyperosmotic solutions will make the pt thursty, but they CAN'T drink water because this will eliminate the effect of the solution. they tast very bad and they can make the pt sick.
if the pt gets sick and vommits after you give them an oral hyperosmotic, do you need to redose them?
no, it is absorbed very quickly and typically you don't redose them. if it is immediate you might consider it, but if it is in there for even a couple minuets then you should be fine.
how long does it take for the IOP drop if you give an oral hyperosmotic
30-60 minuets.
remember that if you do corneal indentation with a gonio lens on an angle closure pt, the surface of the lens touching the eye needs to be smaller than the size of the corne, otherwise you are just forcing the angle closed.
remember that if you have an angle closure pt late on a friday afternoon, that you need to call the specialist righ away as you start treatment, because you don't want to start all your treatment only to realize that they have all left for the day.
what is laser gonioplasty
we are trying to alter the shape of the angle by altering the shape of the iris as it enters the angle. large argon spot is put onto the tissue, which causes it to contract and may open portions of the angle. this is not a cure, LPI still must be performed. if IOP is still elevated and angle closed after 4-6 hours, pt should have emergency LPI performed (this is very difficult to do on an inflammed and angry eye).
what type of laser is used in a peripheral iridotomy
YAG laser
what position 360 degrees is a laer peripheral iridotomy typically done and why?
around the 12 o'clock position. you want it very superior because it will be covered by the upper lid, this will prevent any ghost images or monocular diplopia.
why does a laser peripheral iridotomy help in relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma
because of the increased pressure in the posterior chamber causes the iris to bulge forward and block the angle, when we punch a hole in the iris is allows aqueous to move from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and this prevents pressure from buildin up in the posterior chamber and causing the iris to bulge forward, blocking the angle.
describe the medical therapy that is required related to laser peripheral iridotomy
1. Iopidine 1-2 hrs pre iridotomy (laser energy in the eye causes raise in IOP) 2. prednisolone acetate 1% qid to treat and try to prevent any transient uveitis.
what proceedure does the surgen do if you weren't not able to break an angle closure glaucoma with medical therapy and they tried laser gonioplasty and emergency laser peripheral iridotomy, but they were ineffective?
surgery: peripheral iridectomy. -you don't want to do this unless you really have to.
what is a peripheral iridectomy
a corneal incision is made in the superior quadrant and a section of prolapsed iris is then excised (they pull the iris out of the cornea with forceps and cut it). the anterior chamber is then reformed with saline if necessary.
when you see a superior peripheral iridectomy in a pt who has their natural crystaline lens, it is vertually always because they have had angle closure glaucoma. if the peripheral iridectomy is inferior you have to worry more about retinal detachment being the cause for the surgery.
describe the prognosis for angle closure glaucoma
guarded. they are considered glaucoma suspects for the rest of their life (open as well as closed angle: remember that once damage to the NFL start the more likely further damage is to occur (ankle sprain analogy))
can you rely on transillumination as a sign that a peripheral iridotomy is patent? why or why not?
no, when you plut the gonio lens on you need to be able to see through it. you can't rely on transillumination because you can have things blocking it and still have transillumination.
what is another name for glaucomatocyclitic crisis
Posner-Schlossman Syndrome
in what age range do you expect to see claucomatocyclitic crisis and is that different from relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma
glaucomatocyclitic crisis is usually seen in young pts. RPB ACG is seen in older pts.
how do they symptoms for glaucomatocyclitic crisis differen from relative pupillary block angle closure glaucoma
GC: no pain, subtle uveitis, minimal conjunctivitis RPB ACG: painful, extreme conjunctival injection -both are usually unilateral and IOP is in a similar range of IOP
describe the tx of glaucomatocyclitic crisis
1. most important part of the therapy is STEROID (to decrease inflammation) 2. ocular hypotensives (not as emergent as angle closure; usually just one drop) 3. oral indomethacin 4. no cycloplegia necessary (unlike other inflammatory ocular conditions)
what type of ocular hypotensive drug do you NOT want to use in glaucomatocyclitic crisis
prostaglandins (inflammation)
is pseudoexfoliative glaucoma usually unilateral or bilateral
starts unilateral and becomes bilateral with time
is the angle open or closed in glaucomatocyclitic crisis? how about pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
open in both
what are the objective signs associated with pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
1. anterior lens and pupillary border deposits 2. defects in the pupillary ruff 3. increased pigment in the TM 4. high IOP (not uncommon to see IOP in the 50s)
describe the management of pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
managed like primary open angle glaucoma, but less responsive. treat agressively including filtration surgery.
in what age ranges do you tend to see glaucoma related to ICE syndromes
20-40 years old
describe the pathophysiology associated with glaucoma related to ICE syndromes
proliferation of corneal endothelium and basement membrane; growth over the trabecular meshwork. broad peripheral anterior synechia formation.
describe the management of glaucoma ralated to ICE syndromes
1. early on can be controlled with meds -used meds that decrease aqueous production (not drugs that increase outflow) 2. filtering surgery often required 3. hypertonics for corneal edema 4. DSEK or PK if significant corneal edema
what is plateau iris configuration angle closure glaucoma
it is a type of angle closure glaucoma (rare). the iris is very close to the angle in periphery but the angle appears deep. dilation causes pleating of the iris and angle closure. -when you do von herick on these pts the angle will look open and then you will dilate and the angle will close -indentation gonioscopy increases peripheral pleating (which differs from relative pupillary block in which the iris flattens with indentation gonioscopy; so it is important to look while you are doing indentation to see the angle close more instead of open)
descirbe tx associated with plateau iris configuration
1. miotic drops short term and chronically 2. laser iridotomy to eliminate any pupillary block 3. main tx is laser gonioplasty, which scars and changes the shape of the iris
what is another name for malignant glaucoma
aqueous misdirection syndrome
what is malignant glaucoma and describe the pathophysiology involved
the iris is pushed all the way up agains the corneal endothelium. classically follows intraocular surgery (often for angle closure glaucoma), it can occur as long as one year after surgery. what is happening is that due to the malipulation of the eye during surgery there was a pathway formed where aqueous formed in the posterior chamber is allowed to move behind the vitrious, which pushed the vitreous and the lens forward whcih pushes the iris all the way up against the cornea.
describe the prognosis associated with malignant glaucoma
one of the most seious forms of glaucoma. named for it poor response to treatment.
describe the tx associated with malignant glaucoma
-this is one where you want to get it out of your chair ASAP! you can put the meds in if you want (optional), but you need to send it off right away 2.5% Phenylephrine, 1 drop qid Plus 1% Atropine, 1 drop qid Beta-blocker, 1 drop bid Alpha2 agonists: 1/2% Apraclonidine, 1 drop tid Topical 2% Dorzolamide, 1 drop tid And/or Oral Acetazolamide, 250 mg, orally, qid Hyperosmotic agents: 50% Isosorbide solution Or 50% Glycerin solution, as for RPB ACG, po, bid if tolerated or maximum tolerated frequency then extensive surgical management is required -notice that we are using atropine instead of pilocarpine, that is because we want to tighten the zonules up to help move the lens away from the cornea. pilocarpine would losen the zonules, which is not what you want.
what is mobile lens (lens forward) glaucoma
similar to malignant glaucoma, but occurs without surgical intervention. the zonules are lax and the lens moves forward due to vitreous pressure.
do you want to use a miotic or a cycloplegic if you have mobile lens glaucoma
cycloplegics will tighten up the zonules (do NOT use miotics because they will make it worse)
what is uvel effusion glaucoma
similar to mibile lens glaucoma, but instead of having lax zonules the problem is acutally an anterior rotation of the ciliary body. this causes relaxation of the zonules, which causes thickening of the lens and myopia. it is often associated with medication use (topiramate (well known side effect of topiramate), sulfonamides etc.). it is a bilateral presentation. -the myopia is the significant finding. they will have a SIGNIFICANT myopic shift in their refractive error.
describe the management fo uveal effusion glaucoma
1. agent to stop aqueous production (beta-blocker (bid), alpha-agonist (tid)) 2. 1% atropine qid 3. oral acetazolamide 250 mg capsules (2) po 4. stop causative medication with permission of the PCP
how long does uveal effusion tend to last
1-2 weeks after discontinuation of the medication
is uveal effusion a primary or a secondary glaucoma? what about neovascular glaucoma
uveal effusion: secondary neovascular: secondary
what is neovascular glaucoma
blood vessels have fibrovascular tissue with them and tissue blocks the angle
what is the treatment for neovascular glaucoma
1. agents to decrease aqueous production (short-term) 2. hyperosmotic agents (short-term) 3. surgery (surgery is really the only effective option long-term)
New lecture: 8OcVascslidest2010
describe the arteriol pathway from the heart to the retina
heart-aorta-common carotid-internal carotid-ophthalmic artery-central retinal artery
the ophthalmic artery makes a very sharp angle with the internal carotid artery (not a Y shape)
why would poor blood flow through the central retinal artery cause optic nerve head edema
because it supplies blood to the inner retina AND to the surface of the optic nerve head
the central retinal artery is primarily autoregulated. this means that it is less effected by the sympathetic and the parasympathetic system and more effected by the amount of oxygena and carbin dioxide in the blood and other neuro factors that are trying to maintain a balance between IOP and pressure in the retinal vessels
what is ocular ischemic syndrome
ocular signs and symptoms secondary to severe carotid artery obstruction
describe the epidemiology associated with ocular ischemic syndrome
men (67%). mean age is 65 years old.
name three causes of ocular ischemic syndrome. which is most common?
1. atherosclerosis (most common by far) 2. giant cell arteritis 3. diffuse systemic ischemia
if atherosclerosis is the cause of ocular ischemic syndrome what percent ipsilateral obstruction of the carotid can we expect
greater than or equal to 90% -there is probably at least some obstruction in both sides by this stage
describe the vision loss associated with ocular ischemic syndrome
gradual vision loss over a week or two (note that this is different from central retinal artery occlusion or AION). unilateral in 80% of cases. abrupt loss can occur in 12% of cases. 33% have VA of 20/20 to 20/40 at discovery and 33% have counting fingers or worse at time of discovery.
what are the objective signs associated with ocular ischemic syndrome
1. gradual loss in VA over a week or two 2. light-induced amaurosis fugax 3. dull, aching pain to orbital area of involved eye "ocular angina" (40%) 4. sluggish pupil (same mechanism as angle closure: ischemia) 5. ischemic uveitis (flare in majority of cases, cells in 20%) 6. neovascularization of the iris (67%) 7. elevated IOP (secondary to NVI) 8. retinal artery narrowing 9. retinal veins dilated and may be beaded 10. retinal hemorrhages in the MID-periphery(80%) 11. macroaneurysms 12. neovascularization of the disc 13. spontaneous ARTERY pulsation
name and describe the pathopneumonic finding associated with ocular ischemic syndrome
light-induced amaurosis fugas (LIA): when they are exposed to a bright light they experince a fuzzyness or hazyness in their central vision that lasts for several minutes
how do you differentiate between TIA and light-induced anaurosis fugax
-it is very important to be able to differentiate this from TIA. TIAs are also traisient and also last for minutes, but the pt will complains of more of a peripheral greying out of vision down to central. LIA tends to have the central vision effected and the periphery uneffected. additionally LIA is almost always described as a fuzzy cloud of white central area, it is not greying of the vision like TIA is.
why do only 50% of the pts with neovascualrization fo the iris in ocular ischemic syndrome have elevated IOP
the ciliary body is producing less aqueous because it is ischemic too -when you send them out for endarterectomy the ocular perfusion goes way up and then you can get a large increase in IOP in these pts.
hemorrhaging in the mid peripheray occurs in 80% of pts with ocular ischemic syndrome. this is significant because there just aren't that many other things that cause hemorrhaging in the mid-periphery. so, if you see it you really need to rule out OIS
in ocular ischemic syndrome veins are dilated and may be deaded, but they are NOT tortuous. tortuosity indicates that there is high pressure in the veins and there is definately not high pressure in the veins here because there is low blood flow in this condition.
anytime you see a macroaneurism you should be asking about light-induce amaurosis fugax
what does spontaneous artery pulsation indicate
the IOP is greater than the pressure inside the artery when the hart is not pushing blood through the arteries. this should not normally be the case, the pressure inside the central retinal artery is normally about 70 mmHg. so, either there is really high pressure inside the eye, or there is decrease pressure in the artery. -in ocular ischemic syndrome you can see spontaneous artery pulsation because there is decreased blood flow to the retina and decreased pressure inside the arteries. it is very rare, but if you do see it, it should raise huge red flags.
ocular ischemic syndrome has a pretty poor systemic prognosis. high mortality rate due to heart attack etc.
how do you differentially diagnose between ocular ischemic syndrome and diabetic retinopathy
diabetic retinopathy: usually bilateral (not always), if you see hard exudates you should really think diabetic retinopathy and not ocular ischemic syndrome, retinopathy is more in the posterior pole (mid-periphery in OIS)
how do you differentially diagnose between ocular ischemic syndrome and a mild central retinal vein occlusion
CRVO: has venous tortuosity, significant retinal edema
carotid evaluation should be performed on every pt with ocular ischemic syndrome symptoms. how do you do that in the exam room
listen for a carotic bruit and THEN feel for the carotid pulse (you don't want to feel around there if you hear a bruit because you don't want to dislodge a thrombis and cause a stoke; but you need to feel if you don't hear one because it could be that you are not hearing it because it is completely blocked (if it is completely blocked there is very little risk of causing a stroke because there is no blood flow))
describe the management associated with ocular ischemic syndrome
1. carotid endarterectomy to prevent stoke in pts with 70-99% occlusion (evidenced based) 2. ASA for symptomatic pts between 0-60% obstruction 3. pan-retinal photocoagulation if neovascularization of the iris
what is an endarterectomy
they open up the neck and remove the atherosclerotic plaque from the carotid artery (they will have a big scar on their neck)
describe the epidemiology associated with retinal artery occlusion
mean age is 65; males>females
describe the signs and symptoms assocaited with retinal artery occlusion
1. sudden, painless, profound loss of VA 2. APD (if unilateral; which is usually the case) 3. retina appears white and edematous within a few hours 4. foveola stands out as "cherry red spot" (happens because there a less layers of the retina in this area and so there is less edema to look through to see the choroid) 5. venules distended and segmented (boxcarring)
what is this
macula is spared in a central retinal artery occlusion because of a cilioretinal artery
if the macular was spared in a central retinal artery occlusion, whould there still be an APD
yes, most of the fibers in that eye are still affected even though they still have 20/20 acuity
describe the objective signs associated with branch retinal artery occlusion
1. looks similar to CRAO in area supplied by artery. 2. most often the superior temporal region is affected 3. normal VA is common 4. visual field loss is very respectfull of the horizontal midline because of the horizontal raphe
in what percent of cases of retinal artery occlusion can emboli be seen within the arterial system
11-40% (much higher in branch than central artery occlusion)
name and describe the different types of plaques that can be seen in retinal artery occlusion
1. cholesterol emboli (hollenhorst plaque): small and yellow; often seen at a bifrication; look like they fit within the vessel (even though they look like they are as wide as the vessel, they are often very flat and so blood flow is able to go around them even thought it doesn't look like it should be able to) (carotid is the most likely source of this type of emboli) 2. calcific emboli: large and white; they tend to look like they are bigger than the blood vessel (just has to do with the way they reflect light). they are round and do block the blood vessel. most likely location is from the hear (valvular disease) 3. platelet/fibrin emboli: typically not at a bifrication; usually a sign of some kind of hematologic disorder (tend to be the type you see in younger people)
what type of emboli is this (slide 22 of this lecture)
cholesterol
what type of emboli is this (slide 22)
calcific
what type of emboli is this (slide 22)
platelet/fibrin
describe the management associated with central retinal artery occlusion
acute management: treat all cases seen withing 24 hours of onset (this is the standard of care; the truth is that it is not likely to do any good if it has been more than 2-4 hours) 1. firm massage of globe for 15 min. (10 sec. on 10 soc. off) 2. anterior chamber paracentesis 3. acetazolamide 500 mg iv or 250 mg X 2 po with topical antiglaucoma agent to lowe IOP. then 250 mg q 6h for several days 4. carbogen (5% CO2 and 95% O2) (basically the same as breathing in a paper bag) -remember that the vessels are autoregulatory, so we are trying to get the vessels to kick in and cause dilation -intra-arterial thrombolytic therapy is a possibility for young people with a fibrin clot (new technique; there are significant risks associated with this therapy)
describe the long-term prognosis and consequences associated with central retinal artery occlusion
1. VA typically poor 2. retinal tissue replaced with glial tissue in weeks 3. ONH becomes atrophic and pale 4. neovascularization of the retina or the iris is possible
what will an OCT show if the retinal tissue has been replaced with glial tissue as a result of a central retinal artery occlusion
thinning
describe the epidemiology associated with central retinal vein occlusion
90% are males>50; but can occur at any age
how does IOP effect the likelyhood of developing central retinal vein occlusion
high IOP increases risk, because veins are low pressure and thin walled.
name the two types of central retinal vein occlusion
ischemic (non-perfused) and non-ischemic (perfused) -it is important to be able to differentiate because it influences that management
describe the incidence and prognosis associated with ischemic and non-ischemic central retinal vein occlusion
ischemic: 20%; permanent poor VA with VF defects common and NVI and neovascular glaucoma in 45% non-ischemic: 80%; good VA common long-term, blinding complications rare, central scotoma possible
what is the most reliable test to determine if a central retinal vein occlusion is ischemic or non-ischemic
severity of the APD (appearance on ophthalmoscopy is actually the least reliable way)
name the different ways you can differentiate between ischemic and non-ischemic CRVO
1. VA (20/400 or worse indicates ischemic) 2. RAPD as measured with neutral density filter 3. visual field (really shold be goldmann, because it measures further out in the peripher) 4. fluorescein angiography
what percent of pts present with VA of 20/400 or worse in both the ischemic and the non-ischemic form of central retinal vein occlusion
non-ischemic: 20% ischemic: 93%
how do you most easily measure an APD with a neutral density filter
place the filter in front of the light when it is shining in the "good" eye (so you can see the pupil; it is hard to see through the filter). what you are looking for is when the filter is in front of the good eye and you move the light to the bad eye and see contriction that is the level of the APD
how does the level of APD (as measured with neutral density filter) vary btwn ischemic and non-ischemic types of CRVO
non-ischemic: 97% have RAPD < 0.6 log units ischemic: 94% have RAPD > 0.9 log units
if you do fluorescein angiography how would you use it to tell if CRVO is ischemic or not
capillary non-perfusion is required for diagnosis of ischemic CRVO (lack of filling of the capillary system) -could be difficult to tell because hemorrhages are often blocking the view. also small pupils and cloudy media may limit view. also it is hard to see the periphery with fluorescein angiongraphy and that is where most nonperfusion starts. -in the picture the top is perfused and the bottom of the picture is not perfused
you really can't differentiate ischemic and non-ischemic CRVO based of appearance with ophthalmoscopy
what causes central scotoma in CRVO
chronic macular edema, caused by poor blood flow
describe the long-term complications associated with perfused CRVO
1. transition from perfused to non-perfused possible 2. chronic macular edema, leading to central scotoma
what are the long-term complications associated with non-perfused CRVO
1. ocular neovascularization of anterior seg. (2/3 to 3/4 develop neovascular glaucoma) 2. vitreous hemorrhages 3. macular degeneration 4. optic atrophy 5. loss of eye -this is why non-perfused cases need to be followed much more closely
describe the management of ischemic and non-ischemic CRVO
controversial: -generally just wait and watch. follow ischemic every 2-3 weeks and non-ischemic every 2 months.
what did the SCORE study look at
CRVO. only non-ischemic with VA 20/40 to 20/400. looked to see if treating with intra-vitreal steroids helped macular edema from CRVO
what were the results of the SCORE study
intra-vitreal steroids did help macular edema and resulted in significant improvement in VA. but came with many risks.
if diabetic retinopathy is unilateral or asymmetric is it better or worse on the side with good blood flow
worse on the side with good blood flow; because it is caused by leaky pericytes. -if you see unilateral diabetic retinopathy you are usually more concerned about the carotid artery on the side with less retinopathy.
New lecture: 9OPT 733 Macular Diseases Yudcovitch 2010 NOTES
how big is the macula
1.5 mm. about the same size as the optic nerve head
name the layers of the retina
Internal limiting membrane Retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) Ganglion cell layer Inner plexiform layer Inner nuclear layer Outer plexiform layer Outer nuclear layer External limiting membrane Photoreceptor layer (PRL) Retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)
some other names for epiretinal membrane
Premacular gliosis Cellophane maculopathy Surface-wrinkling retinopathy Preretinal fibrosis Macular pucker (more severe)
describe the pathophysiology associated with epiretinal membrane
internal limiting membrane breaks allowing glial cells to proliferate. postulated that these breaks may be created when the posterior vitreous detaches from the macula.
is epiretinal membrane unilateral or bilateral
usually unilateral. bilateral in 5% of cases
what is this
vitreoretinal traction (V shaped)
what is this
epiretinal membrane
describe the objective and subjective indications of epiretinal membrane
1. translucent membrane causes irregular light reflex or sheen 2. fine surface striae as it thickens and contracts 3. tortuous superoinferotemporal vessels (contracting membrane pulls vessels) 4. posterior vitreous usually detached from macula 5. metamorphopsia 6. VA normal to slightly reduced (rarely worse than 20/40)
what is the best way to see macular pucker
with the red-free filter
what is macular pucker
more sever form of epiretinal membrane. more sever blood vessel distortion. metamorphopsia and reduced VAs (20/40 to 20/60). pseudohole or CME may form at the macula.
what is the surgery for epiretinal membrane called
membrane peal. it is an extremely delicate procedure and only done in very severe cases.
describe the epidemiology associated with macular hole. is it usually unilateral or bilateral?
usually older women. bilateral in only 10% of cases.
name some causes of macular hole
1. idiopathic 2. severe myopia 3. trauma (vitreous traction or commotio retinae) 4. solar retinopathy
name and describe the stages of macular hole
stage 1: impending macular hole (cyst). decreased or absent foveal depression, small round yellow spot in fovea. stage 2: early macular hole (tear). tear at one edge of fovea. stage 3: full thickness hole. round punched-out area (about 1/3 DD). may have yellow deposits within the hole at RPE level. translucent operculum may be seen. VA usually 20/200 or worse. stage 4: vintage macular hole. edematous "cuff" at margins. complete PVD.
name and describe the clinical test you can do for macular hole in the slit lamp
watzke-allen technique. narrow your beam with a high plus lens and move it back and forth over the macula. if the beam is straight up and down the macula is normal and there is no hole. if there are distortions in the beam that indicates early changes. if there is a part of the beam completely missing, then there is a full thickness hole.
what is the treatment for a macular hole
internal limiting membrane peel and vitrectomy. goal is to stimulate glial cell proliferation/migration and relieve vitreo-retinal traction. followed with gas or oil tamponade (face-down for at least 1 week) -our ability to improve VA with these techniques is improving, so if you have someone with a macular hole that developed within the last year you should consider sending them for a consult.
macular hole surgery outcome: Closure expected in > 90% of macular holes after one operation Closure approaches 100% of stage II or early stage III holes 25 to 50% of closed macular holes fail to achieve better than 20/50 About 20% risk of cataracts and retinal tears Despite this, surgery usually has beneficial effect on patients’ quality of life Currently no large randomized clinical trials to establish the risks and benefits of surgery Reference: Williams GA. Macular Holes: The Latest in Current Management. Retina. Volume 26(6) supplement, July/August 2006, pp S9-S12
what is a macular pseudohole
looks like a macular hole on ophthalmoscopy. due to epiretinal membrane. visual acuity is usually good (possible metamorphopsia)
what is a foveal pseudocyst
thin layer (lamella) of macular tissue. may be a pre-macular hole, may be a "self-healed" full-thickness macular hole, may also result from macular hole surgery
what is cystoid macular edema, and what causes it
accumulation of fluid within the macula. accumulation is centered around the foveola and is loss of foveal depression. causes a petaloid (flower petal-shaped) pattern. caused by a breakdown of the inner blood-retinal barrier.
what is the prognosis associated with cystoid macular edema
usually benign in the short-term (hours-days). long-standing causes (weeks to months) result in coalescence of the fluid filled microsysts and can result in large lamellar hole formation and premanent loss of VA.
what is the treatment for cystoid macular edema
1. laser photocoagulation/vitrectomy 2. systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 3. steroids/NSAIDs
what is clinically significant macular edema
macular edema associated with diabetes. the most common cause of VA loss with DM
how do you diagnose clinically significant macular edema
one or more of the following: -retinal edema withing 500 microns of the fovea -hard exudates within 500 micronse of the fovea with adjacent retinal thickening -retinal edema 1 DD (1500 microns) or larger, any part of which is withing 1 DD of the fovea.
what is the treatment for clinically significant macular edema
1. focal treatment 2. grid treatment 3. pan-retinal treatment
what is cental serous retinopathy
also called central serous chroioretinopathy. typically sporadic and self-limiting. usually occurs in yound to middle-aged males (type A personality (stress)). there is localized sensory retinal detachment due to a focal break or gap in the RPE. sub-retinal fluid leaks through this gap.
what is this
"smokestack" or "umbrella" appearance on fluorescein angiography. associated with central serous retinopathy.
how do you diagnose centra serous retinopathy
1. fairly sudden VA reduction in one eye (20/30-20/40) 2. hyperopic refractive shift (VA improves to 20/20 with low plus) 3. relative scotoma 4. metamorphopsia 5. micropsia 6. shallow, round or oval elevation 7. associated retinal vessels will cast shadows 8. possible RPE detachment (picture)
what is the prognosis assocaited with central serous retinopathy
80% will spontaneously resolve in 1-6 months. 20% resolve in 1 year. some mild metamorphopsia can remain. a small number have permanent VA reduction (usually due to prolonged detachment or multiple reccurent attacks)
what is the tx for central serous retinopathy
focal laser photocoagulation to obliterate leakage site of RPE. may speed up resolution by a few months, but does not improve visual outcome.
describe the retinal changes associated with myopic degeneration
1. posterior staphyloma 2. lacquer cracks (4% of highly myopic eyes) 3. fuch's spot (secondary pigmentary proliferatino from choroidal vessel growth)
name some drugs that can cause toxic maculopathies
1. antimalarials (chlooquine/hydroxychloroquine (plaquenil)) 2. phenothiazines 3. tamoxifen 4. canthanxanthin 5. talc
you know the pt has a good primary care provider if they refer to you before they start the pt on plaquenil, because you need to do baseline testing before they initiate therapy
what diseases does plaquenil treat
malaria and rheumatologic disorders (arthritis, lupus)
severe blindness can result from antimalarial use. hydroxychloroquine has less maculopathy risk than chloroquine
what should you do as baseline testing if you have a pt come in that is about to start an antimalarial drug
1. visual acuities 2. amsler grid 3. color vision 4. visual fields 5. dilated retinal examination 6. fundus photos -follow every 6 months after
what is cinchonism
ocular toxicity due to antimalarial quinine: 1. VA loss 2. fixed dilated pupils 3. retinal edema 4. constricted visual fields 5. optic atrophy
what are the phenothiazine drugs used for
antipsychotic drugs
what ocular problem typically is associated with phenothiazine
salt and pepper maculopthy
be careful about telling pts that their medication is causing their reduced vision because they might stop taking drugs that they really need for their systemic health. if you think a drug is causing maculopathy, you need to consult with their primary care provider.
what is tamoxifen used for
treats breast cancer. they used to think that you needed a larger dose than they do now, so tamoxifen maculopathy was more common in the past that it is now
name some drugs that can cause vortex keratopathy
amiodarone, plaquinil, tamoxifen
describe the retinal appearance associated with tamoxifen retinotoxicity
multiple superficial yellow crystalline ring-like deposits that encircle the macula. distince appearance.
what causes the deposits assocaited with tamoxifen retinopathy
they are deposits of the drug its self
what is canthaxanthin used for
oral agen that enhances suntanning
what types of ocular side effects are associated with canthaxanthin
prolonged used can cause maculopathy. thiny glistening yellow dots in a donut-shaped ring around both of the maculae. these deposits are in superficial retina and are generally benign.
what is talc
inert filler material for tablets. drug users crush tablets and boil it before IV injection of narcotics. talc particles enter circulation and embolized most parts of the bloodstream including the retina.
how do you differentiate between talc and hard drusen or exudates
1. case history 2. talc will glisten on ophthalmoscopy 3. talc is very superficial (anterior to retinal blood vessels)
name some of the complications that can be associated with talc deptosits in the retina
macular edema, venous engorgement, punctate or flame hemorrhages, and arterial occlusion, blur/blind spots in VF can occur
talc deposits on the retinal are typically seen after injection of over 12,000 tablets
what is solar maculopathy
occurs 2 weeks after exposure to short wave length light (sun-gazing, eclipse viewing, arc welding). causes a very small, circumsribed lamellar hole or cyst on the foveola.
what is foveomacular retinitis
solar maculopathy when no cause is found
what do we think of when we think of the ohio-missippi river valley
histoplasmosis
what causes histoplasmosis
inhalation of spores from feces of chickens
why is it called presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome
because they have never actually isolated the organism in ocular tissues, only found antibodies for it
what is the classic retinal triad for histoplasmosis
1. histo spots 2. peripapillary atrophy 3. choroidal neovascular membrane
clinical pearl: if the lesions have a greenish tinge, think histoplasmosis
what is toxoplasma gondii and toxocara canis
toxoplasma: protozoan contracted from cats toxocara: roundworm contracted from dogs
what ocular consequence is seen during active toxoplasma infection
"headlights in the fog"
what are the retinal signs associated with toxocara
1. central granulomas 2. optic nerve/peripheral granulamas 3. contraction of granulomatous bands between nerve and macula
what are angioid streaks
crack-like dehiscences in collagenous and elastic portions of bruch's membrane. secondary RPE and choriocapillaris changes. linear grey or dark red linear lesions with irregular serrated edges. streaks link in ring-like fashion around ONH.
what retinal findings are associated with angioid streaks
1. peau d'organe or lepard skin spotting 2. salmon spots 3. optic nerve drusen 4. choroidal neovascularizatin 5. choroidal rupture (fragile eyes, no contact sports) 6. foveal involvement
name some common systemic diseases that are assocaited with angioid streaks
1. pseudoxanthoma elasticum (PXE) 2. paget's disease 3. ehlers-danlos syndrome
what is pseudoxanthoma elasticum
inheritable connective tissue disorder that effects the dermis elastin, arterial walls and bruch membrane. 85% develope angioid streaks.
what is paget's disease
chronic progressive bone deformity that may result in skull enlargement, long bone deformities and kyphoscoliosis. deafness is common. angioid streaks in 2% of cases.
what is ehlers-danlos syndrome
rare inherited collagen disorder. hyperelastic skin and hyperextensible joints.
what are the ocular complicatinos associated with ehler's-danlos syndrome
1. epicanthal folds 2. keratoconus (stroma is made of collagen) 3. high myopia 4. retinal detachment 5. blue sclera 6. lens subluxation
what is often the cause of choroidal rupture
trauma (usually blunt trauma)
what complication may occur after choroidal rupture
choroidal neovascular membrane
what is this
choroidal folds
what are the causes of choroidal folds
1. idiopathic (more common in hyperopes bc of smaller eye) 2. orbital disease (retrobulbar mass) 3. choroidal tumor 4. posterior scleritis 5. ocular hypotony
New lecture: 10Goldmann Visual Fields
New lecture: 11DRcarewimagestu2010
what percent of diabetic pts have some manifestation of diabetic eye disease
61%
risk of blindness is about 25 times greater in pts with diabetes. early intervention lessens risk and severity of vision loss. this area is our "bread and butter" in the profession
vision loss in diabetics is most frequently caused by diabetic retinopathy, but there are many other ocular manifestations that can severely impact the pt. what are they?
1. tritan color vision deficiencies 2. refractive error changes 3. accommodative dysfunction 4. visual field defects 5. EOM anamolies (3rd, 4th and 6th cranial nerves affected due to ischemia) -pupils spared (not blown) in third nerve palsy 6. slugish pupillary reflexes (ischemia of iris tissue, not nerve dysfunction)(stronger meds are required for dilation) 7. conj. microaneurysms 8. dry eye (often severe and overlooked) 9. cornea: reduced sensitivity, reduced wound healing ability, basement membrane abnormalities, endothelial cell morphology changes, increased corneal thickness (edema) 10. iris: depegmentation, rubeosis iridis, peripheral anterior synechia, neovascular glaucoma 11. higher prevalence of cataracts 12. vitreous hemorrhages 13. macular edema 14. ischemic optic neuropathy 15. disc edema
there is controversy over whether it is appropriate to treat diabetics with contact lenses
it is standard of care to do gonioscopy on diabetics before you dilate to look for neovascularization of the iris and angle
vitreous hemorrhage is difficult to diagnose based on observation for the first time observer. it just may look like your view is blurry because the light is being scattered off the blood in the vitreous (picture)
when do type 1 and type 2 diabetics need retinal exams
type 1: 3-5 years after diagnosis, then annually type 2: at initial diagnosis, then annually -type 1s will generally not have the disease long before diagnosis because it is so acute (that is why they don't need it at the time of diagnosis. types 2s often have had the disease for a long time at the time of diagnosis (20% have retinopathy at time of diagnosis) -more often if poorly controled. -there is controversy in this topic
what should you educate pts who are diabetic and of child bearing age
it is very important to have more frequent eye exams if they are planning pregnancy or become pregnant.
how often should pregnant women with diabetis get a retinal exam
in the first trimester and then every 1-3 months through the pregnancy and for 1 year postpartum. (due to the remping up of metabolism)
can you dilate a pregnant woman
if there is a medical reason it is totally appropriate. for routine exam you might want to put it off if there is no reason to dilate.
you need to get the name and address of primary care physician for diabetics so you can write them a letter of evaluation for the pt. it is very common for them to have been told in school that they need to send diabetics to an ophthalmologist, so they need to know that we know what we are doing. also, ophthalmologists are less likely to send a report so they will send more pts to you. (send a report to primary care even if they did'nt refer the pt to you for a diabetic eye exam)
most all of the home based blood glucose measuring instruments have a way to keep a running average for their readings.
what tests do you need to due during a diabetic examination
1. BVA 2. pupillary reflexes 3. motility 4. refraction (may or may not want to rx it if it is fluctuating) 5. visual fields (you need a baseline, so do it if they have not have one before) 6. biomicroscopy 7. gonioscopy 8. tonometry 9. stereo retinal examinatino with dilation 10. photography
what is the level we want a diabetics HbA1C to be
less than 7%
what do we want the blood pressure for a diabetic to be
lower than for a non-diabetic. less than 130/80. should be measured at each visit.
what do you want the cholesterol levels to be for a diabetic
LDL less than 100 mg/dL. less than 70 if they have cardiovascular disease. -send them to lab if they don't know it. if they don't know their sugar levels you should do an in-office finger stick.
what percent of diabetics if tested would have diabetic retinopathy. what percent would have proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
DR: 25% PDR: 5%
describe the pathophysiology associated with diabetes
not fully understood. loss of function of intramural pericytes of retinal capillaries (due to glucose causing damage to blood vessel walls). because capillaries don't function well, we end up with non-perfusion.
what are the pertinent negatives for diabetic retinopathy
1. microaneurysms 2. hemorrhages 3. cotton wool spots 4. hard exudates 5. clinically significant macular edema 6. intraretinal microvascular abnormalities 7. venous beeding 8. neovascualrization of the disc 9. neovascularization elsewhere 10. neovascularization of the iris
what is the first clinically detectable sign of diabetic retinopathy
microaneurysms
what is the best way to see microaneurysms
direct ophthalmoscope. you can miss them with a 90 because they are so small. 90 causes minification, direct causes magnification.
what are microaneurysms
areas of capillaries where the walls have become so thin that they ballon out even though the capillaries are a low pressure system.
how do you differentiate between microaneurysms and dot hemorrhages
microaneurysms are smaller than 12 disc diameter (average size of a vien at the disc margin). if they are smaller than that consider them microaneurysms. it really doesn't change our tx of diabetic retinopathy, so it is really not that important.
fluid does leak from the walls of microaneurysms, so they light up on fluorescein angiography
what is the next step in diabetic retinopathy after microaneurysms
hemorrhages
what does the presence of hard exudates tell us
that there is long-standing retinal edema -they are lipid deposits
how do you differentiate between hard exudates and drusen
hard exuadates are hard looking and have sharp boarders. if you look with stereo, you should be able to appreciate that they are in the anterior layer of the retina (hard exudates). drusen are deeper in the retina.
why do hard exudates form
because damaged blood vellels leak protein and serum. when it leaks into an area of healthy blood vessels, the serum is absorbed back into the vessel, but since the cell walls of the blood vessel are healthy the protein can not enter back into them and are left in the retina.
describe the pathophysiology associated with cotton wool spots
they are due to retinal hypoxia. they are due to capillary occlusion in the retinal NFL which causes interruption in axoplasmic flow and swelling in the NFL, which results in death of the NFL. so even after the cotton wool spot is gone, the cells that were swollen are still dead.
what is a soft exudate
cotton wool spot
how do you tell the difference between a hard exudate and a soft exudate
soft: irregular boarders, larger size, if they are near a blood vessel they will mask the blood vessel so you can't see it, yellowish in appearance and "soft" looking
why is it important to differentiate between IRMA and neovascularization
because the management is different. one requires watching and one requires treatment.
how do you differentiate between IRMA and neovascularization
IRMA: looks flat (neo looks like it is comming out into the vitreous), less disorganized than neo, looks like a curvy road that is a detour around something (neo is completely disorganized; IRMA will often loop around and connect back to the same blood vessel). also IRMA is not new blood vessels and they won't leak like neo would on fluorescein angiography. -picture is IRMA -if you have doubts about whether it is flat or elevated the center lens of the gonio lens gives you the best stereo view.
can IRMA progress to neovascularization
yes. IRMA is the area where neo is most likely to occur; so in future visits that is the area you would want to watch most closely.
what is the difference between IRMA and collateral vessels
IRMA is a form of collateral. IRMA usually goes from one blood vessel back to that same blood vessel. collaterals usually go from one blood vessel to another blood vessel.
what retinal sign indicates that the pt is at the most significant risk of developing neovascualarization in diabetic retinopathy
venous beading. IRMA is the site where it is most likely to occur, but venous beading indicates the most significant risk.
what is another name for venous beading
boxcarring.
describe the pathophysiology associated with venous beading
it is caused by hypoxia. hypoxia causes damage to the basement membrane and pericytes of the cell walls. damage to the walls of the blood vessels along with pressure on the vessel from the inside of the eye causes the beading appearance.
why is beading more likely to occur in the venous system than the arterial system
because the venous system has thinner walls and so will be a lot more influenced by pressure and damage to the wall. there is probably damage to the basement membrane and the pericytes of the arteries too, but since the walls of the arteries are thicker and better able to withstand pressure from the vitreous in the presence of damage to the walls we are less likely to see it in the arterial system
retinal edema is tough to see and you need to train yourself to look for it.
at what layer in the retina do cotton wool spots, flame shaped hemorrhages, IRMA, dot/blot hemorrhages, hard exuates and drusen occur
cotton wool spots: nerve fiber layer flame-shaped hemorrhages: nerve fiber layer IRMA: cappilary bed of ganglion cell layer dot/blot: boarder of inner nuclear layer/outer plexiform layer microaneurysms: boarder of inner nuclear layer/outer plexiform layer hard exudates: boarder of inner nuclear layer/outer plexiform layer drusen: RPE -hard exudates and edema are more anterior than drusen, but less anterior than cotton wool spots
how do you define neovascularization of the disc (NVD)
neovascularization at or within 1-2 disc diameters from the disc
where does neovascularization elsewhere (NVE) tend to occur
along the major arcades (often sprouts from IRMA)
which is more concerning neovascularization of the disc or elsewhere
NVD bleeds more easily and is more concerning
translucent fibrous tissue adjacent to neovascularization of the fundus adhere to the vietrous and be pulled when the pt moves around causing bleeding
name the MAJOR classifications of diabetic retinopathy
1. no diabetic retinopathy (non what so ever; not even any microaneurysms) 2. nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy 3. proliferative diabetic retinopathy 4. clinically significant macular edema
name the pertinent negatives for diabetic retinopathy
1. microaneurysms 2. hemorrhages 3. cotton wool spots 4. hard exudates 5. IRMA 6. venous beading 7. NVD 8. NVE 9. NVI 10. CSME
name the sub-classifications for non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
1. mild 2. moderate 3. severe 4. very severe
describe the mild classification of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
1. at least one microaneurysm (people can get hemorrhages for reasons other than diabetic retinopathy) 2. one or more of the following: retinal hemorrhaging less than standard photo 2A (picture), hard exudate, cotton wool spots 3. definition not met for more severe grades (clinically you should start at the worst category and work your way back because of this point)
when we say less hemorrhaging than the standard photo, for example, is that referring to the number or hemorrhages (or whatever it may be) or the severity
the guidelines are not clear on that, so clinically you should combine number and severity when making your comparison
if you are boarderline in what grading you think the fundus of a nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy pt is, it is more conservative to put them in the more severe category because the guidelines are such that you will see them back more often if they are in the more severe category and you will refer them more quickly if they are in the more severe category.
are microaneurysms on blood vessels that you can see on ophthalmoscopy
no they are capillaries, which are too small for us to see clinically
what is the moderate classification of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
any of the following: 1. hemes or microaneurysms greater than standard photo 2A 2. soft exudates, venous beading, and IRMA definitely present 3. definition not met for more severe grades -the problem is with line number 2 above. in the severe category they talk about IRMA OR venous beading greater than a standard photo. this implies that you can have IRMA and no venous beading in the severe category, but you have to have both in the moderate category. so what most clinicians do is the following: any of the following: 1. hemes or microaneurysms greater than standard photo 2A 2. venous beading OR IRMA definitely present
describe the severe category of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
4-2-1 rule: -retinal quadrants are divided through the macula, not the nerve head any one of the following: 1. hemes or microaneurysms greater than standard photo 2A in all 4 quadrants 2. venous beading definitely present in at least 2 quadrants worse than standard photo 6B 3. IRMA greater than standrad photo 8A in at least 1 quadrant (clinically most people put it into this category if they are sure that they are seeing IRMA because the standard photo is not very severe) -must be no frank neovascularization and definition for more severe grades not met
what is this
standard photo 8A
what is this
standard photo 6B
describe the categorization of very severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
-two or more features of severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (IRMA in two quadrants for example would count) -definition not met for more severe grades
name the categories of proliferative diabetic retinopathy
1. early PDR 2. high-risk PDR -there used to be three categories, so don't be confused if you see that in older literature.
describe the two categories of proliferative diabetic retinopathy
-early PDR (non high-risk): neovascularization of the disc or elsewhere that does not meet the difinition for the more severe grade. -high-risk PDR: one or more of the follwoing: 1. NVD greater than or equal to 1/4 of the disc area (standard photo 10A) 2. NVD with vitreous hemorrhage or pre-retinal hemorrhage 3. NVE greater than 1/2 disc area WITH vitreous hemorrhaging or pre-retinal hemorrhaging
what is the definition of macular edema
any edema that occurs within 1 DD from the center of the macula -not all macular edema is clinically significant macular edema
what is the definition of clinically significant macular edema
one or more of the following: 1. thickening of the retina 500 microns (1/3 disc diameter) 2. hard exudates 500 microns from the center of the macula with thickening of the adjacent retina 3. a zone or zones of retinal thickening greater than or equal to 1 disc area in size, any part of which is less than or equal to 1 disc diameter from the center of the macula.
does controlling your blood sugar effect the level of diabetic retinopathy
yes! stable blood glucose levels may prevent, retard or reverse some complications.
what are the referral guidelines for the different categories of diabetic retinopathy
refer within 2-4 weeks: macular edema, early (non-high-risk) proliferative diabetic retinopathy, very severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy refer within 24-48 hours: high risk proliferative diabetic retinopathy, vitreous hemorrhage.
with vitreous hemorrhage there is almost always proliferative diabetic retinopathy
New lecture: 12Opt 733 - ARMD Review 2010
when was AREDS published and what did it look at
2001. first large-scale trial to investigate if supplementation with antioxidants nutrients can help slow the progression of AMD and it's associated vision loss
what categories of AMD did the AREDS study look at
category 2, 3, 4 and "wet" AMD
what were the groups of suppliments that they studies in the AREDS study
1. antioxidants (A, C, E) plus zinc 2. antioxidants (A, C, E) alone 3. zine alone 4. placebo
describe the AREDS category 1 AMD
-total area of less than 5 small (less than 63 micron diameter) drusen -20/32 or better in both eyes
describe category 2 AMD
-multiple small drusen, nonextensive (less than 20 in number) intermediate (63-124 micron diameter) drusen, pigment abnormalities, or any combination thereof -20/32 or better in both eyes
what is category 3 AMD
-at least 1 large (greater than 125 micron diameter) drusen, extensive intermediate drusen, and/or geographic atrophy not in macula center -at least 1 eye 20/32 or better
what is category 4 AMD
-no advanced AMD (geographic atrophy in macula center or choroidal neovascularization) in the study eye, fellow eye either category 4a or 4b category 4a: advanced AMD (geographic atrophy in macula center or choroidal neovascularization) category 4b: VA worse than 20/32 with AMD explaining the VA loss
in the AREDS study, for what categories of AMD where there no significant improvement in acuity with any of the therapy options studied
category 1 and 2
which of the suppliments studied in the AREDS study showed no significant benefits in any AMD category
zinc alone or antioxidants alone
which AREDS categories showed improvement in visual outcome with antioxidants + zinc
categories 3 and 4
by what percent does the use of antioxidants plus zinc reduce the risk of progression to advanced AMD in 5 years for category 3 and 4
25% (from 28% in placebo to 20% with therapy)
what is the contraindication to AREDS vitamins that you have to remember to ask about
beta-carotene increases the risk of lung cancer in smokers.
what did the blue mountian eye study tell us
40-50% reduction in the risk of advanced AMD with high consumption of fish with omega 3 fatty acids
what can people do to prevent AMD
1. wear UV protection in bright sunlight 2. do not smoke 3. balanced diet rich in green, leafy vegtables and plenty of fruit 4. treat high blood pressure 5. omega 3 fatty acids 6. consider antioxidant and zinc supplements after duscussing with your doctor
should you rx AREDS antioxidants
you should give them a sample and tell them to take them to their primary care physician because there is always a possibility that they may react negatively with the medications they are on
what is AREDS 2 looking at
protective effects of xanthophylls (lutein and zeaxanthin) and omega-3 fatty acids on the development of advanced AMd
AREDS 2 is currently ongoing
what were the results of the LAST study
subjects who took the lutein and lutein plus antioxidants showed 50% increase in average macular pigment optical density over 12 months compared to placebo.
why is lutein good for the eyes
thought to be protective against damage from untraviolet light
name the validated treatments for AMD
1. laser photocoagulation 2. photodynamic therapy (verteporfin (visudyne)) 3. intravitreat therapy (macugen, lucentis) (avastin is used off-label)
what did the macular photocoagulation study look at
evaluated laser treatment of choroidal neovascularization through randomized, controlled clinical trials.
name and describe the 4 neovascular categories in the macular photocoagulation study
1. extrafoveal CNV: 200-2500 microns from fovea 2. juxtafoveal CNV: 1-199 microns from fovea 3. subfoveal new CNV: under the fovea 4. subfoveal recurrent CNV: previously treated with laser and came back
what were the visual acuity outcomes found in the macular photocoagulation study for extrafoveal, juxtafoveal, subfoveal new and subfoveal recurrent choroidal neovascular membranes for the treated vs. control groups
extrafoveal: 20/125 vs. 20/200 (laser vs. control) juxtafoveal: 20/200 vs. 20/250 (laser vs. control) subfoveal new: 20/320 vs. 20/500 (laser vs. control) (this one at 4 years) subfoveal recurrent: 20/250 vs. 20/320 (laser vs. control) (this one was at 3 years)
what is the summery of the macular photocoagulation study
eyes with AMD and subfoveal choroidal neovascularizatino benefited from laser treatment vs. observation. eyes recieving direct laser treatment to the fovea for new CNV immediately lost more visual acuity than observed eyes, however, the amount of visual acuity loss in observed eyes exceeded the level of treated eyes after 12 months. eyes with smaller lesion s and worse inital visual acuity had greater and earlier benefits of laser treatment. eyes with large subfoveal neovascular lesions and good initial visual acuity are not good candidates for focal laser photocoagulation.
left off at 28:00 on 11-16 part A and slide 39
New lecture: 13Management of Vitreoretinal Disorders
you need to look at critical landmarks so that you know where you are in the retina when you do BIO (vortex veins, long and short ciliary nerves)
many of the retinal diseases are a result of changes in the vitreous
name the parts of the vitreous
1. posterior hyaloid face 2. anterior hyaloid face 3. cortical gel 4. central gel
why is it important to look at the anterior vitreous before you move to the back of the eye when the pt is dilated
that is where you will find shaefer's sign; a very important indicator of retinal detachment
what are the three most common conditions that put an individual at an increased risk of developing an retinal break or a retinal detachment
1. lattice degeneration 2. atrophic retinal holes 3. cystic retinal tufts
white without pressure can look like a retinal detachment clinically
describe the pathophysiology of lattice degeneration
there is a thinning of inner retinal layers with an overlying pocket of liquefied vitreous and attachment of condense vitreous fibrils at the edge of the lesion. this is a setup for a retinal break during a posterior vitreal detachment.
where is lattice degeneration most commonly seen
you can see it anywhere in the eye, but it is far more common to see it at the equator than anywhere else. typically runs circumfrential. also typically symmetric btwn the two eyes (if you see it superior temporal in one eye you will often see it superior temporal in the other eye)
what percent of eyes that come in with a retinal detachment will have lattice degeneration
40%. (10-12% of the general population)
what are Dr. Jay Haynie's recommendations for the treatment criteria of lattice degeneration
treat if: 1. chronic persistant flashing lights (photopsia is caused by vitreous traction) 2. if the fellow eye has suffered a retinal detachment (100% of the time; this is very important and considered standard of care across the nation) 3. consider treatment pre-cataract surgery
what is the age of onset of cystic retinal tufts
congential lesions
what is the best way to see a cystic retinal tuft
scleral depression. without scleral depression they look like a little white dot, but with scleral depression they stand out.
in what part of the retina are cystic retinal tufts most common
superior nasal
name three potential negitive retinal outcomes resulted with cystic retinal tufts
1. tractional retinal flaps 2. adjacent atrophic holes 3. operculated tears
if you have a pigmented lesion in the retinal periphery and the edges of it turn white, what does that tell you?
that is most likely a region of lattice degeneration
how does scleral depression help you differentiate between atropic hole and a hemorrhage
if it is an atropic hole the area of degeneration around the edges will turn white. if you depress a hemorrhage the surrounding tissue will stay its normal color.
how do you differentiate between a retinal detachment and whie without pressure if they are similar in appearance
1. retinal detachment will be symptomatic (flashes and floaters) 2. retinal detachment will have cells in the vitreous nearly 100% of the time 3. white without pressure will be flat on scleral depression
when should you refer lettice degeneration, cystic retinal tufts and atrophic holes for a second opinion
1. flashing lights 2. pigment cells in the vitreous 3. family history or RD
remember to always make a follow up on pts who are symptomatic. otherwise you will be legally liable.
can you see a retinal tear without cells in the vitreous? can you see pigment cells in the vitreous without a retinal tear?
you will never see a retinal tear without pigment cells in the vitreous. but you can see pigment cells in the vitreous without there being a retinal tear.
if you refer for a second opinion your chances of losing a law suit are extremely rare
name the types of retinal detachments. which is the most common
1. rhegmatogeneous (by far the most common) 2. tractional 3. exudative 4. secondary to a mass
what is a rhegmatonenous retinal detachment
associated with a retinal tear
what is the incidence of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
1 in 10,000
why does the retinal turn pale and opaque when it detaches
it has lost its source of oxygen and has become hypoxic. when the retina becomes hypoxic it turns white.
why do you have a loss of choroidal detail in the area of a retinal detachment
because the retinal is normally transparent. when it becomes detached, it becomes opaque and you lose you ability to see the choroidal detail.
how does a retinal detachment affect the IOP
lower IOP in the eye with the retinal detachment. this is because the ciliary body shuts down. low IOP is not always seen, so you should not rely on it to diagnose. pressures tend to normalize with time. -the degree of drop in IOP is dependant on the baseline level of IOP. higher baseline equal higher drop in IOP
name the 5 different ways of reparing a retinal detachment
1. cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation 2. scleral buckling 3. pneumatic retinopexy 4. primary vitrectomy 5. silicone oil tamponade
what determines whether you will use cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation
the location of the retinal break. if you have a lesion that is anterior to the equator it is very difficult to get a laser back there. if it is posterior to the equator it is harder to get the cryo probe back there.
when is cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation indicated
cryo and laser are used on very small retinal detachments
how does cryotherapy and laser photocoagulation help a retinal detachment
seals off spread of sub-retinal fluid and prevent the tear from progressing
how does cryotherapy work
the cryo probe is basically like a scleral indenter. when the surgen indents the area of the lesion, he steps on a pedal and the probe (which is hooked up to a tank of nitrous oxide) feezes the outer eyewall and the cold creates chorioretinal scar in the area of the retinal break.
you can not do laser photocoagulation through sub-retinal fluid. so if there is serous fluid under a retinal tear they have to laser all the way out at the attached retina.
describe the scleral buckel procedure
scleral buckel requires the pt to be put under general anesthesia. it is done in conjunction with vitrectomy. then a silicone band is place around the eye underneath the extraocular muscles. the band is then tightened, resulting in increasing of the axial length of the eye and significant increase in refractive error (myopic direction) -think of a rubber band that you have stretched out. there are two ways to relieve the tension on the rubber band. you can either bring the ends of the rubber band closer together (scleral buckle) or you can cut the rubber band (vitrectomy)
name some of the complications that can result from scleral buckle
1. if they tighten it too tight it is uncomfortable 2. if they place the band over a vortex ampule they can block circulation resulting in chronic choroidal edema 3. if they place it on the eye crooked, they can end up with a tropia (diplopia is common)
when is a scleral buckeling proceedure done
the only time it is done is when there is an inferior retinal detachment (between 5 and 7 o'clock). this is the only option when the break is in that location (because gas bubbles don't work on inferior detachments; because they would have to stand on their head to get the bubble in the right position)
describe the procedure of pneumatic retinopexy
injection of gas to flatten retina and force the subretinal fluid back into the vitreous cavity. then cyrotherapy to seal the tear (laser is possible, but you can't do laser through a gas bubble). gas bubble stays in the eye for 10-12 days. the amount of fluid that is displaced with the gas bubble is then removed with paracentesis. then the pt must be instructed on how to hold their head in a position where the gas bubble is over the tear.
how long does it take a retinal tear to begin to seal and to completely seal after cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation
it takes a tear 5 days to start and 3 weeks to finish sealing after laser or cryo therapy.
what is the success rate with pneumatic retinopexy
about 50%. most common reason for failure is that the patient didn't position themselves in the position they were instructed to. second most common reason for failure is that the surgen didn't find all the retinal breaks.
why do they never do pneumatic retinopexy on a pseudophakic eye
pseudophakes are very well known for having multiple small breaks in the retina that were created at the time of the surgery and never developed into retinal detachment until the big one came. if you don't seall ALL of the breaks the procedure is going to fail and they are known for having many breaks that are difficult to see clinically.
what is the most common method of reparing a retinal detachment
primary vitrectomy
what is a primary vitrectomy
vitrectomy with fluid exchange/gas bubble.
what is the advantage of a primary vitrectomy over a pneumatic retinopexy
the difference between primary vitrectomy and a pneumatic retinopexy is that the vitrectomy is done in primary vitrectomy. if you don't remove the vitreous and they have an unnoticed break in the retina they can have more breaks down the road. if you do a vitrectomy it is very rare to have a break later down the road, because you have "cut the rubber band" and relieved the tension on the retina. also with primary vitrectomy you can fill the eye 100% with gas, and so the positioning of the pt is not as critical.
name the three types of gas that can be use in primary vitrectomy and how long they last in the eye before they are reabsorbed.
atmospheric air: 2-3 weeks FS6: 2-3 weeks C3F8: 3 months -less if pneumatic retinopexy because there is less volume of gas in that procedure. -there are things that pts can not do with a gas bubble in their eye. they can't lay flat on their back. they can't travel over a pass or fly in an airplane (because the gas will expand)
is silicone oil as a viteous placement temporary or permanent
they are permanent. thety are only removed if there are complications.
when is silicone oil used for a treatment of retinal detachment
when other therapy options have failed.
what is the most common location for a peripheral iridectomy? when would you see it in the inferior position?
most common is at 10 and 2 o'clock. the only reason they would have one in the interior position is if they have or have had silicone oil in the eye. the reason is that if you have oil in the eye you are likely to create a pupillary block situation (if there is a lens in the eye) and there is no where for the aqueous to go.
if you have to put silicone oil in the eye, what type of IOL do you need to avoid or remove and why?
silicone IOL. the IOL and the oil will lock together and completely fog up the lens
what can cause a tractional retinal detachement
1. proliferative retinal vascular disease (diabetic retinopathy being the most common type) 2. proliferative vitreoretinopathy 3. penetrating ocular trauma
tractional retinal detachments are a slow moving process and they are immoble
what are the therapy options for a tractional retinal detachment
vitrectomy is the only option. -you have to mechanically peal the retinal fibrosis off so that the retinal can lay back down. they often end up with silicon oil in the eye.
what is an exudative retinal detachment
fluid accumulates under the retina from a pathologic lesion. there is not tear in the retinal and there is not uverlying fibrosis.
name some of the potential etiologies of exudative retinal detachment
1. retinal hemangioma 2. coat's disease 3. choroidal tumor 4. posterior uveitis 5. severe macular degeneration 6.
with an exudative retinal detachment is the area of the fluid accumulation fixed or mobile
fluid shifts with pts head position
how do you treat an exudative retinal detachment
laser or cryo is applied to the area where the leak is occuring. the RPE then pumps out the accumulated fluid over time and the detachment will reattach
what is the time frame for retinal detachment with macula on and off
macula on: same day referral! macula off: within 48 hours (permanent vision loss regardless of treatment)
what are the two major differentials with retinal detachment
1. retinoschisis 2. choroidal detachment
what is the refractive error associated with retinoschisis?
over 70% hyperopic
what location is most common for retinoschisis? are they unilateral or bilateral
inferior temporal. BILATERAL 99% of the time.
you can fairly well differentiate between retinal detachment and retinoschisis based on history and presentation. RDs are usualy in myopes, retinoschisis in hyperopes. RDs are unilateral, retinoschisis is almost always bilateral.
what pertinent negatives do you need to document if you have a retinoschisis
1. absence of a demarcation line 2. inner wall holes 3. outer wall breaks a demarcation line is a line of pigment that forms on the posterior margin of a retinal detachment (signifies the chronic presence of sub-retinal fluid). -if you see a line of pigment it is NOT a retinoschisis.
can a retinoschisis progress to a retinal detachment
yes
is retinoschisis stable or progressive
stable. if it is progressing it is probably a retinal detachment.
what is the most common cause of choroidal detachment
surgery. it is caused by low IOP
what is the treatment for choroidal detachment
lots of steroids. this raises the IOP and they usually resolve on their own. rarely they will need to be drained.