Nsbn Lpn Definitions

Front 1

Wernicke-Korsakoff

Back 1

A degenerative brain disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) from chronic alcohol abuse, vomitting, eating disorder, or chemo. S/S confusion, vision impairment, ataxia, unsteady walking, loss of memory. Late stage may result in coma, stupor, or death.

Front 2

Ataxia

Back 2

Loss of muscle coordination

Front 3

Librium (chlordiazepoxide)

Back 3

Antianxiety Agent - used to prevent withdrawal

Front 4

Antabuse (disulfiram)

Back 4

Makes drinking painful

Front 5

ReVia (naltrexone)

Back 5

Decreases drinking pleasure

Front 6

Campral (acamprosate)

Back 6

Restores chemical balance in brain

Front 7

Anorexia Nervosa

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*weight loss through restriction of food
*purging behaviors
*reject mature appearing body
*perfectionist behavior

Front 8

Bulimia Nervosa

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*eating binges w/ diet/purging
*impulsive/chaotic behavior
*outgoing, sensitive to others
*Issue: control self/enviorn thru eating
*drive for thinness

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Hallucination

Back 9

False perception of something that is not real

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Illusion

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Incorrect interpretation of external stimuli

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aphasia

Back 11

Absence or impairment of the ability to communicate through speech, writing, or signs because of brain dysfunction.

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agnosia

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Inability to recognize or comprehend sights, sounds, words, or other sensory information

Front 13

sundowning

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Confusion or disorientation that increases in the afternoon or evening.

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Trusting Relationship between nurse and patient involves

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respect, honesty, consistency, faith and caring

Front 15

Pregnancy needs

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Add: 300 mg calories
15 mg iron
30 g protein
400 g calcium
200 mcg folic acid (0.2 mg)
Lactation: add 500 calories

Front 16

Negative Nitrogen balance occurs with

Back 16

infection, burns, fever, starvation, and injury

Front 17

Fat soluble Vitamins

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A,D,E,K, - can be stored in body but is not excreted in excess, risk of toxicity

Front 18

Low levels of salt < 125 =

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mental confusion, hostility, hallucinations

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High levels of salt >135 =

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HTN, edema, aka. anasarca

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Hypocalcemia caused by

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rickets, Vit D deficiency, renal failure, pancreatitis, hypoparathyroidism

S/S muscle tingling, twitching, tetany

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Hypercalcemia caused by

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hyperparathyroidism, metatasis of cancer, Paget's disease of bone, prolonged immobilization

S/S weakness, paralysis, decreased deep tendon reflexes

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Hypermagnesium caused by

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chronic renal disease, overuse of antacids, Addison's disease, uncontrolled DM

S/S lethargy, N/V, slurred speech, muscle weakness, paralysis, decreased deep tendon reflexes, slowinf of cardiac conduction

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Hypomagnesium caused by

Back 23

malnutrition, toxemia in pregnancy, malabsorption, alcoholism, diabetic acidosis

S/S mood irritability, muscle tingling/twitching/tetany, delirium, convuslions

Front 24

Magnesium Norms

Back 24

1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L

Front 25

Calcium Norms

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8.5 to 10.5 mEq/L

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Potassium Norms

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3.5 to 5 mEq/L

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Sodium Norms

Back 27

135-145 mEq/L

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Phosphate Norms

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2.8 to 4.5 mg/dL

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Chloride Norms

Back 29

95 to 105 mEq/L

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When calcium is high

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Phosphorus is low

Front 31

When calcium is low

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Phosphorus is high

Front 32

Pancreas produces Insulin

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which aids the transport of glucose (broken down carbs) into cells and provides the energy one needs

Front 33

Four Point Crutch Walking

(able to bear some weight on each leg)

Back 33

move right crutch then left foot, move left crutch then right crutch

Front 34

Three Point Crutch Walking

(non-weight bearing)

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move both crutches with affected leg forward then move unaffected leg forward

Front 35

Cane held on

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stronger side with client moving cane at same time as weaker leg

Front 36

Gout calls for a

Back 36

Low-Purine Diet (no gland meats, gravies, fowl, or fish; low meat) because purines are turned into uric acid, which activates gout.

Front 37

In diabetes, the proportions should

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5:2:1 carbohydrate:fat:protein.

Front 38

Immobilized clients risk

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pneumonia, atelectasis, loss of muscle tone and joint mobility, and decubitus (pressure) ulcers.

Front 39

Bruxism is

Back 39

grinding of the teeth.

Front 40

Signs of hearing loss include

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silence, indifference, suspicion and social withdrawal, as well as unclear speech and a tendency to dominate the conversations that the person does join.

Front 41

Clients with stroke that immobilizes one side should be approached from

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"good" side, encouraged to turn toward the "blind" side to compensate for the loss in visual field. In addition, the nurse should make eye contact, speak clearly and simply, announce the subject of discussion, repeat instructions, and keep all objects stably placed, familiar, and visible to the client.

Front 42

The seven major minerals

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calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium, phosphorus, sulfur, and chlorine. Iron is a trace mineral, along with copper, iodine, manganese, cobalt, zinc, and molybdenum.

Front 43

A nurse should have knowledge to monitor blood pressure in clients who receive antipsychotic medications for what reason?

Back 43

orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect
Clients should be made aware of the possibility of dizziness and syncope from postural hypotension for about
an hour or two after ingestion of this type of medication.

Front 44

A client who is receiving a blood transfusion reports generalized raised red itchy bumps 30 minutes after the transfusion has begun. The first action the nurse should take is which intervention?

Back 44

stop the infusion and notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately

Front 45

A nurse should caution clients about which common side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications?

Back 45

occult bleeding

Front 46

A client has received two units of whole blood today after an episode of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which
laboratory report should a nurse monitor most frequently?

Back 46

hemoglobin and hematocrit

The post-transfusion hematocrit provides immediate information about red cell replacement and about continued blood loss. Commonly it is ordered at one hour after an infusion of blood is complete. If the serumlevels continue to drop, the thought is that bleeding has continued to be active.

Front 47

A client is being maintained on heparin therapy. A nurse must closely monitor which laboratory value?

Back 47

activated PTT

Front 48

Which statement by the client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus is incorrect and indicates a need for further
reinforcement of information?

Back 48

"I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well."

The bottle should by rolled gently, not shaken. Shaking the bottle results in small air bubbles, which may end in errors of measurement for the insulin dosage.

Front 49

A home health nurse received a call about an older adult client who had a sudden onset of confusion. The nurse should immediately check the client’s medications for which of these classifications?

Back 49

antihistamines

Many antihistamines often cause sudden confusion in older adults. Other common medication groups that may result in sudden confusion in this group are anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, NSAIDs, histamine 2 blockers (especially Tagamet) and antihypertensives.

Front 50

While providing home care to a client with heart failure, a nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the best response by the nurse to this client?

Back 50

"The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled."

Front 51

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of liver failure with ascites. A health care provider orders spironolactone (Aldactone). A nurse should care for the client based on knowldge that this medication has what effect?

Back 51

promotes sodium and chloride excretion

Spironolactone promotes sodium and chloride excretion while sparing potassium and decreasing aldosterone levels. This medication assists to decrease the fluid accumulation in the abdomen, ascites.

Front 52

A client diagnosed with anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. In helping to develop a teaching plan for
the client about

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tomato juice

Ascorbic acid as in citrus juice enhances absorption of iron. Tea and coffee are to be avoided since they decrease iron absorption if the iron is taken at the same time they are ingested.

Front 53

A nurse has reinforced discharge instructions to the parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by a
parent suggests that the teaching was effective?

Back 53

Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal."

Phenytoin causes lymphoid hyperplasia that is most noticeable in the gums (as an overgrowth of the gums).
Frequent gum massage and careful attention to good oral hygiene may reduce the gingival hyperplasia. More frequent dental check-ups may be required.

Front 54

A nurse is reinforcing information about the application of a pediculicide to parents for their child's head lice. Which
of these instructions indicate proper application? Apply the shampoo

Back 54

to the head, may repeat in one week and no sooner

Treatment of head lice consists of applying the shampoo to the head only and repeating the treatment in oneweek if nits are still present. If the shampoo is left on longer than directed there is a risk of neurological deterioration. In addition to the shampooing of the head, the hair will need to be combed with a specal nit comb to get the eggs off of the hair shafts.

Front 55

A nurse is assigned to a client with clinical depression who is receiving an MAO inhibitor. During reinforcement of instructions about precautions with this medication, the nurse should remind the client to avoid which actions?

Back 55

ingestion of chocolate and cheese

Foods high in tryptophan, tyramine and caffeine, such as chocolate and cheese may precipitate a
hypertensive crisis. They also need to avoid aged meats and foods such as anchovies. The two types of cheeses these clients can eat are cream cheese and cottage cheese, which are not aged cheeses.

Front 56

A client is started on atenolol (Tenormin). A nurse should emphasize to the client to immediately report which
finding?

Back 56

slow, bounding pulse

Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker that can cause side effects including bradycardia and hypotension. A tip to recognize this group of medication is that they end in “lol.” They are also give cautiously in clients diagnosed with asthma since they may stimulate bronchospasm as a side effect.

Front 57

A nurse is discussing the precautions necessary while on Coumadin therapy with a client. The nurse should remind
the client to avoid which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?

Back 57

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications

Medications with NSAIDS such as ibuprophen (Motrin) may increase the response to warfarin (Coumadin)
with an increased risk for bleeding.

Front 58

When reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who takes alprazolam (Xanax), a nurse should include which piece of information?

Back 58

sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares

Sudden cessation of alprazolam can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares. Other withdrawl findings are:
nervousness, irritability, sweating, light-headedness, abdominal and muscle cramps, tremors and seizures.
Medications in this antianxiety or benzodiazepine classification require to decrease the dose or wean off instead of stopping abruptly.

Front 59

Which over-the-counter (OTC) medication should a nurse recognize as having the most elemental calcium per tablet?

Back 59

calcium carbonate

Calcium carbonate contains 400mg of elemental calcium in 1 gram of calcium carbonate. Thus, this is the
recommended type for persons who need calcium replacement.

Front 60

Aphasia

Back 60

loss or impairment of the power to use or comprehend words usually resulting from brain

Front 61

pyuria

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the presence of pus in the urine

Front 62

Chorea

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repetitive, brief, jerky, rapid involuntary movements that start in one part of the body and move abruptly, unpredictably, and often continuously to another part.

Front 63

Clues suggesting "silent" MI (acute or sudden)

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-heart failure, change in mental status, unexplained abdominal pain, dyspnea, fatigue

-women may experience fatigue and/or GI symptoms

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Angina appears with

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nausea, vomiting, fainting, sweating, and cool extremities

Front 65

Cytotec (G: Misoprostol)

Back 65

used to prevent stomach ulcers while you take NSAIDs and complications of bleeding associated with ulcers

Front 66

Cystoscopy

Back 66

an examination of the inside of the bladder and urethra

Front 67

Antabuse

Back 67

used to help treat alcoholism

**Drinking alcohol while on this medication can cause serious effects that can last from 30 minutes to several hours. It produces an unpleasant reaction of flushing, headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, sweating, pounding heart (palpitations), blurred vision or weakness

Front 68

Narcosis

Back 68

unconsciousness

Front 69

Tagamet (Cimetidine) Histamine H2 antagonist

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stimulates stomach cells to produce acid (tx: GERD, ulcers, etc)

Front 70

Carafate (sucralfate)

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used for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease and to prevent recurrent ulcers after healing of the ulcer has been achieved.
*Taken on empty stomach and one-two hours before other meds

Front 71

DDVAP (desmopressin)

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nasal spray used to treat diabetes insipidus or in surgery, injury, or other conditions where reduced urination is necessary

Front 72

PIH

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Pregnancy Induced Hypertension

Front 73

Pheochromocytoma

Back 73

is a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that causes too
much release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

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Zyprexa (G:olanzapine)

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a drug that is licensed to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder

Front 75

Use of crutches with one affected leg

Back 75

UP: Move Good leg , bad leg, crutches

DOWN: crutches, bad leg, good leg

Front 76

Patients with spinal cord injury should avoid

Back 76

caffeine to prevent bladder spasms an incontinence