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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Convulsion def
involuntary contraction or series of contractions by voluntary muscles
Seizure def
excessive discharge of nerurons and is characterized by changes in electrical activity measured by EEG
Epilepsy def
periordic recurrence of seizures with and w/o convulsion
First 5 etiologies of Epilepsy
1)genetic predisposition
2)mental retardation/palsy
3)some pediatric neurologic conditions associated w/ seizure may influence/determine appearance of epileptic disorder later in life
4)Trauma to head (including stroke, infexn, tumor)
5)sleep deprivation
Second 6 etiologies of Epilepsy
6)Hormones from menses, puberty, pregnancy
7)sensory stimuli
8)emotional stress
9)hyperventilation (absence seizures)
10)withdrawal from CNS meds, alcohol, abused drugs
11)toxic []s of antiepileptic meds
2 types of Generalized seizures and desc (3)
1)Generalized Tonic-Clonic seizures
2)Absence seizures

1)no detectable focal point of origin
2)may originate from single/several foci
3)NO WARNING
Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure
a)characteristics (3)
b)tonic phase?
c)clonic phase?
d)therapy (5)
a1)LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS AND PT FALLS TO GROUND
a2)POSTICTAL, regain conscious slowly and remains confused/lethargic for a while
a3)lasts 2-5min

b)generalized bilateral contraction
c)generalized bilateral repetitious rhythmic jerking, incontinent of urine/stool

d1)VPA
d2)CBZ
d3)dilantin
d4)primidone
d5)phenobarbital
Absence Seizures
a)characteristics (3)
b)TYPICAL TYPE (4)
c)ATYPICAL TYPE (3)
d)tx (2)
a1)ALMOST EXCLUSIVELY IN KIDS
a2)ABRUPT LASPE IN MENTAL FXN LAST ONLY A FEW SEC
a3)staring/smacking of lips

b1)sudden onset
b2)3cycles/sec
b3)spike and wave EEG
b4)disappears in adulthood

c1)onset/cessation may NOT be abrupt
c2)EEG 2 to 2.5 cycles/sec (spike and wave)
c3)do NOT necessarily disappear in adult hood

d1)ethosuccamide
d2)VPA
3 types Partial seizures and desc (2)
1)simple partial seizures
2)complex partial seizures
3)secondarily generalized

1)localized focus of abnormal neural activity
2)characteristics depend on location of foci and ability of abnormal impulses to spread
Simple partial seizures
a)characteristics (2)
b)symptoms (4)
c)tx (3)
a1)focal, motor, sensory partial seizures
a2)characteristics depend on location of foci

b1)PT CONSCIOUS and able to respond to surroundings
b2)last several sec to min
b3)NOT CONFUSED after seizure
b4)affected limb may be weak or paralyzed (Todd's paralysis)

c1)CBZ
c2)phenytoin
c3)phenobarbital
Complex partial seizures
a)characterictics (2)
b)examples of activity (4)
c)symptoms (2)
d)tx (3)
a1)psychomotor, temporal lobe seizures
a2)localized focus but often affects many different systems

b1)walking
b2)removing clothes
b3)moving items on desk
b4)lip smacking/chewing

c1)IMPAIRED CONSCIOUSNESS
c2)PT DISORIENTED AND CONFUSED AFTER SEIZURE (postictal)

d1)CBZ
d2)phenytoin
d3)phenobarbital
Secondary Generalized seizure
a)characteristics
b)diff b/w GTCS and partial seizures that have secondary generalized
c)tx
a1)partial seizures can spread and become tonic-clonic seizures

b1)IF PRECEDED BY AURA (pt can predict it or feel it coming) IT IS PARTIAL

c)drugs have limited ability to control this disorder
Hyperexcitability?
unstable cell membrance or surrounding supportive cells in the gray matter of cortical/subcortical area of the brain develop intrinsic burst discharges
Hypersynchronicity?
excitability spreads by paroxysmal discharges occurring synchronously in a large population of cortical neurons
Seizure activity is 3 things
1)hyperexcitability
2)hypersynchronicity
3)failure of inhibitory activty
NT's involved in seizures (4)
1)major excitatory is glutamate and asparatate
2)major inhibitory is GABA and dopamine
Ions involved in seizures (2)
1)neuronal hyperexcitability (neuronal firing--Na)
2)neuronal hypersynchronicity (pacemaker potentials--Ca)
Na channel drugs act how? and ex of some (6)
Prolong the inactivation of Na channels reducing the ability of neurons to fire @ high frequencies

1)tegretol
2)phenytoin
3)valproate
4)lamictal
5)zonisamide
6)topamax
Ca channel drugs act how and ex of some (4)
inhibit flow of Ca thru T-type channels = reduces the pacemaker current the underlies the thalamic rhythm in spikes/waves seen in generalized and absence seizures

1)ethosuccimide
2)valproate
3)trimetadione
4)zonisamide
Enhance GABA mediated inhibition drugs act how? and ex of some/submechanism (5)
GABA(a) receptors are responsible for fast synaptic inhibition. Activation of GABA(a) receptors opens a Cl channel causing hyperpolarization

1)NEURONTIN substitutes for GABA
2)VIGABATRIN irreversibly inhibits GABA aminotransferase (which normally metabolizes GABA)
3)PHENOBARBITAL binds barbituate site of GABA(a) receptor extending open time of Cl channel
4)BZD's bind bzd site of GABA(a) receptor opening Cl channel more often
5)TIAGABINE blocks GABA reuptake
Drugs that decr glutatmate-mediated excitation (2 w/ submechanism)
1)TOPAMAX antagonize AMPA and Kainate to do so
2)FELBAMATE antagonize NMDA to do so
AMPA receptor channels are responsible for... (3)
1)for fast excitatory neurotransmission by Na-K channel and coexist w/ NMDA receptors in all synapses
2)opening AMPA channel releases the Mg block present in the resting stage
3)so blocking it keeps this Mg block and thus in resting stage
NMDA receptor channels
a)unique why
b)fxn (2)
1)unique among glutatmate receptors b/c of their voltage dependence and high permeability to Ca

2)they open to Ca entry and provide the prolonged phase of the excitatory neurotransmission
3)so blocking them would prevent this
Antiepileptic w/ UNKNOWN mechanism
Levetiracetma (KEPPRA)
Non-pharma tx of epilepsy (3)
1)temporal lobectomy (remove just one of em)
2)Corpus colosotomies and hemispherectomies (BUT HIGHER MORBIDITY AND MORTALITY)
3)Vagal Nerve stimulation
Dx of seizure involves... (5)
1)hx
2)PE
3)EEG
4)scans (CT, MRI, PET, SPECT)
5)video/EEG monitoring
EEG?
graphic representation of alternating electrical potentials on scalp surface
2 peaks in incidence/prevalence of Epilepsy
1)children under 16
2)over 64yo
Simple partial seizures have 4 types of symptoms and 2 other things
1)motor (foci in motor cortex)
2)somatosensory or special sensory (foci in sensory cortex)
3)autonomic symptoms (like sweating)
4)psychic symptoms (doom, euphoria, pleasure)

1)NO LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS****
2)IN JUST 1 PART OF THE BRAIN***
2 types of complex partial seizures
1)begin as simple partial seizure and progress to impairment of consciousness
2)impairment of consciousness right off
Partial seizures EVOLVING TO SECONDARY GENERALIZED SEIZURES (3 ways)***** and meaning
1)simple parital seizures evolving to generalized seizures
2)complex partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures
3)simple parital seizures evolving to complex partial seizure to generalized seizures

1)seizure starts in one part of brain and spreads
Generalized seizure types (6)
1)absence (or atypical absence)
2)myoclonic
3)clonic
4)tonic
5)tonic-clonic
6)atonic (astatic)
Status epilepticus (2)
1)seizure starts and does NOT stop for about 30min
2)50% mortality rate
Seizure def from Oommen
Subjective or objective behavioral manifestation of an abnormal and excessive electrical discharge from the brain
Normal values OUTSIDE CELL MEMBRANE
a)Na
b)K
c)Ca
d)Mg
e)Cl
f)A- (anions)
g)Net+
a)145
b)4
c)0
d)0
e)114
f)0
g)35
Normal values INSIDE CELL MEMBRANE
a)Na
b)K
c)Ca
d)Mg
e)Cl
f)A- (anions)
g)Net+
a)12
b)155
c)3
d)26
e)2
f)123
g)16
Paroxysmal Depolarization Shift****** (3)
1)fundamental defect in epileptogenic state is this (PDS)
2)an unexplained tendency of epileptic neuron to repeatedly depolarize
3)is result of unregulated release of excitatory NT's (glycine)
Lowering the Seizure Threshold (5)****
1)misnomer!!! base membrane potential is actually raised
2)repeated small EPSPs cause persistent elevation of membrane potential
3)result is that small EPSP causes AP to trigger
4)partial depo state in cell membrane
5)greater excitability of the membrane
If Excitation is increased (as the cause of epilepsy); how to tx? (3)
1)Na channel antagonists
2)Ca channel antagonists
3)Glutamate receptor antagonist
If Inhibition is decreased (as the cause of epilepsy); how to tx? (3)
1)GABA(a) agonist
2)Enhanced GABA levels
3)K+ channel agonists
A ____ part of the brain can also cause seizure and afterwards...
hypoperfused/hypometabolic parts of the brain cause seizure; this part becomes hypermetabolic/perfused after seizure
Big qualification of Epilepsy
RECURRENT seizures
Invasive Localization of seizure (3)
1)using sub-dural strips/grids
2)records electrical activity for localizing epileptogenic areas in the brain
3)also used for cortical mapping of cortex prior to surgical ablation of abnormal areas
Intra-Operative ECoG (2)
1)grid electrodes used for intra-operative electro-corticography (ECoG)
2)lets EEGer direct the extent of surgical resection during temporal lobectomy
Cortical Mapping
1)40 electrode grid surgically placed for seizure localization and cortical mapping
Vagal Nerve Stimulation (VNS) therapy (3)
1)packmaker like pulse generator
2)reduces seizure freq (not a cure)
3)pt can abort the seizures using magnets when they happen
Deep Brain Stimulation Therapy (3)
1)named Kinetra
2)implanted in chest wall and used to stimulate the anterior nucleus of the thalamus
3)only FDA approved for Parkinson's right now
Address Remedial Causes of Seizure therapy (5)
1)mechanical (trauma, tumor, vascular)
2)metabolic
3)sudden withdrawal of CNS meds
4)fever, infexn
5)psychiatric (anxiety/depression)
Best tolerated antiepileptic drug selection (2)
1)phenytoin
2)CBZ
Dose titration of anti-epileptic drugs (2)
1)doing so minimizes CNS depression
2)start w/ 1/4 to 1/3 of anticipated maintenance dose and incr over 3-4wks
In drug monitoring the Evaluation of durg []s must consider (4)
1)pt adherence
2)time of last dosage adjustment
3)time when last dose was administered
4)clinical picture (efficacy/toxicities--if drug is efficacious and pt shows no sign of toxicity then no need to monitor)
Indications for monitoring drug []s (6)
1)continued seizure on "therapeutic dose" (may need above "td")
2)seizure recurrence after control achieved
3)pt appears toxic (but may NOT be outside usual therapeutic range)
4)document therapeutic level after dosage change
5)assess therapy in pt w/ infrequent seizures
6)TREAT PT, NOT DRUG LEVEL
Free []s of AED (antieleptic drug) (4)
1)many AEDs are highly protein bound (vpa, pheny)
2)free drug is active
3)numerous drugs and disease states alter protein binding
4)altered protein binding alters CL and total drug []s for some drugs
Consider free []s for VPA and Phenytoin in what conditions (7)
1)chronic liver/renal failure
2)hypoalbuminemia
3)burns
4)pregnancy
5)malnutrition
6)displacing drugs (other highly protein bound meds0
7)neonates/elderly
Reasons for Tx failure (5)
1)inappropriate drug selection
2)inappropriate dose
3)poor compliance
4)refractory patient
5)(-) lifestyle--alcohol and drug abuse
Factors promoting complete withdrawal of AED (6)
1)2yr seizure free of absence seizures
2)4yr seizure free for SP, CP, absence associated w/ TC
3)complete seizure control within 1yr of onset
4)onset of seizure after age 2 BUT before age 35
5)normal EEG
6)inappropriate use of AED
Factors against complete withdrawal of AED (5)
1)hx of high frequency of seizures
2)repeated episodes of status epilepticus
3)combination of seizures
4)abnormal neurological exam
5)structural brain abnormality by MRI
Best way to withdraw AED to reduce relapse (3)
1)withdraw over 6months
2)within 6months 12% relapse
3)32% in 12months
Polypharmacy and seizure (3)
1)avoid if possible
2)titrate initial drug choice to maximal therapeutic levels--monitor seizure freq and ADR's
3)if 2nd drug is added, titrate it as above and attempt withdrawal of 1st drug
SCARs (severe cutaneous adverse reactions) implicated drugs (5)
1)phenytoin
2)carbamazepine
3)primidone
4)phenobarbital
5)lamotrigine
Recognitions of SCARs (2)
1)don't confuse w/ concmitant meds; especially Abx
2)differentiate from infexous, inflammatory or neoplastic processes (mono, TSS, SLE, lymphoma)
a)Stevens Johnson syndrome
b)Toxic epidermal necrolysis
c)SJS-TEN overlap syndrome
d)Lesions appearance of these 3 (3)
a)less than 10% epidermal detachment
b)over 30% epidermal detachment
c)10-30% epidermal detachment

d1)macules w/ darker purpuric centers
d2)develop into target lesions
d3)In TEN, have blisters that spread w/ pressure
Anticonvulsant Hypersensitivity Syndrome
a)incidence
b)def
c)onset
a)1/1000 to 1/10,000 WITH CROSS SENSITIVITY
b)triad of fever, skin rash and sympto/asymto internal organ involvement
c)2-8wks initially, more rapidly on challenge
AHS
a)time to eruptions
b)typical lesion
c)fever
d)facial edema
e)hepatitis
f)mucosal involvement
g)neutrophil count
a)2-8wks
b)fine, red rash becomes confluent & large blisters develop
c)+++
d)+++
e)+++
f)-
g)NORMAL
SJS/TEN
a)time to eruptions
b)typical lesion
c)fever
d)facial edema
e)hepatitis
f)mucosal involvement
g)neutrophil count
a)1-3wks
b)rashes of all types (mainly morbilliform)
c)+++
d)---
e)++
f)+++ (mouth/esophagus)
g)DECREASED
Mechanism of SCARs (4)
1)immune mediated
2)excess ARENE OXIDE metabolites
3)pt lack epoxide hydroxylase or that enzyme is mutated (this will normally get rid of arene oxide metabolites)
3)phenytoin, CBZ, phenobarbital CROSS SENSITIVITY
Management of SCARs (8)
1)dc causative agent PLUS give symptomatic and supportive therapy
2)High-dose corticosteroids

2)new maintenance antiepileptic drug
a)wait till SCAR wanes
b)avoid drugs known to cross react
c)avoid drugs associated w/ hepatotoxicity (vpa)
d)avoid drugs associated w/ rash
e)avoid drugs w/ long induction times (topamax, lamictal, tiagabine)
Rash less associated w/...(3) and highly associated w/...
1)gabapentin
2)topiramate
3)tiagabine
4)BUT HIGHLY ASSOCAITED WITH LAMOTRIGINE
High dose corticosteroids w/ immune modulation controversial?
decr survival vs. decr severity of disease progression
Desirable PK properties of an AED (10)
1)rapid and linear F
2)parenteral formulation
3)linear elimination kinetics
4)half-life allowing qd or bid
5)volume of distribution w/ a single compartment
6)rapid penetration into the brain
7)low and non-saturable protein binding (less than 80%)
8)no autoinduction of enzymatic biotransformation (no induce own metabolism)
9)no active metabolites
10)slow absorption or sustained-release formulation
Also want ____ w/ new AED's
correlation b/w [] and therapeutic or toxic effects
Therapeutic drug monitoring for newer agents when? (5)
1)pt has concomitant therapies
2)metabolic differences
3)age
4)renal/hepatic dysfxn
5)pregnancy
PET scan measures...

SPECT scan measures....
glucose utilization by the brain

blood flow to the brain
Tegretol
a)Dose related ADR's (3)
b)Idiosyncratic (3)
a1)drowsy on initiation and dosage increases (lasts 7-10d)
a2)hyponatremia
a3)leukopenia

b1)agranulocytosis
b2)aplastic anemia
b3)Morbilliform rash
Tegretol PK (5)
1)active metabolite is carbamazepine 10,11 epoxide
2)NOT detected by carbamazepine assays
3)suspect if pt is clinically toxic and subtherapeutic carbamazepine []s
4)VPA interferes with CL of carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide
5)will see incr in serum [] over first 3-4d, then gradual decline due over next month due to autoinduction
Guidelines for hematologic monitoring of Tegretol (3)
1)If pretreatment CBC with differential is normal, no follow-up testing is necessary just ask pt to report signs of possible hematologic abnormalities
2)if pretx WBC/neutrophil is low, monitor every 2wks for first 1-3months; dc/decr dosage if WBC falls below 3000 OR neutrolphils below 1000
3)others recommend CBC, WBC w/ differential, platelets monthly for first 2months and yearly thereafter
Phenytoin
a)[] dependent ADR's of phenytoin (3)
a1)20-30mcg/mL- nystagmus
a2)30-40mcg/mL- ataxia
a3)over 40mcg/mL- severe cerebellar signs, drowsy, coma, paridoxical incr in seizures
Phenytoin
a)chronic toxicities (5)
b)idiosyncratic (3)
a1)hepatotoxic
a2)osteomalacia
a3)megaloblastic anemia (decr folate absorption)
a4)gingival hyperplasia
a5)coarse face/hirsutism

b1)rash/SJS
b2)blood dyscrasias
b3)SLE
Dosage forms of phenytoin (4)
1)capsules
2)suspension
3)chewable
4)injection
Fosphenytoin
a)what is it?
b)use (2)
c)other (2)
a)progrud of phenytoin that takes 30min to convert to pheytoin

b1)IV infusion (150mg/min)--has less pain and phlebitis than phenytoin
b2)can be given IM, but NOT in status epilepticus

c1)expensive
c2)paresthesia and transient pruritis
PK of phenytoin (4)
1)MM elimination
2)highly protein bound
3)F reduced w/ enteral feeding
4)monitor no more freq than 5-7d unless following dose change
VPA dosage forms (6)
1)capsules
2)injection
3)syrup
4)enteric coated
5)sprinkles
6)ER tablets
Select VPA ADR's (5)
1)liver toxicity
2)wt gain
3)hair loss
4)tremor
5)thrombocytopenia
VPA PK (4)
1)80-95% protein bound
2)if plasma levels exceed 100mg/mL free drug fraction may incr significantly
3)free FAs displace VPA from binding sites
4)INHIBITS HEPATIC METABOLISM
Phenobarbital dosage forms (3)
1)tablets
2)elixir
3)injection
Phenobarbital
a)dose related effects (2)
b)idiosyncratic (3)
a1)CNS depression including coma and respiratory depression
a2)hyper/irratable kids

b1)hepatoxic
b2)hypersensitivity (SJS/TEN)
b3)arthritic changes
Phenobarbital PK (3)
1)65% metabolized, 35% excreted unchanged in urine
2)acid/base changes alter renal elimination
3)induces hepatic enzymes
Primidone (Mysoline)
a)PK
a)anticonvulsant activity attributed to....
c)when to use?
a)metabolized in liver to phenobarbital and PEMA
b)metabolization to phenobarbital
c)refractory pts; try Pb first due to cost and dosing frequency considerations
Clonazepam
a)main indication
b)major limiting factor
a)MYOCLONIC SEIZURES
b)high rate of tolerance and recurrence of seizures
Felbamate (Felbatol)
a)main indication and why?
b)mechanism involves...
c)ADR's (3)
a)REFRACTORY seizures (mostly Lennox-Gastaut syndrome) due to deaths from aplastic anemia and hepatic failure
b)NMDA

c1)aplastic anemia
c2)hepatic failure
c3)n/v/anorexia
Felbamate
a)PK
b)drug interactions
a)glucuronidation/xoxidation to reactive metabolite detoxified by conjugation to glutathione
b)both an enzyme inducer and inhibitor
Gabapentin
a)Nonepileptic uses... (5)
b)dosing
a1)neuropathic pain
a2)psychiatric disorders
a3)movement disorders
a4)migraine prophylaxis
a5)cocaine dependence

b)DOSAGE REDUCTION IS NECESSARY IN RENAL INSUFFICIENCY
Gabapentin
a)PK (3)
b)drug interactions
a1)absorption via saturable L-AA transport system
a2)NOT protein-bound/metabolized
a3)EXCLUSIVELY RENALLY EXCRETED

b)free of interaction with other anticonvulsants
Lamotrigine
a)approved for
b)ADR's (3)
c)drug interactions (3)
a)2 YEARS AND OLDER

b1)dizzy
b2)nausea
b3)rash in 10% within 4-6wks (slow titration prevents)

c1)tegretol, phenytoin, Pb decr half-life of phenytoin
c2)VPA increases half-life of lamotrigne
c3)lamotrigine induces its own metabolism and that of VPA
Lamotrigine
a)PK (2)
b)metabolism (3)
a1)F=98%
a2)55% protein bound

b1)hepatic glucuronidation to inactive metabolite
b2)auto-induction causes a 25% decr from original half-life
b3)metabolite is renally eliminated
Tiagabine (Gabitril)
a)mechanism
b)dosing
c)ADR's (3)
d)measuring serum []s
a)inhibits GABA reuptake
b)slow titration AND WITH FOOD

c1)depressed mood
c2)dizziness
c3)HA

d)IN MCG/ML
Tiagabine (Gabitril)
a)PK (5)
b)drug interactions (3)
a1)to avoid ADR's associated w/ high peak levels take it w/ food
a2)protein binding 96%
a3)metabolized by CYP3A
a4)half-life 5-8hr
a5)elimination of inactive metabolites in feces/bile and urine

b1)CBZ, PHY, Pb incr elimination rate of Tiagabine
b2)NO significant displacement of other protein bound AED's due to lower serum []
b3)is displace by naproxen, salicylates and Na VPA
Topiramate
a)ADR's (4)
b)PK (2)
c)drug interactions (2)
a1)neurotoxicity/psycho motor slowing (word finding and impaired concentration)
a2)glaucoma
a3)renal stones
a4)teratogenic

b1)normally metabolized only 20%, gets up to 40-50% w/ enzyme inducers (difference is excreted unchanged)
b2)half-life decr in presence of enzyme inducers

c1)PHY, CBZ, Pb decr serum []s of topiramate
c2)topiramate can decr serum []s of ethinyl estradiol
Levetiracetam
a)dosing
b)dosage forms (3)
c)ADR's (3)
a)dose adjustment in renal impairment

b1)tablet
b2)injexn
b3)solution

c1)sedation/dizzy
c2)weakness
c3)asthenia
Zonisamide
a)ADR's (2)
b)approved for...
c)interactions
a1)kidney stones
a2)hypersensitivity (w/ sulfa allergy)

b)in kids for PS and secondary GTCS

c)enzyme inducing AEDs decrease half life by about 1/2