New Review Pretest

Front 1

What kind of protein is dynein?

Back 1

Dynein is an ATPase.

Front 2

What is the protein responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix?

Back 2

DNA Helicases

Front 3

Describe the role of dynein in cilia structure.

Back 3

Dynein links peripheral 9 doublets of microtubules.

Front 4

What are the three modifications made to RNA before it leaves the nucleus?

Back 4

5' capping with 7-methylguanosine, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns

Front 5

What is the protein that prevents supercoling during replication?

Back 5

DNA topoisomerases

Front 6

What is the function of smooth ER?

Back 6

Is the site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of drugs and poisons

Front 7

How is the function of gap junctions accomplished?

Back 7

Through a connection with central channels.

Front 8

What are Nissl bodies?

Back 8

rough ER

Front 9

What is another name for macula adherens?

Back 9

Desmosome

Front 10

What is the primary source of energy for the Liver?

Back 10

Amino acids, lipids, glucose, fructose, and lactate

Front 11

What are the two Hardy-Weinberg equations?

Back 11

P^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 and p + q = 1

Front 12

Define poikilocytosis

Back 12

varying cell shapes

Front 13

What is another name for zona adherens?

Back 13

Intermediate junction.

Front 14

Which cells are rich in smooth ER?

Back 14

1. liver hepatocytes, 2. steroid hormone-producing cells of adrenal cortex.

Front 15

What are the conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Back 15

No mutations, No selection, Random mating, and No migration

Front 16

What is another name for zona occludens?

Back 16

Tight junction.

Front 17

Describe microtubule arrangement of cilia.

Back 17

9+2 arrangement of microtubules.

Front 18

Name five types of epithelial cell junctions.

Back 18

1. zona occludens 2.zona adherens 3.macula adherens 4.gap junction 5.hemidesmosome

Front 19

How does dynein function in cilia function?

Back 19

Dynein causes the bending of cilium by differential sliding of doublets.

Front 20

Describe the histological structure of sinusoids of the liver.

Back 20

Irregular 'capillaries' with round pores 100-200 nm in diameter and no basement membrane.

Front 21

What is the function of rough ER?

Back 21

Is the site of synthesis of secretory (exported proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins.

Front 22

Define macula adherens.

Back 22

Small, discrete sites of attachment of epithelial cells.

Front 23

What is the function of hemidesmosomes?

Back 23

Connect cells to underlying extracellular matrix.

Front 24

What are the functions of the lymph node?

Back 24

1. Nonspecific filtration by macrophages. 2. storage/proliferation of B and T cells 3. Ab production.

Front 25

Which cells are rich in rough ER?

Back 25

1. Mucus-secreting goblet cells of small intestine, 2. antibody-secreting plasma cells.

Front 26

What is the function of Nissl bodies?

Back 26

Synthesize enzymes (e.g. ChAT) and peptide neurotransmitters.

Front 27

Name a protein involved in the structure of hemidesmosomes.

Back 27

Integrin.

Front 28

What is the type of mutation that causes a loss of DNA?

Back 28

Deletion

Front 29

Define anisocytosis

Back 29

varying cell sizes

Front 30

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Conjugation

Back 30

Direct cell to cell DNA transfer

Front 31

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transduction

Back 31

Phage-mediated cell to cell DNA transfer

Front 32

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transformation

Back 32

Purified DNA taken up by a cell

Front 33

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transposition

Back 33

DNA transfer to same or another chromosome or plasmid WITHIN a cell

Front 34

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Conjugation

Back 34

Prokaryotic

Front 35

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transduction

Back 35

Prokaryotic

Front 36

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transformation

Back 36

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

Front 37

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transposition

Back 37

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

Front 38

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Conjugation

Back 38

Chromosomal or plasmid

Front 39

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transduction

Back 39

Generalized transduction: Any gene Specialized transduction: Only certain genes

Front 40

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transformation

Back 40

Any DNA

Front 41

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transposition

Back 41

DNA sequences ""jumping genes""

Front 42

Woman with anxiety about an exam is told to relax and imagine going through the steps. What process is this?

Back 42

Systematic desensitization.

Front 43

65-year old man is diagnosed with incurable adenocarcinoma. His family asks you not to tell him. What do you do?

Back 43

Assess whether telling the patient will negatively affect his health. If not, tell him.

Front 44

Girl can groom herself, can hop on 1 foot, and has an imaginary friend. How old is she?

Back 44

4 years old.

Front 45

36-year old woman with a family history of breast cancer refuses mammogram b/c she heard it hurts. What do you do?

Back 45

Discuss the risks and benefits of not having a mammogram. Each patient must give her own informed consent to each procedure. Pt has final say

Front 46

During sleep, man has variable blood pressure, penile tumescence, and variable EEG What stage of sleep is he in?

Back 46

REM sleep.

Front 47

15yo F of norm height and weight has enlarged parotid glands. The mother found laxatives. What is the diagnosis?

Back 47

Bulimia.

Front 48

11-year old girl exhibits Tanner stage 4 sexual development (almost full breast and pubic hair). What is the diagnosis?

Back 48

Advanced stage, early development.

Front 49

4yo F complains of a burning feeling in her genitalia. Smear of discharge shows N. gonorrhoeae. How was she infected?

Back 49

Sexual abuse.

Front 50

Person demands only the best and most famous doctor in town. What is the personality disorder?

Back 50

Narcissism.

Front 51

Nurse has episodes of hypoglycemia; blood analysis reveals no elevation in C-protein. What is the diagnosis?

Back 51

Factitious disorder, self scripted insulin.

Front 52

Observational Study. Sample chosen on presence of absence of disease. Information collected about exposure.

Back 52

Case-control Study.

Front 53

Observational study. sample chosen based on presence of absence of risk factors. Subjects followed over time for disease.

Back 53

Cohort Study.

Front 54

List 4 ways to reduce bias in a study.

Back 54

1. Blind studies. 2. Placebo responses. 3. Case-crossover design. 4. Randomization

Front 55

When the subjects choose the groups it may lead to what type of bias?

Back 55

Selection bias.

Front 56

When knowledge of the presence of the disease alters recall by the subjects what type of bias is likely?

Back 56

Recall bias.

Front 57

When subjects are not representative of the population and results are not generalizable, what type of bias is this?

Back 57

Sampling bias.

Front 58

When information gathered on subjects is done so at an inappropriate time, what bias is likely?

Back 58

Late-look bias.

Front 59

The total proportion of cases in a population at a given time.

Back 59

Prevalence.

Front 60

The rate of new cases in a population in a given time.

Back 60

Incidence.

Front 61

Incidence x Disease Duration

Back 61

Prevalence

Front 62

For chronic diseases, which is larger - prevalence or incidence?

Back 62

Prevalence > Incidence for Chronic Disease

Front 63

When does prevalence = incidence?

Back 63

For acute disease (ie the common cold)

Front 64

What is the PPV?

Back 64

The probability of having a condition given a positive test. TP/(TP+FP) = PPV

Front 65

What is NPV?

Back 65

The probability of not having the condition given a negative test. TN/(TN+FN) = NPV

Front 66

Unlike sensitivity and specificity, the predictive values are ....

Back 66

dependent on the prevalence of disease. The higher the prevalence of disease, the higher the predictive value of the test.

Front 67

a/(a+c)

Back 67

sensitivity

Front 68

d/(b+d)

Back 68

specificity

Front 69

a/(a+b)

Back 69

PPV

Front 70

d/(c+d)

Back 70

NPV

Front 71

(a/b)/(c/d)

Back 71

OR - approximates RR if prevalence of disease is not too high.

Front 72

[a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)]

Back 72

RR - relative risk

Front 73

Attributable risk formula?

Back 73

[a/(a+b)]-[c/(c+d)]

Front 74

The consistency and reproducibility of a test is the ....

Back 74

Precision.

Front 75

Absence of random variation in a test ....

Back 75

Precision.

Front 76

The trueness of the test measurements is the ...

Back 76

Accuracy

Front 77

Reduced precision means

Back 77

increase in random error

Front 78

Reduced accuracy means

Back 78

increase in systematic error

Front 79

Number needed to treat

Back 79

NNT = 1/(Ic-Ie); The number of pts that need to be treated to prevent 1 additional bad outcome.

Front 80

Reliability is ...

Back 80

the reproducibility of a test. a Test is reliable if repeat measurements are the same.

Front 81

Validity is ...

Back 81

whether the test truly measures what it purports to measure. A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure.

Front 82

Gaussian distribution is ...

Back 82

a normal distribution (bell curve) (mean=median=mode)

Front 83

A bimodal distribution ...

Back 83

has 2 humps

Front 84

A positive skew distribution ...

Back 84

is asymmetry with the tail to the right, hump on the left (mean>median>mode)

Front 85

a Negative skew distribution ...

Back 85

is asymmetry with the tail to the left, hump on the right (mean<median<mode)

Front 86

A null hypothesis is ...

Back 86

There is no association (ie between the risk factor and the disease in the popuation.)

Front 87

The alternative hypothesis is ...

Back 87

There is some difference (ie between the disease and the risk factor in the population)

Front 88

Type 1 error (alpha)

Back 88

Stating there IS an effect or difference where none really exists.

Front 89

Type II error (beta)

Back 89

Stating there IS NOT an effect or difference when one really exists.

Front 90

Power

Back 90

the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false.

Front 91

Power in a study depends on what two things ...

Back 91

1. total number of endpoints experienced by the population; 2. difference in compliance between treatment groups

Front 92

How do you increase study power

Back 92

increase the sample size.

Front 93

Confidence interval

Back 93

mean +/- 1.96 (SEM) If the CI includes 0, H0 is accepted.

Front 94

Normal (Gaussian) distribution has what percentage of the population in each standard deviation?

Back 94

68% within 1 SD, 95% within 2 SDs, 99.7% within 3 SDs.

Front 95

Correlation coefficient indicates

Back 95

the strength of the correlation between two variables. The sign indicates a positive or negative.

Front 96

What is Primary Disease Prevention?

Back 96

Prevent the disease from occuring.

Front 97

What is Secondary Disease Prevention?

Back 97

Early detection of the disease.

Front 98

What is Tertiary Disease prevention?

Back 98

Reduce mobidity from the disease.

Front 99

What are important preventative measure for patients with DM?

Back 99

Eye exams, foot exams, urine tests.

Front 100

What are important preventive measures for pts with drug abuse problems?

Back 100

HIV test, TB test, Hep immunizations.

Front 101

What are important preventive measures for pts with alcoholism?

Back 101

influenza, pneumococcal immunizations and TB testing

Front 102

What is an important preventive measure to offer obese pts?

Back 102

Blood sugar testing for diabetes.

Front 103

What is an important preventive measure to offer homeless pts or recent immigrants?

Back 103

TB tests

Front 104

What tests are important for pts engaging in high risk sexual behavior?

Back 104

HIV, Hep B, Syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia tests.

Front 105

What are the leading causes of death for infants in the US?

Back 105

1. Congenital anomalies 2. Short gestation/LBW 3. SIDS 4. Maternal complications of pregnancy 5. RDS

Front 106

What are the leading causes of death for children age 1-14 in the US?

Back 106

1. Injuries 2. Cancer 3. Congenital anomalies 4. Homicide 5. Heart disease

Front 107

What are the leading causes of death for people 15-24 years of age in the US?

Back 107

1. Injuries 2. Homicide 3. Suicide 4. Cancer 5. Heart disease

Front 108

What are the leading causes of death for adults 25-64 yo in the US?

Back 108

1. Cancer 2. Heart disease 3. Injuries 4. Suicide 5. Stroke

Front 109

What are the leading causes of death for adults over the age of 65 in the US?

Back 109

1. Heart disease 2. Cancer 3. Stroke 4. COPD 5. Pneumonia 6. Influenza

Front 110

Define autonomy

Back 110

The obligation to respect patients as individuals and to honor their preferences in medical care.

Front 111

What is legally required for Informed Consent?

Back 111

1. discussion of pertinent information 2. patient's agreement to the plan of care 3. freedom from cohersion

Front 112

In what circumstances is there an exception to the mandates of informed consent?

Back 112

1. Patient lacks decision making capacity. 2. Implied consent is an emergency 3. Therapeutic privilege 4. Waiver - pt waives the right to informed consent

Front 113

What is Therapeutic Privilege

Back 113

Withholding information when disclosure would severely harm the patietn or undermine informed decision making capacity.

Front 114

What are some variables in determining a patients decision making capacity?

Back 114

1. pt makes and communicates a choice 2. pt is informed 3. decision remains stable in time 4. decision is consistent with pt values and goals

Front 115

Define Transference.

Back 115

When the patient projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto their physician.

Front 116

Define Countertransference.

Back 116

When the doctor projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto the pt.

Front 117

Define classical conditioning.

Back 117

Leaning where a natural response is elicited by a conditioned stimulus that was previously presented in conjunction with an unconditional natural stimulus.

Front 118

Define operant conditioning.

Back 118

learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward.

Front 119

How does the Stanford Binet test calculate intelligence?

Back 119

IQ as (mental age/chronological age) x 100

Front 120

How does Wechsler (WAIS) measure intelligence?

Back 120

11 subtests (6 verbal, 5 performance)... Mean is 100, SD - 15.

Front 121

What is the IQ cutoff for diagnosis of mental retardation?

Back 121

IQ < 70 or 2 SD below mean.

Front 122

True or False: IQ tests are objective test.

Back 122

True ... but they are NOT projective tests.

Front 123

Are IQ scores correlated with genetic factors or school achievement?

Back 123

Yes to both ... but more highly correlated to school achievement.

Front 124

What is an oral advanced directive?

Back 124

In an incapacitated state, a pts prior oral statement is commonly used as a guide.

Front 125

What is a written advanced directive?

Back 125

a living will.

Front 126

What is a durable power of attorney?

Back 126

pt designates a surrogate to make a medical decision in the event that the patient loses decision making capacity.

Front 127

What is non-maleficence

Back 127

do no harm"". However, if benfits of an intervention outweigh the risks, a patient may make an informed decision to proceed.

Front 128

Define beneficence

Back 128

The physicians ethical responsibility to act in the patients best interest (as a fiduciary). Can conflict with autonomy.

Front 129

In what circumstances can a physician break confidentiality?

Back 129

1. potential harm to others is serious. 2. likelihood of harm to self is great. 3. no alternative means exist to warn and protect those at risk

Front 130

What steps may a physician take to prevent harm caused by a patients infectious disease?

Back 130

Physician may have a duty to warn public health officials (reportable diseases) and identify people at risk.

Front 131

What is the Tarasoff decision?

Back 131

A law requiring physician to directly inform and protect a potential victim from harm; may involve a breach of confidentiality.

Front 132

May a physician break confidentiality if in cases of an automobile accident?

Back 132

Only if they suspect that the driver was impaired

Front 133

How may a physician handle a suicidal or homicidal patient?

Back 133

The physician may hold the patient involuntarily for a period of time ... or until psychiatric evaluation is completed.

Front 134

A civil suit under negligence requires what 3 things?

Back 134

1. Physician breach of duty to patient (Dereliction) 2. patient suffers harm (damage) 3. Breach of duty causes harm (Direct)

Front 135

What is the most common factor leading to litigation between the physician and pt?

Back 135

poor communication.

Front 136

In a criminal suit the burden of proof is "beyond a reasonable doubt" ... in a malpractice suit the burden of proof is ...

Back 136

more likely than not

Front 137

Define Anosognia

Back 137

unaware that one is ill

Front 138

Define Autotopagnosia

Back 138

unable to locate ones own body parts

Front 139

Define depersonalization

Back 139

body seems unreal or dissociated

Front 140

What is involved in orienting the patient

Back 140

person, place, and time

Front 141

What is the order of orientation loss in a disoriented patient?

Back 141

time goes first, then place, and last person

Front 142

Define anterograde amnesia

Back 142

the inability to remember things that occred AFTER an CNS insult ... cannot make new memories

Front 143

Define retrograde amnesia

Back 143

inability to remember things that occured before a CNS insult

Front 144

What is Korsakoff's anmesia

Back 144

classic anterograde anmesia caused by a thymine deficiency.

Front 145

A alcoholic patient presents with anterograde amnesia, and confabulations. What is the likely diagnosis?

Back 145

Korsakoffs amnesia

Front 146

How many signs of maladaptive substance abuse must be present in a years time to diagnose substance dependance?

Back 146

3 or more.

Front 147

What is the difference between substance dependence and substance abuse?

Back 147

substance abuse is maladaptive patterns leading to clinical or social impairment or distress that have not met the criteria for substance dependence.

Front 148

What are Freud's three structures of the mind?

Back 148

Id, Ego, Superego

Front 149

Define the Id.

Back 149

Primal urges, sex and aggression.

Front 150

Define the Superego.

Back 150

Moral values and conscience

Front 151

Define the Ego.

Back 151

Mediator between unconscious mind and external world.

Front 152

The Topographic theory of the mind deals with what three topography?

Back 152

Conscious, precocious, and unconscious

Front 153

Define Conscious

Back 153

What you are aware of.

Front 154

Define precocious

Back 154

What you are able to make conscious with effort

Front 155

Define unconscious

Back 155

what you are not aware of.

Front 156

What is an Oedipus complex?

Back 156

repressed sexual feelings of a child for the opposite sex parent, accompanied by a rivalry with same sex parent.

Front 157

hallucinations, delusions, strange behavior, and loose associations are positive symptoms of what disorder?

Back 157

Schizophrenia.

Front 158

What are some negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Back 158

flat affect, social withdrawal, thought blocking, lack of motivation

Front 159

How long must a patient experience symptoms of schizophrenia for a diagnosis?

Back 159

Periods of psychosis or disturbed behavior lasting > 6 months.

Front 160

What are the 5 types of schizophrenia?

Back 160

1. Disorganized 2. Catatonic 3. paranoid 4. Undifferentiated 5. Residual

Front 161

What are the 4 A's of schizophrenia described by Bleuler?

Back 161

1. Ambivalence 2. Autism 3. Affect (blunted) 4. Associations (loose)

Front 162

What is schizoaffective disorder?

Back 162

a combination of schizophrenia and a mood disorder.

Front 163

What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?

Back 163

1.5% (males=females, blacks=whites)

Front 164

Are genetic or environmental factors stronger in the etiology of schizophrenia

Back 164

Genetic factors outweigh environmental factors

Front 165

In one word, describe Clusters A, B, and C personality disorders.

Back 165

A = weird B = wild C = worried

Front 166

Describe a pt with a Cluster A personality disorder.

Back 166

odd or eccentric, cannot develop meaningful social relationships.

Front 167

What are 3 types of Cluster A personality disorders?

Back 167

1. Paranoid 2. Schizoid 3. Schizotypal

Front 168

What is a Paranoid personality disorder?

Back 168

distrust and suspiciousness, projection is main defense mechanism

Front 169

What is a Schizoid personality disorder?

Back 169

voluntary social withdrawal, limited emotional expression

Front 170

What is a Schizotypal personality disorder

Back 170

interpersonal awkwardness, odd thought patterns and appearance

Front 171

Personality disorders that lead pts to be erratic, emotional, or dramatic and have a genetic association with mood disorders

Back 171

Cluster B

Front 172

What are the 4 types of Cluster B personality disorders

Back 172

1. Antisocial 2. Borderline 3. Histrionic 4. Narcissistic

Front 173

Describe an antisocial personality disorder.

Back 173

disregard for and violation of rights of others, crimilatiy, males more often affected than females.

Front 174

Describe a borderline personality disorder

Back 174

unstable mood and behavior, impulsiveness, sense of emptiness. women more often affected than men.

Front 175

Describe a Histrionic personality disorder.

Back 175

excessive emotionality, somatization, attention seeking, sexually provacative.

Front 176

Describe a Narcissistic personality disorder.

Back 176

grandiosity, sense of entitlement, may demand ""top"" physician, or best health care

Front 177

Pts with personality disorders that leave them anxious or fearful and have a genetic association with anxiety disorders

Back 177

Cluster C personality disorders

Front 178

List 3 types of Cluster C personality disorders

Back 178

1. Avoidant 2. Obsessive-Compulsive 3. Dependent

Front 179

Describe an avoidant personality disorder.

Back 179

sensitive to rejection, socially inhibited, timid, feelings of inadequacy

Front 180

Describe OCD

Back 180

preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control

Front 181

Describe a dependent personality disorder.

Back 181

submissive and clinging, excessive need to be taken care of, low self confidence

Front 182

What are Medicare and Medicaid?

Back 182

federal health care programs that originated from amendments to the Social Security Act.

Front 183

Who does MedicarE provide for?

Back 183

The Elderly

Front 184

Who does MedicaiD provide for?

Back 184

The Destitute. Medicaid is federal and state assistance for very poor people.

Front 185

Ethically, what do you do if your patient is non-compliant?

Back 185

Work to improve the physician patient relationship.

Front 186

Ethically, what do you do if your patient has difficulty taking medication?

Back 186

Provide written instructions, attempt to simplify the treatment regimen.

Front 187

What do you do if a 17 year old girl is pregnant and asks for an abortion.

Back 187

informthe patient that most states require parental consent for minors for an abortion.

Front 188

What do you do if a patient refuses a necessary procedure or desires and unnecessary one?

Back 188

attempt to understand why the patient wants/does not want the procedure. address underlying concerns. avoid performing unnecessary procedures.

Front 189

What do you do if a patient is angry about the amount of time he spent in the waiting room?

Back 189

apologize for any inconvenience. stay away from efforts to try to explain the delay.

Front 190

what do you do if the patient is upset with the way he was treated by another doctor?

Back 190

suggest that the patient speak directly to the physician regarding the concerns.

Front 191

What do you do if a child wishes to know more about his illness?

Back 191

Ask what the parents have told the child about his illness. Parents of a child decide what information can be relayed about the illness.

Front 192

What do you do if a patient continues to smoke, believing that cigarettes are good for him?

Back 192

Ask how the pt feels about his smoking. Offer advice on cessation if the patient seems willing to make an effort to quit.

Front 193

A child puts everything in their mouth. How old are they?

Back 193

1st year of life.

Front 194

An infant sits with support, how old is she?

Back 194

4 months

Front 195

An infant stands with help, how old is he?

Back 195

8 months

Front 196

A baby is crawling, how old is she?

Back 196

9 months

Front 197

A little girl just learned to walk on her own, how old is she?

Back 197

13 months

Front 198

A child has just learned to climb the stairs alone, how old is he?

Back 198

18 months

Front 199

At what age does an emergence of hand preference first appear?

Back 199

18 months

Front 200

A child has lots of energy, can walk backwards, turn doorknobs, unscrew jars, and scribble with crayons. How old is she?

Back 200

2 years

Front 201

A child can ride a tricycle, go up the stairs normally, draw recognizable figures and has just started toilet training. How old?

Back 201

3 years.

Front 202

A child can descend the stairs normally and hop on one foot. How old is she?

Back 202

4 years

Front 203

At what age will a child develop complete sphincter control (toilet trained)?

Back 203

5 years

Front 204

At 5 years of age, what percentage of the adult brain mass does the child have?

Back 204

75.00%

Front 205

A child has most of her permanent teeth, how old is he?

Back 205

11 years

Front 206

True or False: Boys and girls have roughly the same height to weight ratio between ages 6-12 years?

Back 206

False: boys are heavier than girls.

Front 207

At what age does the adolescent growth spurt usually kick in?

Back 207

Around 12 years, earlier for girls than for boys.

Front 208

A child plays patty cake and peek a boo, how old is she?

Back 208

10 months

Front 209

A baby is experiencing stranger anxiety, how old is he?

Back 209

6 months

Front 210

A baby has started showing signs of normal separation anxiety, how old is she?

Back 210

1 year.

Front 211

The parent is the central figure and issues of trust are key, how old is the child?

Back 211

1st year of life.

Front 212

A toddler will engage in parallel play, but ""no"" is still her favorite word, how old is she?

Back 212

1 year

Front 213

A toddler is selfish and self centered, aggressive, and tends to imitate mannerisms and activities, how old is he?

Back 213

2 years

Front 214

A baby can follow objects to midline, how old is she?

Back 214

4 months

Front 215

A baby is putting his feet in his mouth, how old is he?

Back 215

5 months

Front 216

A baby will approach a toy with one hand, and then change hands with the toy, how old is she?

Back 216

1st year of life

Front 217

A baby first laughs out loud, how old is she?

Back 217

4 months

Front 218

A baby has started saying ""ma-ma-ma"" and ""da-da-da"", how old is he?

Back 218

10 months

Front 219

In Piaget's Cognitive Development, at what age does a baby achieve object permanence?

Back 219

1 year

Front 220

A baby kicks and throws a ball, how old is he?

Back 220

1 year

Front 221

A baby can stack three cubes, how old is she?

Back 221

18 months.

Front 222

A toddler is using two word sentences and has a vocabulary of about 250 words, how old is he?

Back 222

1 year

Front 223

A toddler has started using pronouns and shows great variations in timing of language. How old is she?

Back 223

2 years

Front 224

A toddler is using complete sentences and has a vocabulary of 900 words, although he appears to understand 4x as many.

Back 224

3 years

Front 225

A child tells stories, uses prepositions, plurals, and has discovered compound sentences, how old is she?

Back 225

4 years

Front 226

A child can stand on her tiptoes, how old is she?

Back 226

30 months

Front 227

A child is able to aim and throw a ball and stack 6 cubes, how old is he?

Back 227

2 years

Front 228

A child who can use symbols and has concrete use of objects and use of symbols along with a strong egocentrism?

Back 228

2 years

Front 229

At what age is gender identity fixed?

Back 229

3 years

Front 230

A child knows her full name and what sex she is, how old is she?

Back 230

3 years

Front 231

Two children are observed to be taking turns with a toy, how old are they?

Back 231

3 years

Front 232

At what age is a child likely to start grooming themselves and brushing their own teeth?

Back 232

4 years

Front 233

A toddler can catch a ball, stack 9 cubes, cut paper with scissors and keeps unbottoning his shirt buttons, how old is he?

Back 233

3 years

Front 234

A child can point to and count three objects, repeat four digits, and name colors correctly, how old is she?

Back 234

4 years

Front 235

A child has an imaginary friend and this is entirely normal for this age group, how old is she?

Back 235

4 years

Front 236

Two children are caught "playing doctor", at what age does this curiosity manifest?

Back 236

4 years

Front 237

A child is having terrible nightmares and needs the light left on at night for fear of monsters, how old is he?

Back 237

4 years

Front 238

At what age does a child adopt personal speech patterns?

Back 238

adolescence (12+)

Front 239

At what age does communication become the focus of friendships?

Back 239

adolescence (12+)

Front 240

A child repeatedly asks for the meaning of words, how old is she?

Back 240

5 years

Front 241

A child can count 10 objects correctly, how old is she?

Back 241

5 years

Front 242

At what age will a child first express romantic feelings towards others, perhaps as an Oedipal phase?

Back 242

5 years

Front 243

A child can draw a recognizable man, dress and undress herself, and catch a ball with two hands, how old is she?

Back 243

5 years

Front 244

A child can ride a bicycle, print letters, and her father is excited because she is gaining athletic skill and coordination.

Back 244

6-12 years

Front 245

By age 12, about how many words will a child have in their vocabulary?

Back 245

About 50,000

Front 246

A child shows a shift from egocentric to social speech and incomplete sentences decline, how old is he?

Back 246

6-12 years

Front 247

Identity is the critical issue in what age range?

Back 247

adolescence (12+)

Front 248

Conformity is most important for what age range?

Back 248

11-12 years

Front 249

When do cross gender relationships first take off?

Back 249

adolescence (12+)

Front 250

A teacher has noticed many of her kids are quitting organized sports, how old is her class likely to be?

Back 250

adolescents (12+)

Front 251

A teacher has noticed that for her kids, the ""rules of the game"" are paramount. How old is her class?

Back 251

6-12 years

Front 252

At what age range are organized sports first possible?

Back 252

6-12 years

Front 253

Demonstrating competence is key for what age group?

Back 253

6-12 years

Front 254

At this age there is a separation of the sexes and sexual feelings are not apparent.

Back 254

6-12 years

Front 255

At this age there is an adherence to logic, concrete operations, and no hypotheticals.

Back 255

6-12 years

Front 256

Children of this age group can use seriation, and have a personal sense of right and wrong.

Back 256

6-12 years

Front 257

Children can handle hypotheticals, being systematic problem solving and deal with the past, present, and future. Age?

Back 257

adolescence (12+)

Front 258

APGAR stands for what?

Back 258

Appearance (color); Pulse; Grimace; Activity; Respiration

Front 259

How do you calculate an APGAR score?

Back 259

Score 0-2 at 1 and 5 inutes in each of 5 categories.

Front 260

What the three levels of appearance (color) on the APGAR scale?

Back 260

0 = blue/pale 1=trunk pink 2=all pink

Front 261

What describes the three levels of pulse on the APGAR score?

Back 261

0= 0 1= <100 2= >100

Front 262

What describes the three levels of reflex irritability (grimace) on the APGAR scale?

Back 262

0= none 1= grimace 2 = grimace + cough

Front 263

Describe the 3 levels of muscle tone on the apgar scale.

Back 263

0 = limp 1 = some 2 = active

Front 264

Describe the three levels of respiratory effort on the APGAR scale.

Back 264

0 = none 1= irregular 2 = regular

Front 265

What is the definition of low birth weight in grams?

Back 265

< 2500 g

Front 266

List some complications of low birth weight.

Back 266

infections; respiratory distress syndrome; necrotizing enterocolitis; intraventricular hemorrhage; persistent fetal circulation

Front 267

What are two likely etiologies for low birth weight?

Back 267

prematurity and intrauterine growth retardation

Front 268

True or False: Low birth weight is associated with a greater RR of physical and emotional problems.

Back 268

TRUE

Front 269

Long term infant deprivation of affection results in the 4 W's ...

Back 269

Weak, Wordless, Wanting, Wary

Front 270

How long does deprivation of affection need to continue before changes may be irreversible?

Back 270

> 6 months

Front 271

List some effects of long term deprivation of affection in infants.

Back 271

1. Decreased muscle tone 2. Poor language skills 3. Poor socialization skills 4. Lack of basic trust 5. Anaclitic depression 6. Weight loss 7. Physical illness

Front 272

What is anaclitic depression?

Back 272

Depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver - it can result in failure to thrive.

Front 273

An infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive when left in a crowded daycare for a few weeks, what is the problem?

Back 273

Anaclitic depression

Front 274

What stimuli may cause children to regress to younger behavior?

Back 274

Stress: physical illness, birth of a new sibling, tiredness.

Front 275

How many children die each year in the United States from physical abuse?

Back 275

about 3000.

Front 276

At what age are most children sexually abused?

Back 276

9-12 years.

Front 277

Describe autistic disorder

Back 277

pts have severe communication problems and difficulty forming relationships. repetative behavior, savants, and below normal intelligence.

Front 278

Describe Asperger syndrome

Back 278

Milder form of autism involving problems with social relationships and repetative behavior. Children are of normal intelligence and lack social deficits.

Front 279

Describe Rett disorder

Back 279

X-linked disorder seen only in girls. Characterized by loss of development and mental retardation appearing at about 4 years.

Front 280

Describe ADHD

Back 280

limited attention span and hyperactivity. children are emotionally labile, impulsive, and prone to accidents. Normal intelligence

Front 281

Why aren't boys seen with Rett syndrome?

Back 281

With this X-linked disorder, boys die in utero.

Front 282

What is the treatment for ADHD?

Back 282

methylphenidate (Ritalin)

Front 283

Describe conduct disorder

Back 283

continued behavior violating social norms.

Front 284

Describe oppositional definant disorder.

Back 284

A form of conduct disorder when the child is noncompliant in the absence of criminality.

Front 285

Describe Tourette's syndrome.

Back 285

motor/vocal tics and involuntary profanity. Onsent < 18 years.

Front 286

What is the treatment for Tourette's?

Back 286

haloperidol

Front 287

Describe separation anxiety disorder.

Back 287

fear of loss of attachment figure leading to factitious physical complaints to avoid going to school. Common in children ages 7-8.

Front 288

Describe Anorexia nervosa.

Back 288

abnormal eating habits, body image distortion, and increased excercise.

Front 289

Severe weight loss, amennorrhea, anemia and electrolyte disturbances in an adolescent girl are signs of ...

Back 289

anorexia nervosa.

Front 290

Describe Bulimia nervosa.

Back 290

binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or use of laxitives. Body weight is usually normal.

Front 291

Parotitis, tooth enamel erosion, increase amylase, and esophageal varicies in an adolescent girl at normal weight

Back 291

Bulimia nervosa.

Front 292

What are hallucinations?

Back 292

perceptions in the absence of external stimuli.

Front 293

What are Illusions?

Back 293

misinterpretations of actual external stimuli.

Front 294

What are Delusions?

Back 294

false beliefs not shared with other members of culture/subculture that are firmly maintained despite obvious proof to the contrary.

Front 295

Describe the difference between a delusion and a loose association.

Back 295

A delusion is a disorder in the content of thought (the actual idea), while a loose association is a disorder in the form of the thought

Front 296

Patients with schizophrenia commonly experience what kind of hallucinations?

Back 296

Visual and auditory hallucinations.

Front 297

Patients with psychomotor epilepsy will commonly experience what kind of hallucination?

Back 297

olfactory hallucination.

Front 298

True or False: Gustatory hallucination is rare.

Back 298

TRUE

Front 299

Patients with DTs or cocaine abusers may experience what kind of hallucinations?

Back 299

tactile hallucinations

Front 300

What is a hypnagogic hallucination?

Back 300

A hallucination that occurs when going to sleep.

Front 301

What is a hypnopompic hallucination?

Back 301

A hallucination that occurs when waking from sleep.

Front 302

How many heroin addicts are there in the United States?

Back 302

About 500,000

Front 303

A diagnosis of hepatitis, abscesses, overdose, hemorrhoids, AIDS, or right sided endocarditis. Consider?

Back 303

heroin addiction.

Front 304

What two drugs are used to treat heroin addicts?

Back 304

Naloxone and Methadone.

Front 305

How can Naloxone help a heroin addict?

Back 305

Naloxone (Narcan) and naltrexone competitively inhibit opiods.

Front 306

How can Methadone help a heroin addict?

Back 306

Methadone is a long acting oral opiate used for heroin detoxification and long term maintenance.

Front 307

What is Delirium tremens?

Back 307

Life threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks 2-5 days after the last drink.

Front 308

tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety followed by hallucinations, delusions, and confusion in an alcoholic may be signs of?

Back 308

delirium tremens.

Front 309

What is the treatment for delirium tremens?

Back 309

benzodiazepines.

Front 310

List risk factors for suicide completion

Back 310

SAD PERSONS"": Sex (male), Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol, RAtional thought, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, Social support lacking.

Front 311

What is a personality trait?

Back 311

Pattern of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and oneself that is exhibited in a wide range of important social and personal contexts.

Front 312

What is a personality disorder?

Back 312

When personality traits become inflexible and maladaptive, causing impariment in social or occupational functioning or subjective distress

Front 313

What does the phrase ""Mature women wear a SASH"" indicate

Back 313

Mature ego defenses: Sublimation, Altruism, Supression, and Humor

Front 314

What are ego defenses?

Back 314

automatic and UNCONCIOUS reactions to psychological stress.

Front 315

Describe altruism as an ego defense.

Back 315

guilty feelings alleviated by unsolicited generosity toward others.

Front 316

Describe humor as an ego defense.

Back 316

appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety provoking or adverse situation.

Front 317

a mafia boss making a large donation to charity is an example of what ego defense?

Back 317

altruism.

Front 318

a cancer patient laughing about their condition is an example of what ego defense?

Back 318

humor

Front 319

aggressive impulses used to succeed in sports is an example of what ego defense?

Back 319

sublimation.

Front 320

What is sublimation as an ego defense?

Back 320

process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system.

Front 321

describe suppression as an ego defense.

Back 321

VOLUNTARY withholding of an idea or feeling from concious awareness.

Front 322

choosing not to think about your taxes until april 13th is an example of what ego defense?

Back 322

suppression.

Front 323

A patient with libidinous thoughts enters a monastery This is an example of what ego defense?

Back 323

Reaction formation.

Front 324

An 8 year old child under stress begins bed wetting again. This is an example of what ego defense?

Back 324

Regression.

Front 325

What is the basic underlying mechanism for all ego defenses?

Back 325

repression.

Front 326

a patient says that one dr is a miracle worker, but another is totally incompetent. this is an example of what ego defense?

Back 326

splitting.

Front 327

What is dysthymia?

Back 327

A milder form of depression lasting at least 2 years.

Front 328

Describe a major depressive episode.

Back 328

at least 5 for 2 weeks. sleep changes, loss of interest, guilt, less energy, less concentration, change in appetite, psychomotor retardation, suicidal, depressed

Front 329

A major depressive episode MUST include one of two symptoms, these are ...

Back 329

1. depressed mood, or 2. anhedonia

Front 330

A patients has experienced 2 major depressive episodes with a symptom free interval of 2 months, what is the diagnosis?

Back 330

Recurrent Major Depressive Disorder.

Front 331

What is the lifetime prevalence of major depressive disorder in women? in men?

Back 331

10-25% in women and 5-12% in men.

Front 332

What is indicated by ""SIG E CAPS""?

Back 332

Symptoms of major depression: Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidal.

Front 333

What is the key to diagnosing dementia?

Back 333

Ruling out delirium.

Front 334

In an elderly person who seems to apparently have dementia, what other condition should be considered?

Back 334

Depression.

Front 335

Describe the difference between dementia and delirium.

Back 335

Delirium= changes in sensorium while Dementia = changes in memory. Dementia is commonly irreversible.

Front 336

What is the most common psychiatric illness on medical and surgical floors?

Back 336

Delirium.

Front 337

If a patient on a hospital ward presents with delirium, what drugs should you check for in their med list?

Back 337

Drugs with anticholinergic effects.

Front 338

Pt presents with dec attention span and dec level of arousal, disorganized thinking, hallucinations, illusions

Back 338

Delirium

Front 339

What is the key to diagnosis of delirium?

Back 339

Waxing and waning level of conciousness, develops rapidly.

Front 340

A man who has lost his wife appears to be in shock, and expresses denial, guilt and somatic symptoms for the 4 months.

Back 340

Normal bereavement.

Front 341

How long does normal bereavement last?

Back 341

Typically 6 months to a year.

Front 342

When does grief become pathologic?

Back 342

When it becomes excessively intense or prolonged, delayed, inhibited, or denied.

Front 343

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

Back 343

concentration; orientation; language; abstraction; judgement; motor regulation; mood

Front 344

What deficit is most notable in frontal lobe lesions?

Back 344

lack of social judgement.

Front 345

How is REM sleep like sex?

Back 345

increase pulse, penile/clitoral tumescence, decreases with age.

Front 346

how often does REM sleep occur while sleeping?

Back 346

every 90 minutes. Duration of REM sleep increases throughout the night.

Front 347

What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in REM sleep?

Back 347

ACh.

Front 348

What are the neurotransmitter changes associated with anxiety?

Back 348

increase in NE decrease in GABA and 5HT

Front 349

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Depression?

Back 349

decrease NE and 5HT

Front 350

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Alzheimer's dementia?

Back 350

decreases ACh

Front 351

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Huntington's Disease?

Back 351

decrease GABA and ACh

Front 352

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Schizophrenia?

Back 352

increase DA

Front 353

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Parkinson's disease?

Back 353

decrease in DA.

Front 354

Name the 4 reflexes that are present at birth.

Back 354

1. Mono 2. Rooting 3. Palmar 4. Babinski

Front 355

What is the Mono reflex?

Back 355

extension of limbs when startled

Front 356

What is the rooting reflex?

Back 356

nipple seeking

Front 357

What are the Kubler-Ross dying stages?

Back 357

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Grieving 5. Acceptance

Front 358

True or False: Kubler Ross stages of dying always occur sequentially?

Back 358

False: more than one stage may be present at a time and they may not proceed in order.

Front 359

Describe ""substance abuse""

Back 359

Maladaptive pattern leading to clinically significant impairment or distress - 1 or more symptom must be present for 1 year

Front 360

What are the symptoms of substance abuse?

Back 360

1. recurrent use = failure to fulfill major obligation 2. recurrent use in physically hazardous situation 3. recurrent use related legal problems

Front 361

What is substance dependence?

Back 361

Maladaptive pattern of substance use defined as 3 or more of the defining symptoms for at least a year.

Front 362

What are the symptoms of substance dependence?

Back 362

Tolerance, Withdrawal, Taken in larger amounts, Desire to cut down, Lots of energy spent obtaining substance, Activities reduced, Use despite problems

Front 363

Describe adjustment disorder.

Back 363

emotional symptoms causing impairment following an identifiable psychosocial stressor lasting < 6 months.

Front 364

Describe generalized anxiety disorder.

Back 364

uncontrollable anxiety unrelated to a specific person, situation, or event. May include GI symptoms, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating.

Front 365

Describe post traumatic stress disorder.

Back 365

intense fear, helplessness, or horror, in which a person who experienced or witnessed an event that involved actual or threatened death or injury

Front 366

What is the difference between acute stress and PTSD?

Back 366

acute stress lasts 2-4 weeks, PTSD lasts > 1 month and causes distress or social/occupational impairment.

Front 367

What is Gamophobia?

Back 367

fear of marriage.

Front 368

What is algophobia?

Back 368

fear of pain.

Front 369

what is acrophobia?

Back 369

fear of heights.

Front 370

What is agoraphobia?

Back 370

fear of open places.

Front 371

What is a specific phobia?

Back 371

fear that is excessive or unreasonable, cued by presence or anticipation of a specific object or entity.

Front 372

Does a person with a specific phobia recognize that their fear is excessive?

Back 372

Yes.

Front 373

What are treatment options for specific phobias?

Back 373

systematic desensitization, flooding.

Front 374

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a primary gain.

Back 374

Primary gain = what symptom does for patients internal psyche.

Front 375

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a secondary gain.

Back 375

Secondary gain = what symptom gets for patient (ie sympathy)

Front 376

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a tertiary gain.

Back 376

Tertiary gain = what the caretaker gets (MD on an interesting case)

Front 377

What does "PANIC" indicate.

Back 377

The symptoms of a panic attack: palpiations, abdominal distress, nausea, increased perspiration, chest pain, chills, choking.

Front 378

What is panic disorder?

Back 378

discrete period of intense fear and discomfort, peaking in 10 minutes, including 4 symptoms, and must be diagnosed in the context of the occurence.

Front 379

Does sexual interest decline in the elderly?

Back 379

No, sexual interest does not decline.

Front 380

What sexual changes to elderly men experience?

Back 380

slower erection/ejaculation, longer refractory period

Front 381

What sexual changes do elderly women experience?

Back 381

vaginal shortening, thinning, dryness.

Front 382

Describe changes in sleep patterns with advanced age.

Back 382

decrease REM sleep, slow wave sleep; increase sleep latency, wakings during the night.

Front 383

What are the most common medical conditions due to advanced age?

Back 383

arthritis, HTN, CVD.

Front 384

True or False: Depression is more prevalent in the elderly?

Back 384

True: depression is more prevalent and the suicide rate is increased.

Front 385

What percent of time is spent in stage 1 sleep?

Back 385

5.00%

Front 386

What percent of time is spent in stage 2 sleep?

Back 386

45.00%

Front 387

What percent of time is spent in stage 3-4 sleep?

Back 387

25.00%

Front 388

What percent of time is spent in REM sleep?

Back 388

25.00%

Front 389

When do you experience a Beta waveform?

Back 389

When awake, alert, active mental concentration with your eyes open.

Front 390

When do you experience an alpha waveform?

Back 390

awake, but drowsy with eyes closed.

Front 391

In light sleep, what waveform predominates?

Back 391

theta

Front 392

in deeper sleep, stage 2, what waveform predominates?

Back 392

Sleep spindles and K complexes.

Front 393

In stage 3-4 sleep, the deepest non REM sleep, what waveforms predominate?

Back 393

delta waves (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)

Front 394

When will a person sleepwalk, have night terrors, or wet the bed?

Back 394

In delta sleep (stage 3-4)

Front 395

What waveform predominates in REM sleep?

Back 395

Beta waves (the same as being awake)

Front 396

when does dreaming occur?

Back 396

in REM sleep

Front 397

Describe REM sleep.

Back 397

dreaming, loss of motor tone, possibly a memory processing function, erections, increased brain oxygen consumption.

Front 398

What does ""At night, BATS Drink Blood"" indicate

Back 398

waveforms of sleepstages: Beta, Alpha, Theta, Spindles and K forms, Delta, Beta.

Front 399

What is the key to initiating sleep?

Back 399

5HT predominance of raphe nucleus

Front 400

What neurotransmitter reduces REM sleep?

Back 400

NE

Front 401

What are EOM movements during REM sleep due to?

Back 401

activity of the PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation / conjugate gaze center)

Front 402

What do the terms ""paradoxical sleep"" and ""desynchronized sleep"" apply to

Back 402

REM sleep having the same EEG pattern as awake and alert

Front 403

Why are benzodiazepines good for night terrors and sleep walking?

Back 403

They shorten stage 4 sleep.

Front 404

What drug shortens stage 4 sleep and is used to treat enuresis?

Back 404

Imipramine.

Front 405

What is a conversion disorder?

Back 405

A somatoform disorder where symptoms suggest motor or sensory neurologic or physical disorder - but tests and physical examination are negative.

Front 406

What is somatoform pain disorder?

Back 406

prolonged pain that is not explained completely by illness.

Front 407

What is hypochondriasis?

Back 407

misinterpretation of normal physical findings, leading to preoccupation with fear of having a serious illness in spite of medical reassurance.

Front 408

what is somatization disorder?

Back 408

variety of complaints in multiple organ systems.

Front 409

what is body dysmorphic disorder?

Back 409

patient convinced that part of their own anatomy is malformed.

Front 410

what is pseudocyesis?

Back 410

a false belief of being pregnant associated with objective physical signs of pregnancy.

Front 411

What is electroconvulsive therapy?

Back 411

a painless procedure that results in a seizure. Complications can result from anesthesia.

Front 412

What are the major adverse effects of ECT?

Back 412

disorientation, and amnesia.

Front 413

When is ECT used?

Back 413

For major depressive disorder refractory to all other treatment.

Front 414

What is a hypomanic episode?

Back 414

like a manic episode, except the mood disturbance is not as severe. it does not require hospitalization and there are no psychotic features.

Front 415

What is malingering?

Back 415

patient consciously fakes or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific gain.

Front 416

What is factitious disorder?

Back 416

a patient consciously creates symptoms in order to assume the ""sick"" roll to get medical attention.

Front 417

What is Munchausen's syndrome?

Back 417

manifests as a chronic history of multiple hosptital admissions and willingness to receive invasive procedures.

Front 418

What is Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

Back 418

when the illness in a child is caused by a parent. the motivation is unconcious.

Front 419

Describe bipolar disorder.

Back 419

6 separate criteria sets exist for bipolar disorders with combinations of manic, hypomanic, and depressed episodes.

Front 420

What is the treatment of choice for bipolar disorder?

Back 420

Lithium.

Front 421

What is cyclothymic disorder

Back 421

a milder form of bipolar disorder lasting at least 2 years.

Front 422

What is a manic episode?

Back 422

distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least one week.

Front 423

During a manic episode, 3 or more symptoms are present ... list the 7 symptoms.

Back 423

1. distractability 2. insomnia 3. grandiosity 4. flight of ideas 5. increase in activity/agitation 6. pressured speech 7. thoughtlessness

Front 424

Disinhibition, emotional lability, slurred speech, ataxia, coma, and blackouts are indicative of what substance?

Back 424

alcohol.

Front 425

what symptoms may a patient withdrawing from alcohol experience?

Back 425

tremor, tachycardia, HTN, malaise, nausea, seizures, DTs, tremulousness, agitation, hallucinations.

Front 426

When a patient stops smoking cigarettes, what symptoms might they expect during withdrawal?

Back 426

irritability, headache, anxiety, weight gain, and cravings.

Front 427

a patient who consumes lots of coffee might experience what symptoms?

Back 427

restlessness, insomnia, increased diruesis, muscle twitching, cardiac arrhythmias

Front 428

When a patient stops caffeine consumption, what symptoms might they expect?

Back 428

headache, lethargy, depression, weight gain.

Front 429

A patient presents to the ER with nausea and vomiting, constipation, and pinpoint pupils. What substance?

Back 429

opiods.

Front 430

When a patient ODs on opiods, what symptom are you most concerned with?

Back 430

seizures ... may be life threatening.

Front 431

a pt presents with amnesia, ataxia, somnolence, and minor respiratory distress. No alcohol. what substance?

Back 431

Benzodiazepines.

Front 432

Are benzos addictive?

Back 432

if consumed with alcohol.

Front 433

When a patient stops taking benzos, what symptoms may they experience?

Back 433

rebound anxiety, seizures, tremor, and insomnia

Front 434

a patient presents to the ER with major respiratory depression, their friends state they "took something"

Back 434

barbiturates

Front 435

In addition to anxiety, seizures, and delirium, You are concerned about in a patient who is withdrawing from barbiturates?

Back 435

life threatening cardiovascular collapse.

Front 436

a patient presents with euphoria, anxiety, paranoid delusions, impaired judgement, and the munchies ?

Back 436

marijuana.

Front 437

Are there withdrawal symptoms from marijuana?

Back 437

social withdrawal.

Front 438

a patient presents with marked anxiety, delusions, visual hallucinations, flashbacks, and pupil dilation.

Back 438

LSD.

Front 439

a pt presents with agitation, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, euphoria, fever, hallucinations and awake for 36 hr

Back 439

amphetamines.

Front 440

what symptoms can a patient withdrawing from amphetamines expect?

Back 440

post crash depression, lethargy, headache, stomach cramps, hunger, hypersomnolence.

Front 441

a pt presents euphoric with psychomotor agitation, tachycardia, pupillary dilation, hallucinations, and angina..

Back 441

cocain.

Front 442

what fatal effect of cocain are you worried about?

Back 442

sudden cardiac death.

Front 443

what can a patient in withdrawal from cocain expect to experience?

Back 443

post crash depression and suicidality, hypersomnolence, fatigue, malaise, and severe psychological craving.

Front 444

a pt presents with fever and psychomotor agitation, belligerent and impulsive, and has horizontal and vertical nystagmus.

Back 444

PCP.

Front 445

When a patient is withdrawing from PCP, what symptoms are you concerned about?

Back 445

sudden onset of severe, random, homicidal thought

Front 446

A patient recovering from a PCP intoxication appears to be having a recurrence of intoxication symptoms... why?

Back 446

reabsorption of PCP from the GI tract.

Front 447

What is the BMI numerical cutoff for an obesity?

Back 447

> 30.0

Front 448

A patient complains of sexual dysfunction, what 3 things are on your differential?

Back 448

1. drugs 2. disease 3. psychological

Front 449

What diseases may lead to sexual dysfunction?

Back 449

depression or DM

Front 450

What drugs can lead to sexual dysfunction?

Back 450

anti-HTN, neuroleptics, SSRI, EtOH.

Front 451

Describe the physiological effects of stress.

Back 451

Stress induces production of FFA, 17-OH corticosteroids, and catecholamines. it affects water absorption, muscular tonicity, and gastrocolic reflex

Front 452

A patient with depression will typically show these three changes in their sleep stages:

Back 452

1. decrease slow wave sleep 2. decrease REM latency 3. early morning awakening

Front 453

What is the most important screening question for depression?

Back 453

Are you experiencing early morning awakening?

Front 454

Describe narcolepsy.

Back 454

person falls asleep suddenly. May include hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations.

Front 455

A person with narcolepsy starts off their sleep cycle with what sleep stage?

Back 455

REM

Front 456

What is cataplexy?

Back 456

sudden collapse while awake. may be present in some patients with narcolepsy.

Front 457

What is the treatment for narcolepsy?

Back 457

amphetamines.

Front 458

What is the treatment for sleep apnea?

Back 458

weight loss, CPAP, surgery

Front 459

Describe the difference between central and obstructive sleep apnea.

Back 459

Central sleep apnea involves no respiratory effort, obstructive sleep apnea involves respiratory effort against an airway obstruction.

Front 460

What symptoms and signs is sleep apnea associated with:

Back 460

obesity, loud snoring, systemic or pulmonary HTN, arrhythmias, and possibly sudden death.

Front 461

What toxin inhibits lipoic acid?

Back 461

Arsenic

Front 462

What are the net reactants and products in the reaction that Pyruvate Dehydrogenase catalyzes?

Back 462

Reactants:1. Pyruvate 2. CoA 3. NAD Products:1. Acetyl CoA 2. CO2 3. NADH

Front 463

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Congenital or Acquired

Back 463

Both. Acquired cases happen in cases of B1 deficiency (such as in alcoholics.)

Front 464

What is the rate-limiting step of the TCA?

Back 464

Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate by isocitrate dehydrogenase

Front 465

Which tissues and organs primarily convert pyruvate into lactate?

Back 465

1. RBCs and WBCs 2. Lens and cornea 3. Renal medulla 4. Testes

Front 466

What stimulates and inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 466

Stimulate: ADP; Inhibit: 1. ATP 2. NADH

Front 467

Which reagent sequentially removes C-terminal residues from a polypeptide?

Back 467

Carboxypeptidase

Front 468

Where in the cell does the following occur: Fatty acid oxidation (beta-oxidation)

Back 468

Mitochondria

Front 469

What activated carriers carry: 1-carbon units

Back 469

1. Tetrahydrofolates (originally as formyl then methyl) 2. Biotin (as CO2) 3. S-adenosyl-methionine (as CH3)

Front 470

What is the mechanism of oligomycin?

Back 470

ATPase inhibition

Front 471

Cathode: What does it attract?

Back 471

Cations

Front 472

What kind of inheritance and mutation is the alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

Back 472

Autosomal recessive, single purine substitution (GAG to AAG)

Front 473

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: S-adenosyl-methionine

Back 473

Methyl groups

Front 474

What is the mechanism of electron transport inhibitors?

Back 474

1. Directly inhibit electron transport causing: 2. Decreased protein gradient and decrease in O2 consumption, thereby: 3. Blocking ATP synthesis

Front 475

What stimulates and inhibits alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

Back 475

Stimulate: Nothing; Inhibit: 1. ATP 2. NADH 3. Succinyl CoA

Front 476

Pyruvate dehydrogenase: What inhibits it?

Back 476

NADH (You produce NADH, soon there'll be more of me.), Acetyl-CoA (Enough of me, save your pyrvuate.)

Front 477

Where does the Cori Cycle happen?

Back 477

In the liver and muscle/RBCs Liver: Pyruvate converts to glucose Muscle/RBCs: Glucose converts to Pyruvate

Front 478

What is rotenone?

Back 478

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 479

What enzymes and cofactors are used in conversion of pyruvate to alanine?

Back 479

Enzyme: Alanine Transaminase (ALT) Cofactors: None

Front 480

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the Pentose phosphate pathway?

Back 480

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase

Front 481

Where in the electron transport chain is O2 reduced to 2H2O?

Back 481

Complex IV

Front 482

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Treatment

Back 482

Increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (such as high fat content or increased lysine and leucine)

Front 483

What stimulates and inhibits citrate synthase?

Back 483

Stimulate: Nothing; Inhibit: ATP

Front 484

What is the enzyme involved in processing tRNA

Back 484

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase (uses 1 ATP)

Front 485

What is the purpose of the Cori cycle?

Back 485

Transfers excess reducing equivalents from RBCs and the muscle to liver so they can function anaerobically

Front 486

Lipoamide or lipoate: Which is a cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 486

Lipoate (Lipoic acid)

Front 487

What is antimycin A?

Back 487

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 488

Name three classes of oxidative phosphorylation poisons.

Back 488

1. Electron transport inhibitors 2. ATPase inhibitors 3. Uncoupling agents

Front 489

What enzymes and cofactors are used in conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate?

Back 489

Enzyme: Pyruvate Carboxylase (contains biotin and magnesium) Cofactors: CO2 and ATP

Front 490

# of Aas in one turn of alpha-helix?

Back 490

3.6

Front 491

What disease state is glycolytic enzyme deficiency generally associated with?

Back 491

Hemolytic anemia

Front 492

What stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 492

ADP (need more ATP. Inhibits PD kinase and stimulates PD phosphatase.)

Front 493

Energy malnutrition leads to what disease?

Back 493

Marasmus (as opposed to Kwashiorkor from protein malnutrition)

Front 494

Which major metabolic reactions require Thiamine as a cofactor?

Back 494

TCA: Pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, HMP shunt: Transketolase

Front 495

Why is FAD used to oxidize succinate?

Back 495

Succinate is not powerful enough to reduce NAD.

Front 496

Role of ATP in protein synthesis

Back 496

ATP does tRNA Activation (charging)

Front 497

Why is fructose metabolism faster than glucose metabolism?

Back 497

Bypasses PFK, major regulatory step of glycolysis.

Front 498

Where is fructokinase found?

Back 498

Liver (processes most dietary fructose), kidney, small intestine

Front 499

Amino acids that disrupt alpha-helix?

Back 499

proline, many charged aas, bulky side chains

Front 500

Where in glycolysis and TCA does CO2 come off?

Back 500

3 places: Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA, Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate, and alpha-ketoglutarate to Succinyl CoA

Back 501

Separates the two strands of DNA into single strands allowing for replication to occur.

Front 502

What enzyme converts Galactose-1-Phosphate to Glucose-1-Phosphate?

Back 502

Uridyl transferase

Front 503

What is the clinical presentation of fructose intolerance?

Back 503

hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, and vomiting

Front 504

What is the etiology of classic galactosemia?

Back 504

1. Absence of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 2. Build up of toxic substances including galactitol

Front 505

I-Cell disease: Pathophysiology

Back 505

Inability of cell to phosphorylate mannose residues on glycoproteins indicating that they are lysosome bound.

Front 506

Sources of Succinyl CoA?

Back 506

TCA intermediate, and from odd chained fatty acids, and from propionyl coA from metabolism of branched-chain amino acids.

Front 507

What is the clinical presentation of essential fructosuria?

Back 507

Fructose appears in the blood and urine

Front 508

What is the treatment for fructose intolerance?

Back 508

Decreased intake of both fructose and sucrose.

Front 509

What does sorbitol dehydrogenase do?

Back 509

Oxidizes sorbitol to fructose.

Front 510

Which post-translational modification involves hydroxylation?

Back 510

post-translational covalent alteration

Front 511

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Mental retardation?

Back 511

Both (Hunter's ranges from mild to severe)

Front 512

An acid with a pKa of x serves as a buffer best at x + what?

Back 512

positive or negative 1 (equal amounts of charged and uncharged acid)

Front 513

Which tissues have cotransport of glucose?

Back 513

Epithelial cells of the intestine, renal tubular cells, and choroid plexus

Front 514

Heparin: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 514

Intracellular compound (unlike other GAGs). Found in mast cells of artery walls, especially in lungs, liver, and skin

Front 515

Which reagent sequentially removes N-terminal residues from a polypeptide?

Back 515

Phenylisothiocyanate (Edman degradation)

Front 516

Where do GLUT1 receptors predominate over other GLUT receptors?

Back 516

RBCs

Front 517

Name the enzymes used in the oxygen-dependent respiratory burst.

Back 517

1. NADPH oxidase 2. Superoxide dismutase 3. Myeloperoxidase 4. Catalase/Glutathione peroxidase 5. Glutathione reductase 6. G-6-P D

Front 518

Where is pyruvate carboxylase found and not found?

Back 518

Found in mitochondria of liver and kidney cells, not foudn in mitochondria of muscle

Front 519

What does aldose reductase do?

Back 519

Reduces glucose to sorbitol

Front 520

Where is the mutation for G6PD?

Back 520

Point mutation in coding region of the G6PD gene (X-linked)

Front 521

What is the famed respiratory burst?

Back 521

The rapid conversion of O2 to superoxide using NADPH.

Front 522

Where is aldose reductase found?

Back 522

Lens, retina, Schwann cells, kidney, placenta, RBCs, and gonads

Front 523

Chondroitin Sulfate: Use/Mechanism

Back 523

Form proteoglycan aggregates. Cartilage: Bind collagen and hold fibers in a tight, strong network

Front 524

Kwashiorkor: Clinical presentation

Back 524

Kwashiorkor results from protein-deficient MEALS. Malabsorbtion, Edema, Anemia, Liver (fatty change), Skin lesions

Front 525

Pepsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 525

C-terminal side of tyrosine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan (all have phenyl groups, these are the same bonds as chymotrypsin.

Front 526

What is a glycoside?

Back 526

Carbohydrate attached to non-carbohydrate structures.

Front 527

What does it mean for genetic code to be degenerate?

Back 527

More than one codon may code for the same amino acid.

Front 528

Hyaluronic Acid: Use/Mechanism

Back 528

Lubricant and shock absorber

Front 529

What are the key enzymes of the pentose phosphate shunt and are the reactions reversible or irreversible?

Back 529

1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (irreversible) 2. Transketolase (reversible)

Front 530

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: ATP

Back 530

Phosphoryls

Front 531

How does glucagon stimulate gluconeogenesis?

Back 531

Regulation of F2,6-BP and inactivation of Pyruvate Kinase via elevation of cAMP-dependent protein kinase A.

Front 532

Which amino acid is coded by only one codon?

Back 532

Methionine

Front 533

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Enzyme deficiency

Back 533

Hunter's: Iduronate sulfatase, Hurler's: alpha-L-iduronidase

Front 534

Trypsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 534

C-terminal of lysine or arginine (the most basic amino acids)

Front 535

What is the mechanism of 2,4-dinitrophenol?

Back 535

Uncoupling agent

Front 536

What enzyme phosphorylates glucose with high affinity?

Back 536

Hexokinase

Front 537

What is NADPH used for?

Back 537

1. Reductive biosynthesis 2. Reduction of oxygen directly and hydrogen peroxide indirectly 3. Cytochrome P-450 mono-oxygenase system

Front 538

What disease results from NADPH oxidase deficiency?

Back 538

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Front 539

How does galactokinase deficiency present?

Back 539

1. Galactosemia 2. Galactosuria More severe symptoms such as cataracts, hepatosplenomegaly and mental retardation can follow.

Front 540

Phosphofructokinase-1: What does it do?

Back 540

PFK-1 1-phosphorylates fructose-6-phosphate to produce Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate.

Front 541

Heparan Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 541

Extracellular, unlike heparin. Found in basement membrane and as a ubiquitous component of cell surfaces.

Front 542

Glucokinase: Where is it found and why does it do what it does?

Back 542

Found in the liver and pancreatic beta cells. Phosphorylates glucose to sequester it after a big meal.

Front 543

What are the two most common glycolytic enzyme deficiencies?

Back 543

Pyruvate kinase (95% of cases) followed by glucose phosphate isomerase (4% of cases)

Front 544

Dermatan Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 544

Found in skin, blood vessels, and heart valves

Front 545

In nucleic acids, what kind of substitution is a transversion?

Back 545

TransVersion = conVersion between types (Purine for pyrimidine or vice versa)

Front 546

What does alpha-amanitin do?

Back 546

Inhibits RNA polymerase II leading to hepatic necrosis

Front 547

Name the irreversible enzymes in glycolysis.

Back 547

1. Hexokinase 2. Phosphofructokinase-1 3. Pyruvate kinase 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Front 548

In aerobic metabolism of glucose, which pathway produces 38 ATP?

Back 548

Malate shuttle

Front 549

What activated carriers carry: CH3 groups

Back 549

1. S-adenosyl-methionine 2. N5-methyl-THF

Front 550

What is the result of lack of disaccharidase activity of intestinal mucosa?

Back 550

Osmotically active disaccharides suck water out of mucosa causing osmotic diarrhea.

Front 551

What is the presentation of arsenic toxicity?

Back 551

1. Vomiting 2. Rice water stools 3. Garlic breath

Front 552

Enzyme function: DNA topoisomerases

Back 552

Create a nick in the helix to relieve supercoils

Front 553

What are the two most common glycolytic enzyme deficiencies?

Back 553

Pyruvate kinase (95% of cases) followed by glucose phosphate isomerase (4% of cases)

Front 554

What is the treatment for classic galactosemia?

Back 554

Exclude galactose and lactose from the diet.

Front 555

This oxidation accounts for about 2/3 of the total oxygen consumption and ATP production in most animals

Back 555

Oxidation of acetyl coA to CO2 and H2O.

Front 556

What activated carriers carry: Formyl groups

Back 556

N10-formyl-THF

Front 557

Where in the electron transport chain is ADP converted to ATP?

Back 557

Complex V aka ATP synthase aka mitochondrial ATPase

Front 558

What histologic change is seen in G6PD deficiency

Back 558

Heinz bodies within red blood cells

Front 559

What does NADPH deficiency in RBCs result in?

Back 559

Hemolytic anemia

Front 560

Which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

Back 560

Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

Front 561

Which is active?: Phosphorylated or dephosphorylated pyruvate dehydrogenase

Back 561

Dephosphorylated.

Front 562

Uses of Succinyl CoA?

Back 562

TCA intermediate, and biosynthesis of heme

Front 563

How much ATP is produced by anaerobic glycolysis?

Back 563

2 ATP per glucose

Front 564

Which amino acids are basic?

Back 564

Arginine, Lysine and Histidine Arginine and Lysine are increased in histones which bind negatively charged DNA. Histidine has no charge at body pH.

Front 565

Where in the TCA does FADH2 come from?

Back 565

Succinate to fumarate.

Front 566

Pyruvate kinase: What inhibits it?

Back 566

ATP (don't need more of me), Alanine (I came from pyruvate, so we don't need any more.)

Front 567

Inhibitors of electron transport from Cytochrome a+a3 to Oxygen?

Back 567

Cyanide, CO, and Sodium azide

Front 568

What does 4-epimerase do?

Back 568

converts between UDP-galactose and UDP-glucose

Front 569

Where in the TCA does NADH come from?

Back 569

Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA, Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate, alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl coA, Malate to Oxaloacetate

Front 570

How much ATP is produced by the citric acid cycle per molecule of glucose?

Back 570

24 ATP

Front 571

What does it mean for genetic code to be redundant?

Back 571

More than one codon may code for the same amino acid.

Front 572

What is a reducing sugar?

Back 572

A monosaccharide where the anomeric carbon (Carbon 1) is free.

Front 573

What is the relation of polyols to sugars?

Back 573

Polyols are monosaccharides where the carbonyl group is reduced to an alcohol.

Front 574

What are the properties of the genetic code?

Back 574

Unambiguous, Degenerate/ redundant, Commaless/nonoverlapping, and Universal

Front 575

DNA polymerase I: Which direction does it read?

Back 575

3' to 5'

Front 576

Which tissues (7) need glucose as fuel?

Back 576

Brain, RBCs, Renal medulla, lens, cornea, testes, exercising muscle

Front 577

What does the mRNA initiation codon code for?

Back 577

Methionine in eukaryotes. formyl-methionine in prokaryotes.

Front 578

What happens during post-translational covalent alterations?

Back 578

Either: 1. Phosphorylation 2. Glycosylation 3. Hydroxylation

Front 579

Role of E site in protein synthesis

Back 579

E site holds Empty tRNA as it Exits

Front 580

What is the etiology of fructose intolerance?

Back 580

1. Lack of aldolase B 2. Build up of Fructose-1-Phosphate 3. Decrease in available phosphate 4. Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Front 581

What activates isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 581

ADP

Front 582

Which post-translational modification involves phosphorylation?

Back 582

post-translational covalent alteration

Front 583

Where in the cell does the following occur: Fatty acid synthesis

Back 583

Cytoplasm

Front 584

Where does NADPH come from?

Back 584

HMP shunt

Front 585

What vitamin is necessary for regeneration of S-adenosyl-methionine?

Back 585

Vitamin B12

Front 586

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose and is feedback inhibited by Glucose-6-Phosphate.

Back 586

Hexokinase (as opposed to glucokinase)

Front 587

Protein malnutrition leads to what disease?

Back 587

Kwashiorkor (as opposed to Marasmus from energy malnutrition)

Front 588

What are the net products in glycolysis?

Back 588

2 Pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 H+, 2 H20

Front 589

When is NAD used?

Back 589

Catabolic processes to carry reducing equivalents away as NADH

Front 590

What is the difference in presentation between von Gierke's disease and fructose intolerance?

Back 590

Both have hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis and vomiting. von Gierke's disease also has lactic acidosis whereas fructose intolerance does not.

Front 591

Role of GTP in protein synthesis

Back 591

GTP does tRNA Going places (aka translocation) and Gripping

Front 592

Role of P site in protein synthesis

Back 592

P site accomodates growing Peptide.

Front 593

Disulfiram: Mechanism

Back 593

Disulfiram inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde, leading to increased hangover symptoms.

Front 594

Where is Fructose 1-6 bisphosphatase found?

Back 594

Liver and kidney

Front 595

How many ATP molecules are produced by aerobic metabolism of glucose?

Back 595

38 via the Malate shuttle, and 36 via the G3P shuttle.

Front 596

Sequence of events in the termination step of protein synthesis.

Back 596

1. Completed protein is released from ribosome. 2. Ribosome dissociates.

Front 597

Nucleotide excision repair: Mechanism

Back 597

1. Specific endonucleases release the oligonucleotide containing damaged bases 2. DNA polymerase and ligase fill and reseal the gap, respectively

Front 598

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Thiamine Pyrophosphate

Back 598

Aldehydes

Front 599

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Mechanism

Back 599

Backup of pyruvate and alanine leads to lactic acidosis.

Front 600

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Physical deformity?

Back 600

Hunter's: Mild to severe, Hurler's: Dwarfing, coarse facial features, (gargoylism)

Front 601

What is the mechanism of ATPase inhibitors?

Back 601

1. Directly inhibit mitochondrial ATPase causing: 2. Increased protein gradient and increased oxygen consumption, but no ATP is production

Front 602

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with high affinity.

Back 602

Hexokinase (as opposed to glucokinase)

Front 603

What are the 5 cofactors necessary for pyrvuate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

Back 603

Lipoic acid plus the first four B vitamins in their active forms: 1. B1: TPP 2. B2: FAD 3. B3: NAD 4. B5: CoA

Front 604

What activated carriers carry: Aldehydes

Back 604

Thiamine Pyrophosphate

Front 605

Ubiquitin or Ubiquinone: Proteosomal degradation

Back 605

Ubiquitin

Front 606

In aerobic metabolism of glucose, which pathway produces 36 ATP?

Back 606

G3P shuttle

Front 607

What is the mechanism of CN?

Back 607

Electron transport inhibition

Front 608

Inhibitors of electron transport from FMNH2 to Coenzyme Q?

Back 608

Amytal and Rotenone

Front 609

Ubiquitin or Ubiquinone: Coenzyme Q in oxidative phosphorylation

Back 609

Ubiquinone

Front 610

Which position on the codon is the wobble position?

Back 610

3rd position

Front 611

Prokaryotic genome: Describe DNA replication

Back 611

Continuous bidirectional DNA synthesis on leading strand and discontinuous (Okazaki fragments) on lagging strand

Front 612

DNA Topoisomerase II: Mechanism

Back 612

cuts both strands, and passes an unbroken double strand through it then reanneals the cut strand

Front 613

Eukaryotic genome: Trigger for replication

Back 613

Consensus sequence of AT-rich base pairs

Front 614

Enzyme function: Primase

Back 614

Makes an RNA primer on which DNA polymerase III can initiate replication

Front 615

Define promoter of gene expression.

Back 615

Site where RNA polymerase and multiple other transcription factors bind to DNA upstream from gene locus

Front 616

What characterizes a promoter of gene expression?

Back 616

AT-rich upstream sequence with TATA and CAAT boxes

Front 617

Amino acid binding to tRNA: Where (on the tRNA) and how?

Back 617

Where: 3' end How: Covalently

Front 618

Special points about RNA polymerase II

Back 618

1. Opens DNA at promoter site 2. Inhibited by alpha-amanitin

Front 619

Which group is more likely to have G6PD deficiency?

Back 619

Blacks

Front 620

What activates pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 620

1. Increased NAD/NADH ratio (We need more NADH.) 2. Increased ADP (We need more ATP.) 3. Ca2+ (More of me leads muscles to contract)

Front 621

Kwashiorkor: Clinical picture

Back 621

Small child with a swollen belly and depigmented hair.

Front 622

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: NADPH

Back 622

Electrons

Front 623

What activated carriers carry: Electrons

Back 623

1. NADH 2. NADPH 3. FADH2

Front 624

What are the consequences of the altered NADH/NAD ratio seen in alcoholics?

Back 624

Short-term: Hypoglycemia, Long-term: Hepatic fatty change

Front 625

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: FADH2

Back 625

Electrons

Front 626

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Tetrahydrofolate

Back 626

1-carbon units

Front 627

What are the net reactants in glycolysis?

Back 627

Glucose, 2 Phosphates, 2 ADP, 2 NAD

Front 628

What activated carriers carry: Phosphoryl

Back 628

ATP and GTP

Front 629

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Biotin

Back 629

CO2

Front 630

Nonhomologous end joining: Mechanism

Back 630

Brings together two ends of DNA fragments (no requirement for homology)

Front 631

Mismatch repair: Mechanism

Back 631

1. Unmethylated, newly synthesized string is recognized 2. Mismatched nucleotides are removed 3. Gap is refilled and resealed

Front 632

What is glutathione used for?

Back 632

Detoxification of free radicals and peroxides.

Front 633

What are exceptions to universality of genetic code?

Back 633

Mitochondria, Archaebacteria, Mycoplasma, and Some Yeasts

Front 634

What is on the 3' end of a nucleotide

Back 634

Hydroxyl group

Front 635

Types of DNA repair

Back 635

Single stranded: Nucleotide excision repair, Base excision repair, and Mismatch repair; Double Stranded: Nonhomologous end joining

Front 636

DNA polymerase I: Which direction does it proofread?

Back 636

5' to 3'

Front 637

DNA polymerase III: Which direction does it proofread?

Back 637

3' to 5'

Front 638

Enzyme function: DNA polymerase III

Back 638

Elongates the chain

Front 639

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Severity?

Back 639

Hunter's: Less Hurler's: More

Front 640

What enzyme is missing in hereditary fructose intolerance?

Back 640

Aldolase B

Front 641

What enzyme converts UDP-glucose to UDP-galactose?

Back 641

Uridyl transferase

Front 642

When is genetic code not commaless/nonoverlapping?

Back 642

In some viruses

Front 643

Which amino acids are acidic?

Back 643

Aspartate and glutamate are negatively charged at body pH

Front 644

Where is sorbitol dehydrogenase found?

Back 644

Liver and gonads (ovaries, seminal vesicles, sperm)

Front 645

How does lactose intolerance present?

Back 645

1. Bloating 2. Cramps 3. Osmotic diarrhea

Front 646

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Inheritance?

Back 646

Hunter's: X-linked Recessive, Hurler's (and all other mucopolysaccharidoses): Autosomal recessive

Front 647

How many nucleotides does tRNA contain?

Back 647

75 to 90 nucleotides

Front 648

Pyruvate kinase: What stimulates it?

Back 648

Fructose-1,6-BP (I was told we needed more ATP, so here I am, so you better move the line along.)

Front 649

What enzyme converts galactose to galactitol?

Back 649

Aldose reductase

Front 650

What are the important products of the HMP pathway?

Back 650

2 NADPH, Ribose, and glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate and Fructose-6-phosphate

Front 651

What activated carriers carry: CO2

Back 651

Biotin

Front 652

What reacts to yield S-adenosyl-methionine?

Back 652

ATP and methionine

Front 653

What does it mean for genetic code to be unambiguous?

Back 653

Each codon specifies only one amino acid.

Front 654

What does it mean for genetic code to be commaless?

Back 654

Read from a fixed starting point as a continuous sequence of bases

Front 655

Define enhancer of gene expression.

Back 655

Stretch of DNA that alters gene expression by binding transcription factors. May be located anywhere.

Front 656

When is NADPH used?

Back 656

1. Anabolic process (steroid and fatty acid synthesis) 2. Respiratory burst 3. P-450

Front 657

Zinc deficiency: Presentation

Back 657

Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism, and decreased adult hair (axillary, facial, pubic)

Front 658

What does transketolase require?

Back 658

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Front 659

What does aldose reductase do?

Back 659

Converts galactose to galactitol

Front 660

Zinc deficiency: Predisposes to what?

Back 660

Alcoholic cirrhosis

Front 661

What inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 661

ATP and NADH

Front 662

What is the mechanism behind chronic fatty change in alcoholics?

Back 662

1. Ethanol metabolism leads to an increased NADH/NAD ratio in the liver. 2. This ratio prefers fatty acid synthesis over glycolysis.

Front 663

I-Cell disease: Presentation

Back 663

Skeletal abnormalities, restricted joint movement, coarse facial features, severe psychomotor impairment, death by 8 years

Front 664

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Lipoamide

Back 664

Acyl

Front 665

How much ATP is used in the pentose phosphate shunt?

Back 665

None

Front 666

What reaction does citrate synthase catalyze?

Back 666

Oxaloacetate and acetyl coA combine to yield citrate.

Front 667

mRNA initiation codons

Back 667

1. AUG (inAUGurates protein synthesis) 2. GUG (rarely)

Front 668

What does Uridyl transferase do?

Back 668

1. converts UDP-glucose to UDP-galactose 2. converts Galactose-1-Phosphate to Glucose-1-Phosphate

Front 669

What enzyme converts UDP-galactose to UDP-glucose?

Back 669

4-epimerase

Front 670

Chromatin structure: What histones are included and which of these are not in the nucleosome core?

Back 670

H1 (only one not in the core), H2A, H2B, H3, and H4

Front 671

Which drug inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?

Back 671

Disulfiram

Front 672

Marasmus: Clinical presentation

Back 672

Tissue and muscle wasting, loss of subcutaneous fat, and variable edema

Front 673

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Which GAGs' degradation is affected?

Back 673

Both: Dermatan sulfate and Heparan sulfate

Front 674

What is the result of promoter mutation?

Back 674

Dramatic decrease in amount of gene transcribed

Front 675

Anode: What does it contain?

Back 675

Cations

Front 676

Phosphofructokinase-1: What stimulates it?

Back 676

AMP (Hey, we need more ATP), Fructose-2,6-BP (The fact that I'm being made means there's tons of glucose.)

Front 677

Names of the steps in protein synthesis

Back 677

1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3. Termination

Front 678

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with a low capacity.

Back 678

Hexokinase (as opposed to glucokinase)

Front 679

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with low affinity.

Back 679

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 680

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Presentation

Back 680

Lactic acidosis and neurologic defects

Front 681

What are Heinz bodies?

Back 681

altered Hemoglobin precipitates within RBCs, found in G6PD deficiency

Front 682

Lipoamide or lipoate: Which carries aldehydes?

Back 682

Lipoamide

Front 683

What happens in post-translational trimming?

Back 683

removal of N or C terminal pro-peptides from zymogens to generate mature proteins

Front 684

Define operator of gene expression

Back 684

Site where repressors bind

Front 685

What is the mechanism of thermogenin?

Back 685

Uncoupling protein OR UCP which is an uncoupling agent

Front 686

How much ATP is produced by the citric acid cycle per molecule of acetyl coA?

Back 686

12 ATP.

Front 687

Anode: What does it attract?

Back 687

Anions

Front 688

Pyruvate kinase: What does it do?

Back 688

Pyruvate kinase converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate, thereby producing two ATP.

Front 689

Inhibitors of electron transport from Cytochrome b to Cytochrome C?

Back 689

Antimycin A

Front 690

What sequence does every tRNA share at the 3' end?

Back 690

CCA along with a high percentage of chemically modified bases

Front 691

In nucleic acids, what kind of substitution is a transition?

Back 691

TransItion = Identical type (Purine for purine or pyrimidine for pyrimidine)

Front 692

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose and is not feedback inhibited.

Back 692

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 693

Cyanogen bromide cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 693

C-terminal of methionine

Front 694

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with a high capacity.

Back 694

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 695

What is on the 5' end of a nucleotide

Back 695

Triphosphate

Front 696

Chymotrypsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 696

C-terminal side of tyrosine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan residues

Front 697

Cathode: What does it contain?

Back 697

Anions

Front 698

What type of bonds hold the phosphoryls together in ATP, and how much energy are the bonds worth?

Back 698

Phosphoanhydride bonds are worth 7 kilocalories per mole (but only between the alpha and beta and the beta and the gamma)

Front 699

In what condition is mismatch excision repair mutated?

Back 699

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)

Front 700

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: NADH

Back 700

Electrons

Front 701

Where in the cell does the following occur: Protein Synthesis

Back 701

Rough endoplasmic reticulum in the cytoplasm

Front 702

What are the requirements of PEP carboxykinase?

Back 702

GTP

Front 703

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Corneal clouding?

Back 703

Hunter's: No, Hurler's: Yes

Front 704

Which steps in the citric acid cycle produce ATP?

Back 704

None, however 1 GTP is produced from the conversion of Succinyl CoA to Succinate.

Front 705

Ethanol metabolism: Limiting reagent

Back 705

NAD+

Front 706

What does NADPH deficiency in RBCs result in?

Back 706

Hemolytic anemia

Front 707

Enzyme function: DNA polymerase I

Back 707

Degrades RNA primer and fills in the gap with DNA

Front 708

In what condition is nucleotide excision repair mutated?

Back 708

Xeroderma pigmentosa (dry skin with melanoma and other cancers)

Front 709

Where in the cell does the following occur: Gluconeogenesis

Back 709

Pathway has steps in the mitochondria and in the cytoplasm

Front 710

Role of A site in protein synthesis

Back 710

A site holds incoming Aminoacyl tRNA.

Front 711

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Aggressive behavior?

Back 711

Hunter's: Yes, Hurler's: No

Front 712

What is the treatment for fructose intolerance?

Back 712

Decreased intake of both fructose and sucrose.

Front 713

Where in the electron transport chain do NADH and FADH2 release their electrons?

Back 713

Complex I

Front 714

Refsum Disease: Pathophysiology

Back 714

Inability to degrade phytanic acid, resulting in accumulation in plasma and tissues

Front 715

DNA polymerase III: Mechanism

Back 715

1. Adds deoxynucleotides to the 3' end until it reaches primer of preceding fragment, 2. 3' to 5' exonuclease activity proofreads each nucleotide

Front 716

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Coenzyme A

Back 716

Acyl

Front 717

What is alternative splicing?

Back 717

Rearrangement of exons to make unique proteins

Front 718

Chromatin structure: In the beads on a string analogy, what is the string and how long is it?

Back 718

Histone H1 ties the nucleosomes together in a 30-nm fiber string

Front 719

What are the rate limiting steps of glycolysis?

Back 719

1. Hexokinase (Glucose to G-6-P) 2. *Phosphofructokinase-1 (Fructose-6-P to Fructose-1,6-BP) 3. Pyruvate kinase (PEP to Pyruvate)

Front 720

What inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 720

1. NADH (No more of me please) 2. ATP (likewise) 3. Acetyl CoA (ditto)

Front 721

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway happen?

Back 721

Cytoplasm of Red Blood Cells, and in lactating mammary glands, liver, and adrenal cortex (all sites of fatty acid or steroid synthesis except RBCs)

Front 722

What is rotenone?

Back 722

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 723

What vitamin is necessary for regeneration of S-adenosyl-methionine?

Back 723

Vitamin B12

Front 724

What disease state is glycolytic enzyme deficiency generally associated with?

Back 724

Hemolytic anemia

Front 725

Phosphofructokinase-1: What inhibits it?

Back 725

ATP (don't need more of me), Citrate (my cycle is going well)

Front 726

Name some oxidizing agents that someone with a G6PD deficiency is vulnerable to.

Back 726

1. Fava beans 2. Sulfonamides 3. Primaquine 4. Antituberculosis drugs

Front 727

What activated carriers carry: Acyl

Back 727

1. Coenzyme A 2. Lipoamide

Front 728

What reaction does citrate synthase catalyze?

Back 728

Oxaloacetate and acetyl coA combine to yield citrate.

Front 729

What toxin inhibits lipoic acid?

Back 729

Arsenic

Front 730

What are the requirements of PEP carboxykinase?

Back 730

GTP

Front 731

What are the main products of the pentose phosphate shunt and their uses?

Back 731

1. NADPH (for fatty acid and steroid synthesis) 2. Ribose-5-phosphate (for nucleotide synthesis) 3. G3P and F6P (glycolytic intermediates)

Front 732

Chondroitin Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 732

Cartilage, tendons, ligaments, aorta. Most abundant GAG in body.

Front 733

Keratan Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 733

Found in cartilage proteoglycan aggregates with chondroitin sulfate, and in cornea. Most heterogeneous GAG.

Front 734

ATP and methionine react to form what?

Back 734

S-adenosyl-methionine

Front 735

DNA Topoisomerase I: Mechanism

Back 735

cuts one strand, passes the other through it then reanneals the cut strand

Front 736

What enzyme converts galactose to galactitol?

Back 736

Aldose reductase

Front 737

What is the treatment for classic galactosemia?

Back 737

Exclude galactose and lactose from the diet.

Front 738

What is glutathione used for?

Back 738

Detoxification of free radicals and peroxides.

Front 739

What is the most common congenital heart disease in adults?

Back 739

Atrial Septal Defects

Front 740

What are Aschoff Bodies?

Back 740

Central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by reactive histiocytes

Front 741

Where is the murmur best heard for patent ductus arteriosus?

Back 741

Between the shoulder blades

Front 742

What are two common findings in myocarditis?

Back 742

Aschoff bodies Anitschkow Cells the two Russians

Front 743

What organism is involved in Rheumatic Fever?

Back 743

Group A Strept Step. pyogenes

Front 744

What are five signs of Rheumatic fever?

Back 744

Carditis, Migratory polyarthritis, Subcutaneous Nodules, Erythema Marginatum, Sydenham's Chorea

Front 745

What valve is involved in a mid-systolic click?

Back 745

Mitral Valve Prolapse, It clicks half way since the chordae restrain it

Front 746

What viral infection is involved with patent ductus arteriosus?

Back 746

Rubella

Front 747

What is the most common congenital heart disease in children?

Back 747

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) Very Small Dudes

Front 748

How long after a group A step. pharyngitis does Rheumatic Fever occur?

Back 748

1-5 weeks after episode

Front 749

What genetic disorder is associated with coarctation of the aorta?

Back 749

Turner Syndrome

Front 750

What are the three A's in Atrial Septal Defects?

Back 750

Adults, Alcohol Fetal Syndrome, ALL from Down Syndrome

Front 751

What two diseases have Mitral Valve Prolapse?

Back 751

Marfan's Syndrome and Ehlers Danlos

Front 752

What murmur is heard in MV/TV regurgitation?

Back 752

Pansystolic murmur

Front 753

What murmur is heard in AV/PV regurgitation?

Back 753

high pitched diastolic murmur directly after S2

Front 754

What is associated w/ Libman Sacks endocarditis?

Back 754

SLE

Front 755

What DZ has sterile vegetations covered on valvular surfaces?

Back 755

SLE -libman sacks endocarditis

Front 756

What two diseases are involved w/ mucin-producing sterile vegetations?

Back 756

tumors of colon and pancreas Marantic vegetations

Front 757

What other pathogens cause myocarditis?

Back 757

Borrelia (Lyme Dz), T. cruzi (Chagas), Tichinella spiralis (trichinosis)

Front 758

What is the MCC of pericarditis?

Back 758

Coxsackievirus again!

Front 759

What disease involves hypotension associated w/ pulsus paradoxus?

Back 759

pericarditis

Front 760

What is pulsus paradoxus?

Back 760

BP decrease in >10mmHg in systole during inspiration

Front 761

What other sign is seen in pericarditis?

Back 761

Kussmaul's Sign

Front 762

What is Kussmaul's sign?

Back 762

neck vein distension on inspiration, blood refluxes to jugular vein instead of entering RA

Front 763

What is the MCC of constrictive pericarditis?

Back 763

TB worldwide

Front 764

What is the genetic problem in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Back 764

mutation in heavy chain of beta-myosin and troponins [AD]

Front 765

What is the MC site of metastasis to cardiac tissue?

Back 765

pericardium

Front 766

What disease is associated with cardiac rhabdomyoma?

Back 766

Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 767

What is the pathogenesis of mitral valve prolapse?

Back 767

increase/accumulation of dermatan sulfate

Front 768

What is the characteristic murmur of mitral valve prolapse?

Back 768

mid-systolic click

Front 769

When does the murmur (mid-systolic click) approach to S1?

Back 769

decrease in preload, less blood

Front 770

Classic Finding for: Soap bubble on x-ray

Back 770

Giant cell tumor of bone

Front 771

Classic Finding for: Alport?s syndrome

Back 771

Hereditary nephritis with nerve deafness

Front 772

Classic Finding for: Cotton-wool spots

Back 772

Chronic hypertension

Front 773

Classic Finding for: Recurrent pulmonary Pseudomonas and S. aureus infections

Back 773

Cystic fibrosis

Front 774

Classic Finding for: Birbeck granules on EM

Back 774

Histiocytosis X (eosinophilic granuloma)

Front 775

Classic Finding for: Pseudorosettes

Back 775

Ewing's sarcoma

Front 776

Classic Finding for: S4

Back 776

Aortic stenosis, hypertrophic subaortic stenosis

Front 777

Classic Finding for: Trousseau's sign

Back 777

Visceral cancer, pancreatic adenocarcinoma (migratory thrombophlebitis), hypocalcemia (carpal spasm)

Front 778

Classic Finding for: Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

Back 778

Sarcoidosis

Front 779

Classic Finding for: Wallenberg's syndrome

Back 779

Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery thrombosis

Front 780

Classic Finding for: Wilson's disease

Back 780

Hepatolenticular degeneration

Front 781

Classic Finding for: Spitz nevus

Back 781

Benign juvenile melanoma

Front 782

Classic Finding for: Kartagener's syndrome

Back 782

Dynein defect

Front 783

Classic Finding for: Thyroidization of kidney

Back 783

Chronic bacterial pyelonephritis

Front 784

Classic Finding for: Tophi

Back 784

Gout

Front 785

Classic Finding for: Libman-Sacks disease

Back 785

Endocarditis associated with SLE

Front 786

Classic Finding for: Cerebriform nuclei

Back 786

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)

Front 787

Classic Finding for: Rotor's syndrome

Back 787

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 788

Classic Finding for: S3

Back 788

Left-to-right shunt (VSD, PDA, ASD), mitral regurgitation, LV failure (CHF)

Front 789

Classic Finding for: Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

Back 789

Diabetic nephropathy

Front 790

Classic Finding for: Xanthochromia (CSF)

Back 790

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Front 791

Classic Finding for: Call-Exner bodies

Back 791

Granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary

Front 792

Classic Finding for: Nephritis + cataracts + hearing loss

Back 792

Alport's syndrome

Front 793

Classic Finding for: Arnold-Chiari malformation

Back 793

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

Front 794

Classic Finding for: Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

Back 794

Defect in platelet aggregation IIb/IIIa

Front 795

Classic Finding for: Heterophil antibodies

Back 795

Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)

Front 796

Classic Finding for: Krukenberg tumor

Back 796

Gastric adenocarcinoma with ovarian metastases

Front 797

Classic Finding for: Baker's cyst in popliteal fossa

Back 797

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 798

Classic Finding for: Hypertension + hypokalemia

Back 798

Conn's syndrome

Front 799

Classic Finding for: Diabetes insipidus + exophthalmos + lesions of the skull

Back 799

Hand–Schüller–Christian disease (multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

Front 800

Classic Finding for: Reinke crystals

Back 800

Leydig cell tumor

Front 801

Classic Finding for: Reid index (increased)

Back 801

Chronic bronchitis

Front 802

Classic Finding for: von Recklinghausen's disease of bone

Back 802

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (?brown tumor?)

Front 803

Classic Finding for: Russell bodies

Back 803

Multiple myeloma

Front 804

Classic Finding for: Rouleaux formation (RBCs)

Back 804

Multiple myeloma

Front 805

Classic Finding for: Schiller-Duval bodies

Back 805

Yolk sac tumor

Front 806

Classic Finding for: Periosteal elevation on x-ray

Back 806

Pyogenic osteomyelitis

Front 807

Classic Finding for: Sulfur granules

Back 807

Actinomyces israelii

Front 808

Classic Finding for: Gilbert's syndrome

Back 808

Benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 809

Classic Finding for: Renal epithelial casts in urine

Back 809

Acute toxic/viral nephrosis

Front 810

Classic Finding for: Podagra

Back 810

Gout (MP joint of hallux)

Front 811

Classic Finding for: Lewy bodies

Back 811

Parkinson's disease

Front 812

Classic Finding for: Renal cell carcinoma + cavernous hemangiomas + adenomas

Back 812

von Hippel-Lindau disease

Front 813

Classic Finding for: Actinic keratosis

Back 813

Often precedes squamous cell carcinoma

Front 814

Classic Finding for: Starry-sky pattern

Back 814

Burkitt's lymphoma

Front 815

Classic Finding for: Eburnation

Back 815

Osteoarthritis (polished, ivory-like appearance of bone)

Front 816

Classic Finding for: Arachnodactyly

Back 816

Marfan's syndrome

Front 817

Classic Finding for: Pick's disease

Back 817

Progressive dementia, similar to Alzheimer?s

Front 818

Classic Finding for: Pannus

Back 818

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 819

Classic Finding for: Mallory bodies

Back 819

Alcoholic liver disease

Front 820

Classic Finding for: MLF syndrome (INO)

Back 820

Multiple sclerosis

Front 821

Classic Finding for: "Smudge cell"

Back 821

CLL

Front 822

Classic Finding for: Pick bodies

Back 822

Pick's disease

Front 823

Classic Finding for: Hyperphagia + hypersexuality + hyperorality + hyperdocility

Back 823

Klüver–Bucy syndrome (amygdala)

Front 824

Classic Finding for: Owl's eye

Back 824

CMV

Front 825

Classic Finding for:Klüver–Bucy syndrome

Back 825

Bilateral amygdala lesions

Front 826

Classic Finding for: Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Back 826

Congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 827

Classic Finding for: Job's syndrome

Back 827

Neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality

Front 828

Classic Finding for: Spike and dome on EM

Back 828

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Front 829

Classic Finding for: Shwartzman reaction

Back 829

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 830

Classic Finding for: Burkitt's lymphoma

Back 830

8:14 translocation; associated with EBV

Front 831

Classic Finding for: Chancroid

Back 831

Haemophilus ducreyi (painful)

Front 832

Classic Finding for: Charcot's triad

Back 832

Multiple sclerosis (nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech), cholangitis (jaundice, RUQ pain, fever)

Front 833

Classic Finding for: Bartter's syndrome

Back 833

Hyperreninemia

Front 834

Classic Finding for: Bernard-Soulier disease

Back 834

Defect in platelet adhesion

Front 835

Classic Finding for: Hand–Schüller–Christian disease

Back 835

Chronic progressive histiocytosis

Front 836

Classic Finding for: Gaucher's disease

Back 836

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency

Front 837

Classic Finding for: t(8;14)

Back 837

Burkitt's lymphoma (c-myc activation)

Front 838

Classic Finding for: Homer Wright rosettes

Back 838

Neuroblastoma

Front 839

Classic Finding for: Erb-Duchenne palsy

Back 839

Superior trunk brachial plexus injury ("waiter's tip")

Front 840

Classic Finding for: Brushfield's spots

Back 840

Down syndrome

Front 841

Classic Finding for: "Brown tumor" of bone

Back 841

Hemorrhage causes brown color of osteolytic cysts: 1. Hyperparathyroidism 2. Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen's disease)

Front 842

Classic Finding for: Edwards' syndrome

Back 842

Trisomy 18 associated with rocker-bottom feet, low-set ears, heart disease

Front 843

Classic Finding for: Whipple's disease

Back 843

Malabsorption syndrome caused by Tropheryma whippelii

Front 844

Classic Finding for: Branching rods in oral infection

Back 844

Actinomyces israelii

Front 845

Classic Finding for: Reed-Sternberg cells

Back 845

Hodgkin's lymphoma

Front 846

Classic Finding for: Nutmeg liver

Back 846

CHF

Front 847

Classic Finding for: Negri bodies

Back 847

Rabies

Front 848

Classic Finding for: Wermer's syndrome

Back 848

MEN type I

Front 849

Classic Finding for: Sipple's syndrome

Back 849

MEN type IIa

Front 850

Classic Finding for: Bouchard's nodes

Back 850

Osteoarthritis (PIP swelling 2º to osteophytes)

Front 851

Classic Finding for:Chédiak–Higashi disease

Back 851

Phagocyte deficiency

Front 852

Classic Finding for: Subepithelial humps on EM

Back 852

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Front 853

Classic Finding for: Caisson disease

Back 853

Gas emboli

Front 854

Classic Finding for: Charcot-Leyden crystals

Back 854

Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)

Front 855

Classic Finding for: Sézary's syndrome

Back 855

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

Front 856

Classic Finding for: Cowdry type A bodies

Back 856

Herpesvirus

Front 857

Classic Finding for: Dog or cat bite

Back 857

Pasteurella multocida

Front 858

Classic Finding for: Fanconi's syndrome

Back 858

Proximal tubular reabsorption defect

Front 859

Classic Finding for: Intussusception

Back 859

Adenovirus (causes hyperplasia of Peyer's patches)

Front 860

Classic Finding for: Boutonniere deformity

Back 860

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 861

Classic Finding for: Lisch nodules

Back 861

Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen's disease)

Front 862

Classic Finding for: Huntington's disease

Back 862

Caudate degeneration (autosomal dominant)

Front 863

Classic Finding for: von Recklinghausen's disease

Back 863

Neurofibromatosis with Café au lait spots

Front 864

Classic Finding for: Skip lesions

Back 864

Crohn's

Front 865

Classic Finding for: Streaky ovaries

Back 865

Turner's syndrome

Front 866

Classic Finding for: Xerostomia + arthritis + keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Back 866

Sjögren's syndrome

Front 867

Classic Finding for: Suboccipital lymphadenopathy

Back 867

Rubella

Front 868

Classic Finding for: Albuminocytologic dissociation

Back 868

Guillain–Barré syndrome (↑ protein in CSF with only modest ↑ in cell count)

Front 869

Classic Finding for: Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

Back 869

Wernicke's encephalopathy

Front 870

Classic Finding for: Heberden's nodes

Back 870

Osteoarthritis (DIP swelling 2º to osteophytes)

Front 871

Classic Finding for: Blue-domed cysts

Back 871

Fibrocystic change of the breast

Front 872

Classic Finding for: HbF

Back 872

Thalassemia major

Front 873

Classic Finding for: Donovan bodies

Back 873

Granuloma inguinale

Front 874

Classic Finding for: Howell-Jolly bodies

Back 874

Splenectomy (or nonfunctional spleen)

Front 875

Classic Finding for: Antineutrophil antibodies

Back 875

Vasculitis

Front 876

Classic Finding for: Curschmann's spirals

Back 876

Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)

Front 877

Classic Finding for: t(14;18)

Back 877

Follicular lymphomas (bcl-2 activation)

Front 878

Classic Finding for: Cherry-red spot on macula

Back 878

Tay-Sachs, Niemann-Pick disease, central retinal artery occlusion

Front 879

Classic Finding for: Ferruginous bodies

Back 879

Asbestosis

Front 880

Classic Finding for: Councilman bodies

Back 880

Toxic or viral hepatitis

Front 881

Classic Finding for: Cold agglutinins

Back 881

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis

Front 882

Classic Finding for: Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Back 882

Esophagogastric lacerations

Front 883

Classic Finding for: Bruton's disease

Back 883

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

Front 884

Classic Finding for: Albright's syndrome

Back 884

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, Café au lait spots, short stature, young girls

Front 885

Classic Finding for: Antigliadin antibodies

Back 885

Celiac disease

Front 886

What four things arise from surface ectoderm?

Back 886

1. Adenohypophysis, 2. Lens of eye, 3. Epithelial linings, 4. Epidermis

Front 887

What is the embryologic tissue origin of Microglia (ecto/meso/edo)?

Back 887

Mesoderm

Front 888

What ear muscle does the 1st branchial arch form?

Back 888

Tensor tympani

Front 889

What does the left 4th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 889

Aortic arch

Front 890

What four structures make up the diaphragm?

Back 890

1.Septum transversum; 2.Pleuroperitoneal folds; 3.Body wall; 4.Dorsal mesentery of esophagus

Front 891

Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 891

Mesoderm

Front 892

What effects does cocaine have on the fetus?

Back 892

Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction

Front 893

What is the male homologue to the greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) in the female?

Back 893

Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper)

Front 894

What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 894

CN X

Front 895

What is the female homologue to the ventral shaft of the penis in the male?

Back 895

Labia minora

Front 896

The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?

Back 896

Superior vena cava

Front 897

What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 897

CN V2 and V3

Front 898

Which muscles (8) are derivatives of the 1st branchial arch?

Back 898

-Temporalis-Masseter-Lateral pterygoid-Medial pterygoid-Mylohyoid-Anterior belly of digastric-Tensor tympani-Tensor veli palatini

Front 899

Which two embryonic tissues are branchial arches derived from?

Back 899

Mesoderm and neural crests

Front 900

Which week of fetal development have the genitalia taken on male/female characteristics?

Back 900

Week 10

Front 901

What is oligohydramnios?

Back 901

Less than 0.5 L of amniotic fluid

Front 902

Which branchial arch does Meckel's cartilage develop from?

Back 902

1st arch

Front 903

What suppresses the development of the paramesonephric ducts in males?

Back 903

Mullerian inhibiting substance (secreted by the testes)

Front 904

How does a cleft lip form?

Back 904

Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

Front 905

What does the primitive atria give rise to?

Back 905

Trabeculated left and right atrium

Front 906

Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 906

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 907

When do primary oocytes begin meiosis I?

Back 907

During fetal life

Front 908

Which branchial arch forms the incus and malleus of the ear?

Back 908

1st arch

Front 909

Which pharyngeal arch does Reichert's cartilage develop from?

Back 909

2nd arch

Front 910

Is a secondary spermatocyte N or 2N?

Back 910

2N

Front 911

What does the foramen ovale give rise to?

Back 911

Fossa ovalis

Front 912

What five things arise from neuroectoderm?

Back 912

-Neurohypophysis-CNS neurons-Oligodendrocytes-Astrocytes-Pineal gland

Front 913

What is polyhydramnios?

Back 913

Greater than 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid

Front 914

What can be found in the cortex of the thymus?

Back 914

It is dense with immature T cells

Front 915

Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization?

Back 915

Metaphase (an egg MET a sperm)

Front 916

What is a urachal cyst or sinus a remnant of?

Back 916

The allantois

Front 917

What is associated with an epispadias?

Back 917

Exstrophy of the bladder

Front 918

What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?

Back 918

Foramen cecum

Front 919

What is the flagellum (tail) derived from?

Back 919

One of the centrioles

Front 920

What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?

Back 920

Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle

Front 921

What does the thymus arise from?

Back 921

Epithelium of the 3rd branchial pouch

Front 922

What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?

Back 922

-Thyroid-Cricoid-Arytenoids-Corniculate-Cuneiform

Front 923

What does the 1st aortic arch give rise to?

Back 923

Part of the maxillary artery

Front 924

What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?

Back 924

-Stapes-Styloid process-Lesser horn of hyoid-Stylohyoid ligament

Front 925

What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?

Back 925

Body, Tail, Isthmus, and Accessory Pancreatic Duct

Front 926

Which is more common a hypospadias or epispadias?

Back 926

Hypospadias

Front 927

What is a single umbilical artery associated with?

Back 927

Congenital and chromosomal anomalies

Front 928

From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?

Back 928

Umbilical vein

Front 929

How does a bicornate uterus form?

Back 929

Results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts

Front 930

What does the 5th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 930

C cells of the thyroid

Front 931

Is a primary spermatocyte 2N or 4N?

Back 931

4N

Front 932

How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?

Back 932

2 months

Front 933

What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?

Back 933

Notochord

Front 934

Does the thymus arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 934

Endoderm

Front 935

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 935

Gastrulation

Front 936

Which muscles (4) are derivatives of the 2nd branchial arch?

Back 936

-Muscles of facial expression-Stapedius-Stylohyoid-Posterior belly of digastric

Front 937

What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum in the male?

Back 937

Vestibular bulbs

Front 938

Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 938

Mesoderm

Front 939

What is polyhydramnios associated with?

Back 939

Esophageal/duodenal atresia and Anencephaly

Front 940

Is a spermatid haploid or diploid?

Back 940

Haploid, N

Front 941

What four things does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into?

Back 941

-Seminal vesicles-Epididymis-Ejaculatory duct-Ductus deferens

Front 942

What is Potter's syndrome?

Back 942

Bilateral renal agenesis, that results in ologohydramnios causing limb and facial deformities and pulmonary hypoplasia

Front 943

Is a speratogonium haploid or diploid?

Back 943

Diploid, 2N

Front 944

After the first breath at birth, what causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?

Back 944

An increase in oxygen

Front 945

What is a hypospadias?

Back 945

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close

Front 946

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the spleen?

Back 946

Weeks 9-28

Front 947

What type of twins would have 2 amniotic sacs and 2 placentas?

Back 947

Monozygotic or dizygotic twins

Front 948

What three things does the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develop into?

Back 948

-Fallopian tube-Uterus-Part of the vagina

Front 949

What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 949

Superior parathyroids

Front 950

What connects the thyroid diverticulum to the tongue?

Back 950

The thyroglossal duct

Front 951

What type of twins would have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs, and 1 chorion?

Back 951

Monozygotic twins

Front 952

What embryologic defect is thoracic outlet syndrome caused by?

Back 952

by having a cervical rib.

Front 953

How does a cleft palate form?

Back 953

Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process

Front 954

What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?

Back 954

Smooth part of the right atrium

Front 955

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the liver?

Back 955

Weeks 6-30

Front 956

Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

Back 956

3rd and 4th arches

Front 957

What is the male homologue to the glans clitoris in the female?

Back 957

Glans penis

Front 958

Which muscles are derivatives of the 6th branchial arch?

Back 958

All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid

Front 959

What does the notochord give rise to?

Back 959

Nucleus Pulposus

Front 960

What three structures does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 960

-Thymus-Left inferior parathyroid-Right inferior parathyroid

Front 961

Is a secondary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 961

Haploid, 2N

Front 962

What does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 962

The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus

Front 963

What does the ligamentum venosum come from?

Back 963

Ductus venosus

Front 964

What is the female homologue to the scrotum in the male?

Back 964

Labia majora

Front 965

What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?

Back 965

-Mandible-Malleus-Incus-Sphenomandibular ligament

Front 966

An abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior side of penis due to faulty positioning of the genital tubercle.

Back 966

Epispadias

Front 967

Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Back 967

1st arch

Front 968

What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?

Back 968

DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 969

What is the food supply of sperm?

Back 969

Fructose

Front 970

What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?

Back 970

Bulbus cordis

Front 971

What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?

Back 971

Left horn of the sinus venosus

Front 972

What are the 2nd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 972

CN VII

Front 973

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the bone marrow?

Back 973

Week 28 and onward

Front 974

Which ear bone(s) does the 2nd branchial arch form?

Back 974

Stapes

Front 975

Does the dorsal root ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 975

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 976

At what time in the course of development is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

Back 976

Weeks 3-8

Front 977

What is the female homologue to the prostate gland in the male?

Back 977

Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)

Front 978

What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?

Back 978

Bilaminar disk

Front 979

What does the right 4th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 979

Proximal part of the right subclavian artery

Front 980

What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 980

Epithelial lining of the palantine tonsils

Front 981

Do the melanocytes arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 981

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 982

Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 982

Endoderm

Front 983

What three things does the ventral pancreatic bud become?

Back 983

-Pancreatic head-uncinate process-main Pancreatic duct

Front 984

What does the thyroid diverticulum arise from?

Back 984

The floor of the primitive pharynx

Front 985

What is oligohydramnios associated with?

Back 985

Bilateral renal agenesis or posterior urethral valves (in males)

Front 986

What is the acrosome of sperm derived from?

Back 986

Golgi apparatus

Front 987

Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until ovulation?

Back 987

Prophase

Front 988

What are the rule of 3's for the 3rd week of development?

Back 988

3 germ layers (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

Front 989

When do primary oocytes complete meiosis I?

Back 989

Just prior to ovulation

Front 990

What can be found in the medulla of the thymus?

Back 990

It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles

Front 991

What does the first branchial cleft develop into?

Back 991

The external auditory meatus

Front 992

The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?

Back 992

2nd

Front 993

Which muscles (3) are derivatives of the 4th branchial arch?

Back 993

-Most pharyngeal constrictors-Cricothyroid-Levator veli palatini

Front 994

Where does positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?

Back 994

At the corticomedullary junction

Front 995

Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 995

Mesoderm

Front 996

What does the 5th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 996

Nothing

Front 997

What teratogenic agent causes limb defects ('flipper' limbs)?

Back 997

Thalidomide

Front 998

Which branchial arch are the greater horn of hyoid and the stylopharyngeus muscle derived from?

Back 998

3rd branchial arch

Front 999

What does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to?

Back 999

Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery

Front 1000

What does the umbilical arteries give rise to?

Back 1000

Medial umbilical ligaments

Front 1001

What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 1001

Primitive streak and neural plate begin to form

Front 1002

Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1002

Mesoderm

Front 1003

What does the ductus arteriosus give rise to?

Back 1003

Ligamentum arteriosum

Front 1004

Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1004

Endoderm

Front 1005

What type of bone formation is spontaneous without preexisting cartilage?

Back 1005

Intramembranous

Front 1006

Does the celiac ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1006

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 1007

Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1007

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 1008

Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1008

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 1009

What developmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?

Back 1009

None

Front 1010

Which aortic arch does the stapedial artery and the hyoid artery come from?

Back 1010

2nd aortic arch

Front 1011

What is Meckel's diverticulum?

Back 1011

Persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk sac

Front 1012

What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 1012

CN IX

Front 1013

What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?

Back 1013

Allantois (urachus)

Front 1014

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?

Back 1014

Implantation

Front 1015

What does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from?

Back 1015

Liver

Front 1016

What can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?

Back 1016

A branchial cyst in the neck

Front 1017

Do the Schwann cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 1017

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 1018

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract?

Back 1018

Meckel's diverticulum

Front 1019

What effect does 13-cis-retinoic acid have on the fetus?

Back 1019

Extremely high risk for birth defects

Front 1020

Where does spermatogenesis take place?

Back 1020

Seminferous tubules

Front 1021

Is a primary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 1021

Diploid, 4N

Front 1022

What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme?

Back 1022

Temporary cervical sinuses

Front 1023

What three things does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 1023

-Middle ear cavity-Eustachian tube-Mastoid air cells

Front 1024

What do Brunner's glands secrete?

Back 1024

Alkaline mucus

Front 1025

What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona glomerulosa?

Back 1025

Aldosterone

Front 1026

What is the primary regulatory control of zona fasciculata secretion?

Back 1026

ACTH, hypothalamic CRH

Front 1027

What is the primary regulatory control of zona reticularis secretion?

Back 1027

ACTH, hypothalamic CRH

Front 1028

What is produced by delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans?

Back 1028

delta cells produce somatostatin.

Front 1029

What is the location of zona adherens?

Back 1029

Surrounds the perimeter just below zona occludens.

Front 1030

What three cell types are found in Islets of Langerhans?

Back 1030

alpha, beta, and delta cells

Front 1031

Define Islets of Langerhans.

Back 1031

Collections of endocrine cells.

Front 1032

IN what area of the spleen are B cells found?

Back 1032

B cells are found within the white pulp of the spleen.

Front 1033

What do the Islets of Langerhans arise from?

Back 1033

Pancreatic buds.

Front 1034

What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona fasciculata?

Back 1034

Cortisol, sex hormones.

Front 1035

What does H. pylori predispose to/cause? 2 things

Back 1035

Adenocarcinoma of stomach, Malignant Lymphoma

Front 1036

What is the space of Disse?

Back 1036

Pores in liver sinusoids allowing plasma macromolecules access to liver cell surfaces.

Front 1037

What is the most common organism causes esophagitis?

Back 1037

Candida

Front 1038

Where are Brunner's glands located?

Back 1038

Located in submucosa of duodenum

Front 1039

What is the name of the TEAR of the DISTAL esophagus?

Back 1039

Mallory Weiss Sx

Front 1040

What does it mean when you have dysphagia for solids but not liquids?

Back 1040

Mechanical Obstruction

Front 1041

What is the effect of duodenal ulcers on Brunner's gland histology?

Back 1041

Duodenal ulcers cause hypertrophy of Brunner's glands.

Front 1042

What is the function of liver sinusoids?

Back 1042

Allow macromolecules of plasma full access to surface of liver cells through space of Disse.

Front 1043

When is the pain in duodenal ulcer?

Back 1043

Pain decreases with meals

Front 1044

What must be done with gastric ulcer?

Back 1044

Biopsy to rule out gastric cancer

Front 1045

What part of the stomach is affected by pernicious anemia?

Back 1045

Body and Fundus

Front 1046

What is Zollinger Ellison's Sx?

Back 1046

Malignant islet cell tumor

Front 1047

What is the only GI submucosal gland?

Back 1047

Brunner's glands

Front 1048

What part of the stomach does H. pylori infect?

Back 1048

Pyloric Antrum

Front 1049

Why is myasthemia gravis on the upper esophagus?

Back 1049

Upper 1/3 of esophagus is striated muscle

Front 1050

What are the common signs and symptoms of fistula in pregnancy?

Back 1050

Polyhydramnios (excess fluid) fetus is not reabsorbing it through mouth

Front 1051

What is the most common congenital esophageal disorder?

Back 1051

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Front 1052

What does it mean when you have dysphagia for both solids and liquids?

Back 1052

Peristalisis Problem

Front 1053

What is the pathogenesis of achalasia?

Back 1053

Failure of relaxation of LES sphincter

Front 1054

What is weakness in the esophageal wall called?

Back 1054

Zenker's Diverticulum

Front 1055

What is the name of the RUPTURE of the DISTAL esophagus?

Back 1055

Boerhaave's Sx

Front 1056

What type of gastritis is pernicious anemia?

Back 1056

Type A atrophic gastitis

Front 1057

What is the malignant potential for a duodenal ulcer?

Back 1057

0% malignancy, so never biopsied!

Front 1058

Why is there black melena?

Back 1058

Acid acts on HB and converts it into Hematin;Hematin is black pigment that stains fecal matter

Front 1059

What is a picture of a stomach that is really hard petrified almost?

Back 1059

Linitis plastica; Stomach Cancer diffuse type

Front 1060

What type of cells do you see in linitis plastica?

Back 1060

Signet Ring Cells

Front 1061

Where else can you find signet ring cells?

Back 1061

both ovaries since linitis plastica metastasizes via hematogenous route

Front 1062

What is a kind of diffuse type linitis plastica? attacks the ovaries as well?

Back 1062

Krukengerg Tumor

Front 1063

What is the MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

Back 1063

stomach

Front 1064

What is the 2nd MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

Back 1064

peyer's patches

Front 1065

What is the MC benign tumor of GI tract?

Back 1065

Leiomyoma

Front 1066

What is the MC location for Leiomyoma in GI tract?

Back 1066

stomach

Front 1067

What is the main symptom of leiomyoma?

Back 1067

bleeding

Front 1068

What is associated with dermatitis herpetiform?

Back 1068

Celiac Dz

Front 1069

What is the best test to detect Celiac Dz?

Back 1069

anti-gliadin Ab

Front 1070

What is another Dz that involves malabsorption?

Back 1070

Whipple Dz

Front 1071

What is the pathology of Celiac Dz?

Back 1071

Atrophy of villi in Duodenum and Jejunum

Front 1072

What is the pathology of Whipple's Dz?

Back 1072

blunting of villi in jejunum and ileum

Front 1073

What is the best (cheapest) screening test to determine malabsorption problem?

Back 1073

stool for fat

Front 1074

What are the three classifications of diarrhea?

Back 1074

1) invasive 2) secretory 3) osmotic

Front 1075

What is the best test for invasive diarrhea?

Back 1075

fecal leukocytes (+)

Front 1076

What is the #1 organism in invasive enterocolitis?

Back 1076

Campylobacter

Front 1077

What diarrhea's are low volume?

Back 1077

Invasive diarrhea

Front 1078

What diarrhea is high volume?

Back 1078

secretory and osmotic

Front 1079

What is secretory diarrhea?

Back 1079

high volume w/ osmolality similar to plasma

Front 1080

What is osmotic diarrhea?

Back 1080

high volume w/ osmolality lower than that of plasma

Front 1081

What are some disease that cause secretory diarrhea?

Back 1081

Vibrio cholerae (via adenylate cyclase); E. coli (via guanylate cyclase); Rotavirus, Carcinoid Sx

Front 1082

Is there mucosal inflammation in secretory diarrhea?

Back 1082

No mucosal inflammation

Front 1083

What are some common diseases that cause osmotic diarrhea?

Back 1083

lactase deficiency; laxatives

Front 1084

What is the MCC of diarrhea, cholecystitis and pancreatitis in AIDS?

Back 1084

Cytomelagolvirus (CMV)

Front 1085

What is the MCC of diarrhea in AIDS?

Back 1085

Cryptosporidium parvum

Front 1086

What test is used to detect C. parvum?

Back 1086

String Test

Front 1087

What is the MCC of diarrhea from protozoa in the U.S.?

Back 1087

Giardia lamblia

Front 1088

What is the life cycle of G. lamblia?

Back 1088

cysts attach to small intestine mucosa

Front 1089

What organism causes rectal prolapse in children?

Back 1089

Trichuris trichura

Front 1090

What is the Tx of Trichuris trichura?

Back 1090

Albendazol

Front 1091

What is the reservoir of diphyllobothrium latum?

Back 1091

fish--- lake trout

Front 1092

What does D. latum cause?

Back 1092

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 1093

What is the Tx fro D. latum?

Back 1093

praziquantel

Front 1094

What is seen in the stool of Strongyloides stercoralis?

Back 1094

rhabditiform larvae

Front 1095

What parasite causes bowel obstruction?

Back 1095

Ascaris Lumbricoides

Front 1096

What parasite in the soil penetrates the skin?

Back 1096

Strongyloides stercoralis

Front 1097

What is the MCC of hematochezia?

Back 1097

Diverticulosis

Front 1098

What is the 2nd MCC of hematochezia?

Back 1098

angiodysplasia

Front 1099

What is associated w/ angiodysplasia?

Back 1099

von Willebrand's Dz; Aortic Stenosis

Front 1100

What is the MCC of iron deficiency in newborn?

Back 1100

Mecke's Diverticulum; bleeding GI

Front 1101

What disease has the term left sided apendicitis?

Back 1101

sigmoid diverticula

Front 1102

MC place of pathology in entire GI tract?

Back 1102

Sigmoid colon

Front 1103

What is associated with embolism of transmural small bowel?

Back 1103

heart disease and atrial fibrillation

Front 1104

What is the MCC of fistulas in the GI tract?

Back 1104

diverticula

Front 1105

What is the MC fistula?

Back 1105

Colovesical Fistula

Front 1106

What layers does UC comprise?

Back 1106

musocal and submucosal

Front 1107

What layers does Cronh's Dz comprise?

Back 1107

all layers; it is transmural

Front 1108

What is involved in Cronh's Dz in 80%?

Back 1108

Terminal Ileum Affected

Front 1109

What segment does UC attack?

Back 1109

rectum; does not involve other areas of GI tract

Front 1110

What is the marker that the patient will recover from HBV?

Back 1110

HBV-DNA poymerase leaves before HBsAg

Front 1111

Markers for HBV infection is active?

Back 1111

HBe and HBV-DNA antigens are excellent markers of infectivity

Front 1112

What marker for HBV determines a chronic carrier?

Back 1112

HBsAg for more than 6 months

Front 1113

What is a healthy carrier?

Back 1113

carries HBsAg but is negative for HBeAg/HBV-DNA

Front 1114

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in adults?

Back 1114

E. coli

Front 1115

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in children?

Back 1115

Step. pneumoniae

Front 1116

What causes a single abscess in the right lobe of the liver?

Back 1116

E. histolytica

Front 1117

Tx for Hepatic Amebiasis?

Back 1117

Metronidazole

Front 1118

Who is the definitive host of Echinococcosis?

Back 1118

Sheep Dog

Front 1119

Humans are what type of host for Echinococcosis?

Back 1119

intermediate host

Front 1120

Tx for Echinococcosis?

Back 1120

Albendazole

Front 1121

What organism causes cholangiocarcinoma?

Back 1121

Clonorchis sinensis

Front 1122

What is another name for Clonorchis sinensis?

Back 1122

Chinese Liver Fluke

Front 1123

How do you get Clonorchiasis?

Back 1123

Ingestion of infected fish w/ larvae

Front 1124

What is the Tx of Clonorchiasis?

Back 1124

Praziquantel

Front 1125

What is the main characteristic in the laboratory of Clonorchiasis?

Back 1125

Eosinophilia

Front 1126

What organism causes cholangiocarcinoma?

Back 1126

Clonorchis sinensis

Front 1127

What is the main characteristic in the laboratory of Clonorchiasis?

Back 1127

Eosinophilia

Front 1128

What causes portal hypertension, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites and esophageal varices?

Back 1128

Schistosomiasis

Front 1129

What is the definitive host of Schistosoma mansoni?

Back 1129

Snails

Front 1130

Tx for Schistosomiasis?

Back 1130

Praziquantel

Front 1131

What is the MCC of congestive hepatomegaly?

Back 1131

Right Heart Failure (H.F.)

Front 1132

What are two clinical manifestations of PRE-hepatic obstruction?

Back 1132

1) portal vein thrombosis 2) ascites/varices

Front 1133

Do you find hepatomegaly in pre or post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 1133

Post-hepatic!!!

Front 1134

What is a cause of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 1134

1) Budd-Chiari syndrome 2) Polycythemia vera 3) Oral Contraceptives

Front 1135

What is Budd-Chiari Sx?

Back 1135

hepatic vein thrombosis

Front 1136

What is the MCC of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 1136

Polycythemia vera!

Front 1137

Symmptoms of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 1137

1) painful liver 2) congested liver 3) ascites 4) portal hypertension

Front 1138

What are dead hepatocytes called?

Back 1138

Councilman Bodies

Front 1139

When do we find Councilman Bodies?

Back 1139

Hepatitis

Front 1140

What alcoholic disease is irreversible?

Back 1140

cirrhosis

Front 1141

Are fatty change and alcoholic hepatitis reversible or irreversible?

Back 1141

reversible

Front 1142

What are the factors of Alcholo liver disease?

Back 1142

1) amount of OH 2) duration of intake 3) more damage in females

Front 1143

Where is the most important site of metabolism of OH in liver?

Back 1143

cytosol

Front 1144

What causes disulfiram reaction?

Back 1144

aldehyde buil up

Front 1145

What is disulfiram rx?

Back 1145

nausea/vomiting, flushing after ingestion of alcohol

Front 1146

What drug is used in Tx of alcoholism?

Back 1146

Antabuse or Disulfiram

Front 1147

Where is alcohol dehydrogenase found?

Back 1147

in cytosol and mitochondria

Front 1148

Why is there esteatosis?

Back 1148

alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde and acetate and acetyl coA which makes free fatty acids - increase in NADH2 favors glycerol-3-p

Front 1149

What is the sequence to make TG (VLDL) from 1,3 DPG?

Back 1149

1,3 DPG to Glyceraldehyde-3-P to DHAP to Glycerol-3-P + FA makes TG

Front 1150

Why is ketoacidosis sometimes present in alcoholics?

Back 1150

NADH once again favors conversion of: Acetoacetate to B-Hydroxybutyrate (ketoacids)

Front 1151

Why are alcoholics prone to gout?

Back 1151

Ketoacids and Lactic Acid compete w/ uric acid for excretion in the kidneys; so Uric Acid Accumulates!

Front 1152

What is the ratio of ALT and AST in alcoholics?

Back 1152

AST > ALT

Front 1153

What is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

Back 1153

mallory bodies

Front 1154

What is very characteristic microscopically?

Back 1154

fibrosis aroudn terminal hepatic venules

Front 1155

MCC of obstructive jaundice?

Back 1155

stone in common bile duct

Front 1156

What are the symptoms in obstructive jaundice?

Back 1156

-hypercholesterolemia-light colored stools-urine w/conjugated bilirubin-increase alkaline phosphatase (AP) and gamma-glutamyltransferas (GGT)

Front 1157

What are the symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis?

Back 1157

-pruritus-increase AP and GGT-no jaundice until later

Front 1158

What immunoglobulins and markers detect primary biliary cirrhosis?

Back 1158

-increase anti-mitochrondrial Ab-increase IgM

Front 1159

How do you acquire primary biliary cirrhosis?

Back 1159

autoimmune, granulomatous destruction of bile ducts in triads

Front 1160

What disease causes primary slcerosing pericholangitis?

Back 1160

ulcerative colitis

Front 1161

What is the clinical picture of Primary sclerosing pericholangitis?

Back 1161

jaundice

Front 1162

What cancer is related to Primary sclerosing pericholangitis?

Back 1162

MCC of cholangiocarcinoma

Front 1163

Name drug that causes acute hepatitis? (4)

Back 1163

1) Isoniazid 2) Halothane 3) acetaminophen 4) methyldopa

Front 1164

Name two drugs that cause cholestasis?

Back 1164

1) oral contraceptives 2) anabolic steroids

Front 1165

What drugs cause steatosis? fatty liver? (2)

Back 1165

1) Amiodarone 2) Methotrexate

Front 1166

What drug causes fibrosis in the liver?

Back 1166

methotrexate

Front 1167

What drug causes angiosarcoma of the liver?

Back 1167

Vinyl Chloride

Front 1168

What drug causes Liver Cell Adenoma?

Back 1168

Oral Contraceptives

Front 1169

What drugs (3) causes hepatocellular carcinoma?

Back 1169

1) Vinyl Chloride 2) Aflatoxin (Aspergillus mold) 3) Thorotrast

Front 1170

Can O.C. cause hepatocellular CA?

Back 1170

Yes

Front 1171

What is fulminant hepatic failure (FHF)?

Back 1171

acute liver failure w/ encephalopathy within 8 weeks of hepatic dysfunction

Front 1172

What is the MCC of FHF? (drug)

Back 1172

acetaminophen

Front 1173

What is the MCC of FHF? (organism)

Back 1173

virus

Front 1174

Other cause of FHF?

Back 1174

Reye's Sx

Front 1175

What is hemochromatosis?

Back 1175

unrestricted reabsorption of IRON (small bowel)

Front 1176

What is the mode of inheritance of hemochromatosis?

Back 1176

autosomal recessive

Front 1177

What are the laboratory findings of hemochromatosis?

Back 1177

- increase serum iron - decrease TIBC - increase % saturation - increase serum ferritin

Front 1178

What is the best screening test of hemochromatosis?

Back 1178

increase serum ferritin

Front 1179

What are the manifestations of hemochromatosis?

Back 1179

- bronze skin - pancreas (malabsorption and DM) - restrictive cardiomyopathy - liver anormalities including hepatocellular CA in 30%

Front 1180

What is the Tx of hemochromatosis?

Back 1180

phlebotomy

Front 1181

What is Wilson's Dz?

Back 1181

defect in Copper (Cu+) secretion into bile; - bile is Copper deficient or - defect in synthesis of ceruloplasmin

Front 1182

What is the Tx of Wilson's Dz?

Back 1182

penicillamine

Front 1183

What nuclei is attacked in Wilson's Dz?

Back 1183

lenticular nuclei degeneration

Front 1184

What are the symptoms of degeneration of the lenticular nuclei?

Back 1184

-chorea-rigidity-basal ganglia dementia

Front 1185

What part of the eye is affected w/ Kayser-Fleischer rings?

Back 1185

outer part of decemet; cornea

Front 1186

What disorder results from a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)?

Back 1186

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Front 1187

If you break your medial epicondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 1187

ulnar nerve

Front 1188

What lobe of the brain is the principal sensory area in?

Back 1188

parietal

Front 1189

What nerve is known as the great extensor nerve?

Back 1189

radial nerve

Front 1190

What are the functions of the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 1190

1. Cochlea- hearing 2. vestibule- linear acceleration 3. semicircular canals- angular acceleration.

Front 1191

Which CN is the only nerve that does not abut the wall in the cavernous sinus?

Back 1191

CN VI (abducens)

Front 1192

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: phagocytosis?

Back 1192

Microglia

Front 1193

CN V2 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1193

foramen rotundum

Front 1194

CN III passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1194

superior orbital fissure

Front 1195

Name the thenar muscles

Back 1195

--Opponens pollicis--Abductor pollicis brevis--Flexor pollicis brevis

Front 1196

The fasciculus cuneatus contains fibers from the upper or lower body?

Back 1196

Upper extremities

Front 1197

Where is the Myenteric plexus located?

Back 1197

Between the inner and outer layers of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.

Front 1198

What gut regions and structures does the celiac artery supply?

Back 1198

1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to duodenum --liver --gallbladder --pancreas

Front 1199

The hippocampus has input from what two areas?

Back 1199

Entorhinal cortex and Septal area

Front 1200

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 1200

coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis

Front 1201

What gut regions and structures does the SMA supply?

Back 1201

1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

Front 1202

Name 2 locations for lesions in Syringomyelia?

Back 1202

ventral white commissure and ventral horns

Front 1203

What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?

Back 1203

The perineurium must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment.

Front 1204

What defect may predispose an infant for a diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 1204

Defective development of the pleuroperitoneal membrane

Front 1205

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 1205

Weak intrinsic muscles of the hand and Pope's blessing

Front 1206

What bone do all the foramina of the middle cranial fossa pass through?

Back 1206

sphenoid bone

Front 1207

What is a Argyll Robertson pupil?

Back 1207

the eyes DO NOT constrict to light, but DO accommodate to near objects

Front 1208

What are the major structures of the inner ear membranous labyrinth?

Back 1208

1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3. saccule 4. semicircular canals.

Front 1209

Why does the arm hang by the side in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 1209

paralysis of shoulder abductors

Front 1210

CN IX has what 4 functions?

Back 1210

posterior 1/3 taste, swallowing, salivation (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus

Front 1211

Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?

Back 1211

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

Front 1212

What is the consequence when your CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron and the intrafusal fibers contract?

Back 1212

increased sensitivity of the reflex arc

Front 1213

What structures make up the bronchopulmonary segment?

Back 1213

Tertiary bronchus, Bronchial artery, and Pulmonary artery

Front 1214

The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by what artery?

Back 1214

Right Coronary Artery (RCA)

Front 1215

Name the 4 foramina that are in the posterior cranial fossa?

Back 1215

internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum.

Front 1216

What 3 blood barriers does the body have?

Back 1216

blood-brain, blood-gas, blood-testis

Front 1217

The xiphoid process exists in what dermatome?

Back 1217

T7

Front 1218

What layers of the gut wall contribute to support (3)?

Back 1218

--Serosa--Lamina propria--Submucosa

Front 1219

The Nucleus Ambiguus has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 1219

CN IX, X, XI

Front 1220

What 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen?

Back 1220

CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein

Front 1221

What would happen to temperature regulation if you lesioned your ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus?

Back 1221

have hyperphagia and become obese

Front 1222

The nipple exists in what dermatome?

Back 1222

T4

Front 1223

What lobe of the brain is the frontal eye movement and pupillary change area in?

Back 1223

frontal

Front 1224

The umbilicus exists in what dermatome?

Back 1224

T10

Front 1225

What are the input and output of the anterior nucleus of the thalamus?

Back 1225

input - mammillary body, output - cingulate gyrus

Front 1226

What is the usual pathology below the pectinate line of the rectum?

Back 1226

External hemorrhoids (painful) Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 1227

What layers of the gut wall contribute to motility (4)?

Back 1227

--Muscularis mucosae--Inner circular muscle layer--Myenteric plexus--Outer longitudinal muscle layer

Front 1228

Brodmann's area 4 is?

Back 1228

principal motor area

Front 1229

What are 3 clinical findings of the arm in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 1229

arm hangs by the side, medially rotated, forearm is pronated

Front 1230

What muscle elevates and intorts the eye?

Back 1230

superior rectus

Front 1231

What is the function of Submucosal plexus?

Back 1231

Regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption.

Front 1232

What is the venous drainage difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 1232

--Superior rectal v. to internal mesenteric vein to portal system (Above)--inferior rectal v. to internal pudendal v. to internal iliac v. to IVC (Below)

Front 1233

What reflex is lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 1233

biceps reflex

Front 1234

What structure passes through the foramen rotundum?

Back 1234

CN V2

Front 1235

What 3 structures pass through the foramen magnum?

Back 1235

spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries

Front 1236

What structures are in the carotid sheath?

Back 1236

Internal Jugular Vein (lateral), Common Carotid Artery (medial) and Vagus Nerve (posterior)

Front 1237

What is the arterial blood supply difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 1237

--Superior rectal a. (Above)--inferior rectal a. (Below)

Front 1238

Common peroneal, Tibial, Femoral, and Obturator nerves arise from what spinal cord segments (4 answers)?

Back 1238

--'L4-S2 (common peroneal) --L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4 (femoral) and (obturator)

Front 1239

A lesion of the Striatum can cause which 2 diseases?

Back 1239

Huntington's and Wilson's disease

Front 1240

A lesion of the right optic tract produces?

Back 1240

left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 1241

An aneurysm of what artery may cause CN III palsy?

Back 1241

posterior communicating artery

Front 1242

Which meningeal layer is not pierced during an LP?

Back 1242

Pia mater

Front 1243

Bell's Palsy is seen as a complication in what 5 things?

Back 1243

AIDS, Lyme disease, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander Bell with STD)

Front 1244

Which way does the uvula deviate in a unilateral lesion (LMN) of CN X? (toward or away)

Back 1244

away from the lesion

Front 1245

Brodmann's area 44, 45 is?

Back 1245

Broca's area (motor speech)

Front 1246

Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is?

Back 1246

principal sensory area

Front 1247

Brodmann's area 8 is?

Back 1247

frontal eye movement and pupilary change area

Front 1248

CN IV passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1248

superior orbital fissure

Front 1249

What two bones do all the foramina of the posterior cranial fossa pass through?

Back 1249

temporal and occipital bones

Front 1250

CN III has what 4 functions?

Back 1250

eye movement, pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening

Front 1251

What lobe of the brain is the Broca's area in?

Back 1251

frontal

Front 1252

Brodmann's area 17 is?

Back 1252

principal visual cortex

Front 1253

What 5 types of cells make up the suportive cells of the CNS/PNS?

Back 1253

Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendroglia, Schwann cells, Ependymal cells.

Front 1254

CN VII has what 4 functions?

Back 1254

facial movement, anterior 2/3 taste, lacrimation, salivation(SL, SM glands)

Front 1255

Brodmann's area 41, 42 is?

Back 1255

primary auditory cortex

Front 1256

CN X passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1256

jugular foramen

Front 1257

CN VIII passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1257

internal auditory meatus

Front 1258

What nerve innervates the muscles that close and open the jaw?

Back 1258

Trigeminal Nerve (V3)

Front 1259

CN XII passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1259

hypoglossal canal

Front 1260

What muscle sensor senses tension and provides inhibitory feedback to alpha motor neurons?

Back 1260

golgi tendon organs

Front 1261

What is Endoneurium?

Back 1261

Endoneurium invests single nerve fiber of the peripheral nerve.

Front 1262

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the long thoracic nerve?

Back 1262

Winged scapula

Front 1263

Give 4 characteristics of an UMN lesion.

Back 1263

spastic paralysis, increased deep tendon reflexes, + Babinski, minor to no atrophy

Front 1264

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: physical support, repair, K+ metabolism?

Back 1264

Astrocytes

Front 1265

What structures do the broad ligament contain (4)?

Back 1265

Round ligaments of the uterus, Ovaries, Uterine tubules and Uterine vessels

Front 1266

The Blood-Brain Barrier is formed by what 3 structures?

Back 1266

Choriod Plexus Epithelium, Intracerebral Capillary Endothelium, Astrocytes

Front 1267

Which thalamic nucleus has the function of body senses(proprioception, pressure, pain, touch, vibration)?

Back 1267

Ventral Posterior Lateral Nucleus (VPL)

Front 1268

Which way does the jaw deviate in a unilateral lesion (LMN) of CN V? (toward or away)

Back 1268

toward the lesion

Front 1269

What are the 4 classic findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

Back 1269

ipsi motor paralysis(spastic), ipsi loss of dorsal column, contra loss of spinothalamic, ipsi loss of ALL sensation at the level of the lesion

Front 1270

How does the hypothalamus control the adenohypophysis?

Back 1270

via releasing factors (ie. TRH, CRF, GnRF, etc.)

Front 1271

How does the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve differ from that of the right?

Back 1271

The left wraps around the arch of the aorta and the ligamentum arteriosum while the right wraps around the subclavian artery.

Front 1272

Which thalamic nucleus has the function of facial sensation and pain?

Back 1272

Ventral Posterior Medial Nucleus (VPM)

Front 1273

A lesion of the right optic nerve produces?

Back 1273

right anopsia

Front 1274

What is the course of the ureters?

Back 1274

Pass under uterine artery and under the ductus deferens

Front 1275

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 1275

triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 1276

Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus causes what syndrome?

Back 1276

Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's tip)

Front 1277

The central retinal artery is a branch off what larger artery?

Back 1277

Ophthalmic Artery

Front 1278

What is the innervation difference above and below the pectinate line?

Back 1278

--Visceral innervation (Above)--Somatic innervation (Below)

Front 1279

The fasciculus gracilis contains fibers from the upper or lower body?

Back 1279

Lower extremities

Front 1280

What nerve innervates most of the 'palat' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 1280

All muscles with root 'palat' in their names (except tensor veli palatini, innervated by V2) are innervated by vagus nerve.

Front 1281

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 1281

Claw hand

Front 1282

Name two proteins involved in the structure of zona adherens?

Back 1282

1. E-cadherins 2. actin filaments

Front 1283

Golgi tendon organs send their signal via what nerve?

Back 1283

group Ib afferents

Front 1284

A pudendal nerve block is performed at what landmark?

Back 1284

Ischial spine

Front 1285

What is the function of Myenteric plexus?

Back 1285

Coordinates motility along entire gut wall.

Front 1286

The male sexual response of ejaculation is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 1286

Visceral and somatic nerves

Front 1287

What is the Myenteric plexus also known as?

Back 1287

Auerbach's plexus

Front 1288

Subarachnoid space extends to what spinal level?

Back 1288

S2

Front 1289

What part of the spinal cord is spared with complete occlusion of the ventral artery?

Back 1289

dorsal columns

Front 1290

What structure passes through the foramen ovale?

Back 1290

CN V3

Front 1291

What artery supplies the medial surface of the brain (foot-leg area)?

Back 1291

anterior cerebral artery

Front 1292

What passes through the cavernous sinus? (nerves and artery)

Back 1292

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, post-ganglionic SNS and the Internal carotid artery

Front 1293

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 1293

Wrist drop

Front 1294

Where is the CSF found?

Back 1294

Subarachnoid space

Front 1295

Which way does the tongue deviate in a unilateral lesion (LMN) of CN XII? (toward or away)

Back 1295

toward the lesion

Front 1296

What artery supplies Broca's and Wernicke's speech areas?

Back 1296

middle cerebral artery

Front 1297

What 5 spinal nerves make up the brachial plexus?

Back 1297

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

Front 1298

CN I passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1298

cribriform plate

Front 1299

Which way does the head deviate in a unilateral lesion (LMN) of CN XI? (toward or away)

Back 1299

toward the lesion

Front 1300

What is the pectinate line of the rectum?

Back 1300

Where the hindgut meets ectoderm in the rectum

Front 1301

Where is the lesion in a patient with hemiballismus?

Back 1301

Subthalamic nucleus

Front 1302

Obturator nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 1302

Loss of hip adduction

Front 1303

What are the input and output of the mammillary body?

Back 1303

input - hippocampal formation, output - anterior nucleus of the thalamus

Front 1304

The male sexual response of erection is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 1304

Parasympathetic nervous system

Front 1305

CN II passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1305

optic canal

Front 1306

Which thalamic nucleus has a visual function?

Back 1306

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGB)

Front 1307

What is the name for the small muscle fiber type that regulates muscle length?

Back 1307

Intrafusal fibers

Front 1308

What 2 cutaneus nerves are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 1308

Posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous

Front 1309

What vagal nuclei controls motor innervation to the pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus?

Back 1309

Nucleus Ambiguus (Motor=aMbiguus)

Front 1310

What muscle fiber type makes up the muscle bulk and provides the force for contraction?

Back 1310

Extrafusal fibers

Front 1311

What lobe of the brain is the Wernicke's area in?

Back 1311

temporal

Front 1312

What symptom is seen with a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 1312

decreased thumb function

Front 1313

What muscle extorts, elevates, and adducts the eye?

Back 1313

inferior oblique

Front 1314

A lesion of the right visual fibers just prior to the visual cortex produces?

Back 1314

left hemianopsia with macular sparing

Front 1315

Which ligament contains the uterine vessels?

Back 1315

Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament

Front 1316

From which 3 spinal roots does long thoracic nerve arises?

Back 1316

C5, C6, C7

Front 1317

CN IX passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1317

jugular foramen

Front 1318

Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits, and coma are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 1318

Posterior circle

Front 1319

What is affected in a central VII lesion (lesion above the facial nucleus - UMN)?

Back 1319

paralysis of the contralateral lower quadrant

Front 1320

What 4 areas is there decreased output in Parkinson's?

Back 1320

substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus, ventral anterior nucleus, cortex

Front 1321

Where in the inner ear are the ampullae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 1321

Semicircular canals contain ampullae. Functions in detecting angular acceleration.

Front 1322

General sensory/motor dysfunction and aphasia are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 1322

anterior circle

Front 1323

What symptom is seen with a lesion of the axillary nerve?

Back 1323

Deltoid paralysis

Front 1324

What lesion produces sensory(fluent/receptive) aphasia with poor comprehension?

Back 1324

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 1325

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.

Back 1325

The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Endolymph is K+ rich, similar to ICF.

Front 1326

What is a hiatal hernia?

Back 1326

Stomach contents herniate upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

Front 1327

What 2 spinal roots make up the superior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 1327

C5, C6

Front 1328

Name the type of movement with sudden, jerky, purposeless movements?

Back 1328

Chorea

Front 1329

Give 3 charateristics of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Back 1329

medial rectus palsy on lateral gaze, nystagmus in abducted eye, normal convergence.

Front 1330

What 4 movements are impaired in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 1330

wrist flexion, wrist adduction, thumb adduction, and adduction of the 2 ulnar fingers

Front 1331

Name the type of movement with sudden, wild flailing of one arm?

Back 1331

Hemiballismus

Front 1332

CN XI passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1332

jugular foramen (descending) -- foramen magnum (ascending)

Front 1333

In a lesion of the radial nerve, what muscle is associated with wrist drop?

Back 1333

extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 1334

Name two proteins involved in the structure of macula adherens.

Back 1334

1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin

Front 1335

Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 1335

gamma motor neuron

Front 1336

What type of lesion is seen in Multiple Sclerosis?

Back 1336

random asymmetric lesions in mostly white matter of the cervical region

Front 1337

Who usually gets a direct inguinal hernia? indirect hernia (and why)?

Back 1337

1.Older men 2.Infants (failure of processus vaginalis to close)

Front 1338

If you break your surgical neck of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 1338

axillary nerve

Front 1339

Give 3 characteristics of a LMN lesion.

Back 1339

atrophy, flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes

Front 1340

How are the fibers of the spinothalmic tract laminated? (sacral/cervical medial or lateral?)

Back 1340

cervical-medial, sacral-lateral

Front 1341

If you break your supracondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 1341

median nerve

Front 1342

Brodmann's area 22 is?

Back 1342

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 1343

If you break your humerus mid-shaft, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 1343

radial nerve

Front 1344

What neurons do the GI enteric plexus contain?

Back 1344

Cell bodies of parasympathetic terminal effector neurons

Front 1345

Brodmann's area 6 is?

Back 1345

premotor area

Front 1346

The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?

Back 1346

L1-L2

Front 1347

What lesion produces coma?

Back 1347

reticular activating system

Front 1348

What artery do the lateral striate branch off of?

Back 1348

internal carotid artery

Front 1349

What artery does the anterior spinal artery branch off of?

Back 1349

vertebral artery

Front 1350

What lesion produces personality changes and deficits in concentration, orientation, judgement?

Back 1350

frontal lobe - these are frontal release signs

Front 1351

What 4 movements are lost in a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 1351

forearm pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion, and several thumb movements

Front 1352

Which thalamic nucleus has an auditory function?

Back 1352

Medial Geniculate Nucleus (MGB)

Front 1353

The infraorbital nerve is a branch off what larger nerve?

Back 1353

CN V2

Front 1354

What lesion produces spatial neglect syndrome?

Back 1354

right parietal lobe -- contralateral neglect.

Front 1355

What are the input and output of the entorhinal cortex?

Back 1355

input - cingulate gyrus, output - hippocampal formation

Front 1356

What 5 structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

Back 1356

CN III, IV, V-1, VI, ophthalmic vein

Front 1357

What are the 2 classic causes of Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 1357

blow to the shoulder and trauma during birth

Front 1358

What are the input and output of the cingulate gyrus?

Back 1358

input - anterior nucleus of the thalamus, output - entorhinal cortex

Front 1359

Horner's Syndrome is present if the lesion in Brown-Sequard is above what level?

Back 1359

T1

Front 1360

CN III inervates what 5 muscles.

Back 1360

medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris

Front 1361

What artery does the superior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 1361

basilar artery

Front 1362

What lesion produces Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior)?

Back 1362

Amygdala (bilateral)

Front 1363

An aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery may cause what type of defects?

Back 1363

visual defects

Front 1364

What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans concentrated?

Back 1364

Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of pancreas.

Front 1365

Name five portal-systemic anastomoses.

Back 1365

Left gastric-azygous vv. Superior-Middle/Inferior rectal vv. Paraumbilical-inferior epigastric Retroperitoneal-renal vv. Retroperitoneal-paravertebral vv.

Front 1366

Extrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 1366

alpha motor neuron

Front 1367

What type of lesion is seen in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

Back 1367

combo of UMN and LMN lesions with no sensory deficit

Front 1368

If the radial nerve is lesioned, what 2 reflexes are lost?

Back 1368

triceps reflex and brachioradialis reflex

Front 1369

A lesion of the right Meyer's loop (temporal lobe) produces?

Back 1369

left upper quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)

Front 1370

Beginning with anterior communicating artery describe the path around the circle of Willis.

Back 1370

ant. comm. - ACA - ICA - post. comm. - PCA - PCA - post. comm. - ICA - ACA - ant. comm.

Front 1371

What lobe of the brain is the principal motor area in?

Back 1371

frontal

Front 1372

Where is the Submucosal plexus located?

Back 1372

Between mucosa and inner layer of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.

Front 1373

Abnormal passive abduction of the knee indicates damage to what structure?

Back 1373

Medial collateral ligament(MCL)

Front 1374

What muscle depresses and extorts the eye?

Back 1374

inferior rectus

Front 1375

What happens if a swinging light test is performed on a Marcus Gann pupil (afferent pupil defect)?

Back 1375

results in pupil dialation of the defective eye as the light is swung from the normal eye to the defective eye

Front 1376

What three muscles close the jaw?

Back 1376

Masseter, Temporalis, and Medial pterygoid

Front 1377

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 1377

Saturday night palsy

Front 1378

What is the course of an indirect inguinal hernia?

Back 1378

Through the internal (deep) inguinal ring and the external (superficial) inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and into the scrotum

Front 1379

What structures perforate the diaphragm at what vertebral levels?

Back 1379

IVC at T8, Esophagus and Vagal trunks at T10, and Aorta, Thoracic duct, and Axygous vein at T12 ?I 8 10 Eggs At 12?

Front 1380

What are the input and output of the septal area?

Back 1380

input - hippocampal formation, output - hippocampal formation

Front 1381

What vagal nuclei controls visceral sensory in formation like taste and gut distention?

Back 1381

Nucleus Solitarius (Sensory=Solitarius)

Front 1382

Where is the lesion in Parkinson's?

Back 1382

Substantia nigra pars compacta

Front 1383

What would happen to temperature regulation if you lesioned your posterior hypothalamus?

Back 1383

lose the ability to conserve heat

Front 1384

How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier?

Back 1384

carrier-mediated transport mechanism

Front 1385

CN VI passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1385

superior orbital fissure

Front 1386

Intrafusal fibers are encapsulated and make up muscle spindles that send their signal via what nerve?

Back 1386

group Ia afferents

Front 1387

What CN is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

Back 1387

CN III

Front 1388

What CN arises dorsally?

Back 1388

CN IV trochlear

Front 1389

The male sexual response of emission is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 1389

Sympathetic nervous system

Front 1390

Which thalamic nucleus is the primary motor cortex?

Back 1390

Ventral Lateral Nucleus (VL)

Front 1391

Which CNs pass through the middle cranial fossa?

Back 1391

CN II - VI

Front 1392

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: peripheral myelin production?

Back 1392

Schwann cells

Front 1393

The inguinal ligament exists in what dermatome?

Back 1393

L1

Front 1394

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 1394

Abdominal retroperitoneal structures enter the thorax

Front 1395

The hippocampal formation is connected to the mammillary body and septal area via what structure?

Back 1395

Fornix

Front 1396

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: inner lining of the ventricles?

Back 1396

Ependymal cells

Front 1397

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: central myelin production?

Back 1397

Oligodendroglia

Front 1398

A lesion of the globus pallidus causes what disease?

Back 1398

Wilson's disease

Front 1399

What makes endolymph?

Back 1399

Endolymph is made by the stria vascularis.

Front 1400

CN X has what 5 functions?

Back 1400

taste, swallowing, palate elevation, talking, thoracoabdominal viscera

Front 1401

What CNs lie medially at the brain stem?

Back 1401

CN III, VI, XII (3 - 6 - 12)

Front 1402

What do the medullary cords consist of?

Back 1402

Closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Front 1403

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the biceps reflex?

Back 1403

C5

Front 1404

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the achilles reflex?

Back 1404

S1

Front 1405

What are the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 1405

1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3. semicircular canals

Front 1406

What muscle opens the jaw?

Back 1406

Lateral pterygoid

Front 1407

Which CNs pass through the posterior cranial fossa?

Back 1407

CN VII - XII

Front 1408

Name 3 locations for lesions in Vit.B12 neuropathy(Friedreich's ataxia)?

Back 1408

dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts

Front 1409

What are the 3 layers of peripheral nerves? (inner to outer)

Back 1409

Endoneurium, Perineurium and Epineurium

Front 1410

CN XI has what 2 functions?

Back 1410

head turning, shoulder shrugging

Front 1411

Neurons from the striatum have what action on the globus pallidus?

Back 1411

Inhibitory

Front 1412

Which thalamic nucleus has pre-motor function?

Back 1412

Ventral Anterior Nucleus (VA)

Front 1413

Erection and sensation of the penis is in what dermatomes?

Back 1413

S2-S4

Front 1414

Visual fibers from the lateral geniculate body terminate on the upper and lower banks of what fissure?

Back 1414

Calcarine fissure

Front 1415

What structure is in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath?

Back 1415

The Femoral nerve

Front 1416

What 3 structures pass through the optic canal?

Back 1416

CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein

Front 1417

Neurons from the globus pallidus have what action on the ventral anterior nucleus?

Back 1417

Inhibitory

Front 1418

What lesion produces conduction aphasia, poor repetition w/ poor comprehension, and fluent speech?

Back 1418

Arcuate fasiculus

Front 1419

Name the type of movement with slow writhing movements (esp. the fingers)?

Back 1419

Athetosis

Front 1420

Which part of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound? Which picks up low frequency?

Back 1420

The base of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound the apex picks up low frequency sound

Front 1421

What lobe of the brain is the premotor area in?

Back 1421

frontal

Front 1422

What gut regions and structures does the IMA supply?

Back 1422

1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum

Front 1423

A lesion of the optic chiasm produces?

Back 1423

bitemporal hemianopsia

Front 1424

Name the hypothenar muscles.

Back 1424

--Opponens digiti minimi--Abductor digiti minimi--Flexor digiti minimi

Front 1425

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the triceps reflex?

Back 1425

C7

Front 1426

What 2 spinal roots make up the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 1426

C8, T1

Front 1427

What vagal nuclei sends parasympathetic fibers to the heart, lungs, and upper GI?

Back 1427

dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

Front 1428

What are 2 characteristics of Tabes Dorsalis?

Back 1428

impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia

Front 1429

Name the 5 segments of the brachial plexus in order from proximal to distal.

Back 1429

roots - trunks - divisions - cords - branches

Front 1430

A lesion of the right dorsal optic radiation (parietal lesion) produces?

Back 1430

left lower quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)

Front 1431

What structure passes through the foramen spinosum?

Back 1431

middle meningeal artery

Front 1432

A common football injury caused by clipping from the lateral side will damage what structures (3 answers)?

Back 1432

--Medial collateral ligament--Lateral meniscus--Anterior cruciate ligament

Front 1433

Where in the inner ear are the maculae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 1433

The utricle and saccule contain maculae Functions in detecting linear acceleration.

Front 1434

A lesion of the mammillary bodies (bilateraly) produces what?

Back 1434

Wernicke-Korsakoff's encephalopathy (confabulations, anterograde amnesia)

Front 1435

What is the function of hair cells?

Back 1435

Hair cells are the sensory elements in both the cochlear and vestibular apparatus.

Front 1436

The hippocampus has output to what two areas?

Back 1436

Mammillary body and Septal area

Front 1437

What type of lesion is seen in Werdnig-Hoffmann disease and is it genetic or acquired?

Back 1437

genetic LMN lesion causing flaccid paralysis (aka. Floppy infant disease)

Front 1438

The embryologic defect of having a cervical rib can compress what 2 structures?

Back 1438

Subclavian artery and Inferior trunk of the brachial plexus

Front 1439

The kneecaps exist in what dermatome?

Back 1439

L4

Front 1440

Name the 4 ligaments of the uterus.

Back 1440

--Suspensory ligament of ovaries--Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament--Round ligament of Uterus--Broad ligament

Front 1441

The Nucleus Solitarius has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 1441

CN VII, IX, X

Front 1442

What lobe of the brain is the principal visual cortex area in?

Back 1442

occipital

Front 1443

What is Epineurium?

Back 1443

Epineurium (dense connective tissue) surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels)

Front 1444

What is the bony labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.

Back 1444

The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph. Perilymph is Na+ rich, similar to ECF

Front 1445

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the musculocutaneus nerve?

Back 1445

Difficulty flexing the arm and Variable sensory loss

Front 1446

Describe the outer structure of a Peyer's patch.

Back 1446

A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by single layer of cuboidal enterocytes, interspersed with specialized M cells (no goblet cells).

Front 1447

What muscle intorts, depresses, and abducts the eye?

Back 1447

superior oblique

Front 1448

A lumbar puncture is performed at what landmark?

Back 1448

Iliac crest

Front 1449

The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from what cranial nerve and supplies what muscles?

Back 1449

1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.

Front 1450

What spinal cord levels are vertebral disk herniation most likely to occur?

Back 1450

Between L5 and S1

Front 1451

What artery does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 1451

basilar artery

Front 1452

What artery does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 1452

vertebral artery

Front 1453

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the patella reflex?

Back 1453

L4

Front 1454

CN V1 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1454

superior orbital fissure

Front 1455

What 4 'muscles' does the radial nerve innervate?

Back 1455

Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)

Front 1456

What nerve innervates most of the 'glossus' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 1456

All muscles with root 'glossus' in their names (except palatoglossus, innervated by vagus nerve) are innervated by hypoglossal nerve.

Front 1457

What muscular disorder is a medial longitudinal fasciculus syndrome associated with?

Back 1457

Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS)

Front 1458

Femoral nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 1458

Loss of knee jerk

Front 1459

Name the 5 foramina that are in the middle cranial fossa?

Back 1459

optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum.

Front 1460

What structures are pierced when doing an LP?

Back 1460

1.Skin/superficial fascia 2.Ligaments 3.Epidural space 4.Dura mater 5.Subdural space 6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid space--CSF

Front 1461

How are the fibers of the corticospinal tract laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)

Back 1461

arms- medial, legs-lateral

Front 1462

CN V3 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 1462

foramen ovale

Front 1463

What 4 things do the lateral striate arteries supply?

Back 1463

internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus

Front 1464

Why is the forearm pronated in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 1464

loss of the biceps brachii

Front 1465

What is the most common circle of Willis aneurysm?

Back 1465

anterior communicating artery

Front 1466

What kind of placenta do Siamese twins have?

Back 1466

Monochorionic Monoamniotic planceta

Front 1467

What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?

Back 1467

Hydrolytic enzymes, Lysozyme, Myeloperoxidase, Lactoferrin

Front 1468

Which malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

Back 1468

P. malariae

Front 1469

What is the most common malaria?

Back 1469

Vivax

Front 1470

Which malaria is the most lethal?

Back 1470

Falciparum

Front 1471

What are 4 characteristics of the plasma cell morphology?

Back 1471

Off center nucleus, Clock face chromatin distribution, Abundant RER, and Well developed Golgi apparatus

Front 1472

What is the histologic change in lymph nodes during an extreme cellular immune response?

Back 1472

Lymph node paracortex becomes enlarged during extreme cellular immune response.

Front 1473

What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)

Back 1473

Maturation in the marrow and Migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue

Front 1474

What is the function of lymph node follicles?

Back 1474

Site of B-cell localization and proliferation.

Front 1475

What is percentage of leukocytes in the blood exist as basophils?

Back 1475

less than 1%

Front 1476

What specialized vascular structure is found in the lymph node paracortex? What is the function of this structure?

Back 1476

Paracortex contains high endothelial venules (HEV). T and B cells enter from the blood through the HEV.

Front 1477

What drug do you use for resistant falciparum?

Back 1477

Mefloquine

Front 1478

What does CD stand for?

Back 1478

cluster of differentiation

Front 1479

What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?

Back 1479

Large, Kidney-shaped nucleus and Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm

Front 1480

In what area of the spleen are T cells found?

Back 1480

T cells are found in the PALS and the red pulp of the spleen.

Front 1481

What are 4 morphologic characteristics of lymphocytes?

Back 1481

Round, Small, Densely staining nucleus, and Small amount of pale cytoplasm

Front 1482

What is the histologic presentation of DiGeorge's syndrome?

Back 1482

Lymph node paracortex is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome.

Front 1483

What are the components of the air-blood barrier?

Back 1483

Type I pneumocyte, Endothelial cell, and Their fused basement membrane.

Front 1484

What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?

Back 1484

40 - 75%

Front 1485

What leukemia has gum infiltration?

Back 1485

Acute Monocytic Leukemia (M5)

Front 1486

What is the age distribution of all leukemias?

Back 1486

ALL (0-14) AML (15-39) AML (40-60) CML (40-60) CLL (>60 years old)

Front 1487

What are the substances contained within the densely basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)

Back 1487

-Heparin (anticoagulant)-histamine (vasodilator)-vasoactive amines-Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis

Front 1488

How do you treat falciparum malaria infection?

Back 1488

IV quinidine or quinine plus doxycycline

Front 1489

What are two important functions of a neutrophil?

Back 1489

Acute inflammmatory response of a cell and Phagocytosis

Front 1490

What kind of cells are found nearby the sinusoids of the spleen?

Back 1490

Macrophages

Front 1491

What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?

Back 1491

-multilobed nucleus-large,spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)

Front 1492

What do medullary sinuses consist of?

Back 1492

Medullary sinuses contain reticular cells and macrophages.

Front 1493

What cells are found in the lymph node paracortex?

Back 1493

Paracortex houses T cells.

Front 1494

What are the major structures of the lymph node medulla?

Back 1494

Medulla consists of medullary cords and medullary sinuses.

Front 1495

What are two names for an increased number of red cells?

Back 1495

Erythrocytosis and Polycythemia

Front 1496

Gout or Pseudogout? How do you tell?

Back 1496

Positively Birefringement (Blue color) Pseudogout; Negatively Birefringement (Yellow color) Gout

Front 1497

What is the basic morphologic structure of an erythrocyte?

Back 1497

Anucleate, biconcave

Front 1498

What do medullary sinuses communicate with?

Back 1498

Medullary sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics.

Front 1499

Describe the histologic structure of sinusoids of the spleen.

Back 1499

Long, vascular channels in red pulp. With fenestrated 'barrel hoop' basement membrane.

Front 1500

What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?

Back 1500

Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination.

Front 1501

What is the frequency of acute leukemias?

Back 1501

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2) 30-40% Acute Promyelocytic (M3) 5-10%, Acute Monocytic (M5) 10%

Front 1502

What is the treatment for all malarias except falciparum?

Back 1502

Chloroquine plus primaquine

Front 1503

What is the prophylaxis treatment for malaria?

Back 1503

Chloroquine

Front 1504

What percentage of leukocytes exist as eosinophils in the blood?

Back 1504

1 - 6%

Front 1505

What is the basic morphology of an eosinophil? (2 things)

Back 1505

Bilobate nucleus and Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size

Front 1506

Describe the location of the lymph node paracortex.

Back 1506

Region of cortex between follicles and medulla.

Front 1507

What leukemia is associated with ABL protooncogene?

Back 1507

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

Front 1508

What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?

Back 1508

2 - 10%

Front 1509

What does the African variant involve? (Burkitt's)

Back 1509

Jaw

Front 1510

What does the American variant involve? (Burkitt's)

Back 1510

GI, ovaries and retroperitoneum

Front 1511

What do you see in Burkitt's?

Back 1511

Starry Sky Apparence

Front 1512

What is the Starry Sky?

Back 1512

macrophages w/ phagocytosed apoptotic bodies

Front 1513

What are the characteristic cells in Hodgkin's Lymjphoma?

Back 1513

association w/ EBV; cutaneous anergy to common antigens

Front 1514

What are the cells of Hogkin's L. called?

Back 1514

Reed-Sternberg Cells

Front 1515

What are Reed-Sternberg Cells?

Back 1515

transformed germinal center B cells

Front 1516

What CD maker's do you use to detect RS cells?

Back 1516

CD15 and CD30; you got to be able to REED by 15 and 30

Front 1517

What does a classic RS cell look like?

Back 1517

two mirror image nuclei w/ eosinophilic nucleolus surrounded by a clear halo

Front 1518

What is elevated in vWF disease?

Back 1518

Elevated Bleeding Time (platelet adh. Problem) aPTT increased

Front 1519

What is elevated on hemophilia A?

Back 1519

VIII deficient aPTT increased (intrinsic pathway)

Front 1520

What is elevated in a person taking aspirin?

Back 1520

Bleeding Time elevated

Front 1521

What is elevated in Idiopathic Thrombocytogenic Purpura? Decreased?

Back 1521

Bleeding Time increased platelets decreased

Front 1522

What are two other diseases that has Bleed Time increased and decreased platelets?

Back 1522

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura , Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

Front 1523

What factor involved in extrinsic pathway?

Back 1523

VII

Front 1524

What factor involved in intrinsic pathway?

Back 1524

XII, XI, IX, VIII

Front 1525

What is the best test for vWF diases?

Back 1525

ristocetin cofactor assay

Front 1526

What anti bodies does blood group O have?

Back 1526

anti A-IgM, anti B-IgM, anti AB- IgG

Front 1527

What anti bodies have blood A?

Back 1527

anti B

Front 1528

What does group B has?

Back 1528

anti A-IgM

Front 1529

What does group AB has?

Back 1529

nothing, just like new borns and old people

Front 1530

What blood group has greatest incidence of gastric carcinoma?

Back 1530

group A

Front 1531

What is associated w/ duodenal ulcer?

Back 1531

group O blood

Front 1532

Who is the universal donor?

Back 1532

Group O

Front 1533

Who is the universal acceptor?

Back 1533

AB no antibodies to attack those cells

Front 1534

What Protoconcogene (POC) is associated w/ osteogenic sarcoma?

Back 1534

SIS

Front 1535

What POC is associated w/ Leukemia?

Back 1535

RAS

Front 1536

What POC is associated w/ Breast CA?

Back 1536

ERB-B2

Front 1537

What POC is associated w/ Astrocytoma?

Back 1537

SIS

Front 1538

What POC is associated w/ Neuroblastoma?

Back 1538

N-MYC

Front 1539

What POC is associated w/ lung CA?

Back 1539

RAS

Front 1540

What POC is associated w/ CML?

Back 1540

ABL

Front 1541

What POC is associated w/ Burkitt's Lymphoma?

Back 1541

C-MYC, MYC

Front 1542

What POC is associated w/ colon CA?

Back 1542

RAS

Front 1543

What POC is associated w/ MEN IIa/IIb Syndromes?

Back 1543

RET

Front 1544

What POC is associated w/ pancreatic CA?

Back 1544

RAS

Front 1545

What function does SIS have?

Back 1545

GF synthesis, (Growth Factor)

Front 1546

What fx does ERB-B2 has?

Back 1546

Receptor Synthesis

Front 1547

What fx does ABL has?

Back 1547

Non-receptor TK activity

Front 1548

What fx does RET have?

Back 1548

Receptor Synthesis

Front 1549

What fx does MYC have?

Back 1549

Nuclear Transcription

Front 1550

What fx does N-MYC have?

Back 1550

Nuclear transcription

Front 1551

What fx does RAS has?

Back 1551

GTP signal transduction

Front 1552

What two POC have the same function of Receptor Synthesis?

Back 1552

ERB-B2 and RET

Front 1553

What two POC have the same fx of nuclear transcription?

Back 1553

c-MYC and N-MYC

Front 1554

What does SIS activate by?

Back 1554

Overexpression

Front 1555

What does ERB-B2 activate by?

Back 1555

Amplification

Front 1556

What does RET Activate by?

Back 1556

Point Mutation

Front 1557

What does RAS activate by?

Back 1557

Point Mutation

Front 1558

What does ABL activate by?

Back 1558

translocation t(9;22)

Front 1559

What does MYC activate by?

Back 1559

c-MYC translocation t(8;14)

Front 1560

What does N-MYC activate by?

Back 1560

Amplification

Front 1561

What two POC amplify by?

Back 1561

ERB-B2 and N-MYC

Front 1562

What two POC activate by point mutation?

Back 1562

RET and RAS

Front 1563

What two POC activate by translocation?

Back 1563

ABL and c-MYC

Front 1564

What virus is associated w/ SIS POC and w/ Osteogenic Sarcoma?

Back 1564

EBV

Front 1565

What POC amplifies breasts??? imagine that...

Back 1565

ERB-B2

Front 1566

What are the inactivation of suppressor genes?

Back 1566

TP53, RB, APC and BRCA1/2

Front 1567

What suppressor gene (SG) is associated w/ lung, colon, breast and Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

Back 1567

TP53

Front 1568

What SG is associated w/ breast, ovary and prostate CA?

Back 1568

BRCA 1, BRCA 2

Front 1569

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

Back 1569

APC

Front 1570

What suppressor gene is associated w/ retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma and breast CA?

Back 1570

RB

Front 1571

What is the function of TP53?

Back 1571

G1 to S phase inhibitor

Front 1572

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

Back 1572

Regulates DNA repair

Front 1573

What is the APC gene function?

Back 1573

Prevents nuclear transcription, - degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

Front 1574

What is the function of RB gene?

Back 1574

G1 to S phase inhibitor

Front 1575

What are the genes of anti-apoptosis?

Back 1575

BCL-2 genes

Front 1576

What is the function of BCL-2 genes?

Back 1576

prevents the leakage of cytochrome c (signal for apoptosis)

Front 1577

What disease is associated with BCL-2?

Back 1577

b-cell lymphoma, Follicular Lymphoma t14;18

Front 1578

What is another disease that involves TP53?

Back 1578

Ataxia Telangiectasia, susceptibility to malignant lymphoma

Front 1579

What virus is associated w/ TP53?

Back 1579

HBV and HTLV-1(T cell leukemia and lymphoma), HPV 16,18 HPV16 inhibits TP53, RB inhibited by HPV 18

Front 1580

What CA manifests w/ ADH increase? What do you find clinically?

Back 1580

SCC of lung, Hyponatremia

Front 1581

What carcinogen is implicated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma, SCC of oropharynx and upper/mid esophagus?

Back 1581

Alcohol

Front 1582

What carcinogen is implicated with stomach AdenoCA?

Back 1582

nitrosamines and nitrosamides

Front 1583

What carcinogen is implicated with colorectal cancer?

Back 1583

Lithocholic acid and Secondary bile acid

Front 1584

What carcinogen is implicated with Lung CA? (4)

Back 1584

Uranium, Asbestos, Chromium, and Nickel

Front 1585

What carcinogen is implicated with pleural mesothelioma?

Back 1585

Asbestos

Front 1586

What carcinogen is implicated with breast cancer and cervical cancer?

Back 1586

Oral Contraceptives

Front 1587

What carcinogen is implicated with SCC of skin, lung CA, liver angiosacroma?

Back 1587

Arsenic

Front 1588

What carcinogen is implicated with TCC of bladder? (2)

Back 1588

cyclophosphamide and b-naphthylamine (dye and rubber indus.)

Front 1589

What carcinogen is implicated with acute leukemia?

Back 1589

benzene

Front 1590

What carcinogen is implicated with SCC of penis?

Back 1590

Smegma in uncircumcised male

Front 1591

What carcinogen is implicated with SCC of scrotum?

Back 1591

tar, soot, oil (chimney sweeper)

Front 1592

What carcinogen is implicated with malignant lymphoma?

Back 1592

Alkylating agents

Front 1593

What is the most common risk factor for BCC, SCC, melanoma?

Back 1593

UVB light

Front 1594

What is the most common risk factor for Kaposi's Sacroma?

Back 1594

HHV-8

Front 1595

What is the most common risk factor for Nasopharyngela CA?

Back 1595

EBV

Front 1596

What is the most common risk factor for larynx CA?

Back 1596

polycyclic HOC (hydrocarbons)

Front 1597

What is the most common risk factor for distal esophagus?

Back 1597

barret's disease

Front 1598

What is the most common risk factor for Stomach AdenoCA?

Back 1598

Helicobacter pylori

Front 1599

What is the most common risk factor for Colon adenoCA?

Back 1599

preexisting polyps and tubular and villous adenoma

Front 1600

What is the most common risk factor for pancreas?

Back 1600

polycyclic HOC

Front 1601

What is the most common risk factor for hepatocellular CA?

Back 1601

HBV or HCV cirrhosis

Front 1602

What is the most common risk factor for seminoma?

Back 1602

cryptorchid testis, semi-descended testis, and seminoma

Front 1603

What is the most common risk factor for breast CA?

Back 1603

Age >50, excess estrogen: 1) nulliparity 2) early menarche 3) late menopause 4) obesity

Front 1604

What is the most common risk factor for dysgerminoma/gonadoblastoma?

Back 1604

Turner Sx XO dysgerminoma XO/XY gonadoblastoma

Front 1605

What is the most common risk factor for surface derived ovarian CA?

Back 1605

nulliparity because of increase of ovulatory cycles

Front 1606

What is the most common risk factor for choriocarcinoma?

Back 1606

Complete Hydatidiform Mole

Front 1607

What is the most common risk factor for Malignant lymphoma thyroid?

Back 1607

Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

Front 1608

What is the most common risk factor for papillary CA of thyroid?

Back 1608

Ionization Radiation

Front 1609

What is the most common risk factor for medullary CA thyroid?

Back 1609

MEN IIa/IIb

Front 1610

What is the most common risk factor for osteogenic sarcoma?

Back 1610

retinoblastoma radiation

Front 1611

What is the most common risk factor for Primary CNS lymphoma?

Back 1611

EBV in AIDS pat.

Front 1612

What is the most common risk factor for Burkitt's Lymphoma?

Back 1612

EBV

Front 1613

What activates the alternative complement pathway?

Back 1613

Microbe surface molecules (especially endotoxin)

Front 1614

What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?

Back 1614

Cromolyn sodium

Front 1615

What is the primary function of a basophil?

Back 1615

Mediates allergic reactions

Front 1616

What activates the classic complement pathway?

Back 1616

IgG and IgM GM makes classic cars

Front 1617

What releases Interferon gamma

Back 1617

Th1 cells (emphasized) and NK cells

Front 1618

What are released from the process of degranulation in mast cells?

Back 1618

Release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

Front 1619

What is the most abundant type of Ig?

Back 1619

IgG

Front 1620

Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How are receptors that recognize pathogens encoded?

Back 1620

Innate: Germline encoded Adaptive: Undergo VDJ recombination during development

Front 1621

What is the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation?

Back 1621

Neutrophil

Front 1622

What cell contains myeloperoxidase and lysozyme?

Back 1622

Neutrophil

Front 1623

What percentage of T cells which enter thymus survive?

Back 1623

2%

Front 1624

What is MHC and what codes for it?

Back 1624

Major Histocompatability Complex encoded by Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

Front 1625

What is an M cell? What is it's function.

Back 1625

Specialized cell interspersed between the cuboidal enterocytes covering a Peyer's patch. M cells take up antigens.

Front 1626

Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.

Back 1626

histamine and arylsulfatase

Front 1627

Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How fast is response to pathogens?

Back 1627

Innate: Always fast, no memory response. Adaptive: Slow on 1st exposure but memory response is faster and more robust.

Front 1628

What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

Back 1628

Right arm and right half of head

Front 1629

What is a Peyer's patch?

Back 1629

Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine.

Front 1630

What does the thoracic duct drain?

Back 1630

Everything except for the right arm and the right half of head

Front 1631

What cell is the major mediator of the allergic response?

Back 1631

Basophil

Front 1632

What are 3 examples of peripheral lymphoid tissue?

Back 1632

Follicles of lymph nodes, White pulp of spleen, and Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue

Front 1633

What are the two types of helper T cells and where do they differentiate?

Back 1633

In the lymph node, helper T cells differentiate into Th1 cells, and Th2 cells.

Front 1634

What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?

Back 1634

Cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) , Helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) , Suppressor T cells , Delayed hypersensitivity T cells

Front 1635

What releases Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha

Back 1635

Macrophages (emphasized) and Th1 cells

Front 1636

What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?

Back 1636

high degree of phagocytosis

Front 1637

What is negative selection of T cells?

Back 1637

Destruction of T-cells that react to self-antigen

Front 1638

What substance in eosinophilic granules is mainly responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan?

Back 1638

Major Basic Protein

Front 1639

What is the function of Interferon gamma with relation to macrophages?

Back 1639

Macrophage activation

Front 1640

Where do positive and negative selection of T-cells occur in the thymus?

Back 1640

At the corticomedullary junction

Front 1641

MHC I and II: Where in the cell is antigen loaded onto the MHC?

Back 1641

I: RER (mostly intracellular peptides) II: Acidified endosome

Front 1642

What is positive selection of T cells?

Back 1642

Retention of T cells that have functioning T cell receptors

Front 1643

Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?

Back 1643

macrophages

Front 1644

What is the type of cell necessary for transplant rejection?

Back 1644

T cell

Front 1645

What releases Interleukin 2?

Back 1645

Th Cells

Front 1646

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasma Membrane

Back 1646

Function: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes Chemical composition: Lipoprotein bilayer

Front 1647

Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Back 1647

Thayer-Martin media

Front 1648

What is the function of IgA proteases?

Back 1648

Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces

Front 1649

Which heat-stable lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria?

Back 1649

Endotoxin

Front 1650

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Capsule

Back 1650

Function: Protects against phagocytosis Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate)

Front 1651

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Cell Wall/Cell Membrane

Back 1651

Gram positives only Function: Major surface antigen Chemical composition: Teichoic acid, which induces TNF and IL-1

Front 1652

What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of?

Back 1652

D-glutamate

Front 1653

What is the mechanism of superantigens?

Back 1653

1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor 2. Large numbers of T cells are activated. 3. Stimulates release of IFN-gamma and IL-2

Front 1654

Which molecule, unique to the bacterial cell wall, provides rigid support and resistance against osmotic pressure?

Back 1654

Peptidoglycan

Front 1655

Which cell membrane structure is unique to gram-positive organisms?

Back 1655

Teichoic acid

Front 1656

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Peptidoglycan

Back 1656

Function: Rigid support and Protects against osmotic pressure Chemical composition: Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains

Front 1657

List of bugs that release superantigens

Back 1657

1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 1658

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasmid

Back 1658

Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins Chemical composition: DNA

Front 1659

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Spore

Back 1659

Function: Provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid

Front 1660

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Flagellium

Back 1660

Function: Motility Chemical composition: Protein

Front 1661

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Glycocalyx

Back 1661

Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters) Chemical composition: Polysaccharide

Front 1662

Which bacteria have IgA proteases?

Back 1662

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Neisseria gonorrheae 4. Hemophilus influenzae

Front 1663

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema

Back 1663

Too thin to be visualized

Front 1664

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia

Back 1664

Intracellular parasite

Front 1665

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria

Back 1665

high-lipid-content cell wall

Front 1666

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma

Back 1666

No cell wall

Front 1667

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila

Back 1667

Primarily intracellular

Front 1668

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia

Back 1668

Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall

Front 1669

How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema

Back 1669

1. Darkfield microscopy 2. Fluorescent antibody staining 3. silver stain

Front 1670

What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani

Back 1670

Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes ""lockjaw""

Front 1671

What to know about exotoxins released by Bacillus anthracis

Back 1671

1 toxin in the toxin complex is edema factor, an adenylate cyclase

Front 1672

What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella

Back 1672

Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7). Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Front 1673

Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found?

Back 1673

Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. Heat stable.

Front 1674

Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they release?

Back 1674

1. Macrophages (IL-1, TNF, Nitric oxide) 2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a, C5a) 3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade)

Front 1675

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages, and what do they do?

Back 1675

1. IL-1: Fever 2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis 3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock)

Front 1676

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade, and what do they do?

Back 1676

1. C3a: Hypotension and edema 2. C5a: Neutrophil chemotaxis

Front 1677

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor, and what do they do?

Back 1677

Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

Front 1678

What method is used to differentiate Neisseria?

Back 1678

Sugar fermentation

Front 1679

What do meningococci ferment?

Back 1679

MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose

Front 1680

What do gonococci ferment?

Back 1680

Gonococci ferments Glucose

Front 1681

What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce?

Back 1681

Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment; Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment; Serratia marcescens: red pigment

Front 1682

Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus influenzae

Back 1682

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)

Front 1683

Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Back 1683

Thayer-Martin media

Front 1684

Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis

Back 1684

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

Front 1685

Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis

Back 1685

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Front 1686

Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

Back 1686

Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar

Front 1687

Special culture requirements for: Legionella

Back 1687

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine

Front 1688

Special culture requirements for: Fungi

Back 1688

Sabouraud's agar

Front 1689

What microbes can be stained with: Congo red

Back 1689

Amyloid. Apple-green birefringence in polarized light (because of beta-pleated sheets)

Front 1690

What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's

Back 1690

1. Borrelia 2. Plasmodium 3. Trypanosomes 4. Chlamydia

Front 1691

What microbes can be stained with: periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)

Back 1691

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose Whipple's disease

Front 1692

What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen

Back 1692

Acid-fast bacteria.

Front 1693

What microbes can be stained with: India ink

Back 1693

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 1694

What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain

Back 1694

1. Fungi 2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia) 3. Legionella 4. Treponema

Front 1695

Name 4 lysogenic toxins.

Back 1695

BCDE 1. Botulinum 2. Cholera 3. Diphtheria 4. Erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes

Front 1696

List four obligate aerobes.

Back 1696

Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus

Front 1697

What conditions occur concurrently with P. Aeruginosa infection?

Back 1697

1. Burn wounds 2. Nosocomial pneumonia 3. Pneumonias in Cystic Fibrosis patients

Front 1698

List 3 obligate anaerobes

Back 1698

Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces

Front 1699

What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?

Back 1699

Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase) AND/OR Superoxide dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2)

Front 1700

Why are anaerobes foul-smelling?

Back 1700

They produce short-chain fatty acids.

Front 1701

What do anaerobes produce in tissue?

Back 1701

CO2 and H2 gases

Front 1702

Where are anaerobes normal flora?

Back 1702

1. GI tract 2. Between teeth and gums

Front 1703

List the obligate intracellular bacteria.

Back 1703

Rickettsia and Chlamydia.

Front 1704

What is the defining characteristic of obligate intracellular bacteria.

Back 1704

Can't make their own ATP.

Front 1705

List the facultative intracellular bacteria.

Back 1705

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

Front 1706

List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria

Back 1706

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype) 3. Neisseria meningitidis 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 1707

What does a positive quellung reaction indicate?

Back 1707

Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present, capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added.

Front 1708

In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an antigen?

Back 1708

Pneumovax, H influenzae B, Meningococcal vaccines

Front 1709

What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen?

Back 1709

Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce.

Front 1710

Which bacteria form spores?

Back 1710

Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani)

Front 1711

How can one destroy spores?

Back 1711

Autoclave (as is done to surgical equipment)

Front 1712

Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic?

Back 1712

Streptococcus (all catalase-negative)

Front 1713

Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?

Back 1713

Rods: Listeria monocytogenes Cocci:If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus, If catalase negative, Streptococcus.

Front 1714

What are the important points about Listeria monocytogenes?

Back 1714

1. Tumbling motility 2. Meningitis in newborns 3. Unpasteurized milk

Front 1715

Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which are catalase negative?

Back 1715

Positive: Staph Negative: Strep

Front 1716

Gram positive: Which are catalase positive bacteria make coagulase?

Back 1716

Staph aureus does. Staph epidermidis and saprophyticus do not.

Front 1717

Which antibody enhances host defenses against Streptococcus Pyogenes?

Back 1717

Antibody to M protein

Front 1718

Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against what?

Back 1718

Streptococcus Pyogenes

Front 1719

What does ASO titer detect?

Back 1719

Recent S. Pyogenes infection

Front 1720

How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection?

Back 1720

ASO titer

Front 1721

What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever?

Back 1721

1. Subcutaneous nodules 2. Polyarthritis 3. Erythema marginatum 4. Chorea 5. Carditis (bacterial endocarditis)

Front 1722

What drug resistances do the enterococci show?

Back 1722

1. Penicillin G 2. Ampicillin 3. Vancomycin

Front 1723

What is Lancefield grouping determined by?

Back 1723

Differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall

Front 1724

Which Group D bacteria are hardier?

Back 1724

Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in 6.5% NaCl

Front 1725

A colony of bacteria grows in 6.5% NaCl. What is it?

Back 1725

Enterococcus

Front 1726

What disease states/problems does Staphylococcus epidermidis cause?

Back 1726

Infection of prosthetic devices and catheters. Contaminates blood cultures.

Front 1727

How is Streptococcus Viridans characterized?

Back 1727

1. Alpha hemolysis 2. Optochin resistant 3. Normal mouth flora

Front 1728

Where is Strep. Viridans part of the normal flora?

Back 1728

Oropharynx

Front 1729

What disease states/problems does Streptococcus Viridans cause?

Back 1729

1. Dental caries (Streptococcus mutans) 2. Subacute Bacterial endocarditis (Streptococcus Sanguis)

Front 1730

How are clostridia characterized?

Back 1730

1. Gram positive rods 2. Spore forming 3. Obligate anaerobes

Front 1731

What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause?

Back 1731

pseudomembranous colitis secondary to clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes Diarrhea)

Front 1732

Treatment for C. difficile infection

Back 1732

Metronidazole

Front 1733

Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

Back 1733

Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules, grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)

Front 1734

How is Bacillus anthracis characterized?

Back 1734

1. Gram positive rod 2. Spore forming 3. Protein capsule

Front 1735

Which bacteria have a protein capsule?

Back 1735

Bacillus anthracis (the only one)

Front 1736

What are the mechanisms of anthrax infection?

Back 1736

1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis 2. Formation of malignant pustule (painless ulcer) 3. Progression to bacteremia 4. Death

Front 1737

What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.

Back 1737

Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis

Front 1738

What do skin lesions in anthrax look like?

Back 1738

Vesicular papules covered by black eschar

Front 1739

What is Woolsorter's disease

Back 1739

Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores from contaminated wool

Front 1740

What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi

Back 1740

Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides

Front 1741

What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts

Back 1741

Actinomyces israelii

Front 1742

What disease state does Actinomyces israelii cause?

Back 1742

Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin through sinus tracts

Front 1743

How is Actinomyces israelii characterised?

Back 1743

Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this description)

Front 1744

How is Nocardia asteroides characterized?

Back 1744

Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description)

Front 1745

What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause?

Back 1745

Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients

Front 1746

What is the treatment for Actinomyces israelii?

Back 1746

Penicillin

Front 1747

What is the treatment for Nocardia Asteroides?

Back 1747

Sulfonamides

Front 1748

What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils?

Back 1748

Neisseria

Front 1749

Gonococcus and meningococcus: Polysaccharide capsule

Back 1749

G: No M: Yes

Front 1750

Gonococcus and meningococcus: Maltose fermentation

Back 1750

G: No (Gonococcus ferments Glucose) M: Yes (MeninGococcus ferments Maltose and Glucose)

Front 1751

Gonococcus and meningococcus: Vaccine availability

Back 1751

G: No M: Yes

Front 1752

What disease states does Gonococcus cause?

Back 1752

1. Gonorrhea 2. septic arthritis 3. neonatal conjunctivitis 4. PID

Front 1753

What disease states does Meningococcus cause?

Back 1753

1. Meningococcemia 2. Meningitis 3. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Front 1754

What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae cause?

Back 1754

1. Epiglottitis 2. Meningitis 3. Otitis media 4. Pneumonia

Front 1755

How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized?

Back 1755

Small gram-negative coccoid rod.

Front 1756

How is Haemophilus Influenzae transmitted?

Back 1756

Aerosol

Front 1757

Which type of Haemophilus Influenzae is most pathogenic?

Back 1757

capsular type B

Front 1758

Treatment for Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis

Back 1758

Ceftriaxone

Front 1759

Prophylaxis for Hemophilus Influenzae

Back 1759

Vaccine:Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid. Given between 2 and 18 months of age. Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin

Front 1760

What disease states does Klebsiella cause?

Back 1760

1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae) 2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies)

Front 1761

Signs and symptoms of Klebsiella infection

Back 1761

1. Red currant jelly sputum 2. Abscess in lungs

Front 1762

Orange sputum: What bugs?

Back 1762

1. Pneumococcus 2. Klebsiella (or described as ""red currant jelly sputum"")

Front 1763

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Lactose fermenter?

Back 1763

Neither

Front 1764

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile

Back 1764

Both (Though, the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.) Can invade and disseminate hematogenously.

Front 1765

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Animal reservoir

Back 1765

Salmonella: Yes Shigella: No

Front 1766

Shigella transmission

Back 1766

4 Fs:1. Food 2. Fingers 3. Feces 4. Flies

Front 1767

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Virulence

Back 1767

Salmonella: 100,000 organisms Shigella: 10 organisms

Front 1768

True or False: Salmonellosis symptoms may be prolonged with antibiotic treatments

Back 1768

TRUE

Front 1769

What type of inflammatory response is seen in Salmonellosis?

Back 1769

Monocytes

Front 1770

Transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica

Back 1770

1. Pet feces (eg puppies) 2. Contaminated milk or pork

Front 1771

Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation

Back 1771

1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers 2. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis

Front 1772

What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood

Back 1772

Vibrio: 1. parahaemolyticus 2. vulnificus

Front 1773

What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated rice

Back 1773

Bacillus cereus

Front 1774

What bug causes contamination of this food: Mayonnaise

Back 1774

Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)

Front 1775

What bug causes contamination of this food: Custard

Back 1775

Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)

Front 1776

What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated meat

Back 1776

Clostridium perfringens

Front 1777

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Back 1777

Either bloody or watery

Front 1778

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter

Back 1778

Bloody

Front 1779

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella

Back 1779

Bloody

Front 1780

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Shigella

Back 1780

Bloody

Front 1781

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

Back 1781

Bloody

Front 1782

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enteroinvasive E. coli

Back 1782

Bloody

Front 1783

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica

Back 1783

Bloody

Front 1784

Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile

Back 1784

Bloody

Front 1785

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1785

Bloody

Front 1786

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli

Back 1786

Watery

Front 1787

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio cholerae

Back 1787

Watery

Front 1788

Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens

Back 1788

Watery

Front 1789

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa

Back 1789

Watery

Front 1790

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Viruses

Back 1790

Watery

Front 1791

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius

Back 1791

Campylobacter

Front 1792

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile, lactose negative gram negative bugs

Back 1792

Salmonella or Shigella

Front 1793

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and azotemia

Back 1793

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin

Front 1794

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome

Back 1794

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin

Front 1795

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa

Back 1795

Enteroinvasive E. coli

Front 1796

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of appendicitis

Back 1796

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 1797

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center

Back 1797

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 1798

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pseudomembranous colitis

Back 1798

Clostridium dificile

Front 1799

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with protozoans

Back 1799

Entamoeba histolytica

Front 1800

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just visited Mexico

Back 1800

Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin)

Front 1801

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with comma-shaped organisms

Back 1801

Vibrio cholerae

Front 1802

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with gangrenous leg

Back 1802

Clostridium perfringens

Front 1803

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised patient

Back 1803

Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium)

Front 1804

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea

Back 1804

Think viruses first. Rotavirus Adenovirus Norwalk virus

Front 1805

Difference between mechanisms of cholera and pertussis toxins

Back 1805

Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on) Pertussis: Permanently disables GI (turns the "off"" ff)

Front 1806

What is edema factor?

Back 1806

A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase

Front 1807

Disease states caused by Legionella (list only)

Back 1807

1. Asymptomatic infection 2. Pontiac fever 3. Legionnaires disease

Front 1808

Describe Pontiac fever

Back 1808

Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes suddenly and completely resolves in one week.

Front 1809

Describe Legionnaires' disease

Back 1809

Very high fever with severe pneumonia

Front 1810

Treatment for Legionella

Back 1810

Has a beta-lacatamase (penicillin-resistant) 1. Erythromycin 2. Rifampin

Front 1811

Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes.

Back 1811

Legionella

Front 1812

Legionella: Gram stain

Back 1812

Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver stain)

Front 1813

Legionella: How is it transmitted?

Back 1813

Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC, Showers, whirlpools, cooling towers, supermarket produce mist)

Front 1814

Sexuality of fungal spores

Back 1814

Asexual (mostly)

Front 1815

Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores?

Back 1815

1. Coccidioidomycosis 2. Histoplasmosis

Front 1816

What are conidia?

Back 1816

Asexual fungal spores

Front 1817

Treatment for Candida Albicans infection

Back 1817

Superficial: Nystatin Serious systemic: Amphotericin B

Front 1818

Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans

Back 1818

Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius

Front 1819

Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised

Back 1819

Candida albicans

Front 1820

Which fungus causes vulvovaginitis?

Back 1820

Candida albicans (high pH, diabetes, use of antibiotics)

Front 1821

Which fungus is endemic to Southwestern US?

Back 1821

Coccidioidomycosis

Front 1822

Which fungus is endemic to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys

Back 1822

Histoplasmosis

Front 1823

What fungus is this area known for: Southern Ohio

Back 1823

Histoplasmosis

Front 1824

What fungus is this area known for: Southern Illinois

Back 1824

Histoplasmosis

Front 1825

What fungus is this area known for: Missouri

Back 1825

Histoplasmosis

Front 1826

What fungus is this area known for: Kentucky

Back 1826

Histoplasmosis

Front 1827

What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee

Back 1827

Histoplasmosis

Front 1828

What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas

Back 1828

Histoplasmosis

Front 1829

What fungus is this area known for: Southern California

Back 1829

Coccidiomycosis

Front 1830

What fungus is this area known for: Southern Arizona

Back 1830

Coccidiomycosis

Front 1831

What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river valley

Back 1831

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

Front 1832

What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley

Back 1832

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

Front 1833

What fungus is this area known for: Southwestern US

Back 1833

Coccidiomycosis

Front 1834

What fungus is this area known for: Rural Latin America

Back 1834

Paracoccidioidomycosis

Front 1835

What fungus is this area known for: Wisconsin

Back 1835

Blastomycosis

Front 1836

What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota

Back 1836

Blastomycosis

Front 1837

Characterize histoplasmosis histologically

Back 1837

Tiny yeast inside macrophages. Thin cell wall with no true capsule.

Front 1838

What is the vector for histoplasmosis?

Back 1838

Bird or bat droppings

Front 1839

What do bird and bat droppings carry?

Back 1839

Histoplasmosis

Front 1840

What characterizes dimorphic fungi?

Back 1840

Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body temperature)

Front 1841

List the dimorphic fungi

Back 1841

Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, and Paracoccidioidomycosis (but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue)

Front 1842

Treatment for coccidiomycosis

Back 1842

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B

Front 1843

Treatment for paracoccidiomycosis

Back 1843

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B

Front 1844

Treatment for Histoplasmosis

Back 1844

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B

Front 1845

Treatment for Blastomycosis

Back 1845

Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B

Front 1846

What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar?

Back 1846

Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi)

Front 1847

What disease state does Malassezia furfur cause?

Back 1847

Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in hot humid weather.

Front 1848

Treatment for Tinea versicolor

Back 1848

Topical miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)

Front 1849

What resembles spaghetti and meatballs histologically?

Back 1849

combination of mycelium strands and numerous spores of Malassezia furfur in KOH prep

Front 1850

What disease state does Cladosporium werneckii cause?

Back 1850

Tinea nigra: Infection of keratinized layer of skin. Appears as brownish spot.

Front 1851

What causes Tinea versicolor?

Back 1851

Malassezia furfur

Front 1852

What causes Tinea nigra?

Back 1852

Cladosporium werneckii

Front 1853

Treatment for Tinea nigra

Back 1853

topical salicylic acid

Front 1854

What are the common dermatophytes and what do they cause?

Back 1854

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra

Front 1855

What causes Tinea corporis?

Back 1855

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1856

What causes Tinea cruris?

Back 1856

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1857

What causes Tinea pedis?

Back 1857

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1858

What causes Tinea capitis?

Back 1858

Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1859

What causes Tinea unguium?

Back 1859

AKA Tinea onychomycosis. Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1860

What causes Tinea onychomycosis?

Back 1860

AKA Tinea unguium. Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1861

How does Tinea corporis present?

Back 1861

Ring shape with a red raised border

Front 1862

How does Tinea cruris present?

Back 1862

AKA jock itch. Itchy red patches on groin and scrotum

Front 1863

How does Tinea unguium/onychomycosis present?

Back 1863

Nails are thickened discolored and brittle

Front 1864

Treatment for dermatophyte infection

Back 1864

1. Topical imidazoles 2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and tinea unguium)

Front 1865

What causes a fungus ball?

Back 1865

Aspergillus

Front 1866

What disease states does Aspergillus cause?

Back 1866

1. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis 2. Lung cavity aspergilloma 3. Invasive aspergillosis

Front 1867

Histologic appearance of aspergillus

Back 1867

Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies.

Front 1868

What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans cause?

Back 1868

1. Cryptococcal meningitis 2. Cryptococcosis

Front 1869

Histologic appearance of cryptococcus neoformans

Back 1869

5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal budding.

Front 1870

How is cryptococcus neoformans stained?

Back 1870

1. India ink 2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide capsular antigen

Front 1871

Where is cryptococcus neoformans found?

Back 1871

Soil and pigeon droppings.

Front 1872

What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?

Back 1872

Just like Rhizopus Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

Front 1873

What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?

Back 1873

Just like Mucor Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

Front 1874

Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?

Back 1874

1. Ketoacidotic diabetics 2. Leukemics

Front 1875

Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?

Back 1875

1. Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue 2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses

Front 1876

What is pneumocystis jirovecii?

Back 1876

Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan)

Front 1877

What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?

Back 1877

Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease.

Front 1878

How is pneumocystis diagnosed?

Back 1878

Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

Front 1879

Treatment for pneumocystis

Back 1879

Combination of TMP-SMX, Pentamidine, and Dapsone.

Front 1880

Characterization of sporotrix schenckii

Back 1880

Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.

Front 1881

Presentation of sporotrichosis

Back 1881

1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn 2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis)

Front 1882

What is rose gardener's disease?

Back 1882

Sporotrichosis

Front 1883

Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii

Back 1883

Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding

Front 1884

Treatment for sporotrichosis

Back 1884

Itraconazole or potassium iodide

Front 1885

What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

Back 1885

1. Amebiasis 2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery) 3. liver abscess 4. RUQ pain

Front 1886

What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?

Back 1886

1. Giardiasis 2. Bloating 3. Flatulence 4. Foul-smelling diarrhea

Front 1887

What diseases are found in campers and hikers?

Back 1887

Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia

Front 1888

What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?

Back 1888

Diarrhea 1. AIDS: Severe 2. Non-HIV: Mild watery

Front 1889

What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?

Back 1889

1. HIV: Brain abscess 2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)

Front 1890

What disease states does Plasmodium cause?

Back 1890

Malaria: 1. Cyclic fever 2. Headache 3. Anemia 4. Splenomegaly 5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum)

Front 1891

What disease states does Trichomonas cause?

Back 1891

Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge, strawberry-colored mucosa, and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.

Front 1892

What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?

Back 1892

Chagas' disease: 1. Dilated cardiomyopathy 2. Megacolon 3. Megaesophagus

Front 1893

What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense cause?

Back 1893

African sleeping sickness

Front 1894

What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense cause?

Back 1894

African sleeping sickness

Front 1895

What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?

Back 1895

Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever): fever, weight loss, anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen

Front 1896

What disease states does Naegleria cause?

Back 1896

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

Front 1897

What disease states does Babesia cause?

Back 1897

Babesiosis: Fever and anemia

Front 1898

Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?

Back 1898

1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Giardia lamblia 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Toxoplasma All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)

Front 1899

Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?

Back 1899

Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)

Front 1900

Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?

Back 1900

Trichomonas vaginalis

Front 1901

Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?

Back 1901

Plasmodium

Front 1902

Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?

Back 1902

Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Front 1903

Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?

Back 1903

Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Front 1904

Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?

Back 1904

Leishmania

Front 1905

Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?

Back 1905

Babesia

Front 1906

How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia

Back 1906

Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)

Front 1907

How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1907

1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool AND/OR 2. Serology

Front 1908

How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium

Back 1908

Cysts on acid-fast stain

Front 1909

How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma

Back 1909

Serology, biopsy

Front 1910

How do you diagnose: Plasmodium

Back 1910

Blood smear

Front 1911

How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma

Back 1911

Blood smear

Front 1912

How do you diagnose: Babesia

Back 1912

Blood smear, no RBC pigment, appears as ""maltese cross""

Front 1913

How do you diagnose: Leishmania

Back 1913

Macrophages containing amastigotes

Front 1914

How do you diagnose: Naegleria

Back 1914

Amebas in spinal fluid

Front 1915

Treatment for: Entameba histolytica

Back 1915

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

Front 1916

Treatment for: Giardia lamblia

Back 1916

Metronidazole

Front 1917

Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis

Back 1917

Metronidazole

Front 1918

Treatment for: Cryptosporidium

Back 1918

None

Front 1919

Treatment for: Naegleria

Back 1919

None

Front 1920

Treatment for: Plasmodium

Back 1920

1. Choloroquine 2. additonal Primaquine ( to prevent relapse or liver damage) 3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine 4. Mefloquine 5. Quinine

Front 1921

Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi

Back 1921

Nifurtimox

Front 1922

Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense

Back 1922

If blood-borne, suramin. If CNS penetration, melarsoprol.

Front 1923

Treatment for: Leishmania

Back 1923

Sodium stibogluconate

Front 1924

Treatment for: Babesia

Back 1924

Qunine, clindamycin

Front 1925

Treatment for: Toxoplasma

Back 1925

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

Front 1926

Type of bug: Candida albicans

Back 1926

Dimorphic fungus, cutaneous OR systemic infection

Front 1927

Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis

Back 1927

Monomorphic fungus, systemic infection

Front 1928

Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum

Back 1928

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Front 1929

Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis

Back 1929

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Front 1930

Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Back 1930

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Front 1931

Type of bug: Malassezia furfur

Back 1931

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

Front 1932

Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii

Back 1932

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

Front 1933

Type of bug: Microsporum

Back 1933

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Front 1934

Type of bug: Trichophyton

Back 1934

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Front 1935

Type of bug: Epidermophyton

Back 1935

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Front 1936

Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus

Back 1936

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Front 1937

Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans

Back 1937

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Front 1938

Type of bug: Mucor

Back 1938

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Front 1939

Type of bug: Rhizopus

Back 1939

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Front 1940

Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii

Back 1940

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Front 1941

Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii

Back 1941

Dimorphic fungus, subcutaneous infection with some lymphatic spread

Front 1942

Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1942

Protozoan

Front 1943

Type of bug: Giardia lamblia

Back 1943

Protozoan

Front 1944

Type of bug: Naegleria

Back 1944

Protozoan

Front 1945

Type of bug: Plasmodium

Back 1945

Protozoan

Front 1946

Type of bug: Cryptosporidium

Back 1946

Protozoan

Front 1947

Type of bug: Toxoplasma

Back 1947

Protozoan

Front 1948

Type of bug: Trichomonas

Back 1948

Protozoan

Front 1949

Type of bug: Trypanosoma

Back 1949

Protozoan

Front 1950

Type of bug: Leishmania

Back 1950

Protozoan

Front 1951

Type of bug: Babesia

Back 1951

Protozoan

Front 1952

Type of bug: Taenia solium

Back 1952

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

Front 1953

Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus

Back 1953

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

Front 1954

Type of bug: Schistosoma

Back 1954

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Front 1955

Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis

Back 1955

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Front 1956

Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani

Back 1956

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Front 1957

Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale

Back 1957

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1958

Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides

Back 1958

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1959

Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis

Back 1959

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1960

Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris

Back 1960

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1961

Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis

Back 1961

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1962

Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis

Back 1962

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1963

Type of bug: Loa loa

Back 1963

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1964

Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus

Back 1964

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1965

Type of bug: Toxocara canis

Back 1965

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1966

Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti

Back 1966

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Front 1967

Type of bug: Treponema

Back 1967

Spirochete

Front 1968

Which worm: Undercooked pork

Back 1968

1. Taenia solium (tapeworm) 2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm)

Front 1969

Which worm: Brain cysts

Back 1969

Taenia solium (tapeworm)

Front 1970

Which worm: Liver cysts

Back 1970

Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

Front 1971

Important points about echinococcus granulosus

Back 1971

Tapeworm (Cestode) 1. Ingested eggs from dog feces 2. Liver cysts 3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis

Front 1972

Taenia solium: Treatment

Back 1972

Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis

Front 1973

Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment

Back 1973

Albendazole

Front 1974

Characterization of Schistosoma

Back 1974

Fluke (Trematode) 1. Hosted by snails 2. Penetrate skin of humans

Front 1975

Presentation of Schistosoma

Back 1975

Spleen and liver: 1. Granulomas 2. Fibrosis 3. Inflammation

Front 1976

Schistosoma: Treatment

Back 1976

Praziquantel

Front 1977

Which worm: Portal hypertension

Back 1977

Schistosoma mansoni

Front 1978

Which worm: Hematuria

Back 1978

Schistosoma haematobium

Front 1979

Which worm: Bladder cancer

Back 1979

Schistosoma haematobium

Front 1980

Important points about Clonorchis sinensis

Back 1980

Fluke (trematode) 1. undercooked fish 2. Inflammation of biliary tract

Front 1981

Which worm: Undercooked fish

Back 1981

Clonorchis sinensis

Front 1982

Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment

Back 1982

Praziquantel

Front 1983

Which worm: B12 deficiency

Back 1983

Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)

Front 1984

Which worm: Undercooked crab meat

Back 1984

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Front 1985

Important points about Pargonimus westermani

Back 1985

Trematode (fluke) 1. Undercooked crabmeat 2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung 3. Hemoptysis

Front 1986

Which worm: Hemoptysis

Back 1986

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Front 1987

Paragonimus westermani: Treatment

Back 1987

Praziquantel

Front 1988

Which worm: Microcytic anemia

Back 1988

Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)

Front 1989

Which worm: Perianal pruritus

Back 1989

Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm, a roundworm)

Front 1990

Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale

Back 1990

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka hookworm 2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet 3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia

Front 1991

Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment

Back 1991

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1992

Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides

Back 1992

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!) 2. Eggs are visible in feces. 3. Intestinal infection

Front 1993

Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment

Back 1993

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1994

Important points about Enterobius vermicularis

Back 1994

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka pinworm 2. Food contaminated with eggs 3. Intestinal infection 4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test)

Front 1995

Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment

Back 1995

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1996

Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis

Back 1996

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin 2. Intestinal infection

Front 1997

Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment

Back 1997

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

Front 1998

Important points about Trichinella spiralis

Back 1998

Roundworm (nematode) 1. Undercooked meat, usually pork 2. Inflammation of muscle 3. Periorbital edema

Front 1999

Trichinella spiralis: Treatment

Back 1999

Thiabendazole

Front 2000

Important points about Dracunculus medinensis

Back 2000

Nematode (roundworm) 1. In drinking water 2. Skin inflammation and ulceration

Front 2001

Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment

Back 2001

Niridazole

Front 2002

Important points about Loa loa

Back 2002

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by deer fly 2. Causes swelling in skin 3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva

Front 2003

Loa loa: Treatment

Back 2003

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 2004

Important points about Onchocerca volvulus

Back 2004

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by female blackflies 2. Causes river blindness

Front 2005

Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment

Back 2005

Ivermectin

Front 2006

Important points about Toxocara canis

Back 2006

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Food contaminated with eggs 2. Causes granulomas (if in retina, blindness) 3. Visceral larva migrans

Front 2007

Toxocara canis: Treatment

Back 2007

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 2008

Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti

Back 2008

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Female mosquito 2. Causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)

Front 2009

Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment

Back 2009

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 2010

Which DNA viruses are double stranded?

Back 2010

All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae

Front 2011

Which DNA viruses are single stranded?

Back 2011

Parvoviridae

Front 2012

Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?

Back 2012

All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Front 2013

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

Back 2013

papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Front 2014

Which RNA viruses are single stranded?

Back 2014

All except Reovirus (ds)

Front 2015

Which RNA viruses are double stranded?

Back 2015

Reovirus (ds)

Front 2016

Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 2016

Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)

Front 2017

Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 2017

poxvirus and HBV

Front 2018

Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 2018

strand+ ssRNA (almost the same as mRNA)

Front 2019

Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 2019

strand- ssRNA

Front 2020

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?

Back 2020

All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)

Front 2021

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?

Back 2021

Only herpesviruses

Front 2022

Which viruses are haploid?

Back 2022

All except retroviruses (diploid)

Front 2023

Which viruses are diploid?

Back 2023

Retroviruses

Front 2024

Where do DNA viruses replicate?

Back 2024

In the nucleus (except pox)

Front 2025

Where do RNA viruses replicate?

Back 2025

Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

Front 2026

Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?

Back 2026

All except pox (complex)

Front 2027

Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

Back 2027

All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases)

Front 2028

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated vaccines

Back 2028

Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence)

Front 2029

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines

Back 2029

Humoral immunity (stable)

Front 2030

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine

Back 2030

Live attenuated, egg-based

Front 2031

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine

Back 2031

Live attenuated

Front 2032

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine

Back 2032

Live attenuated

Front 2033

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine

Back 2033

Live attenuated, egg-based

Front 2034

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine

Back 2034

Live attenuated

Front 2035

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine

Back 2035

Live attenuated

Front 2036

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine

Back 2036

Killed

Front 2037

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine

Back 2037

Killed, egg-based

Front 2038

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine

Back 2038

Killed

Front 2039

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine

Back 2039

Killed

Front 2040

Definition: Viral recombination

Back 2040

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

Front 2041

What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

Back 2041

Viral recombination

Front 2042

Definition: Viral Reassortment

Back 2042

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

Front 2043

What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.

Back 2043

Viral Reassortment Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

Front 2044

Definition: Viral Complementation

Back 2044

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus ""complements"" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.

Front 2045

What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.

Back 2045

Viral Complementation

Front 2046

Definition: Viral Phenotypic Mixing

Back 2046

Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

Front 2047

What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.

Back 2047

Viral Phenotypic Mixing Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

Front 2048

What does HBsAg measure?

Back 2048

HBV surface antigen. Continued presence indicates carrier state.

Front 2049

What does HBsAb measure?

Back 2049

Antibody to HBsAg. Provides immunity to hepatitis B.

Front 2050

What does HBcAb measure?

Back 2050

Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of recent disease.

Front 2051

What does HBeAg measure?

Back 2051

A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!)

Front 2052

What does HBeAb measure?

Back 2052

Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility.

Front 2053

What is gag?

Back 2053

Gene that encodes for p24 capsid, the nucleocapsid in HIV

Front 2054

What is env?

Back 2054

Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins, the envelope proteins in HIV.

Front 2055

What is p17?

Back 2055

Interior envelope protein in HIV

Front 2056

What is p24?

Back 2056

Nucleocapsid protein in HIV, coded for by gag gene.

Front 2057

What is gp41?

Back 2057

Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom stalk, then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env.

Front 2058

What is gp120?

Back 2058

Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk. Both coded for by env.

Front 2059

What is pol?

Back 2059

Gene which codes for HIV reverse transcriptase

Front 2060

Common causes of osteomyelitis in sexually active people.

Back 2060

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare), septic arthritis more common

Front 2061

Common causes of osteomyelitis in diabetics.

Back 2061

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 2062

Common causes of osteomyelitis in drug addicts.

Back 2062

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 2063

Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with prosthetic replacement

Back 2063

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 2064

Common causes of vertebral osteomyelitis

Back 2064

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott's disease)

Front 2065

Common causes of urinary tract infections in ambulatory people

Back 2065

Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli (50-80%) 2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young amubulatory women 3. Klebsiella (8-10%)

Front 2066

Common causes of urinary tract infections in the hospital

Back 2066

Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli 2. Proteus 3. Klebsiella 4. Serratia 5. Pseudomonas

Front 2067

Risk factor for nosocomial CMV infection.

Back 2067

Newborn nursery

Front 2068

Risk factor for nosocomial RSV infection.

Back 2068

Newborn nursery

Front 2069

Risk factor for nosocomial E. coli infection.

Back 2069

Urinary catheterization

Front 2070

Risk factor for nosocomial Proteus mirablis infection.

Back 2070

Urinary catheterization

Front 2071

Risk factor for nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection.

Back 2071

Respiratory therapy equipment

Front 2072

Risk factor for nosocomial HBV infection.

Back 2072

Work in renal dialysis unit

Front 2073

Risk factor for nosocomial Candida albicans infection.

Back 2073

Hyperalimentation

Front 2074

Risk factor for nosocomial Legionella infection.

Back 2074

Water aerosols

Front 2075

2 most common causes of nosocomial infections

Back 2075

1. E. coli (UTI) 2. S. aureus (wound infection)

Front 2076

What bug: Pus

Back 2076

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 2077

What bug: Empyema

Back 2077

Staphylococcus aureus (means pus in a natural body cavity, not an abscess)

Front 2078

What bug: Abscess

Back 2078

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 2079

What bug: Pediatric infection

Back 2079

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 2080

Most common causes of pneumonia in people with cystic fibrosis.

Back 2080

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 2081

What bug: Branching rods in oral infection

Back 2081

Actinomyces israelii

Front 2082

What bug: Traumatic open wound infection

Back 2082

Clostridium perfringens

Front 2083

What bug: Surgical wound

Back 2083

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 2084

What bug: Dog or cat bite

Back 2084

Pasteurella multocida

Front 2085

What bug: Sepsis in a newborn

Back 2085

Group B Strep

Front 2086

What bug: Meningitis in a newborn

Back 2086

Group B Strep

Front 2087

What organism is associated w/ HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy and uremic Sx?

Back 2087

Shigella

Front 2088

What is the MC contaminant of blood transfusions?

Back 2088

Yersenia enterocolitica

Front 2089

What are trophozoites phagocytosed RBCs?

Back 2089

Entameba histolytica (Ameba)

Front 2090

What organism causes chorioamnionitis?

Back 2090

Step. agalactiae

Front 2091

Most common: Hereditary bleeding disorder

Back 2091

von Willebrand's

Front 2092

Most common: Ovarian tumor (malignant)

Back 2092

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Front 2093

Most common: Malignancy associated with noninfectious fever

Back 2093

Hodgkin's disease

Front 2094

Most common: Mets to bone

Back 2094

Breast, lung, thyroid, testes, prostate, kidney

Front 2095

Most common: Mets to brain

Back 2095

Lung, breast, skin (melanoma), kidney (RCC), GI

Front 2096

Most common: Breast tumor (benign)

Back 2096

Fibroadenoma

Front 2097

Most common: Brain tumor (kids)

Back 2097

Medulloblastoma (cerebellum)

Front 2098

Most common: Preventable cancer

Back 2098

Lung cancer

Front 2099

Most common: Leukemia (adults)

Back 2099

AML

Front 2100

Most common: Breast mass

Back 2100

Fibrocystic change (in postmenopausal wormen, carcinoma in the most common)

Front 2101

Most common: Location of brain tumors (kids)

Back 2101

Infratentorial

Front 2102

Most common: Sexually transmitted disease

Back 2102

Chlamydia

Front 2103

Most common: Pituitary tumor

Back 2103

Prolactinoma (2nd-somatotropic acidophilic adenoma)

Front 2104

Most common: Location of brain tumors (adults)

Back 2104

Supratentorial

Front 2105

Most common: Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

Back 2105

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

Front 2106

Most common: Bacteria found in GI tract

Back 2106

Bacteroides (2nd most common is E. coli)

Front 2107

Most common: Kidney stones

Back 2107

Calcium=radiopaque (2nd most common is ammonium=radiopaque; formed by urease-positive organisms such as Protease vulgaris or Staph)

Front 2108

Most common: Bacteremia/pneumonia (IVDA)

Back 2108

S. aureus

Front 2109

Most common: Primary hyperparathyroidism

Back 2109

Adenomas (followed by hyperplasia, then carcinoma)

Front 2110

Most common: Breast cancer

Back 2110

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (in the US, 1 in 9 women will develop breast cancer)

Front 2111

Most common: Site of metastasis (2nd most common)

Back 2111

Liver

Front 2112

Most common: Gynecologic malignancy

Back 2112

Endometrial carcinoma

Front 2113

Most common: Testicular tumor

Back 2113

Seminoma

Front 2114

Most common: Brain tumor (adults)

Back 2114

Mets>astrocytoma (including glioblastoma multiforme)>meningioma>schwannoma

Front 2115

Most common: Brain tumor-supratentorial (kids)

Back 2115

Craniopharyngioma

Front 2116

Most common: Skin cancer

Back 2116

Basal cell carcinoma

Front 2117

Most common: Ovarian tumor (benign)

Back 2117

Serous cystadenoma

Front 2118

Most common: Tumor in women

Back 2118

Leiomyoma (estrogen dependent)

Front 2119

Most common: Vasculitis

Back 2119

Temporal arteritis (risk of ipsilateral blindness due to thrombosis of ophthalmic artery)

Front 2120

Most common: Viral encephalitis

Back 2120

HSV

Front 2121

Most common: Bacteria associated with cancer

Back 2121

H. pylori

Front 2122

Most common: Tracheoesophageal fistula

Back 2122

Lower esophagus joins trachea/upper esphagus-blind pouch

Front 2123

Most common: Renal tumor

Back 2123

Renal cell carcinoma-associated with von Hippel-Lindau and acquired polycystic kidney disease; paraneoplastic syndromes

Front 2124

Most common: Bug in debilitated, hospitalized pneumonia patient

Back 2124

Klebsiella

Front 2125

Most common: Type of pituitary adenoma

Back 2125

Prolactinoma

Front 2126

Most common: Site of metastasis

Back 2126

Regional lymph nodes

Front 2127

Most common: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

Back 2127

Hypcalcemia of chronic renal failure

Front 2128

Most common: Nephrotic syndrome

Back 2128

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Front 2129

Most common: Helminth infection (U.S.)

Back 2129

Enterobius vermicularis (Ascaris lubricoides is 2nd most common)

Front 2130

Most common: Type of Hodgkin's

Back 2130

Follicular, small cleaved

Front 2131

Most common: Organ sending mets

Back 2131

Lung>breast, stomach

Front 2132

Most common: Primary liver tumor

Back 2132

Hepatoma

Front 2133

Most common: Organ receiving mets

Back 2133

Adrenal glands (due to rich blood supply)

Front 2134

Most common: Neoplasm (kids)

Back 2134

ALL (2nd most common is cerebellar medulloblastoma)

Front 2135

Most common: Tumor of infancy

Back 2135

Hemangioma

Front 2136

Most Frequent Cause of: Pancreatitis (chronic)

Back 2136

EtOH (adults), cystic fibrosis (kids)

Front 2137

Most Frequent Cause of: Hemochromatosis

Back 2137

Multiple blood transfusions (can result in CHF and increased risk of HCC)

Front 2138

Most Frequent Cause of: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Back 2138

21-hydroxylase deficiency

Front 2139

Most Frequent Cause of: Pneumonia, hospital-acquired

Back 2139

Klebsiella

Front 2140

Most Frequent Cause of: Primary hyperparathyroidism

Back 2140

Adenoma

Front 2141

Most Frequent Cause of: Primary hyperaldosteronism

Back 2141

Adenoma of adrenal cortex

Front 2142

Most Frequent Cause of: Aortic aneuyrysm, ascending

Back 2142

Tertiary syphilis

Front 2143

Most Frequent Cause of: Addison's

Back 2143

Autoimmune (infection is the 2nd most common cause)

Front 2144

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (adults)

Back 2144

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 2145

Most Frequent Cause of: UTI (young women)

Back 2145

E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Front 2146

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (kids)

Back 2146

S. pneumoniae or Neisseria meningitidis

Front 2147

Most Frequent Cause of: Aortic aneurysm, abdominal and descending aorta

Back 2147

Atherosclerosis

Front 2148

Most Frequent Cause of: Peau d'orange

Back 2148

Carcinoma of the breast

Front 2149

Most Frequent Cause of: Hypopituitarism

Back 2149

Adenoma

Front 2150

Most Frequent Cause of: Dementia

Back 2150

Alzheimer's (2nd most common in multo-infarct)

Front 2151

Most Frequent Cause of: Right-sided heart failure

Back 2151

Left-sided heart failure

Front 2152

Most Frequent Cause of: PID

Back 2152

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (monoarticular arthritis)

Front 2153

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (elderly)

Back 2153

S. pneumoniae

Front 2154

Most Frequent Cause of: Hepatic cirrhosis

Back 2154

EtOH

Front 2155

Most Frequent Cause of: Food poisoning

Back 2155

S. aureus

Front 2156

Most Frequent Cause of: Glomerulonephritis (adults)

Back 2156

IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease)

Front 2157

Most Frequent Cause of: SIADH

Back 2157

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

Front 2158

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (newborns)

Back 2158

Group B streptococcus

Front 2159

Most Frequent Cause of: Pancreatitis (acute)

Back 2159

EtOH and gallstones

Front 2160

Most Frequent Cause of: Cancer associated with AIDS

Back 2160

Kaposi's sarcoma

Front 2161

Are D1 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 2161

Excitatory

Front 2162

What type of cells are Nissl bodies found? In what parts of the cell?

Back 2162

Are found in neurons. Are not found in axon or axon hillock.

Front 2163

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls autonomic regulation?

Back 2163

anterior hypothalamus

Front 2164

How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?

Back 2164

Microglia are not discernible in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin

Front 2165

What is the response to microglia infected with HIV?

Back 2165

fusion to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS

Front 2166

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls cooling when hot?

Back 2166

anterior hypothalamus

Front 2167

What is the function of microglia?

Back 2167

Phagocytosis in CNS

Front 2168

What nucleus if typically lesioned in hemiballismus?

Back 2168

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

Front 2169

What is the function of oligodendroglia?

Back 2169

Myelination of multiple CNS axons

Front 2170

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls sexual emotions?

Back 2170

septate nucleus

Front 2171

What midbrain structure is important in mitigating voluntary movements and making postural adjustments?

Back 2171

Basal Ganglia

Front 2172

Are D2 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 2172

Inhibitory

Front 2173

What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?

Back 2173

Node of Ranvier

Front 2174

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls thirst and water balance?

Back 2174

supraoptic nucleus

Front 2175

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls hunger?

Back 2175

lateral nucleus

Front 2176

What is the embryologic origin of microglia?

Back 2176

Mesoderm

Front 2177

What is the response of microglia to tissue damage?

Back 2177

transformation into large ameboid phagocytic cells

Front 2178

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls circadian rhythms?

Back 2178

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 2179

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls satiety?

Back 2179

ventromedial nucleus

Front 2180

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls heat conservation when cold?

Back 2180

posterior hypothalamus

Front 2181

What is associated w/ Alzheimer's Dz?

Back 2181

Depression

Front 2182

What is the equation to calculate loading dose?

Back 2182

(Cp)(Vd)/F (note: Cp = target plasma concentration, and F = bioavailability)

Front 2183

What drugs should you avoid taking with cephalosporins?

Back 2183

Aminoglycosides (increases nephrotoxicity) and ethanol (causes a disulfiram-like rxn -- headache, nausea, flushing, hypotension)

Front 2184

These specific drugs disrupt fungal cell membranes

Back 2184

amphotericin B, nystatin, fluconazole/azoles (FAN the fungal cell membranes)

Front 2185

Which drug blocks mRNA synthesis?

Back 2185

Rifampin

Front 2186

When would you use aminoglycosides?

Back 2186

Against severe gram-negative rod infections.

Front 2187

How does a competitive inhibitor affect Km?

Back 2187

Increases

Front 2188

What is the equation to calculate the maintenance dose?

Back 2188

(Cp)(CL)/F (note: Cp = target plasma concentration, and F = bioavailability)

Front 2189

These drugs block nucleotide synthesis by interfering with the folate pathway

Back 2189

Sulfonamides (e.g. Bactrim), trimethoprim

Front 2190

These drugs disrupt the bacterial/fungal cell membranes

Back 2190

Polymyxins

Front 2191

What's the main difference between a partial agonist and a full agonist?

Back 2191

A partial agonist has a lower maximal efficacy

Front 2192

What should you watch out for when giving penicillin?

Back 2192

Hypersensitivity reaction (urticaria,severe pruritus) and hemolytic anemia

Front 2193

Bacitracin, vancomycin and cycloserine block the synthesis of this molecule, preventing cell wall synthesis.

Back 2193

Peptidoglycans

Front 2194

What can 3rd generation cephalosporin drugs do that 1st and 2nd generation can't?

Back 2194

Cross the blood brain barrier.

Front 2195

What is the mechanism of action of Pentamidine?

Back 2195

Unknown

Front 2196

What is the mechanism for penicillin type drugs?

Back 2196

Blocks bacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis.

Front 2197

Which drugs are the bacteriacidal antibiotics?

Back 2197

Penicillin, cephalosporin, vancomycin, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole

Front 2198

What is the antidote for (TCA) Tricyclic Antidepressants toxicity/overdose

Back 2198

NaHCO3

Front 2199

This drug binds to cyclophilins, blocking differentiation and activation of T cells mainly by inhibiting IL2 production

Back 2199

cyclosporine

Front 2200

This antimetabolite derivative of 6-mercaptopurine interferes with the metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acid.

Back 2200

azathioprine

Front 2201

This potent immunosuppressive drug binds to the FK-binding protein and inhibits secretion of IL2 and other cytokines

Back 2201

tacrolimus (FK506)

Front 2202

Azaothioprine is used to in what setting?

Back 2202

Kidney transplants, autoimmune disorders (glomerulonephritis, hemolytic anemia)

Front 2203

Recombinant Cytokine- Aldesleukin (interleukin-2) is used for?

Back 2203

Renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma

Front 2204

Recombinant Cytokine- Erythropoietin (epoetin) is used for?

Back 2204

anemia

Front 2205

Recombinant Cytokine- Filgrastim is used for?

Back 2205

Recovery of Bone Marrow; it is a granulocyte colony stimulating factor

Front 2206

Recombinant Cytokine- alpha interferon is used for?

Back 2206

Hep B/C, Kaposi's sarcoma, leukemia, malgnant melanoma

Front 2207

Recombinant Cytokine- oprelvekin (interleukin2) is used for?

Back 2207

Thrombocytopenia

Front 2208

Recombinant Cytokine- sargamostim is used for?

Back 2208

Recovery of Bone Marrow (it is a granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor)

Front 2209

Recombinant Cytokine- thrombopoietin is used for?

Back 2209

Thrombocytopenia

Front 2210

Signs of Lead poisoning include:

Back 2210

Lead Lines on gingivae and epiphyses of Long bones, Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte Basophilic stippling, Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia

Front 2211

Weak acids, such as phenobarbitol, methotreaxate, aspirin, alkanize urine with ____ to increase clearance

Back 2211

bicarbonate

Front 2212

Weak bases, such as amphetamines, acidify urine with NH4Cl to ____ clearance

Back 2212

increase

Front 2213

-ane

Back 2213

inhalational general anesthetic. Halothane

Front 2214

-azepam

Back 2214

benzodiazepine. Diazepam

Front 2215

-azine

Back 2215

phenothiazine (neuroleptic, antiemetic). Chlorpromazine

Front 2216

-azole

Back 2216

antifungal. Ketoconazole

Front 2217

-barbital

Back 2217

barbiturate. Phenobarbital

Front 2218

-caine

Back 2218

local anesthetic. Lidocaine

Front 2219

-cillin

Back 2219

penicillin. Methicillin

Front 2220

-cycline

Back 2220

antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitor. Tetracycline

Front 2221

-ipramine

Back 2221

tricyclic antidepressant. Imipramine

Front 2222

-navir

Back 2222

protease inhibitor. Saquinavir

Front 2223

-olol

Back 2223

beta antagonist. Propranolol

Front 2224

-operidol

Back 2224

butyrophenone (neuroleptic). Haloperidol

Front 2225

-oxin

Back 2225

cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent). Digoxin

Front 2226

-phylline

Back 2226

methylxanthine. Theophylline

Front 2227

-pril

Back 2227

ACE inhibitor. Captopril

Front 2228

-terol

Back 2228

beta-2 agonist. Albuterol

Front 2229

-tidine

Back 2229

H2 antagonist. Cimetidine

Front 2230

-triptyline

Back 2230

tricyclic antidepressant. Amitriptyline

Front 2231

-tropin

Back 2231

pituitary hormone. Somatotropin

Front 2232

-zosin

Back 2232

alpha-1 antagonist. Prazosin

Front 2233

What is the complication of Sleep Apnea?

Back 2233

Pulmonary Hypertension- vasoconstrictive effects of chronic hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis called COR-PULOMONALE

Front 2234

What three compounds increase surfactant?

Back 2234

Thyroxin, Prolactin, and Glucocorticoid

Front 2235

What is the importance of the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?

Back 2235

A ratio greater than 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity

Front 2236

What is found in the physical exploration of Atelectasis?

Back 2236

Dullness to percussion and Absent tactile fremitus

Front 2237

What is a common finding of sinusitis in diabetics?

Back 2237

Mucor sinusitis

Front 2238

Where is surfactant made?

Back 2238

Type II pneumocytes

Front 2239

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?

Back 2239

Respiratory Bronchioles

Front 2240

What is the advantage of the large surface area:volume ratio in erythrocytes?

Back 2240

More Gas Exchange

Front 2241

What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?

Back 2241

Lowers alveolar surface tension and Prevents atelectasis

Front 2242

Where is surfactant stored?

Back 2242

Lamellar bodies

Front 2243

What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?

Back 2243

Type II pneumocytes develop into Type I

Front 2244

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?

Back 2244

Terminal Broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper)

Front 2245

What is the diagnosis of a child w/ Nasal Polyps? Test for?

Back 2245

Sweat Test, Cystic Fibrosis (CF) until proven otherwise

Front 2246

Where do infarctions of the lung usually occur?

Back 2246

Lower lobes

Front 2247

What is another name for pulmonary surfactant?

Back 2247

DPPC (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)

Front 2248

Why does Mucor species prevail in sinusitis of Diabetic patients?

Back 2248

Ketoacidosis causes proliferation

Front 2249

Risk factor for Laryngeal CA?

Back 2249

Smoking. Alcohol consumption has an synergistic effect.

Front 2250

Newborn that turns cyanotic when breast feeding; cries and turns back to pink. Diagnosis?

Back 2250

Choanal Atresia

Front 2251

What is the pathogenesis of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in Newborns?

Back 2251

Atelectasis due to loss of surfactant

Front 2252

When does synthesis of surfactant begin?

Back 2252

28th week and reaches production peak at 35 weeks

Front 2253

How do you calculate the A-a gradient?

Back 2253

Alveolar PO2= 21%O2(Atm. P-47)-pCO2/0.8; A= (.21)(713)- 40/0.8); Usually A=100; A-a; a=95; normal A-a=5-30

Front 2254

When is A-a gradient indicative of pulmonary pathology?

Back 2254

when A-a grad = >30

Front 2255

Patient w/ fibromyalgia and develops asthma, what is the cause of this?

Back 2255

Aspirin induced asthma; block PG but still produce Leukotriene build up; LT C-D-E4 buildup (potent bronchoconstrictors)

Front 2256

Causes of Hypoxemia w/ normal A-a gradient?

Back 2256

-barbiturates OD-epiglottitis (Upper Airway Obstr.)-Amyotrophics Lat. Sclerosis (ALS)

Front 2257

When does pre-eclampsia and eclampsia occur? trimester...

Back 2257

3rd trimester

Front 2258

What is the Diagnosis if pregnant woman presents w/ pre-eclampsia in first trimester?

Back 2258

hydatidiform mole

Front 2259

What two substances are increased in pre-eclampsia?

Back 2259

Angiotensin II; TXA2

Front 2260

What substances are decrease in pre-eclampsia?

Back 2260

PGE1 and NO

Front 2261

What are two substances in pre-eclampsia that are vasoconstrictors?

Back 2261

Angiotensin II and TXA2

Front 2262

What two substances are vasodilators in pre-eclampsia?

Back 2262

PGE1 and N.O.

Front 2263

Tx for Eclampsia?

Back 2263

Magnesium Sulfate

Front 2264

What is the clinical presentation of pre-eclampsia?

Back 2264

hypertension; proteinuria; pitting edema

Front 2265

What is the clinical picture of eclampsia?

Back 2265

same as pre-eclampsia but w/ seizures or convulsions

Front 2266

What is the macula densa?

Back 2266

Sodium sensor in part of the distal convoluted tubule in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 2267

What are JG cells?

Back 2267

Modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 2268

How is the glomerular basement membrane formed?

Back 2268

From the fusion of endothelial and podocyte basement membranes.

Front 2269

What is the primary regulatory control of zona glomerulosa secretion?

Back 2269

Renin-angiotensin

Front 2270

What is the function of the JG cells?

Back 2270

Secrete renin and erythropoietin

Front 2271

When do the JG cells secrete renin?

Back 2271

In response to decreased renal BP, decreased sodium delivery to distal tubule, and increased sympathetic tone

Front 2272

Plasma is filtered on the basis of what properties?

Back 2272

Filtration of plasma occurs according to net charge and size.

Front 2273

What is the glomerular basement membrane responsible for?

Back 2273

Responsible for the actual filtration of plasma.

Front 2274

What is the glomerular basement membrane coated with? (provides negative charge to filter).

Back 2274

Negatively charged heparan sulfate.

Front 2275

Should BUN be increase or decreased in normal pregnancy?

Back 2275

decreased in normal pregnancy

Front 2276

Should GFR be increased or decreased in normal pregnancy?

Back 2276

Increased

Front 2277

Where is type II collagen found? (3)

Back 2277

1. cartilage (including hyaline) 2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus.

Front 2278

What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

Back 2278

Collagen.

Front 2279

Where is type I collagen found?(7)

Back 2279

1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late wound repair

Front 2280

Define Pacinian corpuscles.

Back 2280

Large, encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, mesenteries.

Front 2281

Describe the appearance and status of primary vs. secondary follicles.

Back 2281

Primary follicles are dense and dormant. Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active.

Front 2282

What are mnemonics for remembering locations for type I, II and IV collagen?

Back 2282

Type ONE: bONE Type TWO: carTWOlage Type FOUR: under the FLOOR (basement membrane)

Front 2283

Where is type III collagen found? (5)

Back 2283

1. skin 2.blood vessels 3.uterus 4.fetal tissue 5.granulation tissue

Front 2284

What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?

Back 2284

Meissner's corpuscles are involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous skin.

Front 2285

What is another name for type III collagen?

Back 2285

reticulin

Front 2286

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?

Back 2286

Pacinian corpuscles are involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.

Front 2287

Where is type X collagen found? (1)

Back 2287

epiphyseal plate

Front 2288

Define Meissner's corpuscles.

Back 2288

Small, encapsulated sensory receptors found in dermis of palm, soles and digits of skin.

Front 2289

Name the layers of epidermis from surface to base.

Back 2289

stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basalis.