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52 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
first trimester is ___ thru ___th w
|
0
12 |
|
second trimester is ___ thru ___th w
|
12
28 |
|
third trimester is ___ thru ___th w
|
28
40 |
|
normal pregnancy term is ___ to ___ w
|
37
42 |
|
5 sx of pregnancy
|
amenorrhea
nausea breast tenderness urinary frequency fatigue |
|
4 physical signs of pregnancy
|
goodell's
chadwick's hegar's uterine enlargement |
|
goodell's sign is ___
it occurs at ___ w |
softening of cx
4--6 |
|
chadwick's sign is ___
|
bluish discoloration of cx and vagina
|
|
hegar's sign is ___
it occurs at ___ w |
softening of cxal isthmus
6--8 |
|
bhCG is positive in serum ___ days post-conception
it is positive in urine ___ days after LMP its function is ___ |
9
28 maintain corpus luteum during pregnancy |
|
plasma levels of bhCG double every ___ until ___
peak level is ___ IU level at term is ___ IU |
1--2 d
8--10 w 100,000 10,000 |
|
DD of low bhCG (3)
|
wrong dating
ectopic pregnancy abortion |
|
DD of high bhCG (4)
|
wrong dating
multiple gestation Down's syn molar pregnancy |
|
TVUS can see a gestational sac at ___ w,
or a bhCG of ___ |
5
1500 |
|
TVUS can see fetal heart tones at ___ w
|
7--8
|
|
abdominal US can see a pregnancy at ___ w
|
6--8
|
|
platelets are physiologically ___ in preg
|
low (but >70000)
|
|
WBC count is physiologically ___ in preg
|
high
|
|
WBC function is physiologically ___ in preg
this explains |
low
improvement in autoimmune conditions |
|
progesterone causes ___ (4)
|
low GE sphincter tone
increased cholestasis constipation increased CO2 sensitivity |
|
pregnancy causes ____ of thyroid and
___ of total T4 and TBG |
enlargement
increase |
|
pregnancy causes ___ of free T4
|
no change
|
|
pregnancy causes ___ of TSH
|
no change
|
|
maternal cortisol ___s throughout preg
|
rises
|
|
albumin ____s during preg
this causes ___ total Ca2+ |
falls
reduced |
|
preg causes ___ in free Ca2+
|
no change
|
|
1st leopold maneuver determines ___
|
what part is in fundus
|
|
2nd leopold maneuver determines ___
|
which way fetal back is pointing
|
|
3rd leopold maneuver determines ___
|
what part is at pelvic inlet
|
|
4th leopold maneuver determines ___
|
position of fetal brow (assuming cephalic presentation)
|
|
NST is indicated if ___ or ___ is suspected
|
uteroplacental insufficiency
fetal distress |
|
T/F: NST is very sensitive
|
true
|
|
NST is reassuring if ___
|
>=2 accelerations observed over 20 minutes
|
|
acceleration on NST means rise of ___ lasting ___
|
15 bpm
15 s |
|
if NST is non-reactive, do ___
|
BPP
|
|
4 parameters of BPP
|
amniotic fluid volume
respiratory movements limb movements fetal tone |
|
AFV satisfies BPP criterion if ___
|
2cm pocket in 2 axes
|
|
respiratory movements satisfy BPP criterion if ___
|
1 episode lasting 30 s
|
|
limb movements satisfy BPP criterion if ___
|
3 different movements
|
|
fetal tone satisfies BPP criterion if ___
|
extension followed by flexion
|
|
first trimester screen is done at w ___
it includes ___ (3) |
11-14
NTUS bhCG PAPP-A |
|
maternal serum screen is done at w ___
it includes ___ (3) |
16
MSAFP bhCG E3 |
|
integrated prenatal screen includes ___ from first trimester screen and ___ from MSS
|
NTUS
PAPP-A all markers |
|
5 causes of elevated AFP
|
wrong dating
multiple gestation NTD fetal demise abdominal wall defects |
|
4 causes of low AFP
|
wrong dating
missed abortion chromosomal anomaly gestational trophoblastic neoplasia |
|
6 risk factors for neonatal GBS
|
GBS bacteruria during current pregnancy
+ve GBS screen during current pregnancy prior infant had GBS preterm labor PROM fever |
|
prophylactic antiobiotics are given if ___ (2)
|
GBS screen is +ve
GBS status unknown and RF present |
|
3 indications for amniocentesis
|
identification of genetic anomalies
assessment of fetal lung maturity measure bilirubin level |
|
amnio may be done at ___ w
|
from 15 and on
|
|
CVS may be done at ___ w
|
10--12
|
|
advantage of CVS over amnio
|
can be done earlier
|
|
2 advantages of amnio over CVS
|
lower risk of abortion
better genetic dx (no problems with mosaicism) |