Neurobiology Final

Front 1

When are muscle/nerve biopsies not indicated?

Back 1

known or suspected trauma
nerve sheath tumor
acute junctionopathy
idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
myotonia

Front 2

Classic clinical signs of neuropathies.

Back 2

Weakness
Gait changes
Can be flaccid, recumbent
muscle atrophy
relfex loss
normal CP/UP

Front 3

Generalized signs of diffuse motor unit disorders?

Back 3

Weakness or paresis
Exercise Intolerance
Decreased Flexor Withdrawal
Decreased Patellar (in some cases)
Muscle atrophy

Front 4

How are neuropathies clinically tested?

Back 4

EMG: spontaneous activity depends on axon involvement
NCV: slowing depends on myelin development
CMAP: reduced in axonopathy
dispersed temporally in myelinopathy
biopsy

Front 5

EMG: fibrillation potentials +/- chronic repetitive discharges
NCV- normal
CMP: decreased amplitude
Increased CK, AST but normal ALT
Biopsy

Back 5

Tests for myopathy

Front 6

CMAP: Decreased amplitude with repeated nerve stimulation

Back 6

Junctionopathy

Front 7

Characteristics of exercise intolerance?>

Back 7

Stiff, choppy gait
Muscle tremors followed by collapse

Front 8

Acute Motor Unit Disorders

Back 8

IPR/Coonhound Paralysis (N)
Myasthenia Gravis
Immune-mediated Polymyositis
Protozoal polyradiculoneuritis/myositis
Trauma
Masticatory Muscle Myositis

Front 9

True/False. Patellar reflex is depressed or absent in all motor unit disorders.

Back 9

False. The flexor withdrawal reflex is affected in all, patellar only in neuropathies or rare fulminant junctionopathies.

Front 10

Chronic Motor Unit Disorders

Back 10

Diabetic Neuropathy
Hypothyroid Neuropathy
Cushing's Myopathy
Idiopathic Neuropathy of Old Dogs
Paraneoplastic Neuropathy

Front 11

Unlike most other chronic neuropathies and myopathies, this disease is very painful.

Back 11

Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor

Front 12

True/False. Ataxia due to UP lesions from C1 to T2 generally cause an ataxia that is more pronounced in the pelvic limbs

Back 12

True.

Front 13

What kind of spinal cord lesion results in hyperesthesia?

Back 13

Extramedullary

Front 14

True/False. Extramedullary lesions usually cause symmetrical signs while intramedullary lesions cause asymmetrical signs, usually.

Back 14

False. Switch them.

Front 15

VERTEBRAL lesion at L4-L5 affects what nerves?

Back 15

Femoral and a portion of sciatic.

Front 16

VERTEBRAL lesion at L5-L6 affects what nerves?

Back 16

Severe sciatic and pudendal nerve signs.

Front 17

True/False. Signs of a lesion at vertebral segments L5-L6 have similar signs as L6-S3.

Back 17

True. L6-S3 affects cauda equina.

Front 18

Signalment for chondroid metaplasia.

Back 18

3-6 years old
T11-S2 more common
Chondrodystrophic breeds

Front 19

Signalment for fibroid metaplasia.

Back 19

Any age or breed, but typically older, larger, nonchondrodystrophic breeds.

T-L and C5-T7 most common.

Front 20

Most common sites of Type I IVDD

Back 20

C1-C5 or thoracolumbar junction

Front 21

Indications for surgery in Type I IVDD?

Back 21

Plegia
Loss of pain sensation
Progressive signs
Multiple recurrences

Front 22

Sitting with hind limbs extended between front legs is a posture typical of what spinal cord problem?

Back 22

Type I IVDD

Front 23

Diskospondylitis

Back 23

Infection of IVD space and adjacent vertebral metaphyses.

Hint 23

Young
Large breeds
Often multifocal

Front 24

Differentials for hunched posture, stilted gait, hyperesthesia.

Back 24

Diskospondylitis
Immune-mediated polymyositis
(Cervical spondylomyelopathy- neck stiffness, rigid thoracic limbs)
Meningitis
______

Front 25

Which disk diseases can cause proprioceptive defects?

Back 25

Type II IVDD
Diskospondylitis
______

Front 26

Differential diagnoses for punched out looking disc on transverse CT?

Back 26

Diskosphondylitis
Some tumors (multiple myeloma)

Front 27

Degenerative myelopathy

Back 27

Slow degeneration of thoracolumbar white matter

usually symmetrical

Hint 27

> 5 years old
Large breed dogs
Gradual onset over months

Front 28

Clinical course for extradural or intradural/extramedullary neoplasia?

Back 28

Compressive
Longer course
Painful
Often asymmetrical

Front 29

Clinical course for intramedullary neoplasia?

Back 29

Expansile
Shorter course
non-painful
often symmetrical

Front 30

What type of tumor shows spinal cord swelling on myelography?

Back 30

Intramedullary

Front 31

Which type of tumors show a golf tee sign on myelography?

Back 31

Intradural, extramedullary

Front 32

What type of tumors show column/spinal cord deviation on myelography?

Back 32

Extradural

Front 33

Fibrocartilaginous Embolic Myelopathy

Back 33

2-10 year old
large breed dogs
peracute
focal lesion, but may have multifocal signs
no hyperesthesia
intramedullary edema on MRI

Front 34

Is cervical spondylomyelopathy congenital or acquired?

Back 34

Either.
Congenital: stenosis, malformed pedicles/lamina, articular facet deformities
Acquired: redundant annulus fibrosis/DLL, Type II disc,
vertebral tipping, hyperplasia of ligamentum flavum

Front 35

Cervical sponylomyelopathy signalment?

Back 35

Young
Large breed
Insidious onset, usually progressive

Front 36

Does cervical spondylomyelopathy cause static or dynamic cord compression?

Back 36

Dynamic

Front 37

Funnel shaped vertebral canal on radiographs, crouched pelvic limb posture, neck stiffness, LMN signs to proxmial thoracic limb?

Back 37

Cervical Spondylomyelopathy

Front 38

2 Engine gait?

Back 38

Cervical spondylomyelopathy

Front 39

Lumbosacral Spondylopathy

Back 39

Pain, difficulty rising
Patellar hyperreflexia (sciatic weakness)
Decreased anal tone, incontinence

Front 40

A cavalier king charles spaniel with paraesthesia of the neck and shoulders, scratches excessively, cervical torticollis.

Back 40

Caudal Occipital Malformation Syndrome (COMS)

Front 41

Atlantoaxial subluxation

Back 41

Acute onset
Young toy breeds

Front 42

True/False. Horner's syndrome could be seen with either central or peripheral vestibular disease.

Back 42

False. Does not enter brainstem on the way to the eye, so peripheral only.

Front 43

Idiopathic Vestibular Disease

Back 43

Old, old dogs
Peracute

Front 44

Which neuropathy can also cause vestibular signs in addition to paresis and hyporeflexia?

Back 44

Hypothyroid due to cranial nerve involvement.

Front 45

One distinguishing characteristic of otitis interna from idiopathic vestibular syndrome?

Back 45

Idiopathic vestibular syndrome should quickly improve. Otitis interna unlikely without treatment.

Front 46

Could vestibular signs due to hypothyroidism be acute?

Back 46

Yes

Front 47

What areas are more likely to show signs due to GME?

Back 47

1- Brainstem/vestibular
2- Forebrain
3- Spinal cord
4- Multifocal

Front 48

Infectious agents that may invade brainstem and cause vestibular signs?

Back 48

FIP
Cryptococcus
Canine Distemper
Coccidioides immitis
Ehrlichia
Rocky Mt Spotted Fever
Rabies
Listeria

Front 49

What agegroup is most likely to show clinical signs of distemper relating to vestibularcerebellar system?

Back 49

Between 12 weeks and 1 year

Front 50

In what clinical variant of distemper do cerebral signs dominate?

Back 50

Young dogs <12 weeks

Front 51

Concurrent signs of distemper to help with differential diagnosis?

Back 51

GI signs
Ocular signs
Respiratory signs

Front 52

Vertical nystagmus, profound weakness, vestibular signs (- head tilt), muscle tremors.

Back 52

Metronidazole toxicity.

Front 53

Pathogenesis of thiamine deficiency.

Back 53

Hemorrhage and neuronal necrosis progressing to malacia. Affects cauadal colliculus, medial vestibular nuclei, lateral geniculate nuclei, sometimes cerebellar nodulus.

Front 54

True/False. Thiamine deficiency is characterized by ataxia, nystagmus, torticollis, neck ventroflexion, mydriasis, absent PLR, decreased Doll's eye, seizures, and "stevie wonder" posturing.

Back 54

False. Everything but the "Stevie Wonder"

Front 55

DDX for vestibular symptoms in old dog, acute onset but improving.

Back 55

Idiopathic, vascular

Front 56

DDX for vestibular symptoms in old animals, chronic onset and slowly progressive.

Back 56

Neoplasia

Front 57

DDX for vestibular symptoms in any age, subacute, static/progressive or even waxing and waning.

Back 57

Otitis

Front 58

DDX for vestibular symptoms in any age, acute onset, static, no head tilt.

Back 58

Metronidazole toxicity.

Front 59

Causes of facial paralysis.

Back 59

Idiopathic
Otitis
Neoplasia
Trauma
Focal MG (bilateral)
hypothyroidism

Front 60

What test is helpful in localizing the lesion responsible for Horner's?

Back 60

A 1% phenylephrine test would reveal a post-ganglionic sympathetic nerve lesion.

Front 61

Masticatory myositis versus trigeminal nerve sheath tumor.

Back 61

Masticatory myositis is typically bilateral, and results in trismus, whereas PNST doesn't show clinical signs of jaw weakness unless BS is involved.

Front 62

Cavernous Sinus Syndrome

Back 62

"Dead Eye that Sees"
CN III, IV, VI, ophthalmic of V
No Doll's Eye
No PLR, palpebral, corneal, retractor oculi

Front 63

Laryngeal Paralysis

Back 63

Older, large breed dogs
Commonly associated w/ polyneuropathy

Front 64

True/False. Cerebellar abiotrophy usually results in smaller than normal cerebellum on MRI.

Back 64

False. Affects Purkinje cells, usually little effect on size.

Front 65

What is the number one site for stroke in dogs?

Back 65

Cerebellum

Front 66

What does edema look like on MRI?

Back 66

Hypointense on T1
Hyperintense on T2

Front 67

Which myopathy is the exception where the patellar reflex is reduced?

Back 67

Lab Retriever Myopathy

Front 68

What is the characteristic finding of many myopathies?

Back 68

Complex repetitive discharges
NCV normal
CMAP amplitudes reduced

Front 69

Frying eggs or rain on a tin roof are sounds on EMG indicative of what?

Back 69

fibrillation potentials, which is spontaneous activity at rest (myopathy, neuropathy).

Front 70

In what area is "bunny hopping" a common clinical sign?

Back 70

Myopathy

Front 71

Age susceptibility of myasthenia?

Back 71

2-3 years and > 9 years

Front 72

Which neuropathy is accompanied by hyperesthesia?

Back 72

Idiopathic Polyradiculoneuritis/Coonhound paralysis (also a myositis)

Front 73

Horse with diminished ability to swallow food and water, decreased tongue and eyelid tone, progressing to muscle tremors and flaccid paralysis.

Back 73

Botulism

Front 74

Nutritional Myedegeneration

Back 74

Aka "White Muscle Disease"
Seen in lambs, kids, foals due to Se or Vit E deficiency.
Cardiac- peracute death
Skeletal- weak and stiff

Front 75

True/False. Extramedullary lesions tend to produce worse signs in the pelvis vs the thoracic limbs.

Back 75

True.

Front 76

Spinal segments that give rise to the phrenic nerve.

Back 76

C4-C6

Front 77

What type of lesions may lead to root signature ipsilaterally?

Back 77

Extramedullary with nerve root involvement.

Front 78

This vessel is the site of fibrocartilaginous embolic myelopathy.

Back 78

Vetnral spinal artery

Front 79

and UMN paresis, insidious onset in large breed dog 3- 18 months old.

Back 79

Cervical Sponylomyelopathy ____________

Front 80

What is the cause of exaggerated patellar reflexes in lumbosacral stenosis?

Back 80

Lack of antagonism to muscles innervated by the femoral nerve.

Front 81

Equine: circumduction of outside hind limb when circled.

Back 81

Cervical Vertebral Malformation/stenosis

Front 82

Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)

Back 82

Young horses
Symmetrica ataxia, paresis, spasticity

Front 83

Asymmetric proprioceptive deficits, focal muscle atrophy, equine.

Back 83

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)

Front 84

Equine
Temporary ataxia to complete paralysis
Bladder dysfunction
Fever

Back 84

Equine Herpes Virus-1

Front 85

Equine
Laying down more than usual
muscle fasciculations
shift weight frequently
Pigment retinopathy

Back 85

Equine Motor Neuron Disease (non-inflammatory!)

Front 86

Sheep with opisthotonus.

Back 86

CAE
Polioencephalomalacia

Front 87

Causes of opisthotonus

Back 87

Metronidazole toxicity
Thiamine Deficiency
Cerebellar problems

Front 88

Loss of doll's eye reflex after head trauma would most likely be due to what?

Back 88

Transtentorial herniation and compression of the midbrain (nuclei of CN III)

Front 89

What can increased ICP and/or herniation lead to?

Back 89

Bradycardia
Systemic hypertension
Neurogenic Pulmonary Edema
Death

Front 90

Decerebellate rigidity/foramen magnum herniation

Back 90

Opisthotonic posture, front legs extended, rear legs flexed

Front 91

When are CT or MRI indicated in brain trauma?

Back 91

Progessive neurological signs despite intervention
Suspected unstable skull fractures