Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
140 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
A life-threatening condition that occurs when the body is not getting enough blood flow
|
Shock
|
|
|
___ shock is associated with heart problems while ___ is caused by inadequate blood volume
|
Cardiogenic shock – heart problems ; hypovolemic shock – inadequate blood volume
|
|
|
A client is in the ER for chest pain and dizziness. The nurse did an initial assessment and found out that the client is showing signs of agitation, confusion, has pale clammy skin and reported to be having very low urine output. The nurse should act immediately because the client is showing symptoms of:
|
Shock
|
|
|
A 35 year old male client who was in a car accident was rushed to the hospital emergency department. The client has a low BP, rapid heart rate, and lost a significant amount of blood from the accident. Given the situation, the client would most likely go into what type of shock?
|
Hypovolemic shock
|
|
|
In order for an infection to spread, first it needs a ____
|
Portal of entry (inhalation, bites, ingestion, contact)
|
|
|
To minimize and protect everybody from spreading and / or obtaining an infection, one must always ____
|
Wash hands
|
|
|
A client is admitted to the hospital for a low-grade fever, malaise, fatigue, and muscle aches. Tests were done to determine the type of infection the client has. What manifestation of infection is the client experiencing?
a. Convalescent b. Acute stage c. Prodromal d. Incubation |
C. prodromal defines the condition where the infected individual may be asymptomatic but eventually begin to suffer from nonspecific flu-like symptoms such as low-grade fever, fatigue, malaise and muscle aches. In the acute stage, the individual generally begins to feel better but becomes more ill due to the body’s immune response. Convalescent describes the recovery usually characterized by gradual return of energy and sense of well-being
|
|
|
An infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and spread by airborne droplets by sneezing or coughing
|
Tuberculosis (TB)
|
|
|
Group of people who are at risk for developing TB include (select all that apply):
a. People who are HIV positive b. People who live near or in the inner city c. Homeless people d. Individuals in prison |
All of them are at great risk for having TB
|
|
|
One concern about someone who has portal hypertension is the formation of ____ due to an increase in venous pressure
|
Esophageal varices
|
|
|
Formerly known as serum hepatitis and transmitted through contact with infected blood, body fluids, or contaminated needles
|
Hepatitis B
|
|
|
Formerly known as infectious hepatitis and transmitted by the fecal – oral route
|
Hepatitis A
|
|
|
Type of hepatitis most commonly caused by transfusion and also implicated in infections related to IV drug use
|
Hepatitis C
|
|
|
A client was admitted to the hospital for jaundice, nausea, vomiting, fever and fatigue. The client has a low arterial blood pressure and the client’s lab values show a low albumin level. The client was diagnosed with cirrhosis. What are the most common causes of this disease?
|
Alcohol and hepatitis C
|
|
|
A condition where cells in the nervous system are vulnerable to neurotoxins absorbed from the GI tract that because of liver dysfunction, circulate to the brain
|
Hepatic encephalopathy
|
|
|
A client is admitted to the ICU for hepatitis C and delirium. Tests show EEG changes and a high amount of ammonia in the blood. The client’s condition is known as:
|
Hepatic encephalopathy
|
|
|
An irreversible inflammatory disease that disrupts liver function caused by nodular and fibrotic tissue synthesis
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
|
___ occurs when the amount of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is increased, and is a late-stage manifestation of cirrhosis and portal hypertension
|
Ascites
|
|
|
Type of disease that works by reversing the CD4 and CD8 cells ratio and is mostly diagnosed in association with various clinical conditions (a typical or opportunistic infection, cancer)
|
HIV / AIDS
|
|
|
A 23 year old client is admitted to the hospital for fatigue and shortness of breath. The nurse’s assessment findings include pale skin, brittle nails and client’s complain about a headache and sore tongue. The client is showing symptoms of
|
Anemia
|
|
|
Type of anemia which is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor
|
Pernicious anemia
|
|
|
A decrease in the number of RBC caused by too little iron
|
Iron-deficiency anemia
|
|
|
A congenital type of anemia where there is a failure of the bone marrow to properly form all types of blood cells
|
Aplastic anemia
|
|
|
Type of fracture complication where there is a decreased perfusion to muscle tissue from construction by a cast or a dressing
|
Compartment syndrome
|
|
|
A client just returned from surgery and now has a cast on his left arm. The careplan for this client includes monitoring the circulation and pulse on the arm and identify signs of pressure and paresthesia. The reason they are being monitored is to identify presence of what condition?
|
Compartment syndrome
|
|
|
Condition where there is a malformation of the hip joint where the femoral head and acetabulum are improperly aligned and found in babies or young children
|
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
|
|
|
A healthcare provider is performing a physical exam - ortolani / barlow maneuvers on a newborn to detect what type of condition?
|
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
|
|
|
A common disorder involving an autoimmune process where myelin of the CNS is destroyed and occurs usually between 20 – 50 years of age
|
Multiple sclerosis
|
|
|
A 20 year old client is in the hospital for fatigue and muscle weakness, ataxia (difficulty with coordination and balance), and visual problems. The client’s MRI shows areas of demyelination of the brain and spine and the CSF analysis show an elevated IgG level. The most probable condition of the client is:
|
Multiple sclerosis
|
|
|
A common bone disease in which bones become thinner and more porous where the underlying mechanism in all cases is an imbalance of bone resorption and bone formation
|
Osteoporosis
|
|
|
A 55 year old client with a hip fracture is sent to the ER. Initial assessment and history include chronic alcohol consumption, stooped posture, immobility, and recent treatment of glucocorticoids. The client is at a high risk of having what type of condition?
|
Osteoporosis
|
|
|
An autoimmune disorder where there is systemic damage to connective tissue, primarily in the joints and can affect any age group
|
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
A client presents to the physician with complains of morning joint stiffness that usually lasts for an hour, fatigue, and muscle pain. Lab tests indicate presence of abnormal amounts of serum rheumatoid factor and inflammatory exudate in the joint fluid. The client’s condition is:
|
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
Condition that defines inflammation of the kidney resulting in the inability to remove waste and excess fluids – can be acute or chronic and can be part of a systemic disease such as lupus or diabetes
|
Glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
A 55 year old diabetic client in the ER is presented with hypertension, hematuria, fatigue, and peripheral edema. CT scan and biopsy of the kidney is done on the client to determine which type of condition?
|
Glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
The most common cause of glomerulonephritis is:
a. Klebsiella b. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection c. HPV d. Epstein barr |
B. the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis is Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection
|
|
|
A gradual and progressive loss of ability of the kidneys to excrete wastes, concentrate urine, and conserve electrolytes
|
Chronic renal failure
|
|
|
Manifestations of chronic renal failure include the inability of the kidney to regulate fluid and electrolyte imbalance, control blood pressure through fluid volume, eliminate waste products and ______
|
Regulate activation of vitamin D
|
|
|
A condition where there is a sudden loss of the ability of kidneys to excrete waste, concentrate urine and conserve electrolytes
|
Acute renal failure
|
|
|
Causes of chronic renal failure include (select all that apply)
a. Diabetes b. Hypertension c. Spinal cord disease d. Neural tube defects (spina bifida) |
Diabetes and hypertension are the major causes of chronic renal failure
Neurogenic bladder is caused by spinal cord diseases and neural tube defects |
|
|
A nurse educator is teaching a client who has chronic renal failure about his proper diet. One critical point to tell the client about his diet is to limit foods with (select all that apply):
a. Protein b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Carbohydrates |
A diet plan that has low protein, potassium, and sodium should be followed by the client.
|
|
|
A 45 year old patient is presented with fatigue, headache, nausea and vomiting, and muscle cramps. Medical history includes diabetes, hypertension, and polycystic kidney disease (PKD). The client’s diagnosis is most likely:
|
Chronic renal failure
|
|
|
An elevation of nitrogenous waste products (urea nitrogen, creatinine)
|
Azotemia
|
|
|
Clinical syndrome resulting from azotemia and characterized by anorexia, nausea/vomiting, and mental status changes
|
Uremia
|
|
|
Causes of pre-renal azotemia include (select all that apply):
a. Hypotension b. CHF or severe pulmonary disease c. Prostatic hypertrophy d. Volume depletion – vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, hemorrhage |
Hypotension, CHF or severe pulmonary disease, and volume depletion are causes of pre-renal azotemia
Prostatic hypertrophy causes post-renal azotemia |
|
|
Causes of post-renal azotemia include (selct all that apply):
a. BPH b. Ureter obstruction c. Inflammation due to infection d. Acute glomerular nephritis |
BPH and ureter obstruction cause post-renal azotemia
Inflammation due to infection and glomerular nephritis cause intra-renal azotemia |
|
|
A client diagnosed with acute renal failure is sent to the ER for mild hyperventilation, muscle weakness and palpitations. Lab report shows a high potassium level. The specific emergency treatment for the client is:
|
Emergency dialysis to remove excess waste and fluids
|
|
|
A genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys
|
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)
|
|
|
The most common inherited form of PKD, symptoms usually develop between the ages of 30 and 40
|
Autosomal dominant PKD
|
|
|
A 35 year old patient presents to her physician headaches, hematuria, and back pain. Ultrasound of the kidney and genetic testing are considered for the client to determine what type of condition?
|
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)
|
|
|
An infection that can happen anywhere along the urinary tract usually caused by a bacteria from the anus entering the urethra and then the bladder
|
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
|
|
|
Women are at higher risk for developing UTIs because:
|
The urethra is shorter and closer to the anus
|
|
|
People who are at risk for having UTIs include (select all that apply):
a. Elderly people living in nursing homes b. People with diabetes c. Pregnant women d. A 50 year old client recovering from a hip fracture |
All of them have a high risk for getting UTIs
|
|
|
A 65 year old client went to the hospital for pain in the lower pelvic area, complains of pain or burning while urination, and hematuria. A urine (clean catch) culture is ordered for the client to determine presence of:
|
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
|
|
|
The most common cause of UTI is:
|
E. coli
|
|
|
Diagnostic tests to determine renal function
|
BUN / creatinine
|
|
|
Protrusion of the bladder and front wall of the vagina into the vaginal space may be caused by heavy lifting, straining muscles during childbirth or excessive straining during bowel movement
|
Cystocele
|
|
|
Protrusion of the rectum and back wall of the vagina into the vaginal space
|
Rectocele
|
|
|
A term that describes a non-malignant enlargement of the prostate that puts pressure on the urethra, causing it to narrow or in some cases closes completely
|
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
|
|
|
Most common area of localization of prostate cancer
|
Bone
|
|
|
Cancer that develops in the prostate where the cancer grows slowly and is more common in men over the age of 50, African-american, who have a lot of high-fat dairy products in their diet and family history of the disease
|
Prostate cancer
|
|
|
A 65 year old male client presents to the healthcare provider with fever, lower back pain, difficulty starting to urinate, and deep discomfort in the lower abdomen. Urine flow study and cystoscopic exam are ordered for the client to determine what type of condition?
|
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
|
|
|
Type of posturing characterized by flexion of arms, wrists and fingers, abduction of upper extremities, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of lower extremities and results from lesions of cerebral hemisphere or internal capsule
|
Decorticate (flexion) posturing
|
|
|
Type of posturing characterized by rigidity of arms w/ palms of hands turned away from the body and stiffly extended legs w/ plantar flexion of feet and results from muscle excitability
|
Decerebrate (extensor) posturing
|
|
|
A protein found in the blood and is elevated in response to inflammation
|
C-reactive protein
|
|
|
A person with a spinal injury at the cervical level (C5 and above) would most likely have:
|
Respiratory problems
|
|
|
The most common locations of spinal cord injury include (select all that apply):
a. T1 – L2 lumbar vertebrae b. C1 c. C2 d. C4 – C7 cervical vertebrae |
C1, C2, C4-7, and T1-L2 are the most common locations of spinal cord injury
|
|
|
Condition where normal activity of the spinal cord ceases (complete loss of reflex of function) at and below the level of injury due to lack of continuous nervous discharges from the brain
|
Spinal shock
|
|
|
Massive, uncompensated cardiovascular response to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system mostly caused by the loss of bladder and bowel function - signs and symptoms include hypertension, diaphoresis, and flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion
|
Autonomic hyperreflexia
|
|
|
The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia in patients with spinal cord injury is:
|
Loss of bowel and bladder function
|
|
|
Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include (select all that apply):
a. Increased urine output b. Elevated serum pH (alkalosis) c. Arrhythmia d. Paresthesia e. Decreased urine output f. Low serum pH (acidosis) |
Increased urine output, elevated serum pH, and paresthesia are signs of hypokalemia
Arrhythmia, decreased urine output, and low serum pH are signs of hyperkalemia |
|
|
Signs and symptoms of hypernatremia include (select all that apply):
a. Anorexia b. Weakness c. Irritability d. Thirst e. Delirium f. Decreased urine output |
Irritability, thirst, and decreased urine output are signs of hypernatremia
Anorexia, weakness, and delirium are signs of hyponatremia |
|
|
Calcium is filtered in the _____ and then selectively reabsorbed back in the blood
|
Glomerulus of the kidney
|
|
|
A chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of all or part of an extra 21st chromosome
|
Down syndrome
|
|
|
The most common of the muscular dystrophies and is inherited as a recessive single gene on the X-chromosome
|
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
|
|
|
Signs and symptoms of Down syndrome include (select all that apply):
a. Mental retardation b. Progressive weakness c. Slow motor movement d. Low nasal bridge e. Protruding tongue f. Muscle wasting |
Signs and symptoms of Down syndrome include mental retardation, low nasal bridge, and protruding tongue
Progressive weakness, slow motor movement, and muscle wasting are clinical signs of Duchenne muscular dystrophy |
|
|
A condition that is characterized by loss of lung elasticity due to the loss of alveolar function
|
Emphysema
|
|
|
A nurse is taking care of a client who presents with chronic cough, dyspnea, and weakness. During assessment, the nurse noted pursed lip breathing and barrel chest on the client. The client is most likely experiencing what type of condition?
|
Chronic cough, dyspnea, weakness, purse lip breathing and barrel chest are signs and symptoms of emphysema
|
|
|
A chronic disorder of the airways that causes episodes of airway obstruction, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, and airway inflammation caused by genetic or environmental factors (as an allergic reaction)
|
Asthma
|
|
|
A term that describes a collapsed alveoli
|
Atelectasis
|
|
|
A client just returned from surgery and part of the care plan for him is to do deep breathing exercises. One of the reasons that it is included in the care plan is:
|
To prevent atelectasis
|
|
|
A client is presented to the healthcare provider with dyspnea, hemoptysis, and production of frothy sputum. According to the client’s symptoms, his condition would most likely be:
|
Pulmonary edema
|
|
|
The most common cause of pneumonia
|
Streptococcus
|
|
|
Acute inflammation of the lung caused by bacteria or viruses
|
Pneumonia
|
|
|
A life-threatening condition that causes lung inflammation and fluid buildup in the air sacs - usually from damaged alveoli, decreased lung compliance and damaged lung capillaries
|
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
|
|
|
Condition that defines air in the pleural space causing a complete or partial collapse of the lung
|
Pneumothorax
|
|
|
Type of pneumothorax where there is a tear in the pleural space caused by high intrapleural pressure and causes tracheal deviation and collapses the lung
|
Tension pneumothorax
|
|
|
In respiratory acidosis, ___ is elevated due to hypoventilation
|
CO2 is elevated
|
|
|
People with metabolic acidosis may exhibit deep, rapid breathing which is classically associated with what type of condition?
|
Diabetes – primarily diabetic ketoacidosis
|
|
|
Term that refers to the inflammation of the gall bladder and associated with gall stones
|
Cholecystitis
|
|
|
A client is admitted to the hospital for cholecystitis and presence of gall stones. The client asked the nurse what are gall stones made up of. The nurse (hopefully) knows that gall stones are primarily made up of:
|
Cholesterol – approximately 80% of gall stones are composed of cholesterol; the other 20% are black and brown pigmented stones consisting of calcium salts with bilirubin
|
|
|
A term that describes inflammation of the pancreas that may be caused by injury or damage to pancreatic cells and ducts causing a leakage of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreatic tissue
|
Pancreatitis
|
|
|
A 45 year old client was admitted to the hospital for fever, hypotension, hypovolemia and epigastric pain radiating to the back. The client’s health history includes excessive alcohol consumption and smoking. The healthcare provider diagnosed the client’s condition as pancreatitis. Diagnostic tests used to determine the condition is:
|
Serum amylase / lipase levels
|
|
|
A chronic disorder that causes inflammation of the GI tract and may involve any area from the mouth to the anus. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, and weight loss
|
Crohn’s disease
|
|
|
The most common cause of gastric ulcers
|
H. pylori
|
|
|
A 56 year old client went to his physical for his regular medical checkup. He complains of abdominal pain, change in bowel habits and feeling constipated. Aside from ordering the client to go for a colonoscopy to determine the diagnosis, the physician would also assess for (select all that apply):
a. Family history of colon cancer b. Recent physical activity c. Diet (smoking, alcohol, vitamin deficiency) d. The client’s sexual activity e. The client’s pain threshold / tolerance f. The client’s sleep patterns |
Family history of colon cancer and diet (smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, vitamin B6 deficiency) are risk factors of colon cancer. The client’s recent physical activity, sexual activity, pain threshold / tolerance and sleep patterns aren’t assessments related or appropriate to the current situation
|
|
|
Screening for colon cancer begins at ____, for those that have a family history begin screening at ____
|
Screening begins at age 50, those that have a family history begin at age 40
|
|
|
The inability of the heart to supply sufficient blood flow to meet the body’s needs – caused by cardiomyopathy, hypertension, atherosclerosis, and coronary artery disease
|
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
|
|
|
Main cause of left sided heart failure
|
Myocardial infarction (MI)
|
|
|
Signs and symptoms of left sided heart failure include (select all that apply):
a. Pulmonary edema b. Increased pulmonary congestion c. Peripheral edema d. Increased pulmonary resistance |
Pulmonary edema, increased pulmonary congestion are signs and symptoms of left sided heart failure
Peripheral edema and increased pulmonary resistance are signs of right sided heart failure |
|
|
Diagnostic tests for CHF include (select all that apply):
a. Ejection fraction b. CKMB / troponin c. MUGA d. Echo |
MUGA, Echo, and ejection fraction are tests for CHF
CKMB / troponin are tests for MI |
|
|
A condition where there is a decreased blood flow and oxygen to the heart and cause necrosis of heart tissue within 30 minutes without treatment
|
Myocardial ischemia
|
|
|
Any vascular disorder that narrows or occludes the coronary arteries – most commonly caused by atherosclerosis
|
Coronary artery disease (CAD)
|
|
|
In patients with MI, cells give off ___ due to tissue damage, which if not treated could lead to ____
|
Cells give off potassium due to tissue damage and if not treated, arrhythmias can occur due to high levels of potassium
|
|
|
The main cause of peripheral vascular disease
|
Cholesterol buildup in the arteries
|
|
|
A client just got back from surgery. One of the care plan interventions for the client is to encourage early ambulation, the reason being:
|
Ambulation is important to prevent DVT formation and promote peristalsis
|
|
|
If not treated, DVT can cause:
|
Pulmonary emboli
|
|
|
An acute focal neurologic deficit caused by a vascular disorder that injures brain tissue
|
Stroke
|
|
|
Type of stroke that is caused by the rupture of the blood vessel and bleeding into the brain
|
Hemorrhagic stroke
|
|
|
Also called “ministroke”, it reflects a temporary disturbance in focal cerebral blood flow which reverses before infarction occurs
|
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
|
|
|
In a person with hyperthyroidism, the TSH levels are ____ while the T3 and T4 levels are _____
|
TSH = low ; T3 and T4 levels = high
|
|
|
A client is in the hospital for complains of restlessness, insomnia, anxiety, and weight loss. The client is experiencing irritation in the eyes due to exopthalmos. The client’s condition is known as:
|
Graves disease
|
|
|
Type of diabetes where there is no production of insulin
|
Type 1 diabetes
|
|
|
Type of diabetes where the cells fail to use insulin properly (insulin resistance)
|
Type 2 diabetes
|
|
|
Classical signs of diabetes are:
|
Polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyphagia (increased hunger)
|
|
|
What are the diagnostic tests for diabetes?
|
Glucose tolerance test, fasting blood sugar
|
|
|
The condition where an abnormally high glucose levels results in hyperosmolarity (water shifts from intracellular fluid into the blood) which then leads to cellular dehydration and is common in people with type 2 diabetes
|
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNKS)
|
|
|
A condition defined as uncontrolled cell division resulting in invasion of healthy tissues
|
Cancer
|
|
|
Characteristics of a benign tumor include (select all that apply):
a. Cells in the tumor are well differentiated b. The cells exhibit rapid growth c. Composed of undifferentiated cells that exhibit large nuclei and little to no tissue organization d. Surrounded by a capsule that separates tumor from the surrounding tissue |
Benign tumors are characterized by cells that are well differentiated and surrounded by a capsule that separates it from the surrounding tissue
Malignant tumors are cells that exhibit rapid growth and composed of undifferentiated cells |
|
|
Cancer staging system that describes the extent of cancer in the body
|
TNM system
T – describes the size of the tumor N – describes the nodes (lymph) that are effected M – describes distant metastases (spread of cancer from one part to another) |
|
|
Condition where one clotting factor is missing or the level of that factor is low which makes it difficult for the blood to form a clot
|
Hemophilia
|
|
|
A child with hemophilia experience ____ more commonly and affects the joints and muscles
|
Spontaneous bleeding
|
|
|
People with low levels of ____ have hemophilia A, while people with low levels of ____ have hemophilia B
|
Hemophilia A = factor 8 ; hemophilia B = factor 9
|
|
|
A client in a community hospital complains of fever, weakness, and bruising. The client’s CBC analysis shows low platelet count, low hemoglobin level and high WBC. The client’s condition is most likely:
|
Leukemia
|
|
|
Type of anemia caused by lack of folic acid and vitamin B12
|
Macrocytic anemia
|
|
|
Sickle cell anemia is caused by the presence of an abnormal hemoglobin S which upon ____ transforms RBCs into a sickle shape
|
Abnormal hemoglobin S transforms RBCs into a sickle shape through deoxygenation
|
|
|
A client went to the hospital for complains of headache, visual disturbances and angina. The attending physician reviewed the lab results and an elevated hematocrit level is noted. The client is experiencing symptoms of:
|
Polycythemia vera (PCV)
|
|
|
Clinical sign of polycythemia vera
|
Increased bleeding
|
|
|
A client is in the ER for excessive nose bleeding, shortness of breath, and rapid heart rate. Lab report show low levels of hematocrit, platelets, WBC and an elevated MCV. The client’s condition is:
|
Aplastic anemia
|
|
|
Type of hypersensitivity where there is a production of IgE antibody in response to certain environmental antigens (allergens)
|
Type 1 hypersensitivity (IgE mediated)
|
|
|
___ induces fever and stimulates neutrophil production
|
Interleukin-1
|
|
|
A client who just had blood transfusion is closely monitored by the nurse for a possibility of developing this type of hypersensitivity:
a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity |
B. type II sensitivity defines an antigen-antibody reaction where the antibodies produced by the immune response binds to antigens on the person’s own cell surfaces and destroys it - more common in mismatched blood transfusion reactions and ABO / Rh incompatibility in newborns
|
|
|
Type of lymphoma characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells that begins as a malignancy in a single lymph node and then spreads to contiguous lymph nodes
|
Hodgkins lymphoma
|
|
|
A client presents with night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss. The nurse would also assess for ___ to determine presence of lymphoma
|
Palpable lymph nodes
|
|
|
The body’s mechanism that provides a rapid, nonspecific response to injury and invasion that removes or confines injurious agents, stimulates the immune response, and promotes healing
|
Inflammation
|
|
|
The most abundant of the circulating immunoglobulins, protects against bacteria, toxins, and viruses in body fluids and activates the compliment system
|
IgG (gamma globulin)
|
|
|
A degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia that results in variable combinations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia
|
Parkinson’s disease
|
|
|
X-linked recessive genetic disorder that produce progressive degeneration and necrosis of skeletal muscle fibers and eventual replacement with fat and connective tissue
|
Muscular dystrophy
|
|
|
Condition that describes an inflammation of the inner layer of the heart
|
Endocarditis
|
|
|
Formerly called degenerative joint disease, it is the most prevalent form of arthritis and a leading cause of disability and pain in the eldery
|
Osteoarthritis
|
