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90 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
size of a virus genome
10^3 - 10^5 base pairs
size of prokaryote genome
10^6 base pairs or 1 Mb
size of a eukaryotic genome
10^8 - 10^9 base pairs
size of human genome
3.4 billion base pairs
How do you tell if DNA is double-stranded or single-stranded?
Look at the ratio of bases, does A=T and G=C?
How do you tell if DNA is linear or circular?
If ends are digested by exonuclease, it must be linear
Lambda phage virus
double-stranded single linear chromosome with single-stranded complementary ends
T2, T4, T6
double stranded DNA linear chromosome
phiX174
Single-stranded single circular chromosome
plasmid
smaller chromosome of 2 in prokaryotes that is dispensible
karyotype
complete set of metaphase chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell
chromatin
stainable material consisting of DNA plus proteins
What types of histones are there?
H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4

small and positively charged
nonhistones
vary greatly, negatively charged, bind to histones
nucleosome
bead-like regions of DNA compacted by histone binding
when are chromosomes most compacted?
mitosis and meiosis
When are chromosomes least compacted?
During S phase when replication occurs
centromeres
important location on chromosome where mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach
kinetochore
centromere when proteins bind and the end of the microtubule attach
telomeres
important in DNA replication. At the end of the chromosome and provide stability. Extreme ends can contain a short repeating sequence
tandem repeats
repetitive sequences in a row
LINEs
long interspersed elements, long family of repeating sequence
SINEs
short interspersed elements, short family of repeating sequence
Alu
most abundant SINE in humans, about 9% of the genome
DNA polymerases
catalyze DNA synthesis
DNA replication requires
1) a primer in the presence of Mg2+
2) A DNA template
3) All 4 dNTPs
How many DNA polymerases does E. coli have?
I, II, III, IV, and V
Which DNA polymerases are important for repair in E. coli?
II, IV, V
DNA polymerases I and III
replicate 5' to 3' and have 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. Reduces error rate to 10^-9 bases/error
DNA polymerase I
5' to 3' exonuclease activity
Initiation occurs at a gene sequence called the _______, which in E. coli is called oriC
replicator
initiator protein
bind to the 9bp replicator and causes AT-rich region to denature
DNA helicases
unwind DNA
primosome
each helicase forms this complex with DNA primase that synthesizes 5-10 RNA primer that is replaced with DNA
DNA gyrase
a form of topoisomerase that relaxes tension in the helix ahead so helicase can continue unwinding
DNA ligase
seals final 5' to 3' gap left when DNA pol I replaces RNA template with DNA
replisome
all replication machinery moves along together at one replication fork
DNA pol III holoenzyme
all enzymes of DNA pol III
rolling circle replication
form of replication viral genomes may use; forms one long molecule that is then cut by endonuclease
replicon
distance between 2 replication forks in eukaryotic replication
origin recognition complex
protein that binds to replicator to initiate replication in eukaryotes
cdks (cyclin dependent kinase)
regulate the cell life cycle; become active in S phase
eukaryotic cells have ______ polymerases
15+
telomerase
adds repeating sequences to chromosome ends after replication when RNA primer is removed and there's a gap left
When are histones translated in replication?
Histone genes are transcribed in late G1 so they can be transcribed during S
phenylketonuria
recessive mutation on gene for phenylalanine hydroxylase. Usually converts excess phenylalanine to tyrosine but instead it accumulates at phenylpyruvic acid. Causes mental retardation.
Tay-Sachs disease
caused by mutation in Hex A that cleaves Gm2 in brain. It accumulates and causes reaction to sharp sounds, spot on retina, and neural degeneration. Fatal after 3-4 years
Albinism
1 type mutation on gene for tyrosinase to convert tyrosine to DOPA, from which melanin is made
What are promoter sequences in prokaryotes?
-10 5'TATAAT3'
-35 5'TTGACA3'
rho independent termination
has inverted repeats about 20 bp before termination followed by ATs. It is translated, forms hairpin, and dissociates
Rho dependent termination
rho protein binds to a C rich region and uses ATP to release the RNA transcript
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes...
transcribes some rRNA
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes....
mRNA and some snRNA
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III transcribes....
tRNA, some mRNA, some snRNA
core promoter
determines start of transcription; Inr sequence with +1 site, TATA box around -30
Promoter proximal elements
determine efficiency of transcription; -75 CAT box, -90 GC box
Transcription factors
must assemble on the core promoter becase RNA pol II cannot directly recognize promoter
5' cap
1st 2 sugars on 5' end are methylated and guanine is added in 5' to 5' linkage
3' poly A tail
50-250 As added with no template; protects agains exonuclease activity
transcription termination in eukaryotes
termination factors bind to poly A tail
snRNA + protein =
snRNP
snRNPs + pre-mRNA =
spliceosome
the anticodon on tRNA is on loop....
2
the amino acid attaches to tRNA where?
on CCA of 3' end
wobble hypothesis
3rd letter is not as constrained, so multiple bases can match there
polysome
more than 1 ribosome translating same mRNA at 1 time
termination of translation
release factors recognize stop codons
mutation rate
probability of a mutation over time, number per bp per generation
mutation frequency
probability of a certain mutation across individuals (percent of a population)
depurination
bond breaks between purines and sugar, leaving no template
deamination
cytosine losese amino group, forming uracil or thymine and causing transitions
methyl-directed mismatch repair
mechanism in E. coli to repair base pairs that remain uncorrected after replication
insertion sequences
contain no genes other than those needed to move the elements
composite transposons
contain a gene region flanked by IS modules
noncomposite transposons
not flanked by IS elements, so transposition enzymes are encoded by genes in central region
cDNA libraries are not equivalent to genomic libraries because...
cDNA libraries are made from mRNA so they do not contain introns
composite transposons
(in prokaryotes) contain a gene flanked by IS regions
noncomposite transposons
(in prokaryotes) gene flanked by repeating sequences but not IS elements, so transpositional enzymes are encoded in central gene region
autonomous elements
(in eukaryotes) transposable elements that can move themselves (LINEs)
nonautonomous elements
(in eukaryotes) lack the gene for transposition (SINEs)
What are limitations of PCR?
1) fragments generally can't be longer than 20 bp
2) Taq polymerase introduces errors
3) Sensitivity makes contamination a problem
4) Requires knowledge of flanking sequence
ddNTP =
dideoxynucleotide triphosphate
microarray
glass slide spotted with thousands of SNA probes. Target DNA will be flourescently labeled and mixed with probes on the microarray
bacterial genome density
generally 1 gene per 1-2 kb
gene desert
1 Mb or more without a gene
How many gene deserts are there in humans?
80 gene deserts, 25% of genome
synapsis is....
when chromosomes align in prophase I and align precisely base pair for base pair
pseudoautosomal regions
regions on the Y chromosome that are capable of homologous recombination with regions on the X chromosome
penetrance
the percentage of individuals in a population with a genotype who exhibit the phenotype associated with it
expressivitiy
degree to which a phenotype is expressed in an individual