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84 Cards in this Set

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always take a Pap smear when doing a speculum examination unless
results are likely to be obscured by blood or unless a normal smear was obtained recently.
what do you do with a young woman with amenorrhoea or menstrual irregularity who presents with pain and bleeding
always do a pregnancy test and exclude ectopic pregnancy
dx low abdo pain in female
non gynaecological: appendix, urinary tract infection
gynaecological: pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, miscarriage (threatened, missed, complete), ectopic
what additional hx of low abdo pain in a female do you need
prior occurences, details of loss (postcoital), hx pain, symptoms, bladder/bowel change, temp, menstral hx, contraceptive use
What is the cellular cause of a positive pregnancy test?
a trophoblast producing HCG somewhere.
majority of extrauterine pregnancies are located in
the uterine tube (97%)
what do you do if ectopic pregnancy is suspected?
urgent assessment in hospital to either confirm or exclude ectopic pregnancy
whose life is at stake with ectopic preg?
there is no way in which fetus can be preserved and no chance of the pregnancy developing normally. The issue here is mother's life
ectopic pregnancy - how to exclude
urgent vaginal ultrasound examination to see whether there is an intrauterine pregnancy or not, whether it is developing normally or not, or whether the pregnancy is outside the uterus.
What is involved in taking an informed consent for a laparoscopy?
risk anaesthetic, damage vessel/bladder/ureter/stomach/intestine 1 in 2k, haemorrhage -> transfusion, gas embolism, infection
laparoscopy description
GA, co2 in abdo via verres needle, laproscope (camera), accessory ports +-, instruments via ports, resid. co2 may cause shoulder pain
preop preparation for ectopic surgery
complete blood picture (FBE), group and save, antid if rhD neg, iv access, fasting time (nill mouth 6 hrs), advise staff
Where does the progesterone come from?
Trophoblast itself or the corpus luteum. The life span of the corpus luteum is limited unless it is sustained by HCG produced by the trophoblast (a corpus luteum that lasts for 17 days or more indicates pregnancy until proven otherwise).
risk factors for ectopic
anything hinders or delays tx of ovum to uterine cavity or implantation in uterine cav
PID, prior tubal surgery, tubal sterilisation, progesterone contraceptives, IUCDs, incr materal age, smoking
ectopic symptom triad
­ amenorrhoea
­ abdominal pain
­ irregular vaginal bleeding
most specific findings on clinical examination for ectopic
peritoneal signs and cervical motion tenderness
clear evidence of ectopic pregnancy would be the combination of:
­
HCG level in excess of 1,000 milliunits/mL and empty uterus on transvaginal ultrasound.
HCG levels at 5, 6 and 7 weeks
1k, 2.5k and 13k mIU/mL
ectopic management 3 ways
conservative (i.e. wait and see)
, medical (i.e. methotrexate systemically), surgical: laparoscopically or by laparotomy salpingostomy or salpingectomy
methotrexate -> what does it do to fetus?
methotrexate is a folate antagonist and cytotoxic agent. It blocks DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells, such as the rapidly growing trophoblast - abortant
endometriosis is
Students frequently define it as 'endometrium outside the uterus', which excludes cervical endometriosis and adenomyosis from the definition. Correct is: 'endometrium outside its normal location'
When do you administer anti-D gammaglobulin during pregnancy
after checking antibodies - baby rh+ and mother rh-
if mother rh- then administer prophylacticly
Describe the components of informed consent for anti D maternal administration
anti-D is blood product, vanishing small risk of blood-borne disease, anti-d admin will not affect this baby, will prevent rh sensit if this baby is rh pos, offers protection against rh disease in subseq pregnancies, may need to repeat periodically t/o preg (3 times?)
preterm baby is imminent -> what should mum be administered
commence course of corticosteroids betamethasone 11.4 mg intramuscular, 2 doses, 24 hours apart
what does a GBS carrier mum need in birth
antibiotics in labour 3 gram loading dose of benzyl penicillin IV, then 1.2 gram 4–hourly IV; if allergic for penicillin: azithromycin 500 mg IV daily
why would one artificially rupture the membranes
to induce labour
is a 950 gram baby normal
Nari, it's extremly low birthweight (< 1kg)
What is the Kleihauer test and what does it measure?
The Kleihauer test (described by Kleihauer, Braun and Betke in 1957) is used to detect and quantify fetal red cells in the maternal circulation.
The test does not test for Rh D positive cells, but tests for the presence of red cells containing Hb F (fetal haemoglobin); to judge whether fetomaternal transfusion occurred in a woman who is still pregnant and therefore may be causing fetal anaemia
Low birthweight immediate risks for baby (x3)
a)­ respiratory morbidity (associated with preterm birth and passive smoking) b)sudden infant death (associated with preterm – growth restriction – smoking)
c) deficit in cognitive and neurological development
In later life low birthweight has associations with:
­
increased insulin resistance
­ elevated cholesterol
­ hypertension
­ diabetes
­ cardiovascular disease
­ obstructive lung disease
­ renal impairment
risks for "cervical intraepithelial neoplasia," or "CIN."
young age at coitarche (two-fold increase with coitarche less than 16 years), multiple sexual partners (epidemiologically, multiple is considered to be > 10), ‘high risk’ male partners, HPV infection (especially oncogenic strains: HPV types 16/18 and also 31/33/35), smoking, high parity (developing nations)
what if lab confirms aberrant CIN from swab results
colposcopic assessment of the cervix
what is LLETZ
large loop excision of the transformation zone (< than 7mm deep)
colposcopic procedure to determine CIN deep in os
surgical cold knife cone biopsy
is a pap smear a diagnostic or screening test
Pap smear screening is aimed at preventing cervical cancer by detecting (and leading to the treatment of) pre-cancerous lesions. Pap smear screening is less reliable for the detection of cervical cancer. It is not a diagnostic test
What is cervical carinoma stages 0 and II
• stage 0 carcinoma in situ (preinvasive)
• stage I confined to the cervix
I-A only microscopically visible
I-B clinically visible
• stage II extends beyond the cervix but does not extend to the pelvic walls
II-A without parametrial involvement
II-B with parametrial involvement
• stage III extends to side wall but does not extend beyond the pelvis
• stage IV invades bladder or rectum or extends (or spreads) beyond the pelvis
How does cervical cancer spread?
local spread to surrounding structures + lymphatic (haematogenous is usually later)
What treatment options are available for the management of cervical carcinoma?
Surgery and radiation. Rad can be used in all stages of disease whereas surgery is generally limited to patients with stage I and II-A disease
what is a radical hysterectomy
a useless term in medicine due to lack of precision.
How do you describe a hysterectomy accurately
1. refer to hysterectomy as total or subtotal depending on whether the cervix is removed or not.
2. add "with (unilateral or bilateral) ovariectomy" (or oophorectomy) depending on whether ovaries are removed.
3. add "with lymphadenectomy" for extension of the surgery to the upper vaginal cuff, parametria and lymph nodes.
maternal hypertension is defined as
• hypertension is diagnosed if systolic blood pressure is ≥ 140 mm Hg and/or diastolic blood pressure is ≥ 90 mm Hg on two separate occasions at least 4 hours apart (some consider a single diastolic reading ≥ 110 mm Hg as equivalent)
significant material proteinuria is defined as
≥ 300 mg per 24 hours or ≥ 30 mg per mmol creatinine in a spot sample (some consider two or more 2+ proteinuria readings by dipstick in clean-catch specimens at least 4 hours apart as equivalent
Gestational hypertension is defined as
hypertension arising after 20 weeks gestation which is not associated with other features of a multisystem disorder and which resolves within 3 months after pregnancy
preeclampsia is
gestational hypertension associated with features of a multisystem disorder:
- proteinuria (the most common, but not an obligatory sign)
- abnormal renal function
- abnormal liver function
- neurological problems (e.g. hyperreflexia)
- haematological disturbances (e.g. low platelets, haemolysis)
- utero-placental compromise (e.g. fetal growth restriction)
Eclampsia is
convulsions and / or coma in a woman with preeclampsia
risks of pregnancy with IUCD in situ:
Given pregnancy with IUCD in place, spontaneous miscarriage arises 50%, Significant risk of septic abortion necessitates removal of IUCD if pregnancy is confirmed and strings are visible.
if maternal BP > 170mm or > 110 diastolic represents a
med emerg -> admission to a hospital immediately and treatment to prevent eclampsia and cerebral haemorr
maternal complications of preeclampsia
• Eclampsia (can occur up to 48 hours postpartum)
• Multiple organ dysfunction (hepatic, renal, vascular)
• Bleeding: mainly cerebral and hepatic
• Coagulation disorders (beware: operative bleeding)
• Maternal death (most frequently related to cerebral bleeding)
infant complications of preeclampsia
Infant uteroplacental vascularisation is threatened and thus:
• Fetal growth restriction (mainly with superimposed preeclampsia)
• Fetal death
• Need for preterm delivery (with its consequences)
what tissue causes preeclampsia and eclampsia?
It occurs only in the presence of a placenta and is resolved by its removal.
prophylactic magnesium sulphate is used to prevent
eclampsia in women with preeclampsia
magnesium sulphate should be administered whenever
there is a genuine risk of an eclamptic fit.
what is better treatment of eclampsia, magnesium sulfate or diazempam?
MgSO4
when explaining to mum, do you use the term fetus or babs?
Nein
What do variable decelerations indicate
Decelerations are variable if there is no consistent relation with contractions - severe variable decelerations are likely to exhaust fetal reserves if they are not already a sign of it.
What is a good cure for eclampsia?
an emergency caesarean section if near term
what is an unripe cervix
one with unfavourable induction prospects
What general factors does the Bishop score consider
cervical dilation, effacement in %, consistency of cervix (eg firm/soft), position of cervix in pelvis (eg anterior or posterior), descent of fetal head in relation to spines
How do you resolve the conflict between maternal and fetal rights?
The mother has the right to choose management.
Describe categories for informed consent for caesarean sections
anaesthetic risks, operative risks, post operative risks, infant risks, and long term risks
risk of recurrence of pre-eclampsia is about
25% (probably higher after early onset disease or after eclampsia); recurrences tend to occur later in pregnancy and be less severe.
List the effects of obesity in pregnancy?
increased risks
• miscarriage
• fetal malformations (mainly, but not only neural tube defects)
• hypertension (pre-existent, gestational, and also preeclampsia)
• gestational diabetes
• caesarean section (both elective and unplanned – approximately 2-fold increase)
• operative and postoperative complications of caesarean section, including:
- anaesthetic risks
- prolonged operation time
- excessive bleeding
- thromboembolism
- impaired wound healing
- wound infection
- urinary tract infection
• macrosomia (with risk of shoulder dystocia)
• thromboembolism
• maternal infectious morbidity (especially postpartum and postoperative)
• all obstetric intervention including induction and augmentation of labour
• prolonged labour
• perineal trauma
• back pain
• asthma
• obstructive sleep apnoea
• depression (in and after pregnancy)
• breastfeeding difficulties
Contrast a glucose challenge test vs a glucose tolerence test
GTT is a diagnostic test and a GCT is a screening test. GCT - 50g glucose venous blood after one hour > 7.8mmol/L needs GTT , GTT 75 g glucose after 8hrs fast. GTT fasting gluc > 5.5 or 2hr gluc > = 7.8.
postpartum bleeding is caused by
uterine atony (> 90 %) until the uterus contracts well enough to crush spiral arteries to arrest flow and let coagulation occur
describe the placental bed - how much blood does it transmit?
The placental bed basically consists of a large area of open arteries (spiral arteries) fed by uterine arteries with a blood flow of about 500 mL per min at term (i.e. about one tenth of the entire blood volume)
Unprotected regular intercourse will achieve pregnancy within a year in:
­ ± 90% at age 25
­ ± 60% at age 38
infertility is defined as
failure to conceive within one year (with regular intercourse).
How do you calculate expected date of delivery given 30 day cycle and an IVF pregnancy?
266 days after fertilisation
OR
• Fertilisation plus (+) 280 days minus (-) 14 days
what is an abortion
a term that should not be used due to psychological and precision reasons - the clinical terms are either miscarriage or termination of pregnancy.
What is oligospermia? How is it remedied?
semen with a low concentration of sperm - a potential cause of infertility - may be increased (possibly) if there was insufficient period of abstinence
What is a breech presentation?
The baby enters the birth canal with the buttocks or feet first as opposed to the normal head first presentation. The majority of breech babies born are delivered by Caesarean section.
OH NO, a woman has a breech presentation at 32 weeks, what to do?
Breech presentation is frequent at 32 weeks (± 20%). No action required. Plan caesarean section if breech presentation persists
What is the most reliable method to determine a baby's sex?
Childbirth.
What does it mean when the baby's head is crowning?
It means you feel as thought not only a crown but the entire throne is trying to make it's way out of you.
describe the three estrogens and when they occur
estradiol (non-pregnant)
estriol (pregnancy)
estrone (menopause)
what happens on days 0, 3 and 6 post conception
day 0 --> fertilization in the distal oviduct
day 3 --> entry of morula into uterine cavity
day 6 --> implantation of the blastocyst onto endometrium, formation of trophoblast (placenta) and embryonic cells
would you give coumadin to a pregnant woman?
category X teratogen, verboden in pregnancy incls. isotretinoin, danocrine, pravachol, coumadin, cafergot
what have lithium, streptomycin, tetracyclin, thalidomide, trimethodione and valproic acid got in common?
teratogens
What are the following risk factors for :
antiphospholipid syndrome, maternal diabetes, maternal trauma, severe maternal isoimmunization, fetal aneuploidy, fetal infection
fetal demise
what's the name of the procedure :
performed after 15 weeks; needle is placed under ultrasound; guidance ; amniotic fluid is aspirated; amniocytes are sent for karyotyping; neural tube defects are screened with alphafetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase
amniocentesis
name the technique used to visualize the endometrium under magnification
hysteroscopy - abnormal areas of endometrium can be seen and biopsied indicated by endometrial carcinoma / dysfunctional uterine bleeding
name the method of obtaining endometrial tissue for examination
Dilation and curettage. Largely a diagnostic tool in the managementof dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Can be used to treat endometrial polyps.
name the surgical method of removing body of uterus conserving cervix
subtotal hysterectomy
name the method : enucleation of the tumour from its capsule of ovairan tissue, which is then rolled into a little bundle and held together with sutures, thus preserving ovarian function”
ovarian cystectomy