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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
size of a virus genome
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10^3 - 10^5 base pairs
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size of prokaryote genome
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10^6 base pairs or 1 Mb
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size of a eukaryotic genome
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10^8 - 10^9 base pairs
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size of human genome
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3.4 billion base pairs
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How do you tell if DNA is double-stranded or single-stranded?
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Look at the ratio of bases, does A=T and G=C?
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How do you tell if DNA is linear or circular?
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If ends are digested by exonuclease, it must be linear
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Lambda phage virus
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double-stranded single linear chromosome with single-stranded complementary ends
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T2, T4, T6
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double stranded DNA linear chromosome
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phiX174
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Single-stranded single circular chromosome
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plasmid
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smaller chromosome of 2 in prokaryotes that is dispensible
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karyotype
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complete set of metaphase chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell
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chromatin
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stainable material consisting of DNA plus proteins
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What types of histones are there?
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H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4
small and positively charged |
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nonhistones
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vary greatly, negatively charged, bind to histones
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nucleosome
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bead-like regions of DNA compacted by histone binding
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when are chromosomes most compacted?
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mitosis and meiosis
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When are chromosomes least compacted?
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During S phase when replication occurs
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centromeres
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important location on chromosome where mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach
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kinetochore
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centromere when proteins bind and the end of the microtubule attach
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telomeres
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important in DNA replication. At the end of the chromosome and provide stability. Extreme ends can contain a short repeating sequence
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tandem repeats
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repetitive sequences in a row
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LINEs
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long interspersed elements, long family of repeating sequence
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SINEs
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short interspersed elements, short family of repeating sequence
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Alu
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most abundant SINE in humans, about 9% of the genome
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DNA polymerases
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catalyze DNA synthesis
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DNA replication requires
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1) a primer in the presence of Mg2+
2) A DNA template 3) All 4 dNTPs |
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How many DNA polymerases does E. coli have?
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I, II, III, IV, and V
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Which DNA polymerases are important for repair in E. coli?
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II, IV, V
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DNA polymerases I and III
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replicate 5' to 3' and have 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. Reduces error rate to 10^-9 bases/error
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DNA polymerase I
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5' to 3' exonuclease activity
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Initiation occurs at a gene sequence called the _______, which in E. coli is called oriC
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replicator
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initiator protein
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bind to the 9bp replicator and causes AT-rich region to denature
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DNA helicases
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unwind DNA
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primosome
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each helicase forms this complex with DNA primase that synthesizes 5-10 RNA primer that is replaced with DNA
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DNA gyrase
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a form of topoisomerase that relaxes tension in the helix ahead so helicase can continue unwinding
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DNA ligase
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seals final 5' to 3' gap left when DNA pol I replaces RNA template with DNA
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replisome
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all replication machinery moves along together at one replication fork
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DNA pol III holoenzyme
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all enzymes of DNA pol III
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rolling circle replication
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form of replication viral genomes may use; forms one long molecule that is then cut by endonuclease
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replicon
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distance between 2 replication forks in eukaryotic replication
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origin recognition complex
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protein that binds to replicator to initiate replication in eukaryotes
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cdks (cyclin dependent kinase)
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regulate the cell life cycle; become active in S phase
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eukaryotic cells have ______ polymerases
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15+
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telomerase
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adds repeating sequences to chromosome ends after replication when RNA primer is removed and there's a gap left
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When are histones translated in replication?
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Histone genes are transcribed in late G1 so they can be transcribed during S
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phenylketonuria
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recessive mutation on gene for phenylalanine hydroxylase. Usually converts excess phenylalanine to tyrosine but instead it accumulates at phenylpyruvic acid. Causes mental retardation.
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Tay-Sachs disease
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caused by mutation in Hex A that cleaves Gm2 in brain. It accumulates and causes reaction to sharp sounds, spot on retina, and neural degeneration. Fatal after 3-4 years
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Albinism
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1 type mutation on gene for tyrosinase to convert tyrosine to DOPA, from which melanin is made
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What are promoter sequences in prokaryotes?
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-10 5'TATAAT3'
-35 5'TTGACA3' |
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rho independent termination
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has inverted repeats about 20 bp before termination followed by ATs. It is translated, forms hairpin, and dissociates
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Rho dependent termination
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rho protein binds to a C rich region and uses ATP to release the RNA transcript
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In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes...
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transcribes some rRNA
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In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes....
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mRNA and some snRNA
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In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III transcribes....
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tRNA, some mRNA, some snRNA
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core promoter
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determines start of transcription; Inr sequence with +1 site, TATA box around -30
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Promoter proximal elements
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determine efficiency of transcription; -75 CAT box, -90 GC box
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Transcription factors
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must assemble on the core promoter becase RNA pol II cannot directly recognize promoter
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5' cap
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1st 2 sugars on 5' end are methylated and guanine is added in 5' to 5' linkage
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3' poly A tail
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50-250 As added with no template; protects agains exonuclease activity
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transcription termination in eukaryotes
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termination factors bind to poly A tail
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snRNA + protein =
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snRNP
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snRNPs + pre-mRNA =
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spliceosome
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the anticodon on tRNA is on loop....
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2
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the amino acid attaches to tRNA where?
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on CCA of 3' end
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wobble hypothesis
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3rd letter is not as constrained, so multiple bases can match there
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polysome
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more than 1 ribosome translating same mRNA at 1 time
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termination of translation
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release factors recognize stop codons
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mutation rate
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probability of a mutation over time, number per bp per generation
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mutation frequency
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probability of a certain mutation across individuals (percent of a population)
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depurination
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bond breaks between purines and sugar, leaving no template
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deamination
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cytosine losese amino group, forming uracil or thymine and causing transitions
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methyl-directed mismatch repair
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mechanism in E. coli to repair base pairs that remain uncorrected after replication
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insertion sequences
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contain no genes other than those needed to move the elements
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composite transposons
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contain a gene region flanked by IS modules
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noncomposite transposons
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not flanked by IS elements, so transposition enzymes are encoded by genes in central region
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cDNA libraries are not equivalent to genomic libraries because...
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cDNA libraries are made from mRNA so they do not contain introns
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composite transposons
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(in prokaryotes) contain a gene flanked by IS regions
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noncomposite transposons
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(in prokaryotes) gene flanked by repeating sequences but not IS elements, so transpositional enzymes are encoded in central gene region
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autonomous elements
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(in eukaryotes) transposable elements that can move themselves (LINEs)
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nonautonomous elements
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(in eukaryotes) lack the gene for transposition (SINEs)
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What are limitations of PCR?
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1) fragments generally can't be longer than 20 bp
2) Taq polymerase introduces errors 3) Sensitivity makes contamination a problem 4) Requires knowledge of flanking sequence |
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ddNTP =
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dideoxynucleotide triphosphate
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microarray
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glass slide spotted with thousands of SNA probes. Target DNA will be flourescently labeled and mixed with probes on the microarray
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bacterial genome density
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generally 1 gene per 1-2 kb
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gene desert
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1 Mb or more without a gene
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How many gene deserts are there in humans?
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80 gene deserts, 25% of genome
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synapsis is....
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when chromosomes align in prophase I and align precisely base pair for base pair
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pseudoautosomal regions
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regions on the Y chromosome that are capable of homologous recombination with regions on the X chromosome
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penetrance
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the percentage of individuals in a population with a genotype who exhibit the phenotype associated with it
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expressivitiy
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degree to which a phenotype is expressed in an individual
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