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129 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
THE MOST RELIABLE INDICATOR OF PAIN
SELF-REPORT OF PATIENT
PHYSIOLOGIC PROCESS THAT COMMUNICATES TISSUE DAMAGE TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
NOCICEPTION
MYELINATED FIBERS THAT MOVE PAIN IMPULSES ALONG VERY QUICKLY; OFTEN TRANSMIT SHARP PIERCING, LOCALIZED PAIN THAT TENDS TO BE INTERMITTENT
A DELTA FIBERS
UNMYELINATED FIBERS THAT MOVE PAIN IMPULSES ALONG SLOWER AND MORE DIFFUSELY; OFTEN TRANSMIT DULL, ACHY, CRAMPING PAIN THAT TENDS TO BE PERSISTENT
C FIBERS
Theory that suggests that the spinal cord contains a neurological "gate" that either blocks pain signals or allows them to continue on to the brain. Unlike an actual gate, which opens and closes to allow things to pass through, the "gate" in the spinal cord operates by differentiating between the types of fibers carrying pain signals. Pain signals traveling via small nerve fibers are allowed to pass through, while signals sent by large nerve fibers are blocked. It is often used to explain phantom or chronic pain.
Gate Control theory
These are thought to be responsible for opening and closing the "gates" noted in the Gate Control Theory of pain.
Endorphins
Why does distraction work to reduce pain in terms of the gate control theory?
Distractions are thought to produce endorphins, which are thought to be responsible for controlling the gates in gate control theory.
Ibuprofen inhibits these at the transduction stage of pain
Prostaglandins
Acute pain, often associated with injury; often sharp and burning pain
Nociceptive pain
This type of pain runs along nerve fibers (ex. phantom limb pain)
Neuropathic pain
This type of pain serves a biological purpose by acting as a warning sign; activates SNS; time-limited (less than 3 months or time for normal healing to occur); includes post-operative, labor, and trauma pain; treatment goal is pain control with eventual elimination
Acute pain
This type of pain does not go away; lasts greater than 3 months, difficult to localize, treat, determine underlying cause; treatment focuses on control while enhancing function and improving quality of life; gradual onset; characterized by waxing and waning
Chronic pain
This type of pain involves aching or throbbing that is localized; the result of injury to bones, joints, muscles, skin, or connective tissue
Somatic pain
This type of pain involves tumors or obstruction; arises from internal organs such as intestines and bladder
Visceral pain
This type of pain involves damage to the peripheral nerves or CNS; often burning, shooting, stabbing, or electrical in nature; sudden, intense, short-lived, or lingering
Neuropathic pain
The differences between acute pain and chronic pain are based on ___
Cause, course, manifestation, and treatment
This type of pain is transient, moderate to severe, occurs beyond treated pain, has rapid onset and brief duration, and exists through med treatment
Breakthrough pain
Pain treatment is best achieved with (drug/nondrug) therapy.
Drug and nondrug (combination)
Three categories of meds for pain treatment
Nonopioid, opioid, and adjuvant (co-analgesic)
This is when increasing the dose of meds above the upper limit produces no greater analgesia (Nonopioids)
Analgesic ceiling
Nonopioids are used for (mild/moderate/severe) pain
Mild to moderate
True or false - nonopioids do not produce tolerance or addiction
True
Advantages and disadvantages of ASA for pain treatment
Advantages - also an anti-inflammatory; good for cardiac disease; does not produce tolerance or addiction

Disadvantages - can produce GI bleed and inhibits clotting
Maximum dose of Acetaminophen per day
4 g (4000 mg) per day
Adverse effect of Ibuprofen related to sodium
May cause hypernatremia (high sodium, causing water retention)
This type of pain med binds to receptors in the CNS, inhibiting the transmission of nociceptive input, altering limbic activity, and activating descending inhibitory pathways
Opioids
Examples of pure agonist opioids with no analgesic celing
Morphine, oxycodone, and codeine
This ingredient in cough medicine and antitussives is converted to morphine in the body
Codeine
Advantages and disadvantages of partial agonist opioids
Advantages - Less respiratory depression

Disadvantages - more dysphoria, agitation; has analgesic ceiling; can precipitate withdrawal
Common side effects of opioids
Most common - constipation (decreases peristalsis)

Also - nausea and vomiting (usually decreases after 24 hours), sedation, respiratory depression, pruritis
Given to patients experiencing pruritis from taking opioids
Narcan (reverses effects of opioids) - given IV push
Given to patients experiencing nausea and vomiting from taking opioids
Antiemetics
Side effects of using PCA (Patient-Controlled Analgesia)
Inability to void; nausea and vomiting; pruritis; other symptoms associated with opioids
Most common type of PCA
Demand dose PSA (patient administers to self when needed)
This is a form of continuous dosing PCA
Basal dose
Lockout intervals for PCA
Patient given preset dose at preset intervals (ex. every 10 minutes)
These are used in conjunction with opioids and nonopioids (combination therapies); generally used for other purposes but also effective for pain; examples include antidepressants, antiseizure meds, etc.
Adjuvant therapies
These types of drugs can be used in combination with opioids/nonopioids for neuropathic pain
Antiseizure meds
Why are beta blockers given in conjunction with pain meds to manage pain?
Reduces tachycardia, sweatiness, and SNS symptoms associated with pain
Constant pain requires med administration at what intervals?
Around the clock (not PRN - do not wait for severe pain to develop)
The route of choice for pain administration with functioning GI tract
Oral
This route of med administration for pain exempts drug from first-pass effect
Sublingual and buccal
When administering pain meds to the elderly, what is the general rule of thumb for dosage?
Start slow, go low - use half of lowest recommended dose for elderly population and adjust from there
What is the least frequently used route of med administration for pain management? Why?
IM - poorly absorbed and many side effects
This type of interventional pain therapy interrupts all afferent and efferent transmission, not only nociceptive input; used during and after surgery to manage pain
Nerve blocks
This type of interventional pain therapy is used for severe pain unresponsive to other therapy; it destroys nerves to stop pain transmission
Neuroablative techniques
This type of interventional pain therapy is usually for intractable back pain; it involves electrical stimulation of brain and spinal cord
Neuroaugmentation
Nondrug therapies for pain
Massage, exercise, TENS or PENS, acupuncture, heat or cold therapy, cognitive therapies (distraction, hypnosis, imagery, relaxation); these all increase endorphins, decrease edema; advised to use in combination
Common concerns for pain meds
1. Tolerance
2. Physical dependence (over time with opioids)
3. Addiction (occurs over long period with psychological aspect)
JCAHO guidelines for pain
1. Recognize patient's rights
2. Identify pain
3. Educate providers, patients, and families in assessment and managemetn
Ethical issues in pain management
1. Fear of hastening death by administering analgesics
2. Requests for assisted suicide
3. Use of placebos in pain assessment and treatment (cannot give without permission)
Three phases of perioperative nursing
Preoperative, intraoperative, postoperative
Phase of perioperative nursing that includes the period of time from the decision for surgery until the patient is transferred into the OR
Preoperative phase
Phase of perioperative nursing that includes the period of time when the patient is transferred to the OR to the admission to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)
Intraoperative phase
Phase of perioperative nursing that involves the period of time when the patient is admitted to the PACU and ends with the follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or at home
Postoperative phase
If a patient scheduled for surgery is a smoker, when should the nurse listen to lung sounds?
Before surgery (admission to OR) and after (compare)
How may complementary and alternative medicine impact surgery?
Some therapies may cause bleeding, etc
At what age is a patient at risk for age-related complications from surgery?
65
Rare life-threatening condition triggered by exposure to most anesthetic agents, involving drastic and uncontrolled increase in skeletal muscle oxidative metabolism (breakdown) that can overwhelm body's capacity to supply O2, remove CO2, and regulate body temperature (patient will have high temp); leads to circulatory collapse and death if untreated; often inherited
Malignant hyperthermia
What types of labs/diagnostic tests should be taken prior to surgery?
Urinalysis, blood type and screening, CBC, clotting studies, electrolytes, creatinine and BUN, pregnancy tests, CXR, and ECG (if over 40 or history of heart disease)
This common anti-clotting agent is contraindicated for surgical procedures
Coumadin (Wayfarin)
Why are patients over 65 years of age at increased risk for surgery-related complications?
May have chronic illnesses; may have delayed wound healing; often have decreased muscle mass and body water
How does body weight affect surgical risk?
Malnourishment affects wound healing negatively; obesity increases risk due to absorptive qualities of fat for analgesic meds, decreased mobility due to obesity and increased DVTs, and potential evisceration
What parts of the body are more risky for surgical procedures?
Neck, oral, facial (highest); chest or high abdomen; abdomen
What information must be part of informed consent prior to surgery?
Nature and reason for surgery, who will be performing the surgery and who else will be present, all available options and risks with each, risks with surgery and potential outcomes, risks with anesthesia
What are nursing safety priorities that go with informed consent?
Nurse must clarify facts and dispel myths, verify that consent was signed, and signature must be witnessed
What is the purpose of lower extremity exercises post-operatively?
Prevent emboli
What is the proper technique for splinting post-operatively?
Splinting – towel and pillow, held firmly in place over surgical site – 3 slow deep breaths, cough to clear secretions
What is the purpose of splinting after surgery?
Breathing gets difficult when you break a rib or have surgery between your waist and shoulders. When you move broken bone ends against each other or flex muscles stitched together with wire or twine, you experience pain. Splinting is a way to immobilize or cushion those movements so you can fully expand your lungs or cough with a little less discomfort,
Why are patients encouraged to use incentive spirometers post-operatively?
To prevent atelectasis
Who are the members of the surgical team?
Patient; anesthesiologist or anethetist; surgeon and surgical assistant; perioperative nursing staff
What zones make up the surgical environment?
Unrestricted zone; semirestricted zone; restricted zone
All materials in contact with a wound and within a sterile field must be __
Sterile
Gown are sterile in the front from ___ and sleeves are sterile from ___
Chest to level of sterile field; 2 inches above elbow to cuff
What part of a draped table is considered sterile?
Only the top
At least __ (distance) from the sterile field must be maintained.
1 foot
What are the two aspects of general anesthesia?
Analgesia (no pain) and amnesia (no memory)
What are the stages of anesthesia?
1. Analgesia and sedation, relaxation
2. Excitement and delirium (patient no longer aware; loss of reflexes)
3. Operative anesthesia and surgical anesthesia
4. Danger
What are the 4 main complications related to anesthesia during surgery?
1. Malignant hyperthermia
2. Overdose
3. Hypoventilation
4. Intubation complications
What are the four main positions for surgery?
Laparotomy, trendelenberg, lithotomy, side-lying
Why are elderly patients at increased risk for complications due to surgery and anesthesia?
1. Increased likelihood of coexisting conditions
2. Aging heart and pulmonary systems
3. Decreased homeostatic mechanisms
4. Changes in responses to drugs and anesthetic agents due to aging changes such as decreased renal function, and changes in body composition of fat and water
In this surgical environment, this zone represents the open area where scrubs and caps are not required
Unrestricted zone
In this surgical environment, this zone requires you to wear scrubs and caps but not aseptic technique
Semirestricted zone
In this surgical environment, this zone requires everyone to maintain aseptic technique; you must wear scrubs, caps, gloves, shoe covers, and masks
Restricted zone
The environmental controls in OR involve __ air exchanges per hour and a colder environment
15
This OR nurse coordinates the surgical environment, including getting consent from the patient, maintaining the temperature of the room, initiating a timeout at beginning of the procedure, and is clean but not sterile
Circulating nurse
This OR nurse is the assistant to the surgeon, handing the surgeon the tools and maintaining aseptic technique; this nurse usually works with the same surgeon for every procedure
Scrub nurse
What is a surgical "time-out"?
At beginning of surgery, the whole OR team stands around patient to discuss what is going on and what they think will happen (WHO - surgical safety checklist); this decreases errors significantly
This involves the use of sedation in surgery to depress the level of consciousness without altering the patient's ability to maintain a patent airway and to respond to physical stimuli and verbal commands; involves a hypnotic, a sedative, and an opioid in combination; short-acting
Moderate sedation
How soon can a patient eat after receiving moderate sedation?
30 minutes and not until gag reflex returns
What are the advantages and disadvantages of local or regional anesthesia?
Advantages - allows patient to participate and has no food restrictions

Disadvantages - not as much control as general anesthesia; short-acting
This type of anesthesia produces its effect when inhaled
Inhaled anesthetic agents
All inhaled anesthetic agents are administered in combination with __ and usually __ as well
Oxygen; nitrous oxide
Epidural anesthesia is achieved by injecting a local anesthetic agent into the epidural space that surrounds the __ of the spinal cord
Dura mater
Spinal anesthesia is achieved by injecting a local anesthetic agent through the dura mater into the __ surrounding the spinal cord
Subarachnoid space
(Epidural/spinal) anesthesia uses higher doses
Epidural
What is the main advantage of epidural anesthesia over spinal anesthesia? The main disadvantage?
No headache; more difficult to introduce the anesthetic agent into the epidural rather than the subarachnoid space
This type of anesthesia produces anesthesia of the lower extremities, perineum, and lower abdomen
Spinal anesthesia
__ may be an after-effect of spinal anesthesia
Headache
Local anesthesia is often administered in combination with __, which constricts blood vessels, preventing rapid absorption of the anesthetic agent and thus prolongs its local action
Epinephrine
If a patient gags during the intraoperative period, what is the first intervention the nurse must use?
Patient is turned to the side, the head of table lowered, and basin is provided to collect vomitus
Why is hypoxia a risk with the use of anesthesia in surgery?
Respiratory depression caused by anesthesia, aspiration of respiratory secretions, and patient's positioning on operating table
Why may metabolic acidosis occur during surgery?
Glucose metabolism is reduced
What are the initial symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?
Tachycardia (HR faster than 150 bpm); SNS stimulation signs; muscle rigidity
True or false - high temperature is one of the earliest signs of malignant hyperthermia
False - high temp is one of the late signs
What are the general nursing goals for care of a patient during surgery?
Reduced anxiety, absence of latex exposure, absence of positioning injuries, freedom from injury, maintenance of patient dignity, and absence from complications
In laparotomy position during surgery, a strap is placed ___
Above the knees
Sims or side-lying position is used for what type of surgery?
Renal surgery
This is partial or complete separation of wound edges
Dehiscence
This is the protrusion of organs through the surgical incision
Evisceration
This method of healing involves a wound whose edges are surgically approximated (with stitches or staples) and integumentary continuity is restored without granulation
First intention
This is an area where postoperative patients are monitored as they recover from anesthesia; formerly referred to as the recovery room
Postanesthesia Care Unit (PACU)
This method of healing involves a wound whose edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by the process known as granulation
Second Intention
This method of healing involves a wound whose edges are not initially approximated (delayed closing) and integumentary continuity is restored by apposing areas of granulation
Third Intention
What are the three phases of postanesthesia care?
1. Phase 1 PACU (immediate recovery phase, with intensive nursing care)
2. Phase 2 PACU (patient prepared for self-care or care in hospital)
3. Phase 3 PACU (patient is prepared for discharge)
How often are vital signs checked after initial assessment in the PACU?
Every 15 minutes
True or false - a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg in the PACU is considered acceptable
False - it is considered immediately reportable
What is the primary objective in the immediate postoperative period of the nurse with the patient?
Maintain ventilation, thus preventing hypoxemia and hypercapnia; both can occur with hypoventilation (airway is obstructed and ventilation is reduced)
Because movement of the thorax and diaphragm does not necessarily indicate the patient is breathing, the nurse needs to do what with a patient who has had prolonged anesthesia?
Place palm of hand at the patient's nose and mouth to feel the exhaled breath
How is hypopharyngeal obstruction treated after anesthesia?
Tilt head back and push forward on angle of lower jaw, as if to push the lower teeth in front of the upper teeth; this pulls the tongue forward and opens the air passages
Why does hypopharyngeal obstruction occur?
Neck flexion permits the chin to drop toward the chest during surgery; often occurs when head is in midposition, blocking off the airway
What are the classic signs of hypovolemic shock?
Pallor; cool, moist skin; rapid breathing; cyanosis of lips, gums, and tongue; rapid weak thready pulse; narrowing pulse pressure; low BP; concentrated urine
When should a patient void before having surgery?
Right before going to the OR
What is the rule concerning wearing jewelry during surgery?
A patient should not wear any jewelry in the OR; some institutions may allow a ring to be worn if taped to the finger
How is the patient's skin prepared prior to surgery?
No shaving; clipping of hair may be necessary; patient may be instructed to use a soap containing a detergent-germicide to clean the skin for several days prior to surgery to reduce skin organisms
What is the major purpose of withholding fluids and food before surgery?
To prevent aspiration
What are the new guidelines for food and fluids prior to surgery?
Generally, adults may be advised to fast for 8 hours prior to surgery (except for surgery that involves the GI tract); many patients are now allowed to have clear fluids up to 2 hours prior to an elective procedure
Why is a patient kept in bed with side rails up after being given preanesthetic medication?
May cause drowsiness or lightheadness (fall risk)
Why are patients encouraged to cough post-operatively?
Mobilize secretions so that they can be removed; prevents atelectasis