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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Neoplasia
|
new growth
ie. tumor |
|
Benign neoplasm
|
-do not invade, do not metastasize
- localized overgrowth of cells -well differentiated -look and act normal -well circumscribed/encapsulated -clear borders |
|
Malignant neoplasm
|
-INVADE & METASTASIZE (or have potential for metastasis)
-no clear boundaries -loss of at least some aspect of differentiations |
|
Well differentiated
|
=normal/benign tissue
|
|
Poorly differentiated
|
=lack of resemblance to cell type of origin
=malignant |
|
Metastasis
|
leaving tissue or origin and moving elsewhere in the body via: Hematogenous, Lymph, or Direct Seating
|
|
Hematogenous Spread
|
Metastasis via the blood
|
|
Lymphatic Spread
|
Metastasis via the lymph
|
|
Direct Seating
|
Metastasis via attaching directly onto another organ/tissue (nearby)
|
|
Most common benign neoplasm of the breast
|
Fibroadenoma
|
|
Most common MALIGNANT neoplasm of breast
|
Invasive ductal carcinoma (Scirrhous adenocarcinoma)
|
|
What neoplastic cell(s) are involved in fibroadenoma?
|
Stroma and Epithelium
|
|
What is the neoplastic cell involved in invasive ductal carcinoma?
|
TDLU
terminal ducts lubular unit |
|
Characteristics of fibroadenoma and invasive ductal carcinoma (compared to normal breast)
|
highly pleomorphic
hyperchromatic large compared to cytoplasm |
|
Invasion (Infiltration)
|
Spread within the primary site/organ
|
|
Carcinoma
|
malignant growth of epithelial origin
|
|
Pleomorphism
|
vary large and bizarre cells= Tumor Giant Cells
|
|
Hyperchromatism
|
large dark staining nuclei
|
|
Tumor Giant Cell
|
Pleomorphic (large and bizarre shapes), may be multinucleated
|
|
What condition commonly leads to hepatoma (carcinoma of the liver)?
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
carcinoma
|
malignant- of epithelial origin
|
|
hematuria
|
blood in urine
|
|
nephrectomy
|
removal of a kidney
|
|
What is the single most common presenting sign of renal cell carcinoma
|
hematuria
|
|
What is the most common lifestyle risk factor associated with Renal Cell Carcinoma
|
Smoking (Tobacco Use)
|
|
What is the most common sites of metastasis associated with Renal Cell Carcinoma
|
Lung
Bone |
|
What are the recommendations (of the American Cancer Society) for mammography for women?
|
Women over the age of 40; or if at high risk: 10 years prior to when relative was diagnosed.
|
|
What is the purpose of a baseline mammogram?
|
comparison
|
|
What is a tumor Marker
|
Substances that are produced by cancer or by other cells of the body in response to cancer or certain benign (noncancerous) conditions. Most tumor markers are made by normal cells as well as by cancer cells; however, they are produced at much higher levels in cancerous conditions.
Most are proteins |
|
2 Types of Tumor Markers
|
1. Ectopic Proteins
2. Normal cell products synthesized in excess by tumor cells (i.e. PSA) |
|
What are the current American Cancer Society recommendations for PSA testing?
|
50yo (if life expectence >10 years)
|
|
#1 cause of death in the US
|
Heart Disease
|
|
Between 1991-2007 we have been more successful in treating which... Heart Disease or Cancer
|
Heart Disease (even though both have been increasingly successful)
|
|
#1 cause of cancer men?
|
Prostate
|
|
#1 cause of cancer women?
|
Breast
|
|
#1 cause of cancer deaths in the US?
|
Lung (and Bronchus)
|
|
Which cancer rate has declined the most in men? 1930-2007
|
Stomach
|
|
Which cancer rate has increased the most in females? 1930-2007
|
Lung/Bronchus
|
|
What ethnic group in the U.S. has the highest death rate due to cancer?
|
African American (males and females)
|
|
Adenoma
|
benign neoplastic growth of glandular epithelium
|
|
_______ tumors are more likely to take up radioactive iodine than ______ tumors
|
Benign
Malignant |
|
Differentiation
|
resemblence to the mature normal cell of the tissue of origin
|
|
"-oma"
|
implies benign growth
|
|
"-carcinoma"
|
implies malignant growth; of epithelial origin
|
|
"-sarcoma"
|
implies malignant growth of mesenchymal origin
|
|
"adeno-"
|
neoplastic growth of glandular epithelium
adenoma= benign adenocarcinoma= malignant |
|
anaplasia
|
cellular atypia; lack of differentiation (usually associated with metastasis or en route)
|
|
Histologic evidence of malignant tumors (6)
|
Invasion (most impt!!)
Anaplasia Pleomorphism Hyperchromatism Loss of architecture Increases mitotic activity |
|
Invasion
|
spread within the primary site tissue/organ of origin
|
|
How does hematogenous metastatic spread occur?
|
malignant cells invade arteries/veins
(i.e. Thyroid) |
|
How does lymphatic metastatic spread occur?
|
malignant cells invade nearby lymph vessels and into LNs where they proliferate
(i.e. aorta) |
|
How does direct seeding metastatic spread occur?
|
(direct seeding=direct extension)
metastatic cells invade through Connective Tissues into adjacent organ/tissues OR 'float' through closed body cavities to organs/tissues within I.e. Ovarian cancer cells --> small bowel |
|
2 components of tumors
|
1. parenchyma (proliferating cells)
2. stromal components (blood vessels and CT)-- angiogenesis |
|
What pattern of inflammation is illicited via malignancies?
|
Chronic inflammation
|
|
Which WBCs aid in tumor immunity?
|
****CD8+ T-Cells (recognize TSAs)
Macrophages B-lymphocytes Natural Killer Cells |
|
Organ tropism
|
homing of malignant cells to specific organs for no understandable reason
I.e. Renal/Prostate Cancers-->Bone GI cancers --------------> Liver Lung cancers ---------->Brain |
|
What is involved in the GRADING of cancer?
|
Assessing the level of differentiation; to predict the clinical aggressiveness.
Can only be completed via biopsy and microscope |
|
What is involved in STAGING cancer?
|
assessing the extent of spread of cancer; provides a Prognosis*
TMN scale |
|
Tumor Immunosurveillance
|
recognizing and destroying of cancer cells by the immune system
|
|
Desmoplasia
|
formation of abundant dense CT stroma
(I.e. 'schirrous' carcinoma of the breast= hardened, desmoplastic response that makes breast feel hard and 'stony') |
|
MC primary bone tumor
|
Osteosarcoma/Osteogenic Sarcoma
|
|
Traits of Osteosarcoma (4)
|
1. Bimodal age expression-- most common in adolescents (boys>girls), and elderly
2. Long bones of extremities; in the metaphysis 3. Mutations of Rb and p53 genes (Tumor supressor genes) 4. Mets to LUNG via hematogenous spread, other bones, pleura and heart |
|
Osteosarcoma most often metastasizes to the _________ via which type of spread??
|
to the LUNG
via HEMATOGENOUS spread |
|
2nd MC Primary Bone Tumor
|
Chondrosarcoma
|
|
Characteristics of Chondrosarcoma (3)
|
1. MC in 30-60yo
2. in flat bones (ribs, pelvis, scal, sternum) 3. Mets to LUNG (hematogenous) |
|
Marked dysplastic epithelial changes, still confined to the basement membrane (pre-invasive)
|
Carcinoma in situ
|
|
Why do we grade cancers?
|
an attempt to predict the clinical behavior of a malignancy and to establish criteria for therapy/treatment
|
|
Explain the: Gleason Grading System
|
based on 5 histologic patterns of tumor formation and infiltration. 2 scores given based on 2 biopsies. Each graded 1-5 and then added together. Lower scores=well-differentiated and High scores=poor differentiation
|
|
MC grading system
|
PAP Smears
-screen for cervical dysplasia/cancer -uses 3 grades |
|
CIN grading system
|
CIN=Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
-based on increased nucleus:cytoplasm ratio CIN I: mild dysplasia CIN II: moderate CIN III: severe dysplasia/carcinoma in situ |
|
Staging assesses for...
|
cancer spread
|
|
We stage cancers to...
|
aid in prognosis, treatment/therapy options
|
|
TMN system
|
T: Size of primary tumor (T1-T4)
N: Regional LN spread (N0-N3) M: presence of metastasis (M0-M1) |
|
T0N0M0
|
Carcinoma in situ
|
|
chondrosarcoma
|
malignant bone cancer
|
|
Chondrosarcoma preferentially metastasizes to...
|
LUNGS
(bone --> lungs) |
|
Who is most prone to chondrosarcoma?
|
MC in 30-60yo
(seen in flat bones) |
|
Key risk factor associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Larynx
|
Smoking
(and male) |
|
Most common presenting symptom with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
|
Hoarseness
|
|
What may present clinically in a patient that suffers from Pancreatic Cancer involving the head of the pancreas?
|
Jaundice
-present in ~50% of these cases (otherwise an asymptomatic cancer so this is very important!) |
|
Pancreatic cancer preferentially metastasizes to the??
|
Liver, Lungs, +/- periosteum
(bc it is in the periosteum, sits on the liver, goes to the lungs) |
|
2 Staging systems used in Osteosarcoma
|
1. Surgical Staging
2. AJCC (we use) |
|
What portion of osteosarcomas are diagnosed when localized?
|
4/5
(1/5 are diagnosed when it has already become metastatic) |
|
What route of metastasis does osteosarcoma typical spread by?
|
Hematogenous Metastatic Spread (to the Lungs!)
|
|
What specific areas of bone are typically involved in the metastatic spread of prostate cancer?
|
Vertebral column
Ribs Pancreas |
|
Vaccine for Prostate Cancer
|
sipuleucel-T
|
|
sipuleucel-T targets what type of cells?
|
Dendritic Cells (it acts as an antigen-presenting cell; helps to strengthen the immune system)
|
|
What specific lymphocyte can recognize TSAs and destroy/lyse antigen producing cancer cells?
|
CD8+ T Lymphocytes
|
|
3 factors considered in STAGING
|
1. Tumor size
2. Presence of LN mets 3. Presence of distant mets |
|
Paraneoplastic conditions
|
Remote effects (produced by cancer) that are not attributable to tumor invasion or to metastasis. Rarely lethal but dominate the clinical course and therefore important to recognize to treat early!
|
|
PBH
|
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
|
|
Most prevalent cancer in US men
|
Adenocarcinoma of the Prostate
|
|
Characteristics of adenocarcinoma of the prostate
|
Small malignant glands iwth enlarged nuclei
Prominent nuclei Dark cytoplasm |
|
Prostate cancer preferentially metastasizes to the seminal vesicles via....
|
Direct Seeding/Extension
|
|
MC benign neoplasm of the breast
|
Fibroadenoma
|
|
MC histological type of breast cancer
|
Invasive Ductal Carcinoma
-irregular white, firm mass surrounded by fatty tissue -invasive ductal carcinoma cells invading stroma |
|
Type of staining that can show evidence of HER2 in breast cancer cells
|
Cytochemical Staining
|
|
HER2
|
-Human epidermal growth factor receptor
-signals cell growth in response to estrogen -oncogene (also ERB2) -marker for Breast Cancer |
|
Protooncogenes
|
normal genes which promote normal cell growth
|
|
Oncogenes
|
altered versions of normal protooncogenes which promote autonomous growth in cancer cells; promote cell growth in the absence of normal mitogenic signals (I.e erb, ret,myc, ras, sis)
|
|
Tumor Suppressor Genes
|
aka Anti-oncogenes
-produce proteins which apply breaks to cellular proliferation -mutations of these genes allow for excessive cellular proliferation -p53, Rb, BRCA1/2, APC) |
|
Apoptotic Genes
|
genes that regulate apoptosis, normal apoptotic balance is achieved by balance of anti-apoptotic and pro-apoptotis genes
|
|
Some malignancies express overexpression of _________Bcl-2 or deletions of ____________bax
|
Anti-apoptotic Bcl-2
Pro-apoptotic bax |
|
how does a primary lung cancer present?
|
One large main tumor invades the parenchyma
|
|
4 Histological Subtypes of Lung Carcinomas
|
1. Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
2. Gland-forming adenocarcinoma 3. Small cell carcinoma 4. Large cell carcinoma |
|
Which types of lung cancers are associated with cigarette smoking?
|
Squamous Cell and Small Cell Carcinomas
|
|
MC lung cancer among women and non-smokers
|
Adenocarcinoma
|
|
Metastatic lung cancer is ____ prevalent than primary lung cancer
|
MORE- because many cancers metastasize to the lungs.
~1/3 of all cancer deaths show metastasis to the lungs |
|
Most prevalent skin cancer
|
Basal Cell Carcinoma
(particularly in fair-skinned people) -not highly metastatic |
|
2nd most prevalent skin cancer
|
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
-not very metastatic |
|
3rd most prevalent skin cancer
|
Malignant melanoma
-increasing in incidence at the fastest rate of the skin cancers therefore high metastatic potential |
|
what skin cancer has the higheset metastatic potential?
|
Malignant Melanoma
|
|
What is the growth pattern of Malignant Melanoma?
|
1. Inital Radial Growth (good prognosis)
2. Vertical Growth phase- into dermis (poor prognosis) |
|
Leukemia
|
Neoplastic disorders of uncontrolled proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells, originates in bone marrow, malignant cells spill into peripheral circulation.
|
|
Leukemias are classified based on what 2 things?
|
malignant cell maturity and cell type
|
|
Describe Acute Leukemias?
|
involve more blast, immature cells, more poorly differentiated
|
|
Describe Chronic Leukemias?
|
more mature cells involved, better differentiated
|
|
Describe Lymphocytic Leukemias?
|
from lymphocytic lines (T and B Lymphocytes)
|
|
Describe Myelogenous Leukemias?
|
from myeloid lines (granulocytes, monocytes)
|
|
ALL
|
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
|
|
AML
|
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
|
|
CLL
|
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
|
|
CML
|
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
|
|
Lymphoma
|
malignant neoplasms of cells native to lymphoid tissue, mostly LNs, most involve B Lymphocytes
|
|
2 Classifications of Lymphoma
|
1. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
2. Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma |
|
What is the malignant cell in Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
|
Reed-Sternberg (RS Cell)
|
|
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by which cells?
|
any malignant lymphoid cell/s other than RS
|
|
CLL
--describe |
*most common adulthood leukemia, ~55yo
*acquired disorder usually of B-cell lineage with proliferation of mature lymphocytes *B lymphocytes cannot mature into plasma cells (immune dysregulation with ~1/2 developing hypogammaglobulinemai) *presence of SMUDGE cells-malignant cells have fragile cell membranes and "smudge" during slide preparation |
|
What are the potential clinical consequences of all leukemias
|
interference with all hematopoietic cell production (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) in bone marrow ---> severe anemia, bleeding disorders, leukopenias
|
|
Most common malignancy in young adults (MC 10-30yo)
|
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
Reed-Sternberg cell is characteristic of what
|
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
Characteristics of RS Cells
|
Large, binucleate cell with prominent nucleoli
"Owl-eye" appearance Origin is unknown --Hodgkin's lymphoma presents in a single LN or chain of LNs |
|
What is a tell-tale sign under the microscope of lung tissue that a person is a smoker?
|
Anthracotic pigment
|
|
What histological subtype of lung cancer is the MC cause of paraneoplastic hypercalcemia?
|
Small cell carcinoma
|
|
What is a Pancoast tumor
|
any lung tumor growing in the apex of the lung which may extend to involve the 8th cervical and 1st and 2nd thoracic nerves
|
|
Pancoast tumors occur MC in which type of cabcer
|
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
|
|
A Pancoast tumor in a patient would present as.....
|
shoulder pain that radiates down the arm with an ULNAR distribution
|
|
Polyp
|
neoplasm that arises from colonic epithelium; protrude up into the lumen
|
|
Is FAP (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis) benign or malignant?
|
Benign- glandular growth in the colorectal mucosa (does NOT extend below the mucosa)
|
|
What is a Tumor Suppressor Gene?
|
=Anti-oncogene
It stops growths/cellular proliferation. Mutations of TSGs allow for excessive cellular proliferation--> potential for malignancies |
|
At what age does the American Cancer Society recommend colonoscopy screening to begin for colorectal cancer?
|
50yo
|
|
3 most prevalent types of skin cancer (list in order of prevalence)
|
1. Basal Cell Carcinoma
2. Squamous Cell Carcinoma 3. Malignant melanoma |
|
how does the drug ipilimumab work as a molecularly targeted drug in the treatment of malignant melanoma?
|
specifically targets the protein molecules CTLA-4
|
|
By which metastatic route does colon cancer usually spread to distant areas of the serosa and peritoneum?
|
Direct seeding
|
|
MC route of metastatic spread from the Colon to the Liver
|
Hematogenous
|
|
What immune cell has the greatest impact in defense against cancer by its ability to recognize TSAs on cancer cells and destroy them via cell lysis
|
CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes
|
|
Congestion
|
impaired exit of venous blood
=increased amnt of deoxygenated blood (congestive heart failure, passive congestion of liver) |
|
2 forms of congestion that we saw in lab
|
1. Pulmonary Edema
2. Passive congestion of liver |
|
Pulmonary Edema
|
venous congestion
commonly associated with LEFT sided heart failure causes edema fluid(transudate) to accumulate in alveoli |
|
Also known as "Nutmeg Liver"
|
Passive Congestion of the Liver
|
|
Passive Congestion of the Liver
---characteristics |
venous congestion near central vein
Usually due to RIGHT sided heart failure Pressure increases so liver sinusoids dilate=atrophy=sinusoids can rupture=hemorrhage |
|
Hyperemia
|
increased blood flow (arterial) due to arterial dilation
due to increased function demand (exercise, inflammation) |
|
Hemorrhage
|
discharge of blood out of the vascular compartment
|
|
Petechiae
|
small, pinpoint hemorrhages, typically due to thrombocytopenia, decreased coagulation proteins or increased intravascular pressure ==increased vascular fragility
|
|
Purpura
|
superficial hemorrhage in the skin, same causes as above for petechiae
|
|
Ecchymosis
|
larger superficial hemorrhage int he skin, "bruises", usually a result of trauma
Larger than 1cm |
|
The clinical significance of hemorrhage is dependent on what (3) factors?
|
1. rate of blood loss
2. site/location 3. volume of blood loss (i.e. the brain does NOT tolerate hemorrhage well, no room for expansion |
|
Thrombus
|
an aggregation of platelets, fibrin, WBCs and RBCs due to an inappropriate activation of coagulation, which is adhered to the vascular endothelium
|
|
4 main Constituents of a Thrombus
|
1. Platelets
2. WBCs 3. RBCs 4. Fibrin |
|
Virchow's Triad
|
the 3 main predisposing factors of THROMBUS formation
1. damage to endothelium (most impt!!) 2. alterations in blood flow: arterial system will have increased turbulence while the venous system is in stasis 3. Increases coagulability of the blood (increased pro or decreased anti-coagulant proteins |
|
3 main predisposing factors of thrombus formation
|
Virchow's Triad
1. damage to endothelium (most impt!!) 2. alterations in blood flow: arterial system will have increased turbulence while the venous system is in stasis 3. Increases coagulability of the blood (increased pro or decreased anti-coagulant proteins |
|
Clinical consequence of Arterial Thrombosis
|
blockage of oxygen, ischemia
=Thromboembolism ***accounts for the major cause of morbidity and mortaility in the US |
|
#1 cause of mortality in the US
|
heart disease- heart attack- MI
|
|
#3 cause of mortality in the US
|
stroke (cerebral infarction)
#1 cause of morbidity |
|
Venous Thrombosis clinical consequence
|
Congestion +/- Edema
|
|
4 possible fates of Thrombosis
|
1. lysis/dissolution
2. organization and recanalization 3. propagation 4. embolization (thrombus breaks free and moves freely) |
|
Embolism
|
any detached intravascular mass, usually a piece of a thrombus= THROMBOEMBOLISM
(less common: fat/air/amniotic/cholesterol embolism |
|
Pulmonary Emboli
|
90% originate from thrombosis in deep veins of the lower extremities at risk: surgical patients, prolonged bed rest, obestity
|
|
Saddle Embolism
|
a thromboembolism lodges at a bifurcation in the vasculature forming a saddle appearance
|
|
Infarct
|
an area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ, usually caused by occlusion of arterial supply
|
|
Cerebral Infarct=----------------
|
Stroke
|
|
2 types of Cerebral Infarcts
|
1. Ischemic (~80%)
2. Hemorrhagic (~20%) |
|
Ischemic (Cerebral) Infarct
|
usually due to local thrombosis (slow progression) or embolization
Anti-coagulation therapy may help in initial treatment |
|
Hemorrhagic (Cerebral) Infarct
|
Involves rupture/leakage of blood vessel
Hypertension May involve embolization |
|
Transudate edema occurs due to:
|
osmotic or hydrostatic changes (non-inflammatory)
|
|
Causes of Transudate Edema
|
1. Heart failure (causes pitting)
2. Renal failure (fluid/electrolyte imbalances; often with diabetes) 3. Lymphatic blockage/obstruction |
|
Hemodynamic disorders
|
affect vasculature and blood flow
|
|
Hemorrhage
|
discharge of blood out of the vascular compartment. Can cause:
Hematoma, Petechiae, Purpura, Ecchymosis |
|
Arteriosclerosis
|
thickening and loss of elasticity of SMALL arteries/arterioles
(athero- is med/large arteries) |
|
Common underlying cause of arteriosclerosis?
|
Chronic hypertension
|
|
5 habits that will help prevent ISCHEMIC stroke
(also prevent HBP and diabetes) |
1. walk everyday
2. maintain a healthy weight 3. avoid cigarette smoke 4. enjoy alcohol in moderation 5. eat as nutritiously as possible |
|
Which sex has higher prevalence of stroke?
|
Females
|
|
Atherosclerosis
|
endothelial damage makes vessel wall more permeable to lipids--> chronic inflammation (narrows vessels)
Occurs in med/large arteries Smooth m. proliferation into T. Intina Intimal thickening, extends into luman Presence of "foam" cells Over time dystrophic calcification occurs |
|
Foam Cells
|
macrophages and smooth muscle cells which ingest lipids ("foarmy", cytoplasmic appearance)
|
|
2 components of Atherosclerotic Plaque
|
1. Superficial fibrous cap (contacts lumen, fibrosis, chronic inflam. cells, foam cells)
2. Deeper necrotic core cholesterol deposition (cholesterol clefts), necrotic cellular debris, chronic inflammatory cells, foam cells |
|
3 Complications of Atherosclerosis
|
1. Stenosis (continued growth of plaque, or continued narrowing of lumen)
2. Thrombosis- occlusion (potential for embolization) 3. Aneurysm- weakening of the tunica media causing a dilation and thinning of the artery wall (could rupture) |
|
Progression of lesions of atherosclerosis (3)
|
1. Fatty streak (5-10yo)
2. Atheromatous plaque (fibrofatty plaque, fully formed) 3. Complicated Atherosclerotic Lesion |
|
Aneurysm
|
weakening of the T. Media
causes dilation and thinning of artery wall (potential for rupture) |
|
MC site of aneurysm formation
|
Abdomina Aorta (AAA) near bifurcation of Iliac and Renal aa
|
|
Aneurysms form due to...
|
complications of atherosclerosis
|
|
Dissecting aneurysm
|
Blood enters vessel wall (hematoma), separates the layers of the wall as it dissects a path along the length of the blood vessel
Ie. Marfan's, hypertension, aging |
|
Cystic Medial Necrosis
|
focal loss of elastic and muscle fiber is t. media lead to cystic pools of matrix collected between cells and tissues
|
|
Varicose Veins
|
abnormally dilated tortuous veins
produced by increased intraluminal pressure and loss of support |
|
Predisposing factors of Varicose Veins
|
Familial tendency, long periods of standing, obesity, pregnancy, aging
Ie. Superficial leg vv, hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, varicocele (scrotum) |
|
Vasculitis
|
inflammation/necrosis of the walls of blood vessels
|
|
Etiology of Vasculitits
|
Infectious agents, immune mechanisms, truama, radiation
|
|
Temporal Arteritis is also known as
|
= Giant Cell Arteritis
= Granulomatous Arteritis |
|
MC form of systemic vasculitis in adults
|
Temporal Arteritis
|
|
Characteristics of Temporal Arteritis
|
-chronic granulomatous inflammation of intima and media
-most often affects the temporal arteries: headaches +/- visual symptoms |
|
Predisposing factors of vericose veins
|
Genetics
Standing for long periods of time |