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360 Cards in this Set

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What is the name of the newborn screening test?
Guthrie test
Define heavy menstrual bleeding
excessive or prolonged mesntruation
>80ml/cycle (average is 35ml/cycle)
What does the newborn screening test, test for?
CF
PKU
Galactosemia
Congenital hypothryoidism
Amino acid disorder
Fatty acid metabolism disorders
Incidence of heavy menstrual bleeding?
10% of women
What are two factors which can invalidate the results of the newborn screening test?
Antibiotics
Lack of enteral feeding
Cause of heavy menstrual bleeding in hepatic and renal failure:
hepatic: decreased synthesis of coag factors and sex steroids
renal: excess estrogens
List the benefits of the OCP?
1. Decreases menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
2. Acne
3. Ovarian and endometrial CA
4. PID
5. Regulation of menstral cycle
6. Benign cystic breast disease
7. Endometriosis
8. Contraception
Normal frequency of changing pads/tampons in heaviest flow
<2/hr
<21 whole time
clots <2.5cm
anemia also a signal of HMB
List the side effects of the OCP?
1. DVT
2. PE/Stroke
3. Hypertension
4. Weight gain
5. Nausea
6. Decreases libido
Which patients with HMB get tested for coag disorders?
if HMB since menarche or family hx
What are some types of emergency contraception?
1. Combo pill (100ug estrogen+0.75mg levonorgestrel) 2 doses 12 hrs apart
2. Progestin only (levonorgestrel 2 doses 12 hrs apart)
3. Mifepristone (abortifacent)
4. IUD
Indications for ultrasound in HMB?
uterus palpable abdominally
vaginal exam reveals a pelvic mass
pharmaceutical treatment fails
before IUS insertion
What are the major fetal complications of multiple gestations?
1. increased mortality (5-10x higher)
2. prematurity
3. Twin-twin transfusion
4. Cord accidents (twisting)
5. Conjoined twins
6. IUGR
7. Low birth weight
8. Operative delivery
9. Placenta previa/abruption more common
Indications for endometrial biopsy in heavy menstrual bleeding
if >40
persistent intermenstual bleeding
at risk of endometrial hyperplasia
treatment failure
In postmenopausal, abnormal uterine bleeding is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise (10% have malignancy: 8% endometrial Ca, others cervical, ovarian or secondary)
What is the name of the drug which is given to stimulate ovulation in infertility (esp in PCOS)
Clomiphene
Indication for gynae referral < 40 years in the setting of heavy menstrual bleeding
all intermenstrual/postcoital
at risk of endometrial hyperplasia

most common abnormality found on hysteroscopy = fibroid> polyo
What are the major maternal complications of multiple gestations?
1. HTN
2. PPH
3. Pre-eclampsia
Management of HMB if no structural cause is suspected?
myrena first line
2nd line: tranexamic acid, nsaids, ocp
3rd line: progestogens day 5-26/depo
What are the most common infectious agents in mastitis?
1. Staph aureus
2. Streptococcus species
Mean blood loss reduction by common treatments for heavy menstrual bleedding
IUS: >90%
tranexamic acid 40%
OCP slightly less than 40%
NSAIDS 30%
Progestogen 80%
What is the treatment for mastitis?
1. Continue breast feeding or pumping
2. Warm, moist heat
3. NSAIDs
4. Dicloxacillin
5. Surgical drainage in the case of breast abscess
What medical treatments are not recommended for heavy menstrual bleeding
oral progestogens in the luteal phase
danazol
What are the benefits of breast feeding?
1. Maternal-fetal bonding
2. IgA
3. Decreases PPH (uterus contraction)
4. Economical
5. Ideal solute load for kidneys
6. ?prevent diabetes?
7. Contraception
8. Decreases risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer
9. Decreased AOM in baby
10. Decreased SIDS
11. Get to know baby quicker
12. Decreases infections (esp GI)
13. lower antigenicity than cows milk (cow's milk protein allergy or eczema)
Criteria to be eligeble for endometrial abalation?
woman does not want to conceive
suitable normal uterus or fibrpid <3cm
newer technique preferable e.g. baloon, thermoabalation
80-90% amenorrghea
What are the risk/complications of breast feeding?
1. Infection transfer (HIV)
2. Difficult to quantify amount of each feed
3. NO Vit D or Fe
4. Longer feeding times
5. Sore cracked nipples
6. Oral candidiasis
Investigations for intermenstrual bleeding
if at risk for sti- test
papsmear, TVUS and gynae referral if persistent
In a glucose challenge test what is considered abnormal at 1 hour?
50g glucose load
>7.7mmol/L
If >11mmol/L then diagnose with GDM
Cardianal symptom of cervical ca
postcoital bleeding
if recurrant warrants culposcopy even if smear is normal
In a glucose tolerance test what is the diagnostic criteria?
0hrs?
1hr?
2hrs?
3hrs?
0hrs >5.5 mmol/L
1hr >10.0 mmol/L
2hrs >8.0mmol/L
Incidence of PCOS?
5-10% of women of reporoductive age
infertility>hirsutism> irregular periods> obesity
What are the fetal effects of GDM?
1. Macrosomnia
2. Increased risk of shoulder distocia
3. Neural tube defects
4. Atrial/Ventricular septal defects
5. Transposition of vessels
6. Hypoglycemia after birth
7. Renal anomalies
8. Stillbirth
Risk of diabetes in PCOS?
5-10 fold increase
What are the maternal risks/effects of GDM?
1. predisposition to DM in later life (50%)
2. Increases C/S rate
3. infection
4. PPH
5. HTN/pre-eclampsia
Most important factors in PCOS management?
Weight management: BMI <25- screen for diabetes and metabolic changes
Other management is targeted at the problem at hand
What are the beneficial effects of HRT?
1. Hot flushes control
2. Osteoporosis
3. Urogenital symptoms
4. Vaginal dryness
5. Sleep improvements
6. Colorectal cancer
Effectiveness of clomiphene for ovulation induction in PCOS
80%
What are the risks of HRT?
1. DVT/PE/Stroke
2. Breast cancer
3. Endometrial/Ovarian cancer (estrogen only HRT)
What is metformin useful for in PCOS?
reducing fasting insulin and lowering triglyceride levels

not as effective as OCP in reducing androgen levels and returning menstrual patterns to normal
What is a non-hormonal drug given to treat menorrhagia?
Tranexamic acid
Hormonal stimulation of lactation
oestrogen: icnrease in number and size of ducts
progesterone increases number of alveoli
HPL: alveoli
What is the Bishop score and what are the components?
Measure of favourability for induction of labour
1. Consistency of cervix
2. Position of cervix
3. Dilitation of cervix
4. Effacement
5. Station
How does mcroberts positioning work in reducing dystocia?
tilting pelvis- orient symphysis more horizontally to fascilitate shoulder delivery
What screening questions should be asked to screen for pre-eclampsia?
Swelling of face or hands?
Headache?
Blurry vision?
What is the normal orientation of the foetal skull as it traverses the pelvis?
occipitotransverse when engaging--> occipitooblique in mid canity --> occipitoanterior at iscial spines
Definition of antepartum hemorrhage?
Bleeding after 20 weeks gestation to before delivery
By how much can moulding decrease the biparietal diameter?
by approximately 1cm
parietal bones override occipital and frontal
remember that only bones of vault are compressable- base of skull not compressable
Major causes of antepartum hemorrhage?
1. Placental abruption (30%)
2. Placenta previa (20%)
3. Uterine rupture (rare)
4. Vasa previa (rare)
5. Coagulopathy
6. Cervical incompetence
7. Threatened premature labour
Ranges for foetal blood pH
>7.25 normal
7.20-7.25- pre-asphyxia- expectant mx
<7.20- asphyxia. deliver
Risk factors for antepartum hemorrhage?
Previous abruption
Trauma
HTN
Cigarette smoking
Parity (increased)
Maternal age
Cocaine
PROM
Coagulopathies
Multiple pregnancies
Peak effects of entonox
after 10 breaths
used in 60% of parturients

drowsiness and light headedness, nausea
Types of placenta previa?
1. complete
2. partial
3. marginal
4 low lying (withing 2cm of os)
At which level is an epidural performed?
L3-4
at level of iliac crests
Risk factors for placental previa?
Endometrial scarring (increased parity, LSCS, maternal age, prior curette)

Increased demand for placental surface area ie increased oxygen demand(maternal smoking, multiple gestation, higher altitudes)

Early gestational age
Sensation felt before injecting an epidural
loss of resistance after puncturing lig. flavum
Initial management of mod to severe abruption
1. 2 large canulas
2. maternal vitals and hemodynamic status
3. Continuous CTG
4. IV fluid resus
5. Bloods: FBC, G&H cross match, QFMH, DIC screen, Coags
Epidural dosing
Up to 20ml initial bolus after test dose, onset of analgesia 20 min
Management of PPH? (non-initial)
1. All initial managment stuff (vitals, bloods etc)
2. Oxytocin infusion
3. Direct uterine massage
4. Correction of DIC
5. Prostaglandins
6. B-lynch suture
7. Uterine embolization
8. Hysterectomy
Rate of difficult intubation at full term?
1: 300 due to swollen airways, large breasts etc.
Also high risk of aspiration: manage with antacid premedication, rapid sequence induction and cricoid pressure
What are some commonly used medications for overactive bladder?
Ditropan (Oxybutynin)
Detrusitol (Tolterodine)
Tofranil (Imipramine)
Why does desaturation during failed intubation occur more quickly in a pregnant woman?
Decreased oxygen stores (FRC decreased by 20%)
Increased oxygen consumpton (60%)
What are the risks associated with maternal smoking?
Lower birth weight
Perinatal mobidity and mortality (PROM, abruption, preterm delivery, stillbirth and SIDS)
Strategies to avoid or minimise neonatal depression after a caesar under GA?
minimise volatile anesthetic dose
Use NO
Avoid or minimisa short-acting narcotics
What is the criteria for Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
1. Prenatal alcohol exposure
2. Growth restriction pre and postnatally
3. Facial malformation (short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, abnormal philtrum and hypoplastic midface
4. Neurdevelopmental disorders (language, motor, learning)
When does autocaval compression become an issue in pregnant ppl requiring surgery?
> 20/40 weeks
S&S of Endometriosis?
Recurrent dysmenorrhea
Dyspareunia
Low back pain
Infertility
Adnexal mass
Bowel/bladder symptoms
Do post dural puncture headaches generally resolve spontaneously?
How are these managed?
spontaneous resolution may take months to years
Conservative therapy ineffective
blood patch 70-98% effective
What are some risk factors for Endometriosis?
Early menarche
Late menopause
Shorter menstral cycle length
Longer duration of menstral flow
Not on OCP (is protective)
Management of placenta praevia and accreta when doing a caesar
anticipate massive transfusion
pre-emptive iliac artery baloon cath
uterotonic drugs
surgical: hysterectomy
embolisation
What are some medical treatments for endometriosis?
1. NSAIDs
2. OCP
3. IUD
4. Danazol (ovarian suppression)
5. GnRH analogue
Management of maternal collapse during after a caesar
intubate early
left lateral tilt
perimortum c-section @ 5 min
What are some causes of post-menopausal bleeding?
1. HRT
2. Atrophic changes (endometritis, cervicitis, vaginitis)
3. Cancer (endometrial, cervical, vaginal, vulvar)
4. Polyps
5. Endometrial hyperplasia
6. Trauma
7. Bleeding disorder
What % of all pregnancies are ynplanned and what % of these result in an induced abortion?
38%
6/10
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?
Medications - estrogen, tamoxifen
Family hx
Low parity, infertile
Endometrial hyperplasia
PCOS
HNPCC
Obesity
Hysteroscopy with biopsy (gold standard)
Dilation and curettage (misses 10%)
Outpatient endometrial biopsy (misses ~30%)
Ultrasound in postmenopausal: if endometrial thickness <4mm, endometrial cancer is very unlikely.
What is the pearl index?
number of unintended preg per 100 women per year
What endometrial thickness is considered abnormal in a post-menopausal women?
>4mm (if not on HRT)
Hysteroscopy with biopsy (gold standard)
Dilation and curettage (misses 10%)
Outpatient endometrial biopsy (misses ~30%)
Ultrasound in postmenopausal: if endometrial thickness <4mm, endometrial cancer is very unlikely.
Failure rates of withdrawal
25%/year
male condom: 12%/year
POP: 8%/year
(typical use) --> much lower in perfect use
What investigations would you perform in a women with PMB?
Pap smear
Endometrial biopsy
Transvaginal U/S (uterus, endometrial thickness, pelvic masses and free peritoneal fluid)
Hysteroscopy D&C
What % of women continue to ovulate normally while on the POP?
40%
What pts would you book for colposcopy ?
1. 2 LGSIL smears in 12 months
2. Any HGSIL
3. Any glandular abnormality on smear
4. Persistent post-coital bleeding
5. Abnormal appearing cervix
When is it best to start the POP?
if start in 1st 5d of menstrual cycle: immeadiate contraceptiom
any other time- take precautions 2days
What strains of HPV are implicated in Low grade cervical dysplasia?
HPV 6 and 11
How effective is depot provera at inhibiting ovulation?
>99%

start in 1st 5d of cycle for immeadiate protection- otherwise use other methods for 7 days
What strains of HPV are implicated in High grade cervical dysplasia?
HPV 16 and 18
Advantages of depot?
protects against uterine cancer
protects against PID
What % of LGSIL regress?
60-70%
Chef effect of implanon?
stops ovulation = chief effect
also causes thinning of lining of uterus
What % of LGSIL progress to HGSIL?
4%
<0.1% progress to cancer
Incidence of perforation after IUD insertion?
1/1000
What % of CIN 2 regress?
43%
When is pelvic infection a problem after IUD insertion?
in 1st 20d
irregular pain and bleeding is suggestive of such an infection
What % of CIN 2 progress?
22%
Criteria for effectiveness of lactational amenorrhea?
<6m
Amenorrhea
Full breast feeding
What % of CIN 3 progress?
14%
Earliest possible ovulation postpartum?
day 21
progesterone only methods usuallu used as COC shows a decrease in the volume of milk in case control studies
IUD/IUS can be put in 6 weeks PP
What % of CIN 3 regress?
32%
How long after vasectomy are men donsidered sterile
When there is no sperm in ejaculate- may take up to 6 months or 15 ejaculations
What are the risk factors for cervical cancer?
Preinvasive disease
smoking
HPV infection
Multiple sexual parters
Early age of first intercourse
Immunosuppression
Is there legislation to legalise abortion in NSW?
No, relies on common law interpretation of the crimes act or the criminal code act
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis (gardnerella vaginalis)?
Metronidazole 400mg bd x7days
What is the earliest age for consent to a surgical abortion?
14-16 years, "competant minors" : don't need parental consent for abortions performed in private clinics
= "gillick competancy"
What is the treatment for Chlamydia?
Azithromycin 1g stat dose OR
Doxycycline 100mg bd x 10days
No sex for 10days
Treat partners from last 6/12
Cutoff for medical abortion?
9 weeks after LMP

Currently 30% of TOPs under 9 weeks gestation are done using a medical method
What is the timeframe of post-partum blues?
First 10days
(peak 5 days)
Timing of surgical abgortion using suction curette?
7-15 weeks
What is the timeframe of post-partum depression?
First 6 months
(first 90 days greatest risk)
Contraindications to mifepristone
gestation > 9 weeks
known or suspected ectopic preg
adrenal failure
coagulation disorder
allergy
IUD in situ
clinical evidence of a pelvic infection
Define lie
Long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the uterus.
(Transverse or longitudinal)
Average duration of bleeding after medical abortion?
9-12 days - spotting can last up to 30 days or more and spotting can occur for 30 days or more.
Define presentation
Part of fetus felt on vaginal examination
How do you see if a medical abortion is complete?
abscence of gestational sac on ultrasound is key indicator
Define position
The rotational relationship defined by the presenting part as the denominator ie normally cephalic = occiput
(OA, OP, L or R OT
When is manual vaccum aspiration done?
Up to 10 weeks- flexible cannula used
Define Engagement
The station at which the maximum diameter of the presenting part is through the pelvic inlet. If vertex 1/5 palpable above symphsis pubis
Antibiotic prophylaxis prior to a pregnancy termination
dox/azithro +/- metronidazole
Chlamydia and BV mostly implicated
Screen + treat as well as universal prophylaxis- allows treatment of partener
Describe the mechanisms of labour (stages)
1. Descent
2. Flexion
3. Internal rotation
4. Crowning
5. Restitution
6. External rotation
7. Lateral flexion
What % of TOP's in australai are done in the 2nd trimester?
5%, 1% > 20 weeks
What are some common signs of the begining of the second stage of labour?
Feeling of wanting to push or have bowels open
Perineal flattening
Vaginal gaping
Large mucoid show
Anal pouting
No cervix felt on examination
Procedure for a 2nd trimester TOP
dilatation (PG- 2/3 hours prior or hygroscopic dilators) and evacuation
What are the common causes of bleeding in early pregnancy?
1. Misscariage
2. Ectopic
3. Normal bleeding
4. Non pregnancy related (cancer, trauma, urethra/UTI)
When is the risk of a continuing pregnancy after a surgical termination increased?
if done at very early gestations
What are the treatment options for an ectopic pregnancy?
Surgical: Laparoscopy or Laparotomy

Methotrexate IM (if small and stable)
Incidence of major foetal anomalies
affect 2-5% of neonates
account for 20-30% of perinatal deaths
What is the normal rate of misscariage?
1:5
Detection rate of foetal abnormalities on FAS?
30-80%
What is the mechanism of action of the progesterone only pill?
Viscous, hostile cervical mucous
Atrophic endometrium
Major structural abnormalities associated with Down syndrome?
30% duodenal artresea, TEF, esophageal atresia- may not be evident until 3rd tm

50% cardiac abnormalities: AVCD, VSD, ASF
How does depo-provera work?
Inhibits ovulation (progestogen containing)
First trimester biochemistry and Down syndrome
free beta HCG: decreases 10-14 weeks in humans, increased in trisomy 21
PAPP-A: increases between 10-14 weeks, decreased in trisomy 21
How long does depo-provera last for ?
12 weeks
What is abnormal ductus venosus flow associated with at 10-13+6 weeks
chromosomal abnormalities
cardiac defects
adverse pregnancy outcome

abnormal in 80% of Down foetuses and 5% of chromosomally normal ones during this period- reverse flow of A-wave (atrial systole)
What are the side effects/disadvantages of depo-provera?
Change in periods (irregular bleeding, amenorrhea)
Cannot be removed (side effects for 3 months
Delay in return of fertility
Weight gain
Depression
Mood swings
Headaches
Acne
Breast tenderness
In what age groups do you empyrically give artificial surfctant for RDS?
<28 weeks
How long does Implanon last for?
3 years
What are causes of respiratory distress in the neonate in order of frequency?
RDS > TTN > sepsis > mex > asphyxia
How does Implanon work?
Inhibits ovulation
Thickens cervical mucous
Thinning of endometrium (atrophic)
What factors increase risk of transient tachypnoea of the newbown
no labour
maternal DM
How does the copper IUD work?
Impede sperm transport (copper kills sperm)
Blocks fertilization
Blocks implantation
Time course of TTN?
Takes approx 12 hours to resolve
How does the Mirena work?
Suppresses endometrium
Thickens cervical mucous
(inhibs ovulation in 50%)
Management of sepsis in neonate
penicillin + gentamycin
At what gestational age is a fetal morphology scan done?
18-20 weeks
Management of asphyxia
therapeutic hypothermia to 33 degrees- within 6 hours of hypoxia
What is the overall incidence of trisomy 21?
1:660
What is the most common congenital heart defect that presents straight after birth?
TGA- will need surgery within first 7-10d of life
What is the risk of trisomy 21 with a maternal age of 40years
Approx 1:100
Normal pH of vaginal discharge?
3-4.5
What is the detection rate of trisomy 21 using free bHCG, PAPPA, NT and age?
90%
Normal vaginal flora that is increased by sexual arousal
Gardanella
Which anesthetic is commonly used in epidurals?
Low conc long acting (bupivacaine aka Marcane)
Normal vaginal flora of pregnancy?
staph epidermis
What are the potential complications of epidurals?
Dural puncture with post dural puncture headache
Hypotension
N/V
Shivering
Failure
Neurological injury
Epidural abcess
Epidural hematoma
Normal vaginal flora on ectropion
mycoplasma spp
What is the definition of heavy menstral bleeding?
>80ml lost per cycle
Normal vaginal flora in atrophic vaginitis?
streptococci
How many pads or tampons used over a single mentral period is normal?
<21 pads/tampons
Why does trichomonas not cause systemic infection?
does not invade beyond the superficial layers of the mucosa
What are some causes of heavy menstral bleeding?
Uterine causes
- Fibroids, polyps, adenomyosis, dysfunctional uterine bleeding

- thyroid, coagulation abnormal.
- IUD
- Cancer
What % of women with trichomonas infection are asymptomatic?
50%
symptoms include: frothy green malodorous discharge with high pH, pruritis, dysuria, superficial dyspareunia.
Symptoms worse during menses as T. vag is haemophagic
What are the treatments available in menorrhagia where sinister abnormality is suspected?
IUD
Transexamic acid
NSAIDs
OCP
Depot provera
When soes a strawbery cervic occur
1/3 of trichomonal infections
What are some common causes of intermenstral bleeding?
Polyps
Cancer
Fibroids
Clotting disorders
HPA dysfunction
HRT
Diagnosis of trichomoniasis?
Management?
Wet prep (50-80%)
Mx: metronidazole or tindazole
treat sexual contacts within the last 30-60days
What conditions should be ruled out before a diagnosis of PCOS is made?
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- Cushing syndrome
- Androgen producing tumors
- Hyperprolactemia
- Acromegaly
Why is vulvovaginal candidiasis less common after menopause?
low oestrogen
What is the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?
2 of the following 3:
1. S&S of androgen excess (hirsuitism, acne, alopecia)
2. Oligo/amenorrhea
3. Polycystic ovaries
What % of women with bacterial vaginosis have symptoms?
50%
What are some contradindications to medical termination of pregnancy?
1. >9 weeks gestation
2. Known or suspected ectopic
3. Allergy to mifepristone/misoprostol
4. Adrenal failure
5. Hemorrhagic disorder or anticoagulant therapy
6. IUD in place
Diagnosis of BV?
vaginal smear- posterior fornyx dragging along lateral wall
gram stain/wet prep- polymicrobial (gardanella and mycoplasma often dominate)
pH 6
few polymorphs
clue cells
+VE amine test
After medical TOP, how should a pt be counciled regarding side effects and symptoms?
N/V
Diarrhea
Fever/chills
Cramping pain
Bleeding for 9-12 days
If soaking more than 2 pads/hr for more than 2 hours this is a warning sign
What is the amine test
add KOH- release volatile amines in presence of anaerobic bacteria
What are some common causes of respiratory distress in newborns?
1. RDS
2. TTN
3. Sepsis
4. Mec aspiration
5. Asphyxia (acidosis)
What do lactobacilli metabolise?
glycogen to lactic acid
What combination of tumor markers produces higher sensitivity/specificity for ovarian cancer?
CA -125
HE4
Separation of diamnionic dichorionic trins
<4
MCDA: 4-7
MCMA: 7-14
Conjoined: > 14
Name some infections which impact mainly on the fetus
TORCH
B19
GBS
LIsteria
Yersinia
What does the twin peaks sign indicate?
a dichorionic placenta
Name some infections which impact mainly on the Mother
Mastitis
Endometritis
Wound infection
Perineum
Pneumonia
Wht % of twins undergo early foetal demise (<14w)
singleton- 2%
Twins: 5% 1 demise
24% of which ultutimateky both
Name some infections which impact both on the fetus and mother
VZV
HBV
HCV
HIV Chorioamnionitis
UTI
What does late foetal demise lead to in mono and dichorionic twins?
di: preterm delivery, 5-10% death/handicap
mini: 25% neuro handicap
hypotension due to haemorrhage from live foetus into dead foetoplacental unit
What are some causes of neonatal hypoglycemia?
Maternal GDM
Sepsis
Hypothyroidism
In-borne errors of metabolism
IUGR
Chorioamnionitis
Prematurity
Rate of structural abnormalities in minozygotic twins?
2-3 x singletons
5-7%
What are some common causes of female infertility?
Ovulation abnormalities
Endometriosis
Pelvic adhesions
Cervical pathology
Uterine pathology
What % of MC twins get twin-twin transfusion?
15-30%
connections present in 100%
What are some complications associated with placenta previa?
1. Hemorrhage
2. Preterm delivery
3. Congenital malformations
4. Malpresentation
5. Placental abruption
6. Endometritis
What determines the prognosis of twin-twin transfusion?
Survival poorer when progresses to a higher stage over time
1/2 will progress
30% same
20% get to lower stage
What is the most common cause of IUGR?
Chronic hypertension
What is the current mainstay of manageing twin transfusion syndrome?
selective laser abalation of placental anastomoses
Use for stage 2 and above
fetoscope- direct visualisation of blood vessels
uterine relaxants and antibiotics move
PPROM 20%, placental separation 2%
Survival of at least 1 twin 70-80%
Both 30%
What is the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?
Pregnancy induced HTN that develops after 20weeks AND
>300mg of proteinuria in 24 hrs
Frequency of antenatal visits for twins?
2 weekly until 36 weeks then weekly
scans: 26, 30, 34
What are some of the findings in pre-eclampsia?
Edema
Proteinuria
Rapid weight gain
Headache
Epigastric abdominal pain
Visual disturbances
Hyperreflexia
Increased Cr
Pulmonary edema
Elevated LFTs
Define postmenopausal bleeding?
bleeding from the genital tract 6m or more after menopause
20% risk
What are the types of cephalic presentations and what are their diameters?
1. Vertex (9.5cm)
2. Deflexed vertex (11.5cm)
3. Brow (13.5cm)
4. Face (9.5cm)
Most powerful risk factor endometrial cancer?
obesity due to aromatization and unopposed oestrogen
What are some medications which can be used in HTN disease of pregnancy?
Hydralazine
Methyldopa
Labetalol
Nifedipine
Metastatic workup for endometrial cancer?
CT chest abdomen, pelvis
CA125- sign of peritoneal irritation

80% confined to uterus at diagnosis- mainstay of management is surgical (TAH/BSO with peritoneal cytology)
What is HELLP syndrome
H- hemolysis
EL - elevated liver enzymes
LP - low platelets
Which patients with endometrial cancer get pelvic lymphadenectomy in addition to TAH/BSO?
grade 3, deep invasion, clear cell, serous
What is the reccomended daily intake of folate in a women (with no risk factors) trying to fall pregnant?
0.5mg folate daily (at least 3 month prior and 3 months post falling pregnant)
Staging of endometrial cancer?
stage 1: disease confined to uterus
stage 2: spread to cervix
stage 3: local pelvic spread, noda disease/positive washings
stage 4: distant disease/intraperitoneal disease
What is the reccomended daily intake of folate in a women with a high risk of neural tube defects, trying to fall pregnant?
5mg daily (at least 3 months prior and 3 months post falling pregnant)
What is adjuvant therapy for endometrial cancer?
stage 1 and 2 node negative: vaginal brachytherapy
stage 3 and 4:
Nodal disease external beam RT
Peritoneal disease: chemotherapy: doxorubicin, provera
What are some S&S of neonatal withdrawal?
High pitched cry
Restlessness
Hypertonia
Jitterness
Tremors
Myoclonic jerks
Frequent yawning
Increased resp rate (>60/min)
Managements of patients with endometrial Ca who are unfit for surgery?
apparent early stage- pelvic RT
advanced disease- oral provera
What is the name of the scale for assessing neonatal withdrawal?
Finnegan scale
Management of recurrent endometrial Ca?
no prev RT- RT
Prev RT: chemo
pelvic exenteration of central local recurrence
What is the difference in Complete breech and Frank breech?
Complete - Hips and knees flexed

Frank - Hips flexed, knees EXTENDED
Follow-up after endometrial cancer
3 monthly for 2 years then 4 monthly for 2 years then 6 monthly for 2 years
clinical- no role for routine radiology
HRT- after cure and 2 yrs recurrence free (early stage)
What dates correspond to the 1st trimester?
0-12weeks
Which endometrial cancers allow an attempt at fertility preservation?
grade 1 in a patient with PCOS
MRI then high dose provera and serial sampling
metastatic disease and late recurrences
What dates correspond to the 2nd trimester?
13 - 28 weeks
What % of women smoke in pregnancy?
10-20% of women
What dates correspond to the 3rd trimester?
29weeks-birth (~40)
Effects of smoking on pregnancy outcome?
On average babies 200g lighter
dose dependent effect on birthweight- reversible if stop smoking early in the pregnancy
Increased impact if smoking >10/d in 3rd TM
Increased perinatal morbidity and mortality (PROM, abdruption, preterm delivery, stillbirth and SIDS)
Heavy smoking contributes to 13% of infertility
What is the average weight range of a neonate born at 40weeks?
2.5 kg to 4.0 kg
What % of women cease smoking during pregnancy
20-30%
aurgmented and pregnancy-specific intervention helps
What are 3 signs of PROM?
1. Pooling of vaginal fluid in the posterior fornix
2. +ve Nitrazine test paper pH>6.0-6.5 (normal vag pH is 4.5-6)
3. Ferning on a slide prepared from a thin layer of fluid obtained from vaginal wall.
Prevalence of Marijuana use at conception
9-20%
Most women obsrain once preg confirmed; 2-3% continue
1st TM cessation leads to severe n+v
What is the cause of symmetric IUGR?
Usually secondary to an early gestational insult
Is binge drinking or chronic daily ingestion of alcohol worse for foetal outcome?
binge
i.e. 5 at once worse than 1/d
What is the normal range of the menstral cycle?
21 to 35 days
By how much do you limit caffeine in pregnancy?
<2 cups or 250mg/d
What is the prevalence of the post-partum blues?
70%
Risk of BMI <17
LBW infants
What is the prevalence of the post-partum depression?
10-15%
Define advanced maternal age
>35 at time of delivery
What is the prevalence of the peurperal psychosis?
0.1%
Epidemiology of urinary incontinence in females
increases with age
30% in community
10% have a significant effect on QOL
1 millian women in australia
What is the maternal death rate in Australia?
10:10,000
Initial assessment of urinary incontinence
history
exam
MSU
bladder diary
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
1. Cardiac output
2. Blood pressure (initially)
3. Stroke volume
1. CO - Increases 40%
2. BP - Decrease slightly
3. SV - Increases (10-30%)
Do symptoms alone reflect the cause of lower urinary tract dysfunction?
not always
even if only symptom is stress incontinence, 5% will have detrusot overactivity as cause
In neonatal resus. what should the rate of chest compression be per minute?
Ratio of 3 compressions to 1 breath

90 compressions/ minute
30 breaths/minute
What are the indications for urodynamics?
complex symptomatology
fail to respond to first line treatment
prior to surgical intervention
when pain is part of symptomatology
What are the stages in the progression of lochia?
1. Lochia rubra
2. Lochia serosa
3. Lochia alba
Commonest cause of female incontinence
urodynamic stress incontinence
affects 5-15% of women
usually a result of childbirth
may respond to conservative management but mod-secere only cured by surgery
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
Respiratory
1. RV
2. ERV
3. FRC
4. TV
1. RV - decreases
2. ERV - decreases
3. FRC - decreases
4. TV - Increases
Gold standard for management of urodynamic stress incontinence
Mid urethral sling/tapes
85-90% cure
mesh replaces pubourethral lig
short hospitallisation
What physiological changes occur during pregnancy?
Renal
1. Renal plasma flow
2. BUN
3. Cr
4. GFR
1. RPF - increase
2. BUN - decrease
3. Cr - decrease
4. GFR - increases by 40%
Meds for overactive bladder
ditropan- oxybutinin
imipramine

start low dose, slowly increase
manu can be taken intermittently

take anticholinetrgics and do bladder training

other: solfenacin, intravesical botoc
In a sperm count what is considered normal:
1. Number/ml
2. Motility %
3. Volume
4. Morphology %
5. pH
6. WBC
1. Number/ml
>20million/ml
2. Motility %
>50% adequate motion
3. Volume
2-5ml
4. Morphology %
30% normal forms
5. pH
7.2 - 7.8
6. WBC
<10^6 WBC/ml
Strongest risk factor for uterine prolapse?
Childbirth: disruption of tissue and denervation of pelvic floor

Avulsion of puborectalis: 20% 1st deliv, risk doubled by forceps deliv and increases with maternal age. Increases probability of prolapse by 70%.
Why is pregnancy a hypercoagulable state?
1. Protein S decreases
2. Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI) increases
3. Fibrinogen increases
Pudendal nerve denervation
reversible in 60%
more common after forceps
related to: kength of 2nd stage, parity, birthweight
Occurs after vaginal but not after abdominal delivery
Does ovarian forsion occur more often on the right or the left?
slightly more often on the right
What increases the risk of ovarian torsion?
pathologic enlargement of the ovary
Most torsion occurs in ovaries measuring 6-10cm
How do you diagnose an ovarian torsion?
Doppler ultrasound: 100% will have abscence of venous flow on doppler (sensitive), >70% will have a cystic/solid adnexal mass
MRI/CT: limited value when doppler is non-diagnostic
If suspect diagnosis go to laparoscopy
Where is the pain felt with an adnexal mass
originates in the iliac fossa and radiates to the flank
What are ultrasound findings indicative of malignancy in an ovarian mass?
solid component that is not hypoechoic and is nodular/papillary
thick septations (>2-3mm)
Doppler flow in solid component
Ascites (any in post menopausal, small amount of fluid in premenopausal may be normal)
Peritoneal masses
Which postmenopausal women with an ovarian cyst may undergo expectant management?
asymptomatic, normal pelvic exam, normal CA125
5cm commonly used as threshold: >5cm--> meed exploratory surgery
What % of ovarian masses found incidentally in women >50 are malignant?
50%
What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?
65% epithelial
risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, caucasian, family history
OCP, tubal ligation, pregnancy is protective
tend to present when advanced:
Are ovarian masses managed with cystectomy or oophorectomy?
depends on age, size of cyst, ease of removal
older women tend to go for oophorectomy
laparoscopy may not provide sufficient staging and risk of rupturing cyst- so laparotomy preferred (gynae oncologist makes this decision)
Where is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy?
fallopian tube (98%): 70% of these are ampullary
What is the prevalence of ectopic pregnancy among women who go to ED in first trimester of prenancy?
6-16%
Chance of recurrance of ectopic prenancy after 1?
15%
Classic triad of ectopic prenancy?
amenorrhea
abdominal pain
vaginal bleeding
When is methotrexate appropriate for the management of ectopic pregnancy?
<3.5cm, unruptured, without actuve bleeding, no foetal heart tones
no hepatic, renal, haematogenous disease
Treatment of fibroids (indications)
Only if symptomatic, rapidly enlarging or menorrhagia
more likely to mx conservatively if sx minimal or absent
<6-8cm
not submucosal
Treatment of fibroids (medical and surgical)`
medical (antiprostiglandins, tranexamic acid), OCP/depo provera
GnRH agonist to shrink prior to sur
Cause of prolonged latent phase?
o Is idiopathic
o More common in primigravidae
Cervix remains ‘unfavourable’
There is rarely a serious cause: May lead to maternal exhaustion from discomfort over a number of days
Management of prolonged latent phase?
o If possible, resist intervening to speed things up (eg by rupturing membranes/administering oxytocics) as this may increase risk of further obstetric intervention in what might have been an uneventful labour
Describe incoordinate uterine contraction?
o Normal contraction begins at a pacemaker point close to junction of uterus and fallopian tube (ie. near fundus) and spreads downwards. Maximal intensity is at fundus, where the muscle is thickest, intermediate at the mid-zone, and least at lower segment.
o Incoordinate contractions have maximal intensity at lower segment and weakest at the fundus. This is inefficient.
Resting tone is increased throughout so threshold for pain is reached earlier in the contraction
Causes of incoordinate uterine contractions?
No known specific cause
More common in primigravidae
Uterine activity may improve as the cervix dilates
Many cases resolve spontaneously with time (contractions get better as labour goes on)
Cephalopelvic disproportion is associated w incoordinate contractions, possibly because the presenting part isn’t well applied to the cervix to dilate it.
Who gets syntocin in incoordinate uterine contractions?
Used in primigravidae
Use with caution in multipara
IV infusion, titrating to achieve 3-4 contractions every 10 min
VE every 2-3 hours to ensure adequate progress
Not used if:
Suspected foetal distress
Membranes not ruptured
Cephalopelvic disproportion is suspected/there is malpresentation
Cause of obstructed labour?
Difference between true and relative?
(head too big/pelvis too small)
Diagnosed only if the head doesn’t become engaged despite adequate uterine activity
Not possible to predict accurately antenatally – many considered to be at risk on u/s have a normal vaginal delivery
Very unlikely if mother has had a previous vaginal delivery
Relative: o Occurs with malposition, especially occipitoposterior position of head (rather than occipitoanterior). This may lead to slower first and second stage but spontaneous delivery, or may lead to secondary arrest.
Major determinant of sucessful delivery?
The size and shape of the pelvic inlet is the major determinant of successful delivery
Gynaecoid shape is most common and is obstetrically ideal. Anthropoid (long oval) is relatively common and associated with occipitoposterior presentation.
Platypelloid (flat brimmed) and android (triangular) are minor variations associated with poor nutrition in infancy and childhood.
How do you assess for the cause of secondary phase arrest?
Strength of contractions is difficult to assess but observation of mother and abdominal palpation help
Vaginal examination:
Assessment of position and presentation to look for malpresentation or malposition
Caput and moulding suggest cephalopelvic disproportion
When can instrumental delivery be performed?
Can be performed in 2nd stage only
Criteria for instrumental delivery?
• Cervix fully dilated and membranes ruptured
Head at station 0 or below, with no head palpable abdominally
Position of the head knownBladder empty
Analgesia satisfactory
Medical management of fibroids
(generally poor response)
GnRH analogues shrink fibroids, but regrow on cessation of Rx. Causes hypo-oestrogenism
hot flushes & bone loss
Surgical management of fibroids
Hysteroscopic resection – for small submucous fibroids
Myomectomy (open/lap) – if larger and wish to retain fertility
Adjuvant GnRH analogues reduce bleeding risk.
Hysterectomy
Uterine artery embolization: healthy myometrium revascularises immediately by collaterals, while fibroids shrink by ~50% (sustained effect). Considerations: very painful (requires opiates), possible infection, fibroid expulsion, deaths rare.
Malignant – specific to cause
Management of primary dysmenorrhea
Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors (NSAIDs) reduce PGF2α production
Combined OCP suppress ovulation and very effective
Depot progestogens suppress ovulation and may be useful
Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS; “Mirena”) reduce blood loss and dysmenorrhoea. May be difficult to insert in women who have not been pregnant.
Causes of amenorrhea?
Physiological
Ovulatory disorders (25%)
Other disorders
Congenital
Medications (hormones, antidepressants, corticosteroids, chemo)
Endometriosis (15%)
Pelvic adhesions (12%)
Surgery or nontubal disease (appendicitis)
Pelvic TB
Tubal blockage (11%)
Other tubal abnormalities (11%)
Hyperprolactinemia (7%)
Male factors
Idiopathic (45%)
What is the most common ovarian tumour aged 10-30?
Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) – benign germ cell tumor;
XR: calcification; US: complex cyst. Blilateral in ~10%.
Aetiology of postmenopausal bleeding?
Atrophy (59%)
Polyps (12%)
Endometrial cancer (10%)
Endometrial hyperplasia (10%)
Hormonal effect (7%)
Cervical cancer (<1%)
Other (eg, hydrometra, pyometra, hematometra: 2%)
Types of ovarian cancer?
Serous (70%) – commonly bilateral, CA-125 usually markedly elevated.
Mucinous (5-10%) – commonly unilateral, large and low grade.
Endometrioid (20%) – assoc with endometriosis, 1/5 have assoc endometrial Ca.
Clear cell – assoc with endometriosis, usu. confined to ovary at Dx. CA-125 often normal.
How useful is Ca125 in testing for ovarian cencer?
Over 90% of advanced ovarian cancers have CA-125
50% of stage 1 ovarian cancers will have a normal CA-125
What are the high risk populations you screen for ovarian cancer?
What screening is done?
1st degree relative with ovarian cancer, Ashkenazi Jews, known mutation – BRCA1 BRCA2 or HNPCC
The current recommendation is 6–12 monthly CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound.
bilateral salphingo-oophorectomy is the most effective risk reducing strategy
In BRCA carriers it also reduces risk of BrCa by 50%.
In HNPCC carriers should include hysterectomy (50% risk of endometrial Ca).
Options after finding CIN2/3 on colposcopy?
LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) [same as LETZ (loop excision of the transformation zone)]. Risk of preterm delivery.
Cone biopsy (cold knife conisation) for women with suspected microinvasion, and suspected adenocarcinoma in situ (risk of cervical incompetence and very preterm delivery).
Staging of cervical cancer?
0: CIN
I: Growth into the deeper cervical tissues, but no further.
II: Spread outside the cervix to surrounding tissues.
IIA: Upper 1/3 vagina
IIB: Upper 2/3 vagina + parametrial disease
III: Spread further away from the area surrounding the cervix.
IV: Advanced spread to organs other than cervix and uterus.
Management of cervical cancer by stage?
1A1– local excision (cone) or simple hysterectomy
IA2 – simple hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy;
IB and IIA – radical hysterectomy or radiotherapy; ≥IIB – radiotherapy+ chemotherapy
Hx in ovarian cancer (in order of prevalence)
abdo swelling
pain, anorexia, N&V, weight loss, abnormal vaginal bleeding, frequency.
Physical exam: pelvic mass, abdo mass, ascites, pleural effusion, hepatomegaly, cervical lymphadenopathy
Management of ovarian cancer?
Rx: radical surgical debulking (usually hysterectomy and bilateral oopherectomy) followed by platinum-based chemotherapy (cisplatin or carboplatin)
Chemo for all ovarian cancer unless well differentiated IA. Late presentation is common, so Rx is often palliative.
Prevalence and presenting sx of fallopian tube carcinoma?
Very rare tumor (<1.0% of female genital tract cancer); mean age 55. More likely than ovarian Ca to present early.
Hx/PE: Presentation often nonspecific. The most common symptom is vaginal discharge or bleeding. Classic triad (though rarely present): watery vaginal discharge (hydrops tubae profluens), pelvic mass, and pelvic pain (may be colicky). Ascites may be present in advanced disease.
What should you avoid doing for 24 hours after a culposcopy?
douche
use tampons
use vaginal medications
have sex
What are the two types of anterior prolapse?

i.e. cystocele more likely to0 have voiding and storage sx/urinary retention
Urethrocele - prolapse of the urethra into the vaginal wall causing a bulbous swelling to appear in the vagina, particularly on straining. Associated with previous childbirth. Rx: surgical repair to remove laxity and better support to the urethra and the vaginal wall.
Cystocele – prolapse of the base of the bladder in women; usually due postpartum pelvic floor weakness, causing bulging of the anterior wall on straining. When accompanied by stress incontinence of urine, surgical repair (anterior colporrhaphy) is indicated.
What does a rectocele cause
constipation
may need straining/digitation to evacuate stool
Manage with a posterior repair
Stages of uterine prolapse?
1st degree – descent of the cervix within the vagina
2nd degree – descent of the cervix to the level of the introitus
3rd degree – protrusion of the cervix through the vagina
Procidenta – cervix, uterus and vaginal wall completely prolapsed through the introitus
Absolute contraindications to the OCP?
•< 6 wks postpartum
•smoker over the age of 35 (>15 cigarettes per day)
•hypertension (systolic > 160mmHg or diastolic > 100mmHg)
•current of past histroy of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
•ischemic heart disease
•history of cerebrovascular accident
•complicated valvular heart disease
•migraine headache with focal neurological symptoms
•breast cancer (current)
•diabetes with retinopathy/nephropathy/neuropathy
•severe cirrhosis, liver tumour (adenoma or hepatoma
What are some relative contraindications to the OCP?
•smoker over the age of 35 (< 15 cigarettes per day)
•adequately controlled hypertension
•hypertension (systolic 140 - 159mmHg or diastolic 90 - 99mmHg)
•migrain headache over the age of 35
•currently symptomatic gallbladder disease
•mild cirrhosis
•history of combined OCP-related cholestasis
•users of medications that may interfere with OCP metabolism
Contraindications to progesterone only contraception
Breast cancer (current or recent)
Advise against in situations with increased VTE/PE risk – SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome, BMI>30, <3wks postpartum
Avoid in unexplained vaginal bleeding
Dosing of emergency contraception?
Single oral dose of 1.5 mg (same SE profile as split dose)
Repeat the dose if vomiting occurs within 2 h
SEs: nausea, vomiting, breast tenderness, vaginal bleeding, headache.
o >24 hours late taking an active pill, or if you have severe vomiting or diarrhoea for more than 24 hours?
 if you are late taking an active pill take it as soon as you remember and take the next pill at the usual time (this may mean taking 2 pills on the same day or at the same time)
 continue with the daily pill and use another contraceptive method until you have taken active pills for 7 days in a row
What do you do if you miss your POP?
3 hours late taking a pill: take it immediately; contraception should not be affected.
>3 hours late taking a pill, or if you have severe vomiting or diarrhoea, the pill will not be as effective:
take it as soon as you remember and take the next pill at the usual time (this may mean taking 2 pills on the same day or at the same time)
continue with the daily pill and use another contraceptive method for the next 48 hours
Success rates of medical abortion?
95% have complete expulsion
5% require surgical evacuation (other medical Rx options are higher)
When is suction curetage used until?
14-15 wks
failure: 2-3 in 1,000 (higher before 7 wks)
infection up to 10% (usually minor), less with “screen and treat” policy or prophylactic antibiotics
When is manual vacum evacuation used?
surgical method used in first trimester, especially prior to 7 weeks
lower failure rate than suction curettage for very early terminations
similar side effects and complication rates to suction curettage
What do you do to get an abortion after 20 weeks?
There is an obligation to refer a case to a termination review committee (ethics committee) The committee is there to provide advice, and while its judgement is not binding, going contrary to the committee’s advice has not been tested legally.
Requires induction of labour
potential for the delivery of a live foetus following a medical termination of pregnancy increases as gestation advance, therefore consider feticide by intra-cardiac KCl or digoxin injection for non-lethal anomalies at ≥22 wks.
Define miscarriage?
pregnancy loss before 24wks (WHO defines as loss when <500g)
How common is miscarriage in the antiphospholipid syndrome?
15% of recurrent miscarriage
Subsequent miscarriage rate 90%; if low-dose aspirin from 1st +ve pregnancy test, reduced to 30%.
Complications: thrombocytopaenia, pre-eclampsia, IUGR and arterial or venous thrombosis
Most co0mmon features of ectopic pregnancy?
pain is most common
others include: amenorrhea, PV bleeding
How long does it take for the uterus to involute?
When is it no longer palpable?
Involutes over next 6 weeks. No longer palpable above symphysis pubis after day 10-14
Palpable at umbilicus after 3rd stage of labour
Fundal height reduces by about a finger’s breadth per day
Descrive the 3 kinds of lochia?
Red first 3-4 days. Brownish pink 3rd-12th day. Thrombosed vessels become organised
Yellow/white after 12th
When is HPL and beta HCG no longer detectable
HPL: 2d
Beta HCG: 10d
When do E and P reach non-pregnant levels?
day 7
Prevalence of postnatal anaemia?
25-30%
Constipation (20% of women in puerperium) may be due to: fear of defecation after perineal trauma, reduced mobility, codeine, iron supplements
Haemorrhoids (20% of women): more common in primiparous women and instrumental delivery. Often persist for some time after birth
What % of women experience incontinence in the puerpurum?
o 10% experience incontinence (usually stress incontinence). In most women it resolves in a few weeks. Pelvic floor exercises help
Back pain: Affects 25% of puerperal women. Over half also had back pain during the pregnancy.
Timecourse of postpartum psychotic depression?
Begins around day 3-7 and peaks at 2 weeks
15% have recurrence in subsequent pregnancy. 1/3-1/2 develop a non-puerperal psychosis
Main benefits of HRT?
hot flushes
urogenital symptoms
sleep problems
osteoporotic fracture
colorectal cancer (combined HRT)
Risks of HRT?
DVT, PE
stroke
breast cancer (combined HRT)
endometrial cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
ovarian cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
Absolute contraindications to HRT?
acute liver disease
undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
cancer
thromboembolism
Adverse effects of HRT
HRT increases the risk of:
DVT, PE
stroke
breast cancer (combined HRT)
endometrial cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
ovarian cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
HRT does not appear to affect:
weight gain
headache, migraine
breast cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
colorectal cancer (oestrogen-only HRT)
Epidemiology of gestational tophoblastic disease?
1/1000 preg
Geohraphic variation (1/125 in Taiwan)
Increased
80% benign
15% locally invasive
5% metastatic
cure rate > 95%
What is a complete mole?
diffuse trophoblastic tissue, swollen villi, no foetal tissue
most common
46XX or 46YY: 90% paternal origin
2 sperm fertilize 1 egg or one sperm with reduplication
15-20% preogression to malignant sequillae
Presentation of molar preg
Vaginal bleeding 97%
excessive uterine size for LMP
theca lutein cyst
pre-eclampsia
hyperemesis
hyperthyroid
beta HCG >100000
no foetal heart detected
Partial mole typically presents similar to threatened/spontaneous/missed abortion
pathological diagnosis often made after D&C
What is a partial mole?
hydropic villi and focal trophoblastic hyperplasia are associated with foetus or foetal parts
often triploid (XXY, XYY, XXX) with chromosome complement from both parents
usually due to single ovum fertillized by 2 sperm
<4% (low) risk of malignant progression
foetus: growth restricted, multiple congenital abnormalities
What are features of molar pregnancies that are at high risk of developing persistent GTN?
local uterine invasion 31%
beta hcg> 100000
excessive uterine size
promenant theca lutein cysts
follow up with serial beta HCG weekly until negative x3 then monthly for 6-12m
increase or plateu--> GTN (needs chemo)
What are the types of GTN?
invasive mole or persistent GTN (4% mets)
choriocarcinoma: often present with sc of mets (may follow normal pregnancy, abortion or ectopic)
placental site trophoblastic tumour
placental site trophoblastic: rare, aggresive GTN
abnormal growth of intermediate throphoblastic cells
low beta HCG, high HPL
relatively insenitive to chemo
Do you biopsy GTN mets?
Management of GTN?
no, they bleed
manage with chemo for all stages, follow up for 1 year after beta hcg returns to normal (stg 4 2 years)
most common = lungs (80%)
also vagina, pelvis, liver, brain
brain mets: CSF beta HCG
Size of premenopausal and postmenopausal ovary?
premenopausal 6-8cm3
postmenopausal 3cm3
80% of ovarian cancers are...
epithelial
80% of ovarian cancer
• 2 diagnosed each day
• 3 women die each day
• Traditional model: arise ovarian
surface epithelium ( tubal
epithelium…serous peritoneal
cancers)
•Middle & upper classes
• Industrialized countries
• Disease of elderly
Germ cell cancers
young
dysgerminoma
fertility sparing surgery
chemo in most
LDH AFP ß hCG
Sex cord and stromal ovarian cancer
5%
old and young
unilateral
granulosa cell
E FSH LH Inhibin Testosterone
Manage with THBSO
Age at diagnosis of ovarian cancer?
9% < 40 years
21% < 50 years
Ovarian cancer disease of older women
Risk malignancy increases 12 fold from
ages 20-29 to 60-69
Overall risk of malignancy in an adnexal mass: Premenopausal women 6-11%; Postmenopausal woman 33-56%
Why should laparoscopy NOT form part of the pre-op workup for ovarian ca?
A smooth walled external
surface does not equal
benign
An irregular surface not
equal cancer
CA125
Sensitive but not specific
• Elevated in 80% non-mucinous ovarian cancers
• Elevated in only 50% stage I cancers
CA19.9
• 76% of mucinous and 27% serous carcinomas of ovary
• Lower sensitivity & specificity than CA-125 in ovarian tumour
CEA
• Elevated in 37% mucinous ovarian cancers
HE4
• Elevated in majority of ovarian carcinomas that produce CA125
as well as 50% that do not
• Not elevated in many common benign conditions
Also expressed in lung adenocarcinomas,
breast and some pancreaticobiliary
carcinomas
Role of CT scanning in ovarian Ca
•Limited role
• Delineation of internal
morphology poor
• Findings correlate
poorly with pathology
• Useful to investigate
upper abdomen:
omental disease,
diaphragm disease
What is the risk of malignancy index>
RMI=U x M x CA-125

RMI > 200--> refer to Gynae oncology
u = 0 if ultrasound score 0
1 if 1
3 if 2-5

multilocular/solid/bilateral/ascites/intra-abdominal mets
Ovarian mass in pregnancy?
1:1000 pregnancies ovarian tumour
• 3-6% malignant
•Markers may not be helpful
• MRI
Germ cell, borderline, sex cord 70%
Majority dermoids, cystadenomas,
functional cysts
What kind of postmenopausal ovarian cyst is unlikely to be malignant?
< 3-5cm
When do dermoids get ruptured and why is this a problem?
1-2% risk of malignancy
•Increased with increasing
age
Reported spillage 100%
laparoscopy vs 4%
laparotomy
Major factor for initiating menarche?
follows peak heigh velocity or 2 years following breast budding
When menarche occurs before the individual reaches the age of 12 years, it is associated with increases in weight and body mass index Genetics accounts for the majority of the variability; other factors include overall health, social environment (such as family stress or the presence of an adult nonbiologically-related male), and possibly environmental exposures, such as endocrine disruptors (environmental contaminants that may affect endocrine processes)
The earliest secondary sexual characteristic in most girls is breast/areolar development (thelarche) (picture 2A), although a substantial minority have pubic hair as the initial manifestation
Gold standard for diagnosis of endometriosis?
The optimal way to diagnose endometriosis is by direct visualization of the implant(s)
If the diagnostic impression is most consistent with endometriosis after a complete initial evaluation, then most experts consider empiric medical therapy without surgical confirmation a safe and effective approach. However, a satisfactory response to empiric treatment cannot be construed as definitive confirmation or exclusion of the diagnosis. Options include a three-month trial of combined continuous oral contraceptive pills or a GnRH agonist.
Normal semen analysis?
•Volume — 1.5 mL
•Sperm concentration — 15 million spermatozoa/mL
•Total sperm number— 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate
•Morphology — 4 percent normal forms
•Vitality — 58 percent live
•Progressive motility — 32 percent
•Total (progressive + nonprogressive motility) — 40 percent
toronto: vol 2-5ml
count 20million/ml
motility: 50% forward
morphology >30% normal
abscence of pyospermia, hyperviscosity, agglutination
14 weeks pregnant. 3 pregnancies in 4 years. Blood test results where given
(answer was Iron Def anaemia)
Diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy
answer was >1500 HCG and lack of intrauterine gestational sack on vaginal ultrasound.
Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum
ETN is characterized by multiple erythematous macules and papules (1 to 3 mm in diameter) that rapidly progress to pustules on an erythematous base
Wright-stained smear of the contents of a pustule that demonstrates numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils
MILIA
Milia are white papules caused by retention of keratin and sebaceous material in the pilaceous follicles. They are frequently found on the nose and cheeks, and resolve in the first few weeks of life.
NEONATAL ACNE
Neonatal acne may be present at birth, or develop over the first 2-4 weeks of life.
The condition consists of pustules over the cheeks primarily, but also involves other areas of the face and the scalp. As opposed to infantile acne (which develops after 2 months) and acne of adolescence, there are no comedomes in the neonatal form.
Miliara
Accum of sweat beneath eccrine sweat ducts that are obstructed by keratin at the level of the stratum corneum.
Sucking blisters
Congenital sucking blisters, a diagnosis of exclusion, are noninflammatory oval, thick-walled vesicles or bullae that contain sterile fluid [28]. The lesions may be unilateral or bilateral and typically are located on the dorsal or radial aspect of the wrists, hands, or fingers of neonates who are noted to suck excessively at the involved regions
Mongolian spots
Mongolian spots typically appear as congenital blue-grey pigmented macules with indefinite borders, although they can also be greenish-blue or brown
Fade in first decade of life
common in asian infants
Treatment of pain in endometriosis
Mild: NSAIDS, OCP if need contraception
Mod: if above do not work: GnRH agonist if want to avoid bmd loss:progestin
if v. severe/advanced: surgical therapy +/- medical maintenance
Treatment of pelvic mass in endometriosis
Therefore, surgery is the preferred therapeutic approach.
Treatment of deep endometriosis
surgical rather than medical therapy for pelvic pain, dyscopesis, dyspareunia
Baby poor feeding, hypothermic (35.9), cool, mottled- what do you do?
these are signs of hypothyroidism (prolonged jaundice, delayed passage of stools, hypothermia, poor tine, mottled skin, poor feeding) – screening should be repeated even if the original screening result was normal. Screening programs miss some cases of ceongenital hypothyroidism as a result of early discharge, lab errors improper or no specimen collection, hospital transfers, sick neonates, prematurity, low birth weights and home deliveries.
Maternal Mortality statistics
1 in 10,000 (they had 10 in 100,000 so this was correct)
Apgar scoring
Appearance: Blue or white- Acrocyanosis- Pink
Pulse: absent, <100, >100
Grimace: absent, grimace of beeble cry, cry
Activity/tone: floppy/some flexion/moving
respiration: Absent-Weak/irregular/gasping-Cry
Let down reflex
Nerve impulses from sucking reach hypothalamus  stimulate posterior pituitary to release oxytocin  stimulates myoepithelial cells surrounding alveoli to contract  milk is ejected from alveoli and small ducts to flow to large ducts and nipple
Negative emotional and physical factors can reduce the letdown reflex
Breat feeding with hep C, hep B , HIV
Hep C: yes: • Overall – risk of Hepatitis C Virus via breastfeeding is very low (lower than for HIV)
• No effective preventive therapies (IG or vaccine) exist
• Current position – no data exist that indicate that HCV is transmitted through breast milk
The infants should be tested at 3 months and 12-15 months of age for HCV status
PROM – which is correct:
an option was Antibiotics delay the onset of labour (this is correct im pretty sure)
HIV UN Recommendation: No (in developed countries)
Hep B Yes (vaccinate and Ig)
Baby poor feeding, hypothermic (35.9), cool, mottled- what do you do?
these are signs of hypothyroidism (prolonged jaundice, delayed passage of stools, hypothermia, poor tine, mottled skin, poor feeding) – screening should be repeated even if the original screening result was normal. Screening programs miss some cases of ceongenital hypothyroidism as a result of early discharge, lab errors improper or no specimen collection, hospital transfers, sick neonates, prematurity, low birth weights and home deliveries.
Maternal Mortality statistics
1 in 10,000 (they had 10 in 100,000 so this was correct)
Apgar scoring
Appearance: Blue or white- Acrocyanosis- Pink
Pulse: absent, <100, >100
Grimace: absent, grimace of beeble cry, cry
Activity/tone: floppy/some flexion/moving
respiration: Absent-Weak/irregular/gasping-Cry
Let down reflex
Nerve impulses from sucking reach hypothalamus  stimulate posterior pituitary to release oxytocin  stimulates myoepithelial cells surrounding alveoli to contract  milk is ejected from alveoli and small ducts to flow to large ducts and nipple
Negative emotional and physical factors can reduce the letdown reflex
Breat feeding with hep C, hep B , HIV
Hep C: yes: • Overall – risk of Hepatitis C Virus via breastfeeding is very low (lower than for HIV)
• No effective preventive therapies (IG or vaccine) exist
• Current position – no data exist that indicate that HCV is transmitted through breast milk
The infants should be tested at 3 months and 12-15 months of age for HCV status
PROM – which is correct:
an option was Antibiotics delay the onset of labour (this is correct im pretty sure)
HIV UN Recommendation: No (in developed countries)
Hep B Yes (vaccinate and Ig)