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152 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Possible etiologies for acute to subacute onset with rapid progession:
Infectious/Inflammatory
Type I Disk Disease
Some malformations.
Possible etiologies for acute onset with static progression or improvement:
Vascular
Trauma
Some Toxins
Some etiologies for subacute onset with waxing and waning signs:
metabolic
some nutritional
Chronic onset and progression:
Degenerative
Neoplastic
Some metabolic and nutritional
Signs of UP deficits in the gait:
Ataxia often with truncal sway
Hypermetria
Loss of Stride synchrony
Hypometria may be a sign of what?
Motor system dysfunction: weakness
What is extensor postural thrust and what does it test?
Pick up animal under axillary region and lower. Rear legs step backward as they contact the ground.

Tests CP and vestibular system.
True/False. The knuckling test is the more reliable test of CP deficits in cats.
False. Hopping is more reliable.
True/False. The menace response may be absent in the post-ictal state.
True.
True/False. THe most common cause of an abnormal PLR is Horner's.
False. Inadequate light source (Horner's doesn't cause abnormal PLR)
A lesion of which nerve results in a ventrolateral strabismus?
CN III
Which cranial nerves are required for the Doll's eye reflex?
VIII
III
IV
VI
True/False. Hyperflexion is seen in UMN lesions during the flexor withdrawal reflex.
False. Just normal.
Most common signs of cerebral cortex disease?
Seizures
Behavior change
Circling toward side of lesion
CP deficits contralateral
Visual deficits contralateral
Facial sensory deficits contralateral
True/False. Unilateral lesions of diencephalon cause similar signs to cerebral lesions, including seizures.
False. Similar signs except seizures.
A lesion of the diencephalon may cause nystagmus. Why?
A large lesion that increases intracranial pressure may activate the vestibular system.
What causes circling in cerebral versus brainstem lesions?
Cerebellar- hemineglect
Brainstem- vestibular involvement
What type of ataxia is seen in brainstem lesions?
Vestibular
When might CP deficits be ipsilateral to the side of the lesion?
If the lesion is in the brainstem caudal to the midbrain.
True/False. Decreased level of consciousness and respiratory/CV dysfunction may occur with very severe brain stem lesions.
True.
The menace response is lost ipsilateral/contralateral to a cerebellar lesion?
Ipsilateral
Weakness without true CP or UP dysfunction is a primary sign of what type of disease?
Motor unit/LMN dysfunction
Is incontinence usually seen with motor unit disease?
No. Cranial nerves and motor pathways for continence are usually spared.
What characteristic of the flexor withdrawal reflex may help differentiate a motor unit disease?
A reduced flexor withdrawal that may fatigue over time.
Discospndylitis
Inflammation of the disc and adjacent vertbral body. Can result in cord compression
Granulomatous Meningoencephalitis
Small and toy breeds
Angiocentric Mononuclear Inflammation of white matter of BS and SC
Accumulations of MHC-II positive macros and T-lymphocytes is hallmark
Define hamartoma.
aggregate of bland, largely normal tissue. Ex- vascular hamartomas are most common
What kind of cysts are seen in the CNS?
Epidermoid/dermoid cysts- swuqmous epithelial-lined masses that can form during defective neural tube closure.
True/False. Arachnoid cysts are not true cysts.
True. They are not lined by epithelium, but arise for leptomeninges.
What is the most common primary CNS tumor in dogs and cats?
Meningioma
Name common sites of meningiomas
Over corticies
Attached to falx cerebri
Below brainstem
Attached to tentorium cerebelli
Intraventricular
Retrobulbar
What are the various histological patterns meningiomas can have?
Meningothelial
Fibroblastic
Transitional- mix of meningothelial and fibroblastic
Angioblastic- fibroblastic with vascular channels
Psammomatous- mineralized neoplastic cells and blood vessels
How are granular cell tumors differentiated?
plump, round cells with bright eosinophilic granular cytoplasm

Most common in rats
What is the most common primary intracranial tumor, especially in brachycephalic breeds?
Astrocytoma
What is a glioblastoma multiforme?
A highly greded astrocytoma associated with hemorrhage and necrosis.
What might a well demarcated, gelatinous mass found in cerebral white matter with a honeycomb appearance histologically be?
Oligodendroglioma
Are ependymomas common and are they benign or infiltrative?
Rare
Large, infiltrative and typically destructive
Where are ependymoma typically found?
Gray and fleshy, arise from 3rd ventricle
How do ependymomas appear histologically?
pseudorosettes around vessels or rosettes around a potential lumen

densely cellular
What are tumors of the choroid plexus called and which domestic species has them?
Benign: papilloma
Malignant: carcinoma

Dog
Describe choroid plexus papillomas.
Well defined reddish to gray masses, papilliferous
Rows and trabeculae of epithelial cells supported by a fibrovascular CT stroma
Define gliomatosis cerebri.
Diffuse infiltrating tumor seen in dogs.
No tumor mass, but diffuse enlargement of affected regions
Gangliocytoma vs ganglioglioma?
Gangliocytomas: rare tumors that have a predilection for the cerebellum
Ganglioglioma: rare tumor composed of neuronal cells and neoplastic astrocytes
Esthesioneuroblastoma
Arises from primitive neurosensory cells present in the olfactory mucosa
A cerebellar primitive neuroectodermal tumor seen mainly in young calves and dogs.
Medulloblastoma
What is the most common round cell tumor in the brain of domestic animals?
Lymphosarcoma
Histiocytic sarcoma
Grossly like a meningioma
Arise from distinct macro population of the spinal cord
Where is an area of predilection of germ cell tumors in the CNS?
Sellar region of the pituitary.
Hepatoid-like cells.
What tumor arises from the remnants of Rathke's pouch?
Craniopharyngioma
True/False. Bone tumors can cause compression of the brain and direct invasion.
False. Not direct invasion.
What are some secondary symptoms of pituitary tumors?
Compression of hypothalamus or optic chiasm
Invasion of 3rd ventricle and hydrocephalus
What peripheral nerve sheath tumor commonly involves the brachial plexus?
Schwannoma
What is the condition of multiple well differentiated schwannomas in cattle?
Neurofibromatosis
What are the 3 categories of primary neuronal degeneration?
Multisystemic- affect functionally related neuronal groups in basal ganglia, brainstem and cerebellum
Cerebellar
Neuraxonal dystrophies- spinal neurons
In which breeds are multisystemic neuronal abiotrophies known to occur?
Kerry Blue Terriers, Rough Coated collies, min poodles: primarily cerebellar
Cocker spaniels: Neuronal loss in cerebrocortical nuclei as well --> mental deterioration
Cairn terriers- chromatolysis
Which dog breeds are known to be susceptible to canine cerebellar abiotrophy?
Airedale
Gordon setter
Collie
Beagle
Brittany Spaniel
American Staffordshire Terrier
What are signs of cerebellar abiotrophy?
Intention tremor
progressive ataxia
dysmetria
Which large animal breeds are prone to cerebellar abiotrophy
Arabian horses
Abderdeen, Angus, Holstein
Yorkshire pigs
Merino sheep
Which breeds are affected by neuraxonal dystrophies?
Rottweilers
Collie
Chihuahua
Suffolk sheep
horses
Which 2 neurodegenerative diseases of the horse may be linked to vitamin E deficiency?
Equine LMN Disease
Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy
Equine grass sickness and Key-Gaskell syndrome are two examples of what type of CNS degenerative disease?
Dysautonomias
What sort of lesions are seen in mitochondrial encephalopathies?
bilateral status spongiosis
necrosis
cavitation
What histological/EM changes may be seen in gangliosidoses?
concentric cytoplasmic whorls
stacked, parallel membranes aka zebra bodies
Which lysosomal storage disease also involves accumulation of a toxic metabolite?
Globoid Cell Leukodystrophy aka lgactocerebrosidosis

psychosine is toxic to oligodendrocytes
Glucocerebrosidosis
Gaucher's Disease
Sphingomyelin lipidosis
Neimann-Pick Disease
What is the most common lysosomal storage disease in vet med?
Alpha-mannosidosis
Accumulation of substrate from which lysosomal storage disease can also be caused by a toxin?
alpha mannosidosis

Swainsonine ingestion can also cause accumulation of oligosaccharides
Which mannosidosis form is most severe? What histological lesions are characteristic of both?
Beta. Gross ventriculomegaly

vaculolization
Mucopolysaccharidosis I
Hurler's

Progressive pelvic limb gait disorder
Mucopolysaccharidosis II
Hunter's
Mucopolysaccharidosis III
Sanfilipo
Mucopolysaccharidosis VI
Maroteux-Lamy
Mucopolysaccharidosis VII
Sly
What are general symptoms of Mucopolysaccharidoses?
corneal opacities
skeletal deformities
lax joints
valvular thickening
True/False. Any enzyme involved in synthesis or degradation of glycogen can be responsible for a glycogen storage disease.
True. But only Type II involved lysosomes (degradative enzymes)
What substrate accumulates in ceroid lipofuscinosis?
Subunit C of mitochondrial ATP synthetase
Which lysosomal storage disease is seen in guinea pigs?
alpha mannosidosis
Depressed or absent patellar relex is only seen in which motor unit problem(s)?
neuropathy
botulism
tick paralysis
True/False. Muscle atrophy will be seen in neuropathy, myopathy or junctionopathy.
False. Neuropathy and myopathy.
Can a chronic motor unit disorder be a junctionopathy?
No
Will motor unit disease cause ataxia or CP deficits?
NO
Which characteristic distinguishes motor unit disorders from CNS disorders?
Tend to be symmetric symptoms of weakness, reflex loss and muscle tone.
When are muscle and nerve biopsies generally not needed?
Trauma
Nerve Sheath Tumor
Acute junctionopathy
Idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
Myotonia
Motor unit disorders that may manifest as acute tetraplegia?
Idiopathic polyradiculneuritis
Botulism
Tick paralysis
rare fulminant form of myasthenia gravis
Radiculoneuropathy
Subset of neuropathies affecting the nerve roots
Transport by slow anterograde?
cytoskeletal components
Transport by fast anterograde?
NT
mitochondria
secretory vesicles
proteins
growth factors
Transport by fast retrograde?
waste products
some growth factors
some disease agents
True/False. The axon provides trophic support for Schwann cells.
True. And the other way is true as well.
Define motor endplate
focal area on myofiber innervated by axon collateral and its branches.
Where are Na+ channels and AChR located on the postynaptic membrane?
AChR and ligand gated Na+ channels occupies peaks
Voltage gated Na+ channels in troughs
Which proteins facilitate NT vesicle docking?
SNARE
What determines the size of the EPP?
quantal content
functional integrity of AChR
AChE activity
Synaptic fold deph
True/False. There is an excess of available AChR channels relative to the threshold needed to generate a muscle AP
True.
Type I myofibers
Mitochondria Rich
Highly aerobic
Slow Twitch
Stain lightly
Type II myofibers
moderate aerobic to high anaerobic metabolism
fast twitch
Stain darkly
What can be seen after axonal injury?
swelling and fragmentation of neurofilaments and myelin
Digestion chambers
What can be seen during axonal regeneration?
Bands of Bungner: Schwann cells multiply and hypertrophy
What is dying back neuropathy?
Neuropathy due to axonal transport dysfunction
distal to proximal neurofilament loss
axon atrophy
myelin loss
complete axonal loss with fibrous replacement
What are some major causes of dying back neuropathy?
metabolic defects
toxins
True/False. Primary demyelinating disorders are more common than secondary in domestic animals.
False.
What is the most common primary demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves in vet med?
IPR/Coonhound Paralysis
Can a pure myelinopathy cause neurogenic muscle atrophy?
No
Characteristics of neurogenic muscle atrophy
Atrophy of adjacent myofibers with eventual formation of nuclear remnants of degenerated fibers- nuclear bags
Reinnervation can lead to fiber type grouping
Causes of primary myopathies?
Degenerative- endocrine, metabolic, inherited
Inflammatory
Functional defect
What histological features of myopathies are not seen in neuropathies?
Muscle necrosis: pallor or eosinophilia with loss of striations. Vacuolization and inflammatory infiltrates
Rounded, atrophic fibers of variable size (not angulated or grouped)
Histological features of myositis
inflammatory cell infiltrates
split or whorled fibers
interstitial fibrosis
what type of myopathy causes ragged red fibers?
mitochondrial
Histological features of myotonia
central nuclei
hypertrophied fibers
What can cause selective type II fiber type atrophy?
Endocrine disorders such as hypothyroidism and Cushing's.
When is CSF evaluation indicated?
To determine presence of inflammatory disease (meningoencephalitus)
Some neoplasia (lymphosarcoma)
Why is CSF sampling done post-MRI?
To gauge brain swelling and potential for herniation.
After a CSF tap, which cells die first?
RBCs
Neutrophils
What factors influence CSF character?
Type of lesion
Location
Degree of lesion necrosis
Stage of disease
Previous treatment
Amount of blood contamination
What may cause an increase in cell count of CSF fluid (pleocytosis)?
Tissue necrosis
Inflammatory CNS disease
What are the landmarks for a cerebellomedullary CSF tap?
Occipital protuberance
Wings of the atlas
What are the CSF collection sites for the various species?
cerebellomedullary cistern (all)
lumbar (dogs)
lumbosacral intervertebral space (cats and large animals)
What parameters should be closely monitored during a CSF tap?
Respiratory rate and pattern
Heart rate and regularity
Blood pressure
What are normal CSF protein values?
< 25 mg/dl for dogs
<50 mg/dl for cows, sheep, pigs
<75 horses
What is the most frequent abnormality in a CSF tap?
Change in protein concentration
What is albuminiocytologic dissociation and when does it occur?
Increase in protein, normal cell counts
degenerative diseases
ischemia/infarction
idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
neoplasia
What type of tumors result in a VERY high protein concentration?
Choroid plexus tumors
ependymomas
Does inflammation result in increased CSF protein?
Yes, secondary to Ig production and BBB disruption
What are normal CSF white counts?
WBC = 0-5 /ul
What are some causes of CSF white count of 5-50?
viral infection
trauma
vascular disease
What sort of things cause severe pleocytosis (WBC: > 200)
bacterial infection
immune-mediated disease
What sort of things cause moderate pleocytosis? (WBC 50-200)?
fungal or protozoal infections
What is a normal RBC count of CSF fluid?
0-5.ul
Relative WBC makeup of CSF?
Monocytes > lymphocytes in dogs, cats and horses

lymphocytes > monocytes in cattle
What would bacterial infection, severe viral infection, acute trauma or tumor necrosis look like on CSF cytology?
Increased neutrophils
What diseases are associated with increased lymphocytes +/- monocytes on cytology?
Fungal, protozoal infections
Listeriosis
Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis
necrotiing meningoencephalitis?
What diseases are associated with mixed cell pleocytosis?
Acute granulomatous meningoencephalitis
Chronic bacterial infection
Fungal, protozoal disease
Causes of eosinophilic pleocytosis?
Parasites
Fungal, Protozoal disease
Algal disease
Idiopathic eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
T1 relaxation
Return of proton magnetic fields to original alignment
T2 relaxation
Protons tend to stop rotating in unison
Relative opacities of a T1 weighted sequence?
Short relaxation times appear hyperintense:
fat gadolinium > brain parenchyma > free water
Which type of lesions result in increased relaxation time?
inflammation
edema
tumor infiltrations
Which type of lesions result in decreased relaxation time?
fat
hemorrhage
melanin
On a T2 weighted sequence, what appears white?
Substances with long relaxation time (more free water)
tumors
edema
inflammation
How does the appearance of fat look different on T2 compared to T1 sequences?
Fat is darker- helps to differentiate from fluid (edema)
What can be differentiated on protein density sequence (long TR short TE)
Attenuate CSF fluid so can differentiate between solid mass (gray) and CSF (dark)
What materials appear void on protein density sequence?
Dense cortical bone
calcification
fibrous tissue
hoof
What type of work is protein density helpful for?
Orthopedic
What type of sequence differentiates cystic from solid lesions?
FLAIR:
Low cellularity fluid appears black, edema or inflammation appears white.
What does gradient echo (aka FLASH) help us see?
Hemorrhage:
Iron, manganese, copper and Ca++ salts appear void
Which MRI sequence shows greater anatomical resolution? The least?
Proton Density
Gradient Echo (T2*-W)
What is one limitation of gradient echo (T2*-W)?
Void artifact over soft tissues surrounded by air
What does FLAIR tell us?
Edematous versus solid tissue. Cysts and edematous tissue appear hyperintense.
Improves visualization of lesions close to ventricles and sulci
How does CSF appear on FLAIR?
hypointense
Benefit of FatSat?
Eliminates false lesions caused by presence of yellow fat inside bone
Turns fat from white to darker
What does gadolinium show?>
vascularization
damaged blood brain barrier