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197 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Fever, severe headache, n/v, and nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness) are key signs for this.
Meningitis
Pain in the lower back and resistance to straightening the leg at the knee is a positive ________ sign, indicating meningeal irritation.
Kernig's
Involuntary flexion of the hip and knees positive ________ sign for meningeal irritation.
Brudzinski's
The most common acute complication of bacterial meningitis is _________.
Increased ICP
Irritation of this nerve is evidenced by sensory losses and loss of the corneal reflex.
Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Irritation of this nerve results in facial paresis.
facial nerve (CN VII)
Irritation of this nerve causes tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness.
vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
________ - ________ syndrome is a complication of meningococcal meningitis that is manifested by petechiae, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), adrenal hemorrage, and circulatory collapse.
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
A rare progressive neurologic disorder characterized by loss of motor neurons. AKA Lou Gehrig's disease. Onset usually btwn. 40-70 yo. More common in men than women. Typical symptoms are weakness of the upper extremeties, dysarthria, and dysphagia.
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
a condition in which a person has spontaneously recurring seizures caused by a chronic underlying condition
epilepsy
the most common type of pain experienced by humans.
headache
A genetically transmitted, autosomal dominant disorder that affects both men and women of all races. Onset usually btwn 30-50 yo. Can be tested for presence of gene. Characterized by abnormal and excessive involuntary movements (chorea). These are writhing, twisting movements of the face, limbs, and body. The movements get worse as the disease progresses.
Huntington's disease
A chronic, progressive, degenerative disorder of the CNS characterized by disseminated demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord. Considered a disease of young to middle-age adults, with the onset usually being btwn. 15-50 yo. Women are affected more than men. High prevalance in people of European descent.
multiple sclerosis
An autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by the fluctuating weakness of certain skeletal muscle groups. Occurs in either gender and in persons of any ethnicity. Can occur at any age but most commonly btwn ages 10-65.
myasthenia gravis
A disease of the basal ganglia characterized by slowness in the initiation and execution of movement (bradykinesia), increased muscle tone (rigidity), tremor at rest, and impaired postural reflexes.
Parkinson's disease
Characterized by unpleasant sensory (parethesias) and motor abnormalities of one or both legs. Two types primary (idiopathic) and secondary. Most cases are primary w/a positive family hx. Patho is related to abnormal iron metab. and functional alterations in central dopaminergic neurotransmitter systems.
restless legs syndrome
A paroxysmal, uncontrolled electrial discharge of neutrons in the brain that interrupts normal function.
seizure
most common type of headache, characterized by its bilateral location and pressing/tightening quality. Usually of mild or moderate intensity and not aggravated by physical activity. Subcategorized as infrequent episodic, frequent episodic, or chronic.
tension-type headache
early manifestation of impending disease
prodrome
sensitivity to light
photophobia
sensitivity to sound
phonophobia
A recurring headache characterized by unilateral or bilateral throbbing pain, a triggering event or factor, strong family hx, and manifestations assoc. w/ neurologic and autonomic nervous system dysfunction.
Migraine headache
sensation of light or warmth
aura
diminished cerebral blood flow
oligemia
A rare form of headache, affecting less than 0.1% of the population. Involve repeated headaches that can occur for weeks to months at a time, followed by periods of remission
Cluster headaches
a group of abnormal neurons that seem to undergo spontaneous firing
seizure focus
Type of seizure that involves both sides of the brain and are characterized by bilateral synchronous epileptic discharges in the brain from the onset of the seizure. No warning or aura. Pt generally loses consciousness for a few seconds to several minutes.
Generalized seizure
A process leading to scars in the central nervous system that involves the production of a dense fibrous network of neuroglia (supporting cells) in areas of damage. _______ is a prominent feature of many diseases of the central nervous system, including multiple sclerosis and stroke.
Gliosis
Type of seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and falling to the ground if the patient is upright, following by stiffening of the body for 10-20 seconds and subsequent jerking of the extremeties for another 30-40 sec. Cyanosis, excessive salivation, tongue or cheek biting, and incontinence may accompany the seizure.
Tonic-clonic seizure (formerly known as grand mal seizure)
Seizure that usually occurs only in children and rarely continues beyond adolescence. Typically manifests as a brief staring spell that lasts only a few seconds, so it often occurs unnoticed. There may be an extremely brief loss of consciousness. When untreated may occur up to 100 times a day.
Absence (petit mal) seizure
Seizure characterized by a sudden, excessive jerk or the body or extremeties. The jerk may be forceful enough to hurl the person to the ground. May be very brief an may occur in clusters.
Myoclonic seizure
Seizure that involve either a tonic episode or a paroxysmal loss of muscle tone and begins suddenly with the person falling to the ground. consciousness usually returns by the time the person hits the ground, and normal activity can be resumed immed.
Atonic ("drop attack') seizure
Seizure that involves a sudden onset of maintained increased tone in the extensor muscles. These patient's often fall. Begin with loss of consciousness and sudden loss of muscle tone, followed by limb jerking that may or may not be symmetric.
Clonic seizure
repetitive movements that may not be appropriate
automatisms
State of continuous seizure activity or a condition in which seizures recur in rapid succession w/out return to consciousness btwn seizures. Most serious complication of epilepsy and is a neurologic emergency.
Status epilepticus
patchy blindness
scotomas
A transient sensory symptom described as an electric shock radiating down the spine or into the limbs with flexion of the neck. Assoc. with MS.
Lhermitte's sign
slowness in the initiation of movement
bradykinesia
increased muscle tone
rigidity
triad of Parkinson's disease (PD)
tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
An acute exacerbation of muscle weakness triggered by infection, surgery, emotional distress, drug overdose, or inadequate drugs.
Myasthenic crisis.
A relatively uncommon cranial nerve disorder, however, it is the most commonly diagnosed neuralgic condition. Twice as many women than men. Classic feature is an abrupt onset of paroxysms of excruciating pain described as a burning, knifelike, or lightning-like shock in the lips, upper or lower gums, cheek, forehead, or side of the nose. Intense pain, twitching, grimacing, and frequent blinking and tearing of the eye occur during the acute attack (giving rise to the term tic). Some pts experience facial sensory loss. the attacks are usually brief, lasting only seconds to 2 or 3 minutes, and are generally unilateral. This condition is considered benign, however, the severity of the pain and the disruption of lifestyle can result in almost total physical and psychologic dysfunction or even suicide.
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)
Peripheral facial paralysis, acute benign cranial polyneuritis is a disorder characterized by a disruption of the motor branches of the facial nerve (CN VII) on one side of the face in the absence of any other disease such as a stroke. An acute, peripheral facial paresis of unknown cause. Can affect any age group, most commonly seen in 20-60 yo
Bell's palsy
hydrostatic force measured in the brain CSF compartment
intracranial pressure
Normal ICP is the total pressure exerted by the three components w/in the skull: ________ _______, _________, and ________.
brain tissue, blood, and CSF
The _______ _______-______ doctrine describes the relatively constant volume of brain tissue, blood, and CSF w/in the rigid skull structure. If the volume of any one of the 3 components increases w/in the cranial vault and the volume from another component is displaced, the total intracranial volume wil not change. This hypothesis is only applicable in situations in which the skull is rigid.
Modified Monro-Kellie doctrine
Normal ICP ranges from __-__ mm Hg.
0-15
The amount of blood in mL passing through 100 g of brain tissue in 1 minute.
Cerebral blood flow (CBF)
The global CBF is approx __ mL/min. per ___ g of brain tissue.
50, 100
There is a difference btwn the white and gray matter of the brain. The white matter has a (slower or faster) blood flow, approx. __ mL/min per 100 g, and the gray matter has a (slower or faster) blood flow, approx. __ mL/min per 100 g.
slower, 50, faster, 75
The brain uses __% of the body's O2 and __% of its glucose.
20, 25
The automatic adjustment in the diameter of the cerebral blood vessels by the brain to maintain a constant blood flow during changes in arterial blood pressure.
Autoregulation
The lower limit of systemic aterial pressure at which autoregulation is effective in a normotensive person is a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of __ mm Hg.
50
Class - pentobarbital (Nembutal)
barbituate
Class - thiopental (Pentothal)
barbituate
Class- cimetidine (Tagamet)
H2 receptor - blocker
Class - ranitidine (Zantac)
H2 receptor - blocker
Class - omerprazole (Prilosec)
Proton pump inhibitor
Class - pantoprazole (Protonix, Protonix I.V.)
Proton pump inhibitor
Class - dexamethasone (Decadron)
corticosteriods
Class - Mannitol (Osmitrol)
osmotic diuretic
3 areas assessed in the GCS correspond to the definition of coma as the inability of a patient to ______, _______ _______, or ______ the eyes when a verbal or painful stimulus is applied.
speak, obey commands, open the eyes
Glasgow coma scale -Three indicators of response are evaluated: 1. 2. 3.
1. Opening the eyes 2. the best verbal response 3. the best motor response
The highest GCS score is __ for a fully alert person, and the lowest possible score is _. A GCS score of _ or less is generally indicative of coma.
15, 3, 8
affected side
ipsilateral
If the __________ nerve CN III is compressed, the pupil on the affected side (ipsilateral) becomes larger until it fully dilates. If ICP continues to increase, both pupils dilate.
oculomotor nerve CN III
class - vecuronium (Norcuron)
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
class - cisatracurium besylate (Nimbex)
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
The pressure needed to ensure blood flow to the brain.
cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
Class - propofol (Diprivan)
anesthetic sedative
class - haloperidol (Haldol)
sedative
class - lorazepam (Ativan)
sedative
Exposure of brain to contaminants through frontal air sinus, possible assoc, w/ air in forehead tissue, CSF rhinorrhea, or pneumocranium
Frontal fx
is a lack of coordination of movement, possibly caused by lesions of sensory or motor pathways, cerebellum disorders, or certain medications.
Ataxia
The ______ ______ nerve is tested by asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance and to turn the head to either side against resistance.
spinal accessory
Downward drifting of the arm or pronation of the palm is identified as a _________ ________.
pronator drift
_________ is weakness of one side of the body
Hemiparesis
flaccid muscle tone
hypotonia
a slow, writhing, involuntary movement of the extremities.
athetosis
When drainage containing both CSF and blood is allowed to drip onto a white pad, within a few minutes the blood will coalesce into the center, and a yellowish ring of CSF will encircle the blood, giving a _______ ______.
halo effect.
Nuchal rigidity is a clinical manifestation of ________. During assessment, the patient will resist passive flexion of the neck by the health care provider.
meningitis
Changes in vital signs indicative of increased intracranial pressure are known as ______ ________, which consists of increasing systolic pressure, widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and irregular respirations.
Cushing's triad
______ is the single most important modifiable risk factor for a stroke,
Hypertension
Clinical manifestations of _____-sided brain damage include right hemiplegia, impaired speech/language aphasias, impaired right/left discrimination, and slow and cautious performance.
left
Left-side neglect
Impulsivity, and
Short attention span
manifestations of ______-sided brain damage.
right
When communicating with a patient with aphasia, the nurse should present one thought or idea at a time, ask questions that can be answered with a "yes," "no," or simple word, use visual cues, and allot time for the individual to comprehend and respond to conversation.
aphasia
Signs of phenytoin ______, include neurologic changes, such as nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, dizziness, or slurred speech, and Diplopia.
toxicity
Class - phenytoin (Dilantin)
antiepileptic
Class - risperidone (Risperdal)
antipsychotic
Risperidone is an ______ drug that reduces agitation and produces a restful state in patients with delirium.
antipsychotic
When dealing with patients with dementia, tasks should be simplified, giving directions using gestures or pictures and focusing on one thing at a time. It is best to treat these patients as adults, with respect and dignity, even when their behavior is childlike. The nurse should use gentle touch and direct eye contact. Calling the patient "honey" or "sweetie" can be condescending and does not demonstrate respect.
dementia
________ _______ syndrome is manifested by motor and sensory loss greater in the upper extremities than the lower extremities.
Central cord
_______ _______ syndrome results in motor and sensory loss but not reflexes.
Anterior cord
______-_______ syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of sensory function.
Brown-Séquard
About 50% of people with acute spinal cord injury experience a temporary loss of reflexes, sensation, and motor activity that is known as ______ _______.
spinal shock.
_______ shock is due to the loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.
Neurogenic
_______ _______is related to reflex stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system reflected by hypertension, bradycardia, throbbing headache, and diaphoresis.
Autonomic dysreflexia
Class - warfarin (Coumadin).
anticoagulant
Class - clopidogrel (Plavix),
prevent clot formation
ticlopidine (Ticlid),
prevent clot formation
dipyridamole (Persantine),
prevent clot formation
combined dipyridamole and aspirin (Aggrenox),
prevent clot formation
Tissue plasminogen activator is a fibrinolytic medication used to treat ______ stroke, not prevent TIAs.
ischemic
Difficulty performing familiar tasks, problems with performing basic calculations, and becoming lost in a usually familiar environment are all part of the early warning signs of _______ disease.
Alzheimer's
Brain tumors can manifest themselves in a wide variety of symptoms depending on location, including focal _______ deficits.
neurologic
Signs of _______ in newborns are subtle. They include symptoms such as lip smacking, tongue thrusting, eye rolling, and arching of the back.
seizures
A shrill, high-pitched cry is a common clinical manifestation of ________ ___ in infants. The characteristic cry occurs secondary to the pressure being placed on the meningeal nerves, causing pain.
increased ICP
A pulsating anterior fontanel is _______ in infants. The infant with increased ICP would be seen with a bulging anterior fontanel.
normal
Vomiting is one of the signs of __________ ___ in children, but when present with diarrhea, it is more indicative of a gastrointestinal disturbance.
increased ICP
Pupil reactivity is an important indication of ________ health. The pupils should be assessed for no reaction, unilateral reaction, and rate of reactivity.
neurologic
________ _______maneuver should not be performed if there is a cervical spine injury.
Doll's head
Assessing for oculovestibular response is a painful test that should not be done on a child who is having variable levels of consciousness.
Assessing for oculovestibular response
Papilledema does not develop for __ - __hours in the course of unconsciousness.
24 to 48
The Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are usually present in infants under 3 to 4 months of age. Therefore the presence of these reflexes indicates _________ health.
neurologic
Decorticate posturing is indicative of severe dysfunction of the _______ ______
cerebral cortex
Decerebrate posturing is indicative of dysfunction at the level of the _______.
midbrain
Brain damage can occur at temperatures as high as ___º F (40.5º C). It is extremely important to institute temperature-lowering interventions such as hypothermia blankets and tepid water baths immediately.
105
The nurse is caring for a child with multiple injuries who is comatose. The nurse should recognize that pain Requires astute nursing assessment and management. Since the child cannot communicate pain through one of the standard pain rating scales, the nurse must focus on _________ and _________manifestations to accurately assess pain.
physiologic and behavioral
An (increase or decrease) in carbon dioxide can increase ICP.
decrease
a 2-year-old girl who is unconscious but stable - The parents should be encouraged to interact with their daughter. Senses of hearing and tactile perception may be intact, and _______ is important in the child's recovery.
stimulation
Oral care is essential in the unconscious child. Mouth care should be done at least (# of times) daily to prevent oral infections.
twice
The head of the bed should be ________ in a child with neurologic involvement.
elevated
infants are particularly vulnerable to ________-________head injuries because:The relatively large head size coupled with insufficient musculoskeletal support increases the risk to infants of ________-_______head injuries. (same word)
acceleration-deceleration
The nurse is admitting a young child to the hospital because bacterial meningitis is suspected. Which of the following is the major priority of nursing care?
A. Initiate isolation precautions as soon as diagnosis is confirmed.
B. Initiate isolation precautions as soon as the causative agent is identified.
C. Administer antibiotic therapy as soon as it is ordered.
D. Administer sedatives and analgesics on a preventive schedule to manage pain.
C. Administer antibiotic therapy as soon as it is ordered.
3. Initiation of antibiotic therapy is the priority action. Antibiotics are begun as soon as possible to prevent death and to avoid resultant disabilities.
1. Isolation should be instituted as soon as diagnosis is anticipated and should remain in effect until bacterial or viral origin is determined. If bacterial meningitis is ruled out, then isolation precautions can be discontinued.
2. Isolation should be instituted as soon as diagnosis is anticipated and should remain in effect until bacterial or viral origin is determined. If bacterial meningitis is ruled out, then isolation precautions can be discontinued.
4. Initiation of antibiotics is the priority nursing intervention. Pain should be managed on an as-needed basis.
Children with _______ are sensitive to noise, bright lights, and other external stimuli because of the irritation on the meningeal nerves. The nurse should keep the room as quiet as possible with a minimum of external stimuli, including lighting.
meningitis
school-age child with bacterial meningitis - The child is placed in a _____-______ position with the head of the bed slightly ________.
side-lying, elevated
Status epilepticus is a generalized seizure that lasts more than __ minutes. This is considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
30
________ seizures are most common of seizures. They include tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures and absence (petit mal) seizures. Tonic-clonic seizures have tonic-clonic activity and loss of consciousness and involve both hemispheres of the brain.
Generalized
_______ _______ seizures are characterized by varying sensations and motor behaviors.
Simple partial
________ is due to a problem with the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the liquid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord.
hydrocephalus
________, a disorder involving incomplete closure of the spinal column, is strongly associated with hydrocephalus.
Myelomeningocele
In (young or older) children, hydrocephalus may also be associated with the following conditions:

Infections caught before birth
Infections that affect the central nervous system (such as meningitis or encephalitis )
Injury before, during, or after childbirth, including subarachnoid hemorrhage
Congenital defects
Tumors of the central nervous system
young
In (young or older) children, risks for hydrocephalus include:

History of congenital or developmental defects
Lesions or tumors of the brain or spinal cord
Central nervous system infections
Bleeding anywhere in the brain
Injury
older
A head __ ____ is one of the best tests for identifying hydrocephalus. Other tests that may be done include:

Arteriography
Brain scan using radioisotopes
Cranial ultrasound (an ultrasound of the brain)
Lumbar puncture and examination of the cerebrospinal fluid (rarely done)
Skull x-rays
CT scan
Untreated hydrocephalus has a __-__% death rate, with the survivors having varying degrees of intellectual, physical, and neurological disabilities.
50-60
The most common currently identifiable cause of CP is existing brain abnormalities during the ________ period.
prenatal
Since _____ _____ is currently a permanent disorder, the goal of therapy is to promote optimal development. This is done through early recognition and beginning of therapy
Cerebral palsy
Cerebral palsy (is, is not) contagious.
is not
A 3-year-old has cerebral palsy (CP) and is hospitalized for orthopedic surgery. His mother says he has difficulty swallowing and cannot hold a utensil to feed himself. He is slightly underweight for his height. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action related to feeding the boy?
A. Bottle- or tube-feed him a specialized formula until he gains sufficient weight.
B. Stabilize his jaw with one hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing.
C. Place him in well-supported, semireclining position to make use of gravity flow.
D. Place him in a sitting position with his neck hyperextended to make use of gravity flow.
B. Stabilize his jaw with one hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing.
2. Since the jaw is compromised, more normal control can be achieved if the feeder provides stability. Manual jaw controls assist with head control, correction of neck and trunk hyperextension, and jaw stabilization.
1. The child is too old to be bottle-fed. The neuromuscular compromise of the jaw interferes with the child's ability to eat.
3. The child should be sitting up for meals to prevent aspiration.
4. For swallowing, the neck should not be hyperextended.
A neural tube defect that is not visible externally in the lumbosacral area would be called _______ _______ ________. It is completely enclosed. Often this disorder will not be noticed. A clue to the presence of this internal disorder will be a dimple or tuft of hair on the lumbosacral area.
Spina bifida occulta
A _______ contains meninges and spinal fluid but no neural tissue and is evident on birth as a sac in the lumbosacral area. Transillumination of light will be present.
meningocele
A _________ is a neural tube defect that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and nerves and is evident on birth as a sac in the lumbosacral area. Transillumination of light will not be present.
myelomeningocele
_______ _______ _______ is a cystic formation with an external saclike protrusion.
Spina bifida cystica
A woman who is 6 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she is worried her baby might have spina bifida because of a family history. The nurse's response should be based on which of the following?
A. There is no genetic basis for the defect.
B. Prenatal detection is not possible yet.
C. Chromosomal studies done on amniotic fluid can diagnose the defect prenatally.
D. The concentration of a-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid can potentially indicate the presence of the defect prenatally.
D. The concentration of a-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid can potentially indicate the presence of the defect prenatally.


4. Fetal ultrasound and elevated concentrations of a-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid many indicate the presence of anencephaly, myelomeningocele, or other neural tube defects.
1. The origin of neural tube defects is unknown but appears to have a multifactorial inheritance pattern.
2. Prenatal detection is possible through amniotic fluid or chorionic villi sampling.
3. There are no chromosomal studies currently that can diagnose spina bifida prenatally.
Obstructive _______ is frequently associated with myelomeningocele. Assessment of the fontanels and daily measurements of head circumference will aid in early detection of associated increased intracranial pressure.
hydrocephalus
Pre-op interventions for a child w/ myelomeningocele: kept in what position to decrease tension on the sac and reduce risk of trauma or sac tearing.
a prone
Pre-op interventions for a child w/ myelomeningocele:The sac must be kept (moist or dry). Sterile, (moist or dry), nonadherent dressings are placed over the sac as prescribed by the physician.
Moist
Pre-op interventions for a child w/ myelomeningocele:The sac area should be kept clean and dry and out of contact with _____ and ______.
urine and stools
Most patients regain full muscle strength following recovery from _______-______ syndrome. The return of function is in reverse order of onset. Onset occurs as ascending paralysis; recovery occurs as descending return of function.
Guillain-Barré
_______-______ syndrome is an immune-mediated disease most often associated with viral infections. During the history, the parents should be asked about the child's having a cold or viral infection within the past 2 weeks.
Guillain-Barré
Tetanus is an acute, preventable disease caused by an exotoxin produced by an (aerobic or anaerobic) spore-forming, gram-(positive or negative) bacillus, Clostridium tetani.
anaerobic, positive
________ is caused by the effect of the exotoxins becoming fixed on nerve cells
Tetanus
Unlike adult botulism, infant botulism is caused by ingesting spores of Clostridium botulinum with the subsequent release of the toxin. The bacterium has been found in _______ and ____ _____ that was fed to affected infants.
honey,corn syrup
CN I
Olfactory
CN II
Optic
CN III
Oculomotor
CN IV
Trochlear
CN V
Trigeminal
CN VI
Abducens
CN VII
Facial
CN VIII
Acoustic
CN IX
Glossopharyngeal
CN X
Vagus
CN XI
Spinal
CN XII
Hypoglossal
CN responsible for movement of tongue
Hypoglossal
CN responsible for movement of trapezius and sternomastoid muscles
Spinal
CN responsible for hearing and equilibrium
Acoustic
CN responsible for lateral movement of eye
Abducens
CN responsible for down and inward movement of eye
Trochlear
CN responsible for vision
Optic
CN responsible for smell
Olfactory
CN responsible for most EOM movement, opening of eyelids, pupil constriction, and lens shape
Oculomotor
CN responsible for muscles of mastication, sensation of face and scalp, cornea, mucous membranes of mouth and nose
Trigeminal CN V
CN responsible for facial muscles, close eye, labial speech, close mouth, taste (sweet, salty, sour, bitter) on anterior 2/3 of tongue, and saliva and tear secretion
Facial CN VII
CN responsible for pharynx (phonation and swallowing), taste on posterior 1/3 of tongue, pharynx (gag reflex), parotid gland, and carotid reflex
Glossopharyngeal CN IX
CN responsible for pharynx and larynx (talking and swallowing), general sensation from carotid body, carotid sinus, pharynx, viscera, and carotid reflex
Vagus CN X
A sudden loss of strength, a temporary loss of consiousness (a faint) due to lack of cerebral blood flow, e.g., low BP
Syncope
A circumscribed skin area that is supplied mainly from one spinal cord segment through a particular spinal nerve
Dermatome
Rotational spinning caused by neurologic disease in the vestibular apparatus in the ear, or in the vestibular nuclei in the brain stem.
Vertigo
A partial or incomplete paralysis
Paresis
A loss of motor function due to a lesion in the neurologic or muscular system or loss of sensory innervation
Paralysis
The inablility to control range of motion muscles
Dysmetria
The term _____ _____ is used primarily to signify craniocerebral trauma, which includes an alteration in consciousness, no matter how brief.
Head trauma
_______ _______ includes any trauma to the scalp, skull, or brain.
Head injury
There are several ways to describe _____ fx: (1) linear or depressed; (2) simple, comminuted, or compound; and(3) closed or open.
skull
Manifestations of a _______ skull fx can evolve over the course of several hours, vary w/ the location and severity of fx, and may include cranial nerve deficits, Battle's sign (postauricular ecchymosis), and periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes).
basilar
This fx generally is assoc. w/ a tear in the dura and subsequent leakage of CSF from the nose (rhinorrhea) or from the ear (otorrhea) which confirms that the fx has traversed the dura.
Basilar skull fx
The risk of _______ is high with a CSF leak.
meningitis
postauricular ecchymosis
Battle's sign
periorbital eccymosis
raccoon eyes
Exposure of brain to contaminants through frontal air sinus, possible assoc. w/ air in forehead tissue, CSF rhinorrhea, or pneumocranium
Frontal fx
Periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes), optic nerve injury
Orbital fx
Boggy temporal muscle b/c of extravasation of blood, oval-shaped bruise behind ear in mastoid region (Battle's sign), CSF otorrhea, middle meningeal artery disruption, epidural hematoma
Temporal fx
Deafness, CSF or brain otorrhea, bulging of tympanic membrane caused by blood or CSF, facial paralysis, loss of taste, Battle's sign
Parietal fx
Occipital bruising resulting in cortical blindness, visual field defects; rare appearance of ataxia or other cerebellar signs
Posterior fossa fx
CSF or brain otorrhea, bulging of tympanic membrane caused by blood or CSF, Battle's sign, tinnitus or hearing difficulty, rhinorrhea, facial paralysis, conjugate deviation of gaze, vertigo.
Basilar skull fx