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360 Cards in this Set
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What is the name of the newborn screening test?
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Guthrie test
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Define heavy menstrual bleeding
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excessive or prolonged mesntruation
>80ml/cycle (average is 35ml/cycle) |
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What does the newborn screening test, test for?
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CF
PKU Galactosemia Congenital hypothryoidism Amino acid disorder Fatty acid metabolism disorders |
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Incidence of heavy menstrual bleeding?
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10% of women
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What are two factors which can invalidate the results of the newborn screening test?
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Antibiotics
Lack of enteral feeding |
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Cause of heavy menstrual bleeding in hepatic and renal failure:
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hepatic: decreased synthesis of coag factors and sex steroids
renal: excess estrogens |
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List the benefits of the OCP?
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1. Decreases menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
2. Acne 3. Ovarian and endometrial CA 4. PID 5. Regulation of menstral cycle 6. Benign cystic breast disease 7. Endometriosis 8. Contraception |
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Normal frequency of changing pads/tampons in heaviest flow
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<2/hr
<21 whole time clots <2.5cm anemia also a signal of HMB |
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List the side effects of the OCP?
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1. DVT
2. PE/Stroke 3. Hypertension 4. Weight gain 5. Nausea 6. Decreases libido |
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Which patients with HMB get tested for coag disorders?
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if HMB since menarche or family hx
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What are some types of emergency contraception?
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1. Combo pill (100ug estrogen+0.75mg levonorgestrel) 2 doses 12 hrs apart
2. Progestin only (levonorgestrel 2 doses 12 hrs apart) 3. Mifepristone (abortifacent) 4. IUD |
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Indications for ultrasound in HMB?
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uterus palpable abdominally
vaginal exam reveals a pelvic mass pharmaceutical treatment fails before IUS insertion |
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What are the major fetal complications of multiple gestations?
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1. increased mortality (5-10x higher)
2. prematurity 3. Twin-twin transfusion 4. Cord accidents (twisting) 5. Conjoined twins 6. IUGR 7. Low birth weight 8. Operative delivery 9. Placenta previa/abruption more common |
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Indications for endometrial biopsy in heavy menstrual bleeding
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if >40
persistent intermenstual bleeding at risk of endometrial hyperplasia treatment failure |
In postmenopausal, abnormal uterine bleeding is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise (10% have malignancy: 8% endometrial Ca, others cervical, ovarian or secondary)
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What is the name of the drug which is given to stimulate ovulation in infertility (esp in PCOS)
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Clomiphene
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Indication for gynae referral < 40 years in the setting of heavy menstrual bleeding
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all intermenstrual/postcoital
at risk of endometrial hyperplasia most common abnormality found on hysteroscopy = fibroid> polyo |
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What are the major maternal complications of multiple gestations?
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1. HTN
2. PPH 3. Pre-eclampsia |
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Management of HMB if no structural cause is suspected?
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myrena first line
2nd line: tranexamic acid, nsaids, ocp 3rd line: progestogens day 5-26/depo |
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What are the most common infectious agents in mastitis?
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1. Staph aureus
2. Streptococcus species |
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Mean blood loss reduction by common treatments for heavy menstrual bleedding
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IUS: >90%
tranexamic acid 40% OCP slightly less than 40% NSAIDS 30% Progestogen 80% |
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What is the treatment for mastitis?
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1. Continue breast feeding or pumping
2. Warm, moist heat 3. NSAIDs 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Surgical drainage in the case of breast abscess |
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What medical treatments are not recommended for heavy menstrual bleeding
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oral progestogens in the luteal phase
danazol |
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What are the benefits of breast feeding?
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1. Maternal-fetal bonding
2. IgA 3. Decreases PPH (uterus contraction) 4. Economical 5. Ideal solute load for kidneys 6. ?prevent diabetes? 7. Contraception 8. Decreases risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer 9. Decreased AOM in baby 10. Decreased SIDS 11. Get to know baby quicker 12. Decreases infections (esp GI) 13. lower antigenicity than cows milk (cow's milk protein allergy or eczema) |
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Criteria to be eligeble for endometrial abalation?
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woman does not want to conceive
suitable normal uterus or fibrpid <3cm newer technique preferable e.g. baloon, thermoabalation 80-90% amenorrghea |
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What are the risk/complications of breast feeding?
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1. Infection transfer (HIV)
2. Difficult to quantify amount of each feed 3. NO Vit D or Fe 4. Longer feeding times 5. Sore cracked nipples 6. Oral candidiasis |
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Investigations for intermenstrual bleeding
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if at risk for sti- test
papsmear, TVUS and gynae referral if persistent |
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In a glucose challenge test what is considered abnormal at 1 hour?
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50g glucose load
>7.7mmol/L If >11mmol/L then diagnose with GDM |
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Cardianal symptom of cervical ca
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postcoital bleeding
if recurrant warrants culposcopy even if smear is normal |
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In a glucose tolerance test what is the diagnostic criteria?
0hrs? 1hr? 2hrs? 3hrs? |
0hrs >5.5 mmol/L
1hr >10.0 mmol/L 2hrs >8.0mmol/L |
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Incidence of PCOS?
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5-10% of women of reporoductive age
infertility>hirsutism> irregular periods> obesity |
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What are the fetal effects of GDM?
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1. Macrosomnia
2. Increased risk of shoulder distocia 3. Neural tube defects 4. Atrial/Ventricular septal defects 5. Transposition of vessels 6. Hypoglycemia after birth 7. Renal anomalies 8. Stillbirth |
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Risk of diabetes in PCOS?
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5-10 fold increase
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What are the maternal risks/effects of GDM?
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1. predisposition to DM in later life (50%)
2. Increases C/S rate 3. infection 4. PPH 5. HTN/pre-eclampsia |
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Most important factors in PCOS management?
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Weight management: BMI <25- screen for diabetes and metabolic changes
Other management is targeted at the problem at hand |
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What are the beneficial effects of HRT?
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1. Hot flushes control
2. Osteoporosis 3. Urogenital symptoms 4. Vaginal dryness 5. Sleep improvements 6. Colorectal cancer |
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Effectiveness of clomiphene for ovulation induction in PCOS
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80%
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What are the risks of HRT?
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1. DVT/PE/Stroke
2. Breast cancer 3. Endometrial/Ovarian cancer (estrogen only HRT) |
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What is metformin useful for in PCOS?
|
reducing fasting insulin and lowering triglyceride levels
not as effective as OCP in reducing androgen levels and returning menstrual patterns to normal |
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What is a non-hormonal drug given to treat menorrhagia?
|
Tranexamic acid
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Hormonal stimulation of lactation
|
oestrogen: icnrease in number and size of ducts
progesterone increases number of alveoli HPL: alveoli |
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What is the Bishop score and what are the components?
|
Measure of favourability for induction of labour
1. Consistency of cervix 2. Position of cervix 3. Dilitation of cervix 4. Effacement 5. Station |
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How does mcroberts positioning work in reducing dystocia?
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tilting pelvis- orient symphysis more horizontally to fascilitate shoulder delivery
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What screening questions should be asked to screen for pre-eclampsia?
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Swelling of face or hands?
Headache? Blurry vision? |
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What is the normal orientation of the foetal skull as it traverses the pelvis?
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occipitotransverse when engaging--> occipitooblique in mid canity --> occipitoanterior at iscial spines
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Definition of antepartum hemorrhage?
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Bleeding after 20 weeks gestation to before delivery
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By how much can moulding decrease the biparietal diameter?
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by approximately 1cm
parietal bones override occipital and frontal remember that only bones of vault are compressable- base of skull not compressable |
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Major causes of antepartum hemorrhage?
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1. Placental abruption (30%)
2. Placenta previa (20%) 3. Uterine rupture (rare) 4. Vasa previa (rare) 5. Coagulopathy 6. Cervical incompetence 7. Threatened premature labour |
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Ranges for foetal blood pH
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>7.25 normal
7.20-7.25- pre-asphyxia- expectant mx <7.20- asphyxia. deliver |
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Risk factors for antepartum hemorrhage?
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Previous abruption
Trauma HTN Cigarette smoking Parity (increased) Maternal age Cocaine PROM Coagulopathies Multiple pregnancies |
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Peak effects of entonox
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after 10 breaths
used in 60% of parturients drowsiness and light headedness, nausea |
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Types of placenta previa?
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1. complete
2. partial 3. marginal 4 low lying (withing 2cm of os) |
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At which level is an epidural performed?
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L3-4
at level of iliac crests |
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Risk factors for placental previa?
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Endometrial scarring (increased parity, LSCS, maternal age, prior curette)
Increased demand for placental surface area ie increased oxygen demand(maternal smoking, multiple gestation, higher altitudes) Early gestational age |
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Sensation felt before injecting an epidural
|
loss of resistance after puncturing lig. flavum
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Initial management of mod to severe abruption
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1. 2 large canulas
2. maternal vitals and hemodynamic status 3. Continuous CTG 4. IV fluid resus 5. Bloods: FBC, G&H cross match, QFMH, DIC screen, Coags |
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Epidural dosing
|
Up to 20ml initial bolus after test dose, onset of analgesia 20 min
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Management of PPH? (non-initial)
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1. All initial managment stuff (vitals, bloods etc)
2. Oxytocin infusion 3. Direct uterine massage 4. Correction of DIC 5. Prostaglandins 6. B-lynch suture 7. Uterine embolization 8. Hysterectomy |
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Rate of difficult intubation at full term?
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1: 300 due to swollen airways, large breasts etc.
Also high risk of aspiration: manage with antacid premedication, rapid sequence induction and cricoid pressure |
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What are some commonly used medications for overactive bladder?
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Ditropan (Oxybutynin)
Detrusitol (Tolterodine) Tofranil (Imipramine) |
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Why does desaturation during failed intubation occur more quickly in a pregnant woman?
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Decreased oxygen stores (FRC decreased by 20%)
Increased oxygen consumpton (60%) |
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What are the risks associated with maternal smoking?
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Lower birth weight
Perinatal mobidity and mortality (PROM, abruption, preterm delivery, stillbirth and SIDS) |
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Strategies to avoid or minimise neonatal depression after a caesar under GA?
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minimise volatile anesthetic dose
Use NO Avoid or minimisa short-acting narcotics |
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What is the criteria for Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
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1. Prenatal alcohol exposure
2. Growth restriction pre and postnatally 3. Facial malformation (short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, abnormal philtrum and hypoplastic midface 4. Neurdevelopmental disorders (language, motor, learning) |
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When does autocaval compression become an issue in pregnant ppl requiring surgery?
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> 20/40 weeks
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S&S of Endometriosis?
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Recurrent dysmenorrhea
Dyspareunia Low back pain Infertility Adnexal mass Bowel/bladder symptoms |
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Do post dural puncture headaches generally resolve spontaneously?
How are these managed? |
spontaneous resolution may take months to years
Conservative therapy ineffective blood patch 70-98% effective |
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What are some risk factors for Endometriosis?
|
Early menarche
Late menopause Shorter menstral cycle length Longer duration of menstral flow Not on OCP (is protective) |
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Management of placenta praevia and accreta when doing a caesar
|
anticipate massive transfusion
pre-emptive iliac artery baloon cath uterotonic drugs surgical: hysterectomy embolisation |
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What are some medical treatments for endometriosis?
|
1. NSAIDs
2. OCP 3. IUD 4. Danazol (ovarian suppression) 5. GnRH analogue |
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Management of maternal collapse during after a caesar
|
intubate early
left lateral tilt perimortum c-section @ 5 min |
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What are some causes of post-menopausal bleeding?
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1. HRT
2. Atrophic changes (endometritis, cervicitis, vaginitis) 3. Cancer (endometrial, cervical, vaginal, vulvar) 4. Polyps 5. Endometrial hyperplasia 6. Trauma 7. Bleeding disorder |
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What % of all pregnancies are ynplanned and what % of these result in an induced abortion?
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38%
6/10 |
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What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?
|
Medications - estrogen, tamoxifen
Family hx Low parity, infertile Endometrial hyperplasia PCOS HNPCC Obesity |
Hysteroscopy with biopsy (gold standard)
Dilation and curettage (misses 10%) Outpatient endometrial biopsy (misses ~30%) Ultrasound in postmenopausal: if endometrial thickness <4mm, endometrial cancer is very unlikely. |
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What is the pearl index?
|
number of unintended preg per 100 women per year
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What endometrial thickness is considered abnormal in a post-menopausal women?
|
>4mm (if not on HRT)
|
Hysteroscopy with biopsy (gold standard)
Dilation and curettage (misses 10%) Outpatient endometrial biopsy (misses ~30%) Ultrasound in postmenopausal: if endometrial thickness <4mm, endometrial cancer is very unlikely. |
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Failure rates of withdrawal
|
25%/year
male condom: 12%/year POP: 8%/year (typical use) --> much lower in perfect use |
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What investigations would you perform in a women with PMB?
|
Pap smear
Endometrial biopsy Transvaginal U/S (uterus, endometrial thickness, pelvic masses and free peritoneal fluid) Hysteroscopy D&C |
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What % of women continue to ovulate normally while on the POP?
|
40%
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What pts would you book for colposcopy ?
|
1. 2 LGSIL smears in 12 months
2. Any HGSIL 3. Any glandular abnormality on smear 4. Persistent post-coital bleeding 5. Abnormal appearing cervix |
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When is it best to start the POP?
|
if start in 1st 5d of menstrual cycle: immeadiate contraceptiom
any other time- take precautions 2days |
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What strains of HPV are implicated in Low grade cervical dysplasia?
|
HPV 6 and 11
|
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How effective is depot provera at inhibiting ovulation?
|
>99%
start in 1st 5d of cycle for immeadiate protection- otherwise use other methods for 7 days |
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What strains of HPV are implicated in High grade cervical dysplasia?
|
HPV 16 and 18
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Advantages of depot?
|
protects against uterine cancer
protects against PID |
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What % of LGSIL regress?
|
60-70%
|
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Chef effect of implanon?
|
stops ovulation = chief effect
also causes thinning of lining of uterus |
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What % of LGSIL progress to HGSIL?
|
4%
<0.1% progress to cancer |
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Incidence of perforation after IUD insertion?
|
1/1000
|
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What % of CIN 2 regress?
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43%
|
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When is pelvic infection a problem after IUD insertion?
|
in 1st 20d
irregular pain and bleeding is suggestive of such an infection |
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What % of CIN 2 progress?
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22%
|
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Criteria for effectiveness of lactational amenorrhea?
|
<6m
Amenorrhea Full breast feeding |
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What % of CIN 3 progress?
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14%
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Earliest possible ovulation postpartum?
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day 21
progesterone only methods usuallu used as COC shows a decrease in the volume of milk in case control studies IUD/IUS can be put in 6 weeks PP |
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What % of CIN 3 regress?
|
32%
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How long after vasectomy are men donsidered sterile
|
When there is no sperm in ejaculate- may take up to 6 months or 15 ejaculations
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What are the risk factors for cervical cancer?
|
Preinvasive disease
smoking HPV infection Multiple sexual parters Early age of first intercourse Immunosuppression |
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Is there legislation to legalise abortion in NSW?
|
No, relies on common law interpretation of the crimes act or the criminal code act
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What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis (gardnerella vaginalis)?
|
Metronidazole 400mg bd x7days
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What is the earliest age for consent to a surgical abortion?
|
14-16 years, "competant minors" : don't need parental consent for abortions performed in private clinics
= "gillick competancy" |
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What is the treatment for Chlamydia?
|
Azithromycin 1g stat dose OR
Doxycycline 100mg bd x 10days No sex for 10days Treat partners from last 6/12 |
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Cutoff for medical abortion?
|
9 weeks after LMP
Currently 30% of TOPs under 9 weeks gestation are done using a medical method |
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What is the timeframe of post-partum blues?
|
First 10days
(peak 5 days) |
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Timing of surgical abgortion using suction curette?
|
7-15 weeks
|
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What is the timeframe of post-partum depression?
|
First 6 months
(first 90 days greatest risk) |
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Contraindications to mifepristone
|
gestation > 9 weeks
known or suspected ectopic preg adrenal failure coagulation disorder allergy IUD in situ clinical evidence of a pelvic infection |
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Define lie
|
Long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the uterus.
(Transverse or longitudinal) |
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Average duration of bleeding after medical abortion?
|
9-12 days - spotting can last up to 30 days or more and spotting can occur for 30 days or more.
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Define presentation
|
Part of fetus felt on vaginal examination
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How do you see if a medical abortion is complete?
|
abscence of gestational sac on ultrasound is key indicator
|
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Define position
|
The rotational relationship defined by the presenting part as the denominator ie normally cephalic = occiput
(OA, OP, L or R OT |
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When is manual vaccum aspiration done?
|
Up to 10 weeks- flexible cannula used
|
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Define Engagement
|
The station at which the maximum diameter of the presenting part is through the pelvic inlet. If vertex 1/5 palpable above symphsis pubis
|
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Antibiotic prophylaxis prior to a pregnancy termination
|
dox/azithro +/- metronidazole
Chlamydia and BV mostly implicated Screen + treat as well as universal prophylaxis- allows treatment of partener |
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Describe the mechanisms of labour (stages)
|
1. Descent
2. Flexion 3. Internal rotation 4. Crowning 5. Restitution 6. External rotation 7. Lateral flexion |
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What % of TOP's in australai are done in the 2nd trimester?
|
5%, 1% > 20 weeks
|
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What are some common signs of the begining of the second stage of labour?
|
Feeling of wanting to push or have bowels open
Perineal flattening Vaginal gaping Large mucoid show Anal pouting No cervix felt on examination |
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Procedure for a 2nd trimester TOP
|
dilatation (PG- 2/3 hours prior or hygroscopic dilators) and evacuation
|
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What are the common causes of bleeding in early pregnancy?
|
1. Misscariage
2. Ectopic 3. Normal bleeding 4. Non pregnancy related (cancer, trauma, urethra/UTI) |
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When is the risk of a continuing pregnancy after a surgical termination increased?
|
if done at very early gestations
|
|
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What are the treatment options for an ectopic pregnancy?
|
Surgical: Laparoscopy or Laparotomy
Methotrexate IM (if small and stable) |
|
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Incidence of major foetal anomalies
|
affect 2-5% of neonates
account for 20-30% of perinatal deaths |
|
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What is the normal rate of misscariage?
|
1:5
|
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Detection rate of foetal abnormalities on FAS?
|
30-80%
|
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of the progesterone only pill?
|
Viscous, hostile cervical mucous
Atrophic endometrium |
|
|
Major structural abnormalities associated with Down syndrome?
|
30% duodenal artresea, TEF, esophageal atresia- may not be evident until 3rd tm
50% cardiac abnormalities: AVCD, VSD, ASF |
|
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How does depo-provera work?
|
Inhibits ovulation (progestogen containing)
|
|
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First trimester biochemistry and Down syndrome
|
free beta HCG: decreases 10-14 weeks in humans, increased in trisomy 21
PAPP-A: increases between 10-14 weeks, decreased in trisomy 21 |
|
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How long does depo-provera last for ?
|
12 weeks
|
|
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What is abnormal ductus venosus flow associated with at 10-13+6 weeks
|
chromosomal abnormalities
cardiac defects adverse pregnancy outcome abnormal in 80% of Down foetuses and 5% of chromosomally normal ones during this period- reverse flow of A-wave (atrial systole) |
|
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What are the side effects/disadvantages of depo-provera?
|
Change in periods (irregular bleeding, amenorrhea)
Cannot be removed (side effects for 3 months Delay in return of fertility Weight gain Depression Mood swings Headaches Acne Breast tenderness |
|
|
In what age groups do you empyrically give artificial surfctant for RDS?
|
<28 weeks
|
|
|
How long does Implanon last for?
|
3 years
|
|
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What are causes of respiratory distress in the neonate in order of frequency?
|
RDS > TTN > sepsis > mex > asphyxia
|
|
|
How does Implanon work?
|
Inhibits ovulation
Thickens cervical mucous Thinning of endometrium (atrophic) |
|
|
What factors increase risk of transient tachypnoea of the newbown
|
no labour
maternal DM |
|
|
How does the copper IUD work?
|
Impede sperm transport (copper kills sperm)
Blocks fertilization Blocks implantation |
|
|
Time course of TTN?
|
Takes approx 12 hours to resolve
|
|
|
How does the Mirena work?
|
Suppresses endometrium
Thickens cervical mucous (inhibs ovulation in 50%) |
|
|
Management of sepsis in neonate
|
penicillin + gentamycin
|
|
|
At what gestational age is a fetal morphology scan done?
|
18-20 weeks
|
|
|
Management of asphyxia
|
therapeutic hypothermia to 33 degrees- within 6 hours of hypoxia
|
|
|
What is the overall incidence of trisomy 21?
|
1:660
|
|
|
What is the most common congenital heart defect that presents straight after birth?
|
TGA- will need surgery within first 7-10d of life
|
|
|
What is the risk of trisomy 21 with a maternal age of 40years
|
Approx 1:100
|
|
|
Normal pH of vaginal discharge?
|
3-4.5
|
|
|
What is the detection rate of trisomy 21 using free bHCG, PAPPA, NT and age?
|
90%
|
|
|
Normal vaginal flora that is increased by sexual arousal
|
Gardanella
|
|
|
Which anesthetic is commonly used in epidurals?
|
Low conc long acting (bupivacaine aka Marcane)
|
|
|
Normal vaginal flora of pregnancy?
|
staph epidermis
|
|
|
What are the potential complications of epidurals?
|
Dural puncture with post dural puncture headache
Hypotension N/V Shivering Failure Neurological injury Epidural abcess Epidural hematoma |
|
|
Normal vaginal flora on ectropion
|
mycoplasma spp
|
|
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What is the definition of heavy menstral bleeding?
|
>80ml lost per cycle
|
|
|
Normal vaginal flora in atrophic vaginitis?
|
streptococci
|
|
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How many pads or tampons used over a single mentral period is normal?
|
<21 pads/tampons
|
|
|
Why does trichomonas not cause systemic infection?
|
does not invade beyond the superficial layers of the mucosa
|
|
|
What are some causes of heavy menstral bleeding?
|
Uterine causes
- Fibroids, polyps, adenomyosis, dysfunctional uterine bleeding - thyroid, coagulation abnormal. - IUD - Cancer |
|
|
What % of women with trichomonas infection are asymptomatic?
|
50%
symptoms include: frothy green malodorous discharge with high pH, pruritis, dysuria, superficial dyspareunia. Symptoms worse during menses as T. vag is haemophagic |
|
|
What are the treatments available in menorrhagia where sinister abnormality is suspected?
|
IUD
Transexamic acid NSAIDs OCP Depot provera |
|
|
When soes a strawbery cervic occur
|
1/3 of trichomonal infections
|
|
|
What are some common causes of intermenstral bleeding?
|
Polyps
Cancer Fibroids Clotting disorders HPA dysfunction HRT |
|
|
Diagnosis of trichomoniasis?
Management? |
Wet prep (50-80%)
Mx: metronidazole or tindazole treat sexual contacts within the last 30-60days |
|
|
What conditions should be ruled out before a diagnosis of PCOS is made?
|
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- Cushing syndrome - Androgen producing tumors - Hyperprolactemia - Acromegaly |
|
|
Why is vulvovaginal candidiasis less common after menopause?
|
low oestrogen
|
|
|
What is the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?
|
2 of the following 3:
1. S&S of androgen excess (hirsuitism, acne, alopecia) 2. Oligo/amenorrhea 3. Polycystic ovaries |
|
|
What % of women with bacterial vaginosis have symptoms?
|
50%
|
|
|
What are some contradindications to medical termination of pregnancy?
|
1. >9 weeks gestation
2. Known or suspected ectopic 3. Allergy to mifepristone/misoprostol 4. Adrenal failure 5. Hemorrhagic disorder or anticoagulant therapy 6. IUD in place |
|
|
Diagnosis of BV?
|
vaginal smear- posterior fornyx dragging along lateral wall
gram stain/wet prep- polymicrobial (gardanella and mycoplasma often dominate) pH 6 few polymorphs clue cells +VE amine test |
|
|
After medical TOP, how should a pt be counciled regarding side effects and symptoms?
|
N/V
Diarrhea Fever/chills Cramping pain Bleeding for 9-12 days If soaking more than 2 pads/hr for more than 2 hours this is a warning sign |
|
|
What is the amine test
|
add KOH- release volatile amines in presence of anaerobic bacteria
|
|
|
What are some common causes of respiratory distress in newborns?
|
1. RDS
2. TTN 3. Sepsis 4. Mec aspiration 5. Asphyxia (acidosis) |
|
|
What do lactobacilli metabolise?
|
glycogen to lactic acid
|
|
|
What combination of tumor markers produces higher sensitivity/specificity for ovarian cancer?
|
CA -125
HE4 |
|
|
Separation of diamnionic dichorionic trins
|
<4
MCDA: 4-7 MCMA: 7-14 Conjoined: > 14 |
|
|
Name some infections which impact mainly on the fetus
|
TORCH
B19 GBS LIsteria Yersinia |
|
|
What does the twin peaks sign indicate?
|
a dichorionic placenta
|
|
|
Name some infections which impact mainly on the Mother
|
Mastitis
Endometritis Wound infection Perineum Pneumonia |
|
|
Wht % of twins undergo early foetal demise (<14w)
|
singleton- 2%
Twins: 5% 1 demise 24% of which ultutimateky both |
|
|
Name some infections which impact both on the fetus and mother
|
VZV
HBV HCV HIV Chorioamnionitis UTI |
|
|
What does late foetal demise lead to in mono and dichorionic twins?
|
di: preterm delivery, 5-10% death/handicap
mini: 25% neuro handicap hypotension due to haemorrhage from live foetus into dead foetoplacental unit |
|
|
What are some causes of neonatal hypoglycemia?
|
Maternal GDM
Sepsis Hypothyroidism In-borne errors of metabolism IUGR Chorioamnionitis Prematurity |
|
|
Rate of structural abnormalities in minozygotic twins?
|
2-3 x singletons
5-7% |
|
|
What are some common causes of female infertility?
|
Ovulation abnormalities
Endometriosis Pelvic adhesions Cervical pathology Uterine pathology |
|
|
What % of MC twins get twin-twin transfusion?
|
15-30%
connections present in 100% |
|
|
What are some complications associated with placenta previa?
|
1. Hemorrhage
2. Preterm delivery 3. Congenital malformations 4. Malpresentation 5. Placental abruption 6. Endometritis |
|
|
What determines the prognosis of twin-twin transfusion?
|
Survival poorer when progresses to a higher stage over time
1/2 will progress 30% same 20% get to lower stage |
|
|
What is the most common cause of IUGR?
|
Chronic hypertension
|
|
|
What is the current mainstay of manageing twin transfusion syndrome?
|
selective laser abalation of placental anastomoses
Use for stage 2 and above fetoscope- direct visualisation of blood vessels uterine relaxants and antibiotics move PPROM 20%, placental separation 2% Survival of at least 1 twin 70-80% Both 30% |
|
|
What is the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?
|
Pregnancy induced HTN that develops after 20weeks AND
>300mg of proteinuria in 24 hrs |
|
|
Frequency of antenatal visits for twins?
|
2 weekly until 36 weeks then weekly
scans: 26, 30, 34 |
|
|
What are some of the findings in pre-eclampsia?
|
Edema
Proteinuria Rapid weight gain Headache Epigastric abdominal pain Visual disturbances Hyperreflexia Increased Cr Pulmonary edema Elevated LFTs |
|
|
Define postmenopausal bleeding?
|
bleeding from the genital tract 6m or more after menopause
20% risk |
|
|
What are the types of cephalic presentations and what are their diameters?
|
1. Vertex (9.5cm)
2. Deflexed vertex (11.5cm) 3. Brow (13.5cm) 4. Face (9.5cm) |
|
|
Most powerful risk factor endometrial cancer?
|
obesity due to aromatization and unopposed oestrogen
|
|
|
What are some medications which can be used in HTN disease of pregnancy?
|
Hydralazine
Methyldopa Labetalol Nifedipine |
|
|
Metastatic workup for endometrial cancer?
|
CT chest abdomen, pelvis
CA125- sign of peritoneal irritation 80% confined to uterus at diagnosis- mainstay of management is surgical (TAH/BSO with peritoneal cytology) |
|
|
What is HELLP syndrome
|
H- hemolysis
EL - elevated liver enzymes LP - low platelets |
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|
Which patients with endometrial cancer get pelvic lymphadenectomy in addition to TAH/BSO?
|
grade 3, deep invasion, clear cell, serous
|
|
|
What is the reccomended daily intake of folate in a women (with no risk factors) trying to fall pregnant?
|
0.5mg folate daily (at least 3 month prior and 3 months post falling pregnant)
|
|
|
Staging of endometrial cancer?
|
stage 1: disease confined to uterus
stage 2: spread to cervix stage 3: local pelvic spread, noda disease/positive washings stage 4: distant disease/intraperitoneal disease |
|
|
What is the reccomended daily intake of folate in a women with a high risk of neural tube defects, trying to fall pregnant?
|
5mg daily (at least 3 months prior and 3 months post falling pregnant)
|
|
|
What is adjuvant therapy for endometrial cancer?
|
stage 1 and 2 node negative: vaginal brachytherapy
stage 3 and 4: Nodal disease external beam RT Peritoneal disease: chemotherapy: doxorubicin, provera |
|
|
What are some S&S of neonatal withdrawal?
|
High pitched cry
Restlessness Hypertonia Jitterness Tremors Myoclonic jerks Frequent yawning Increased resp rate (>60/min) |
|
|
Managements of patients with endometrial Ca who are unfit for surgery?
|
apparent early stage- pelvic RT
advanced disease- oral provera |
|
|
What is the name of the scale for assessing neonatal withdrawal?
|
Finnegan scale
|
|
|
Management of recurrent endometrial Ca?
|
no prev RT- RT
Prev RT: chemo pelvic exenteration of central local recurrence |
|
|
What is the difference in Complete breech and Frank breech?
|
Complete - Hips and knees flexed
Frank - Hips flexed, knees EXTENDED |
|
|
Follow-up after endometrial cancer
|
3 monthly for 2 years then 4 monthly for 2 years then 6 monthly for 2 years
clinical- no role for routine radiology HRT- after cure and 2 yrs recurrence free (early stage) |
|
|
What dates correspond to the 1st trimester?
|
0-12weeks
|
|
|
Which endometrial cancers allow an attempt at fertility preservation?
|
grade 1 in a patient with PCOS
MRI then high dose provera and serial sampling metastatic disease and late recurrences |
|
|
What dates correspond to the 2nd trimester?
|
13 - 28 weeks
|
|
|
What % of women smoke in pregnancy?
|
10-20% of women
|
|
|
What dates correspond to the 3rd trimester?
|
29weeks-birth (~40)
|
|
|
Effects of smoking on pregnancy outcome?
|
On average babies 200g lighter
dose dependent effect on birthweight- reversible if stop smoking early in the pregnancy Increased impact if smoking >10/d in 3rd TM Increased perinatal morbidity and mortality (PROM, abdruption, preterm delivery, stillbirth and SIDS) Heavy smoking contributes to 13% of infertility |
|
|
What is the average weight range of a neonate born at 40weeks?
|
2.5 kg to 4.0 kg
|
|
|
What % of women cease smoking during pregnancy
|
20-30%
aurgmented and pregnancy-specific intervention helps |
|
|
What are 3 signs of PROM?
|
1. Pooling of vaginal fluid in the posterior fornix
2. +ve Nitrazine test paper pH>6.0-6.5 (normal vag pH is 4.5-6) 3. Ferning on a slide prepared from a thin layer of fluid obtained from vaginal wall. |
|
|
Prevalence of Marijuana use at conception
|
9-20%
Most women obsrain once preg confirmed; 2-3% continue 1st TM cessation leads to severe n+v |
|
|
What is the cause of symmetric IUGR?
|
Usually secondary to an early gestational insult
|
|
|
Is binge drinking or chronic daily ingestion of alcohol worse for foetal outcome?
|
binge
i.e. 5 at once worse than 1/d |
|
|
What is the normal range of the menstral cycle?
|
21 to 35 days
|
|
|
By how much do you limit caffeine in pregnancy?
|
<2 cups or 250mg/d
|
|
|
What is the prevalence of the post-partum blues?
|
70%
|
|
|
Risk of BMI <17
|
LBW infants
|
|
|
What is the prevalence of the post-partum depression?
|
10-15%
|
|
|
Define advanced maternal age
|
>35 at time of delivery
|
|
|
What is the prevalence of the peurperal psychosis?
|
0.1%
|
|
|
Epidemiology of urinary incontinence in females
|
increases with age
30% in community 10% have a significant effect on QOL 1 millian women in australia |
|
|
What is the maternal death rate in Australia?
|
10:10,000
|
|
|
Initial assessment of urinary incontinence
|
history
exam MSU bladder diary |
|
|
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
1. Cardiac output 2. Blood pressure (initially) 3. Stroke volume |
1. CO - Increases 40%
2. BP - Decrease slightly 3. SV - Increases (10-30%) |
|
|
Do symptoms alone reflect the cause of lower urinary tract dysfunction?
|
not always
even if only symptom is stress incontinence, 5% will have detrusot overactivity as cause |
|
|
In neonatal resus. what should the rate of chest compression be per minute?
|
Ratio of 3 compressions to 1 breath
90 compressions/ minute 30 breaths/minute |
|
|
What are the indications for urodynamics?
|
complex symptomatology
fail to respond to first line treatment prior to surgical intervention when pain is part of symptomatology |
|
|
What are the stages in the progression of lochia?
|
1. Lochia rubra
2. Lochia serosa 3. Lochia alba |
|
|
Commonest cause of female incontinence
|
urodynamic stress incontinence
affects 5-15% of women usually a result of childbirth may respond to conservative management but mod-secere only cured by surgery |
|
|
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
Respiratory 1. RV 2. ERV 3. FRC 4. TV |
1. RV - decreases
2. ERV - decreases 3. FRC - decreases 4. TV - Increases |
|
|
Gold standard for management of urodynamic stress incontinence
|
Mid urethral sling/tapes
85-90% cure mesh replaces pubourethral lig short hospitallisation |
|
|
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
Renal 1. Renal plasma flow 2. BUN 3. Cr 4. GFR |
1. RPF - increase
2. BUN - decrease 3. Cr - decrease 4. GFR - increases by 40% |
|
|
Meds for overactive bladder
|
ditropan- oxybutinin
imipramine start low dose, slowly increase manu can be taken intermittently take anticholinetrgics and do bladder training other: solfenacin, intravesical botoc |
|
|
In a sperm count what is considered normal:
1. Number/ml 2. Motility % 3. Volume 4. Morphology % 5. pH 6. WBC |
1. Number/ml
>20million/ml 2. Motility % >50% adequate motion 3. Volume 2-5ml 4. Morphology % 30% normal forms 5. pH 7.2 - 7.8 6. WBC <10^6 WBC/ml |
|
|
Strongest risk factor for uterine prolapse?
|
Childbirth: disruption of tissue and denervation of pelvic floor
Avulsion of puborectalis: 20% 1st deliv, risk doubled by forceps deliv and increases with maternal age. Increases probability of prolapse by 70%. |
|
|
Why is pregnancy a hypercoagulable state?
|
1. Protein S decreases
2. Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI) increases 3. Fibrinogen increases |
|
|
Pudendal nerve denervation
|
reversible in 60%
more common after forceps related to: kength of 2nd stage, parity, birthweight Occurs after vaginal but not after abdominal delivery |
|
|
Does ovarian forsion occur more often on the right or the left?
|
slightly more often on the right
|
|
|
What increases the risk of ovarian torsion?
|
pathologic enlargement of the ovary
Most torsion occurs in ovaries measuring 6-10cm |
|
|
How do you diagnose an ovarian torsion?
|
Doppler ultrasound: 100% will have abscence of venous flow on doppler (sensitive), >70% will have a cystic/solid adnexal mass
MRI/CT: limited value when doppler is non-diagnostic If suspect diagnosis go to laparoscopy |
|
|
Where is the pain felt with an adnexal mass
|
originates in the iliac fossa and radiates to the flank
|
|
|
What are ultrasound findings indicative of malignancy in an ovarian mass?
|
solid component that is not hypoechoic and is nodular/papillary
thick septations (>2-3mm) Doppler flow in solid component Ascites (any in post menopausal, small amount of fluid in premenopausal may be normal) Peritoneal masses |
|
|
Which postmenopausal women with an ovarian cyst may undergo expectant management?
|
asymptomatic, normal pelvic exam, normal CA125
5cm commonly used as threshold: >5cm--> meed exploratory surgery |
|
|
What % of ovarian masses found incidentally in women >50 are malignant?
|
50%
|
|
|
What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?
|
65% epithelial
risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, caucasian, family history OCP, tubal ligation, pregnancy is protective tend to present when advanced: |
|
|
Are ovarian masses managed with cystectomy or oophorectomy?
|
depends on age, size of cyst, ease of removal
older women tend to go for oophorectomy laparoscopy may not provide sufficient staging and risk of rupturing cyst- so laparotomy preferred (gynae oncologist makes this decision) |
|
|
Where is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy?
|
fallopian tube (98%): 70% of these are ampullary
|
|
|
What is the prevalence of ectopic pregnancy among women who go to ED in first trimester of prenancy?
|
6-16%
|
|
|
Chance of recurrance of ectopic prenancy after 1?
|
15%
|
|
|
Classic triad of ectopic prenancy?
|
amenorrhea
abdominal pain vaginal bleeding |
|
|
When is methotrexate appropriate for the management of ectopic pregnancy?
|
<3.5cm, unruptured, without actuve bleeding, no foetal heart tones
no hepatic, renal, haematogenous disease |
|
|
Treatment of fibroids (indications)
|
Only if symptomatic, rapidly enlarging or menorrhagia
|
more likely to mx conservatively if sx minimal or absent
<6-8cm not submucosal |
|
Treatment of fibroids (medical and surgical)`
|
medical (antiprostiglandins, tranexamic acid), OCP/depo provera
GnRH agonist to shrink prior to sur |
|
|
Cause of prolonged latent phase?
|
o Is idiopathic
o More common in primigravidae Cervix remains ‘unfavourable’ There is rarely a serious cause: May lead to maternal exhaustion from discomfort over a number of days |
|
|
Management of prolonged latent phase?
|
o If possible, resist intervening to speed things up (eg by rupturing membranes/administering oxytocics) as this may increase risk of further obstetric intervention in what might have been an uneventful labour
|
|
|
Describe incoordinate uterine contraction?
|
o Normal contraction begins at a pacemaker point close to junction of uterus and fallopian tube (ie. near fundus) and spreads downwards. Maximal intensity is at fundus, where the muscle is thickest, intermediate at the mid-zone, and least at lower segment.
o Incoordinate contractions have maximal intensity at lower segment and weakest at the fundus. This is inefficient. |
Resting tone is increased throughout so threshold for pain is reached earlier in the contraction
|
|
Causes of incoordinate uterine contractions?
|
No known specific cause
More common in primigravidae Uterine activity may improve as the cervix dilates Many cases resolve spontaneously with time (contractions get better as labour goes on) |
Cephalopelvic disproportion is associated w incoordinate contractions, possibly because the presenting part isn’t well applied to the cervix to dilate it.
|
|
Who gets syntocin in incoordinate uterine contractions?
|
Used in primigravidae
Use with caution in multipara IV infusion, titrating to achieve 3-4 contractions every 10 min VE every 2-3 hours to ensure adequate progress |
Not used if:
Suspected foetal distress Membranes not ruptured Cephalopelvic disproportion is suspected/there is malpresentation |
|
Cause of obstructed labour?
Difference between true and relative? |
(head too big/pelvis too small)
Diagnosed only if the head doesn’t become engaged despite adequate uterine activity Not possible to predict accurately antenatally – many considered to be at risk on u/s have a normal vaginal delivery Very unlikely if mother has had a previous vaginal delivery |
Relative: o Occurs with malposition, especially occipitoposterior position of head (rather than occipitoanterior). This may lead to slower first and second stage but spontaneous delivery, or may lead to secondary arrest.
|
|
Major determinant of sucessful delivery?
|
The size and shape of the pelvic inlet is the major determinant of successful delivery
|
Gynaecoid shape is most common and is obstetrically ideal. Anthropoid (long oval) is relatively common and associated with occipitoposterior presentation.
Platypelloid (flat brimmed) and android (triangular) are minor variations associated with poor nutrition in infancy and childhood. |
|
How do you assess for the cause of secondary phase arrest?
|
Strength of contractions is difficult to assess but observation of mother and abdominal palpation help
Vaginal examination: Assessment of position and presentation to look for malpresentation or malposition |
Caput and moulding suggest cephalopelvic disproportion
|
|
When can instrumental delivery be performed?
|
Can be performed in 2nd stage only
|
|
|
Criteria for instrumental delivery?
|
• Cervix fully dilated and membranes ruptured
Head at station 0 or below, with no head palpable abdominally Position of the head knownBladder empty Analgesia satisfactory |
|
|
Medical management of fibroids
|
(generally poor response)
GnRH analogues shrink fibroids, but regrow on cessation of Rx. Causes hypo-oestrogenism hot flushes & bone loss |
|
|
Surgical management of fibroids
|
Hysteroscopic resection – for small submucous fibroids
Myomectomy (open/lap) – if larger and wish to retain fertility Adjuvant GnRH analogues reduce bleeding risk. Hysterectomy |
Uterine artery embolization: healthy myometrium revascularises immediately by collaterals, while fibroids shrink by ~50% (sustained effect). Considerations: very painful (requires opiates), possible infection, fibroid expulsion, deaths rare.
Malignant – specific to cause |
|
Management of primary dysmenorrhea
|
Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors (NSAIDs) reduce PGF2α production
Combined OCP suppress ovulation and very effective Depot progestogens suppress ovulation and may be useful Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS; “Mirena”) reduce blood loss and dysmenorrhoea. May be difficult to insert in women who have not been pregnant. |
|
|
Causes of amenorrhea?
|
Physiological
Ovulatory disorders (25%) Other disorders Congenital Medications (hormones, antidepressants, corticosteroids, chemo) Endometriosis (15%) Pelvic adhesions (12%) Surgery or nontubal disease (appendicitis) Pelvic TB Tubal blockage (11%) Other tubal abnormalities (11%) Hyperprolactinemia (7%) |
Male factors
Idiopathic (45%) |
|
What is the most common ovarian tumour aged 10-30?
|
Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) – benign germ cell tumor;
XR: calcification; US: complex cyst. Blilateral in ~10%. |
|
|
Aetiology of postmenopausal bleeding?
|
Atrophy (59%)
Polyps (12%) Endometrial cancer (10%) Endometrial hyperplasia (10%) Hormonal effect (7%) Cervical cancer (<1%) Other (eg, hydrometra, pyometra, hematometra: 2%) |
|
|
Types of ovarian cancer?
|
Serous (70%) – commonly bilateral, CA-125 usually markedly elevated.
Mucinous (5-10%) – commonly unilateral, large and low grade. Endometrioid (20%) – assoc with endometriosis, 1/5 have assoc endometrial Ca. Clear cell – assoc with endometriosis, usu. confined to ovary at Dx. CA-125 often normal. |
|
|
How useful is Ca125 in testing for ovarian cencer?
|
Over 90% of advanced ovarian cancers have CA-125
50% of stage 1 ovarian cancers will have a normal CA-125 |
|
|
What are the high risk populations you screen for ovarian cancer?
What screening is done? |
1st degree relative with ovarian cancer, Ashkenazi Jews, known mutation – BRCA1 BRCA2 or HNPCC
|
The current recommendation is 6–12 monthly CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound.
bilateral salphingo-oophorectomy is the most effective risk reducing strategy In BRCA carriers it also reduces risk of BrCa by 50%. In HNPCC carriers should include hysterectomy (50% risk of endometrial Ca). |
|
Options after finding CIN2/3 on colposcopy?
|
LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) [same as LETZ (loop excision of the transformation zone)]. Risk of preterm delivery.
|
Cone biopsy (cold knife conisation) for women with suspected microinvasion, and suspected adenocarcinoma in situ (risk of cervical incompetence and very preterm delivery).
|
|
Staging of cervical cancer?
|
0: CIN
I: Growth into the deeper cervical tissues, but no further. |
II: Spread outside the cervix to surrounding tissues.
IIA: Upper 1/3 vagina IIB: Upper 2/3 vagina + parametrial disease III: Spread further away from the area surrounding the cervix. IV: Advanced spread to organs other than cervix and uterus. |
|
Management of cervical cancer by stage?
|
1A1– local excision (cone) or simple hysterectomy
IA2 – simple hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy; |
IB and IIA – radical hysterectomy or radiotherapy; ≥IIB – radiotherapy+ chemotherapy
|
|
Hx in ovarian cancer (in order of prevalence)
|
abdo swelling
pain, anorexia, N&V, weight loss, abnormal vaginal bleeding, frequency. |
Physical exam: pelvic mass, abdo mass, ascites, pleural effusion, hepatomegaly, cervical lymphadenopathy
|
|
Management of ovarian cancer?
|
Rx: radical surgical debulking (usually hysterectomy and bilateral oopherectomy) followed by platinum-based chemotherapy (cisplatin or carboplatin)
|
Chemo for all ovarian cancer unless well differentiated IA. Late presentation is common, so Rx is often palliative.
|
|
Prevalence and presenting sx of fallopian tube carcinoma?
|
Very rare tumor (<1.0% of female genital tract cancer); mean age 55. More likely than ovarian Ca to present early.
|
Hx/PE: Presentation often nonspecific. The most common symptom is vaginal discharge or bleeding. Classic triad (though rarely present): watery vaginal discharge (hydrops tubae profluens), pelvic mass, and pelvic pain (may be colicky). Ascites may be present in advanced disease.
|
|
What should you avoid doing for 24 hours after a culposcopy?
|
douche
use tampons use vaginal medications have sex |
|
|
What are the two types of anterior prolapse?
i.e. cystocele more likely to0 have voiding and storage sx/urinary retention |
Urethrocele - prolapse of the urethra into the vaginal wall causing a bulbous swelling to appear in the vagina, particularly on straining. Associated with previous childbirth. Rx: surgical repair to remove laxity and better support to the urethra and the vaginal wall.
|
Cystocele – prolapse of the base of the bladder in women; usually due postpartum pelvic floor weakness, causing bulging of the anterior wall on straining. When accompanied by stress incontinence of urine, surgical repair (anterior colporrhaphy) is indicated.
|
|
What does a rectocele cause
|
constipation
may need straining/digitation to evacuate stool |
Manage with a posterior repair
|
|
Stages of uterine prolapse?
|
1st degree – descent of the cervix within the vagina
2nd degree – descent of the cervix to the level of the introitus 3rd degree – protrusion of the cervix through the vagina |
Procidenta – cervix, uterus and vaginal wall completely prolapsed through the introitus
|
|
Absolute contraindications to the OCP?
|
•< 6 wks postpartum
•smoker over the age of 35 (>15 cigarettes per day) •hypertension (systolic > 160mmHg or diastolic > 100mmHg) |
•current of past histroy of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
•ischemic heart disease •history of cerebrovascular accident •complicated valvular heart disease •migraine headache with focal neurological symptoms •breast cancer (current) •diabetes with retinopathy/nephropathy/neuropathy •severe cirrhosis, liver tumour (adenoma or hepatoma |
|
What are some relative contraindications to the OCP?
|
•smoker over the age of 35 (< 15 cigarettes per day)
•adequately controlled hypertension •hypertension (systolic 140 - 159mmHg or diastolic 90 - 99mmHg) •migrain headache over the age of 35 •currently symptomatic gallbladder disease •mild cirrhosis |
•history of combined OCP-related cholestasis
•users of medications that may interfere with OCP metabolism |
|
Contraindications to progesterone only contraception
|
Breast cancer (current or recent)
Advise against in situations with increased VTE/PE risk – SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome, BMI>30, <3wks postpartum Avoid in unexplained vaginal bleeding |
|
|
Dosing of emergency contraception?
|
Single oral dose of 1.5 mg (same SE profile as split dose)
Repeat the dose if vomiting occurs within 2 h |
SEs: nausea, vomiting, breast tenderness, vaginal bleeding, headache.
|
|
o >24 hours late taking an active pill, or if you have severe vomiting or diarrhoea for more than 24 hours?
|
if you are late taking an active pill take it as soon as you remember and take the next pill at the usual time (this may mean taking 2 pills on the same day or at the same time)
continue with the daily pill and use another contraceptive method until you have taken active pills for 7 days in a row |
|
|
What do you do if you miss your POP?
|
3 hours late taking a pill: take it immediately; contraception should not be affected.
|
>3 hours late taking a pill, or if you have severe vomiting or diarrhoea, the pill will not be as effective:
take it as soon as you remember and take the next pill at the usual time (this may mean taking 2 pills on the same day or at the same time) continue with the daily pill and use another contraceptive method for the next 48 hours |
|
Success rates of medical abortion?
|
95% have complete expulsion
5% require surgical evacuation (other medical Rx options are higher) |
|
|
When is suction curetage used until?
|
14-15 wks
|
failure: 2-3 in 1,000 (higher before 7 wks)
infection up to 10% (usually minor), less with “screen and treat” policy or prophylactic antibiotics |
|
When is manual vacum evacuation used?
|
surgical method used in first trimester, especially prior to 7 weeks
lower failure rate than suction curettage for very early terminations similar side effects and complication rates to suction curettage |
|
|
What do you do to get an abortion after 20 weeks?
|
There is an obligation to refer a case to a termination review committee (ethics committee) The committee is there to provide advice, and while its judgement is not binding, going contrary to the committee’s advice has not been tested legally.
|
Requires induction of labour
potential for the delivery of a live foetus following a medical termination of pregnancy increases as gestation advance, therefore consider feticide by intra-cardiac KCl or digoxin injection for non-lethal anomalies at ≥22 wks. |
|
Define miscarriage?
|
pregnancy loss before 24wks (WHO defines as loss when <500g)
|
|
|
How common is miscarriage in the antiphospholipid syndrome?
|
15% of recurrent miscarriage
Subsequent miscarriage rate 90%; if low-dose aspirin from 1st +ve pregnancy test, reduced to 30%. Complications: thrombocytopaenia, pre-eclampsia, IUGR and arterial or venous thrombosis |
|
|
Most co0mmon features of ectopic pregnancy?
|
pain is most common
others include: amenorrhea, PV bleeding |
|
|
How long does it take for the uterus to involute?
When is it no longer palpable? |
Involutes over next 6 weeks. No longer palpable above symphysis pubis after day 10-14
|
Palpable at umbilicus after 3rd stage of labour
Fundal height reduces by about a finger’s breadth per day |
|
Descrive the 3 kinds of lochia?
|
Red first 3-4 days. Brownish pink 3rd-12th day. Thrombosed vessels become organised
Yellow/white after 12th |
|
|
When is HPL and beta HCG no longer detectable
|
HPL: 2d
Beta HCG: 10d |
|
|
When do E and P reach non-pregnant levels?
|
day 7
|
|
|
Prevalence of postnatal anaemia?
|
25-30%
|
Constipation (20% of women in puerperium) may be due to: fear of defecation after perineal trauma, reduced mobility, codeine, iron supplements
Haemorrhoids (20% of women): more common in primiparous women and instrumental delivery. Often persist for some time after birth |
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What % of women experience incontinence in the puerpurum?
|
o 10% experience incontinence (usually stress incontinence). In most women it resolves in a few weeks. Pelvic floor exercises help
|
Back pain: Affects 25% of puerperal women. Over half also had back pain during the pregnancy.
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Timecourse of postpartum psychotic depression?
|
Begins around day 3-7 and peaks at 2 weeks
|
15% have recurrence in subsequent pregnancy. 1/3-1/2 develop a non-puerperal psychosis
|
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Main benefits of HRT?
|
hot flushes
urogenital symptoms sleep problems osteoporotic fracture colorectal cancer (combined HRT) |
|
|
Risks of HRT?
|
DVT, PE
stroke breast cancer (combined HRT) endometrial cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) ovarian cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) |
|
|
Absolute contraindications to HRT?
|
acute liver disease
undiagnosed vaginal bleeding cancer thromboembolism |
|
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Adverse effects of HRT
|
HRT increases the risk of:
DVT, PE stroke breast cancer (combined HRT) endometrial cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) ovarian cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) |
HRT does not appear to affect:
weight gain headache, migraine breast cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) colorectal cancer (oestrogen-only HRT) |
|
Epidemiology of gestational tophoblastic disease?
|
1/1000 preg
Geohraphic variation (1/125 in Taiwan) Increased |
80% benign
15% locally invasive 5% metastatic cure rate > 95% |
|
What is a complete mole?
|
diffuse trophoblastic tissue, swollen villi, no foetal tissue
most common 46XX or 46YY: 90% paternal origin 2 sperm fertilize 1 egg or one sperm with reduplication |
15-20% preogression to malignant sequillae
|
|
Presentation of molar preg
|
Vaginal bleeding 97%
excessive uterine size for LMP theca lutein cyst pre-eclampsia hyperemesis hyperthyroid beta HCG >100000 no foetal heart detected |
Partial mole typically presents similar to threatened/spontaneous/missed abortion
pathological diagnosis often made after D&C |
|
What is a partial mole?
|
hydropic villi and focal trophoblastic hyperplasia are associated with foetus or foetal parts
often triploid (XXY, XYY, XXX) with chromosome complement from both parents |
usually due to single ovum fertillized by 2 sperm
<4% (low) risk of malignant progression foetus: growth restricted, multiple congenital abnormalities |
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What are features of molar pregnancies that are at high risk of developing persistent GTN?
|
local uterine invasion 31%
beta hcg> 100000 excessive uterine size promenant theca lutein cysts |
follow up with serial beta HCG weekly until negative x3 then monthly for 6-12m
increase or plateu--> GTN (needs chemo) |
|
What are the types of GTN?
|
invasive mole or persistent GTN (4% mets)
choriocarcinoma: often present with sc of mets (may follow normal pregnancy, abortion or ectopic) placental site trophoblastic tumour |
placental site trophoblastic: rare, aggresive GTN
abnormal growth of intermediate throphoblastic cells low beta HCG, high HPL relatively insenitive to chemo |
|
Do you biopsy GTN mets?
Management of GTN? |
no, they bleed
manage with chemo for all stages, follow up for 1 year after beta hcg returns to normal (stg 4 2 years) |
most common = lungs (80%)
also vagina, pelvis, liver, brain brain mets: CSF beta HCG |
|
Size of premenopausal and postmenopausal ovary?
|
premenopausal 6-8cm3
postmenopausal 3cm3 |
|
|
80% of ovarian cancers are...
|
epithelial
|
80% of ovarian cancer
• 2 diagnosed each day • 3 women die each day • Traditional model: arise ovarian surface epithelium ( tubal epithelium…serous peritoneal cancers) •Middle & upper classes • Industrialized countries • Disease of elderly |
|
Germ cell cancers
|
young
dysgerminoma fertility sparing surgery chemo in most LDH AFP ß hCG |
|
|
Sex cord and stromal ovarian cancer
|
5%
old and young unilateral granulosa cell |
E FSH LH Inhibin Testosterone
Manage with THBSO |
|
Age at diagnosis of ovarian cancer?
|
9% < 40 years
21% < 50 years |
Ovarian cancer disease of older women
Risk malignancy increases 12 fold from ages 20-29 to 60-69 Overall risk of malignancy in an adnexal mass: Premenopausal women 6-11%; Postmenopausal woman 33-56% |
|
Why should laparoscopy NOT form part of the pre-op workup for ovarian ca?
|
A smooth walled external
surface does not equal benign An irregular surface not equal cancer |
|
|
CA125
|
Sensitive but not specific
• Elevated in 80% non-mucinous ovarian cancers • Elevated in only 50% stage I cancers |
|
|
CA19.9
|
• 76% of mucinous and 27% serous carcinomas of ovary
• Lower sensitivity & specificity than CA-125 in ovarian tumour |
CEA
• Elevated in 37% mucinous ovarian cancers |
|
HE4
|
• Elevated in majority of ovarian carcinomas that produce CA125
as well as 50% that do not • Not elevated in many common benign conditions |
Also expressed in lung adenocarcinomas,
breast and some pancreaticobiliary carcinomas |
|
Role of CT scanning in ovarian Ca
|
•Limited role
• Delineation of internal morphology poor • Findings correlate poorly with pathology • Useful to investigate upper abdomen: omental disease, diaphragm disease |
|
|
What is the risk of malignancy index>
|
RMI=U x M x CA-125
RMI > 200--> refer to Gynae oncology |
u = 0 if ultrasound score 0
1 if 1 3 if 2-5 multilocular/solid/bilateral/ascites/intra-abdominal mets |
|
Ovarian mass in pregnancy?
|
1:1000 pregnancies ovarian tumour
• 3-6% malignant •Markers may not be helpful • MRI |
Germ cell, borderline, sex cord 70%
Majority dermoids, cystadenomas, functional cysts |
|
What kind of postmenopausal ovarian cyst is unlikely to be malignant?
|
< 3-5cm
|
|
|
When do dermoids get ruptured and why is this a problem?
|
1-2% risk of malignancy
•Increased with increasing age Reported spillage 100% laparoscopy vs 4% laparotomy |
|
|
Major factor for initiating menarche?
follows peak heigh velocity or 2 years following breast budding |
When menarche occurs before the individual reaches the age of 12 years, it is associated with increases in weight and body mass index Genetics accounts for the majority of the variability; other factors include overall health, social environment (such as family stress or the presence of an adult nonbiologically-related male), and possibly environmental exposures, such as endocrine disruptors (environmental contaminants that may affect endocrine processes)
|
The earliest secondary sexual characteristic in most girls is breast/areolar development (thelarche) (picture 2A), although a substantial minority have pubic hair as the initial manifestation
|
|
Gold standard for diagnosis of endometriosis?
|
The optimal way to diagnose endometriosis is by direct visualization of the implant(s)
|
If the diagnostic impression is most consistent with endometriosis after a complete initial evaluation, then most experts consider empiric medical therapy without surgical confirmation a safe and effective approach. However, a satisfactory response to empiric treatment cannot be construed as definitive confirmation or exclusion of the diagnosis. Options include a three-month trial of combined continuous oral contraceptive pills or a GnRH agonist.
|
|
Normal semen analysis?
|
•Volume — 1.5 mL
•Sperm concentration — 15 million spermatozoa/mL •Total sperm number— 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate •Morphology — 4 percent normal forms •Vitality — 58 percent live •Progressive motility — 32 percent •Total (progressive + nonprogressive motility) — 40 percent |
toronto: vol 2-5ml
count 20million/ml motility: 50% forward morphology >30% normal abscence of pyospermia, hyperviscosity, agglutination |
|
14 weeks pregnant. 3 pregnancies in 4 years. Blood test results where given
|
(answer was Iron Def anaemia)
|
|
|
Diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy
|
answer was >1500 HCG and lack of intrauterine gestational sack on vaginal ultrasound.
|
|
|
Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum
|
ETN is characterized by multiple erythematous macules and papules (1 to 3 mm in diameter) that rapidly progress to pustules on an erythematous base
|
Wright-stained smear of the contents of a pustule that demonstrates numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils
|
|
MILIA
|
Milia are white papules caused by retention of keratin and sebaceous material in the pilaceous follicles. They are frequently found on the nose and cheeks, and resolve in the first few weeks of life.
|
|
|
NEONATAL ACNE
|
Neonatal acne may be present at birth, or develop over the first 2-4 weeks of life.
|
The condition consists of pustules over the cheeks primarily, but also involves other areas of the face and the scalp. As opposed to infantile acne (which develops after 2 months) and acne of adolescence, there are no comedomes in the neonatal form.
|
|
Miliara
|
Accum of sweat beneath eccrine sweat ducts that are obstructed by keratin at the level of the stratum corneum.
|
|
|
Sucking blisters
|
Congenital sucking blisters, a diagnosis of exclusion, are noninflammatory oval, thick-walled vesicles or bullae that contain sterile fluid [28]. The lesions may be unilateral or bilateral and typically are located on the dorsal or radial aspect of the wrists, hands, or fingers of neonates who are noted to suck excessively at the involved regions
|
|
|
Mongolian spots
|
Mongolian spots typically appear as congenital blue-grey pigmented macules with indefinite borders, although they can also be greenish-blue or brown
|
Fade in first decade of life
common in asian infants |
|
Treatment of pain in endometriosis
|
Mild: NSAIDS, OCP if need contraception
Mod: if above do not work: GnRH agonist if want to avoid bmd loss:progestin |
if v. severe/advanced: surgical therapy +/- medical maintenance
|
|
Treatment of pelvic mass in endometriosis
|
Therefore, surgery is the preferred therapeutic approach.
|
|
|
Treatment of deep endometriosis
|
surgical rather than medical therapy for pelvic pain, dyscopesis, dyspareunia
|
|
|
Baby poor feeding, hypothermic (35.9), cool, mottled- what do you do?
|
these are signs of hypothyroidism (prolonged jaundice, delayed passage of stools, hypothermia, poor tine, mottled skin, poor feeding) – screening should be repeated even if the original screening result was normal. Screening programs miss some cases of ceongenital hypothyroidism as a result of early discharge, lab errors improper or no specimen collection, hospital transfers, sick neonates, prematurity, low birth weights and home deliveries.
|
|
|
Maternal Mortality statistics
|
1 in 10,000 (they had 10 in 100,000 so this was correct)
|
|
|
Apgar scoring
|
Appearance: Blue or white- Acrocyanosis- Pink
Pulse: absent, <100, >100 Grimace: absent, grimace of beeble cry, cry |
Activity/tone: floppy/some flexion/moving
respiration: Absent-Weak/irregular/gasping-Cry |
|
Let down reflex
|
Nerve impulses from sucking reach hypothalamus stimulate posterior pituitary to release oxytocin stimulates myoepithelial cells surrounding alveoli to contract milk is ejected from alveoli and small ducts to flow to large ducts and nipple
Negative emotional and physical factors can reduce the letdown reflex |
|
|
Breat feeding with hep C, hep B , HIV
|
Hep C: yes: • Overall – risk of Hepatitis C Virus via breastfeeding is very low (lower than for HIV)
• No effective preventive therapies (IG or vaccine) exist • Current position – no data exist that indicate that HCV is transmitted through breast milk The infants should be tested at 3 months and 12-15 months of age for HCV status |
|
|
PROM – which is correct:
|
an option was Antibiotics delay the onset of labour (this is correct im pretty sure)
|
HIV UN Recommendation: No (in developed countries)
Hep B Yes (vaccinate and Ig) |
|
Baby poor feeding, hypothermic (35.9), cool, mottled- what do you do?
|
these are signs of hypothyroidism (prolonged jaundice, delayed passage of stools, hypothermia, poor tine, mottled skin, poor feeding) – screening should be repeated even if the original screening result was normal. Screening programs miss some cases of ceongenital hypothyroidism as a result of early discharge, lab errors improper or no specimen collection, hospital transfers, sick neonates, prematurity, low birth weights and home deliveries.
|
|
|
Maternal Mortality statistics
|
1 in 10,000 (they had 10 in 100,000 so this was correct)
|
|
|
Apgar scoring
|
Appearance: Blue or white- Acrocyanosis- Pink
Pulse: absent, <100, >100 Grimace: absent, grimace of beeble cry, cry |
Activity/tone: floppy/some flexion/moving
respiration: Absent-Weak/irregular/gasping-Cry |
|
Let down reflex
|
Nerve impulses from sucking reach hypothalamus stimulate posterior pituitary to release oxytocin stimulates myoepithelial cells surrounding alveoli to contract milk is ejected from alveoli and small ducts to flow to large ducts and nipple
Negative emotional and physical factors can reduce the letdown reflex |
|
|
Breat feeding with hep C, hep B , HIV
|
Hep C: yes: • Overall – risk of Hepatitis C Virus via breastfeeding is very low (lower than for HIV)
• No effective preventive therapies (IG or vaccine) exist • Current position – no data exist that indicate that HCV is transmitted through breast milk The infants should be tested at 3 months and 12-15 months of age for HCV status |
|
|
PROM – which is correct:
|
an option was Antibiotics delay the onset of labour (this is correct im pretty sure)
|
HIV UN Recommendation: No (in developed countries)
Hep B Yes (vaccinate and Ig) |