Network Administration Final Full

Front 1

1. What allows businesses to define, manage, access, and secure network resources including files, printers, people, and applications?

Back 1

directory service

Front 2

2. A Windows Server 2008 computer that has been configured with the Active Directory DS role is referred to as a __________.

Back 2

domain controller

Front 3

3. The process of keeping each domain controller in synch with changes that have been made elsewhere on the network is called __________.

Back 3

replication

Front 4

4. Which of the following is not a benefit of Active Directory Domain Services?

Back 4

personalized desktops

Front 5

5. Interoperability with prior versions of Microsoft Windows is available in Windows Server 2008 through the use of __________.

Back 5

functional levels

Front 6

6. The __________ Domain Controller contains a copy of the ntds.dit file that cannot be modified and does not replicate its changes to other domain controllers within Active Directory.

Back 6

Read-Only

Front 7

7. The largest container object within Active Directory is a(n) __________.

Back 7

forest

Front 8

8. What contains the rules and definitions that are used for creating and modifying object classes and attributes within Active Directory?

Back 8

Schema NC

Front 9

9. What master database contains definitions of all objects in the Active Directory?

Back 9

schema

Front 10

10. A __________ is defined as one or more IP subnets that are connected by fast links.

Back 10

site

Front 11

11. What protocol has become an industry standard that enables data exchange between directory services and applications?

Back 11

LDAP

Front 12

12. A __________ name references an object in the Active Directory directory structure by using its entire hierarchical path, starting with the object itself and including all parent objects up to the root of the domain

Back 12

distinguished

Front 13

13. What locator records within DNS allow clients to locate an Active Directory domain controller or global catalog?

Back 13

SRV records

Front 14

14. Which functional level only allows Windows Server 2003 and Windows 2008 domain controllers?

Back 14

Windows Server 2003

Front 15

15. __________ is the highest available forest functional level.

Back 15

Windows Server 2008

Front 16

16. To raise the functional level of a forest, you must be logged on as a member of the __________ group.

Back 16

Enterprise Admins

Front 17

17. Active Directory uses __________ relationships to allow access between multiple domains and/or forests, either within a single forest or across multiple enterprise networks.

Back 17

trust

Front 18

18. What type of trust is new to Windows Server 2008 and is only available when the forest functionality is set to Windows Server 2008?

Back 18

cross-forest trust

Front 19

19. When a child domain is created, it automatically receives a __________ trust with its parent domain.

Back 19

two-way transitive

Front 20

20. If the domains within a forest are separated by slow WAN links and the tree-walking process takes an exceedingly long time to allow user authentication across domains, you can configure a __________ trust.

Back 20

shortcut

Front 21

1. What command can you use to run the Active Directory Installation Wizard?

Back 21

dcpromo

Front 22

2. What shared folder exists on all domain controllers and is used to store Group Policy objects, login scripts, and other files that are replicated domain-wide?

Back 22

SYSVOL

Front 23

3. What is the minimum amount of storage space required for the Active Directory installation files?

Back 23

200 MB

Front 24

4. What is the process of replicating DNS information from one DNS server to another?

Back 24

zone transfer

Front 25

5. __________ roles work together to enable the multimaster functionality of Active Directory.

Back 25

FSMO

Front 26

6. __________ partitions are used to separate forest-wide DNS information from domain-wide DNS information to control the scope of replication of different types of DNS data.

Back 26

Application Directory

Front 27

7. What processes can be used by Windows Server 2008 DNS to clean up the DNS database after DNS records become “stale” or out of date?

Back 27

aging and scavenging

Front 28

8. What type of zone is necessary for computer hostname-to-IP address mappings, which are used for name resolution by a variety of services?

Back 28

forward lookup

Front 29

9. What SRV record information serves as a mechanism to set up load balancing between multiple servers that are advertising the same SRV records?

Back 29

priority

Front 30

10. What new Windows Server 2008 feature is a special installation option that creates a minimal environment for running only specific services and roles?

Back 30

Server Core

Front 31

11. Read-Only Domain Controllers provide added security in the way passwords are stored through what feature?

Back 31

Password Replication Policy

Front 32

12. What feature makes it possible to configure a user as the local administrator of a specific RODC without making the user a Domain Admins with far-reaching authority over all domain controllers in your entire domain and full access to your Active Directory domain data?

Back 32

Admin Role Separation

Front 33

13. Each class or attribute that you add to the schema should have a valid __________.

Back 33

OID

Front 34

14. When modifying the schema, Microsoft recommends adding administrators to what group only for the duration of the task?

Back 34

Schema Admins

Front 35

15. What DLL must be registered to use the Schema Management snap-in?

Back 35

schmmgmt.dll

Front 36

16. What role provides developers with the ability to store data for directory-enabled applications without incurring the overhead of extending the Active Directory schema to support their applications?

Back 36

AD LDS

Front 37

17. What type of trust allows you to configure trust relationships between Windows Server 2008 Active Directory and a UNIX MIT Kerberos realm?

Back 37

realm

Front 38

18. What type of trust relationship allows you to create two-way transitive trusts between separate forests?

Back 38

cross-forest

Front 39

19. What utility is used to manually create trust relationships?

Back 39

Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in

Front 40

20. What command-line tool is used to create, delete, verify, and reset trust relationships from the Windows Server 2008 command line?

Back 40

netdom

Front 41

21. Active Directory __________ provide the means by which administrators can control replication traffic.

Back 41

sites

Front 42

22. Domain controllers located in different sites will participate in __________ replication.

Back 42

intersite

Front 43

23. How often does intersite replication occur by default?

Back 43

15 minutes

Front 44

24. When you install the forest root domain controller in an Active Directory forest, the Active Directory Installation Wizard creates a single site named __________.

Back 44

Default-First-Site-Name

Front 45

25. Active Directory creates a __________ with the idea that all writeable domain controllers in a domain should communicate Active Directory information to each other, in addition to communicating forest-wide information with other domains.

Back 45

replication topology

Front 46

26. Replication within Active Directory will occur when which of the following conditions is met?

Back 46

An object is added or removed from Active Directory; The value of an attribute has changed; The name of an object has changed; All of the above

Front 47

27. When replicating information between sites, Active Directory will designate a __________ server in each site to act as a gatekeeper in managing site-to-site replication.

Back 47

bridgehead

Front 48

28. What describes the amount of time that it takes for all domain controllers in the environment to contain the most up-to-date information?

Back 48

convergence

Front 49

29. Certain operations, such as a password change or an account lockout, will be transmitted by using __________ replication, which means that the change will be placed at the “beginning of the line” and applied before any other changes that are waiting to be replicated.

Back 49

urgent

Front 50

30. What process is responsible for selecting a bridgehead server and mapping the topology to be used for replication between sites?

Back 50

Intersite Topology Generator

Front 51

31. The primary goal of intersite replication is to minimize the usage of __________.

Back 51

bandwidth

Front 52

32. When configuring a site link object, which attribute allows the administrator to define the path that replication will take?

Back 52

cost

Front 53

33. For both intrasite and intersite replication, what protocol does Active Directory use for all replication traffic?

Back 53

RPC over IP

Front 54

34. What is an alternative solution for intersite replication when a direct or reliable IP connection is not available?

Back 54

SMTP

Front 55

35. How often does replication occur in intersite replication?

Back 55

180 minutes

Front 56

36. The ISTG automatically assigns one server in each site as the bridgehead server unless you override this by establishing a list of __________ bridgehead servers.

Back 56

preferred

Front 57

37. What defines a chain of site links by which domain controllers from different sites can communicate?

Back 57

site link bridge

Front 58

38. What command-line tool used for monitoring Active Directory provides functionality that includes performing connectivty and replication tests?

Back 58

dcdiag

Front 59

39. What command-line tool can be used to manually create a replication topology if site link bridging is disabled if the network is not fully routed?

Back 59

Repadmin

Front 60

40. The KCC is responsible for calculating intrasite replication partners. During this process, what is the maximum number of hops that the KCC will allow between domain controllers?

Back 60

3

Front 61

41. What holds a subset of forest-wide Active Directory objects and acts as a central repository by holding a complete copy of all objects from the host server’s local domain with a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest?

Back 61

global catalog

Front 62

42. What is a partial copy of all objects from other domains within the same forest that is held on aglobal catalog server?

Back 62

partial attribute set

Front 63

43. What port is used by Active Directory to direct search requests to a global catalog server?

Back 63

3268

Front 64

44. Which of the following is not a function performed by a global catalog server?

Back 64

maintaining a backup of all data stored on a domain controller

Front 65

45. What Windows Server 2008 feature stores universal group memberships on a local domain controller that can be used for logon to the domain, eliminating the need for frequent access to a global catalog server?

Back 65

universal group membership caching

Front 66

46. As a rule of thumb, you should estimate __________ percent of the size of the ntds.dit file of every other domain in the forest when sizing hardware for a global catalog server.

Back 66

50

Front 67

47. How many FSMO roles does Active Directory support?

Back 67

5

Front 68

48. Which FSMO role is responsible for reference updates from its domain objects to other domains?

Back 68

Infrastructure Master

Front 69

49. Which FSMO role has the authority to manage the creation and deletion of domains, domain trees, and application data partitions in the forest?

Back 69

Domain Naming Master

Front 70

50. Which of these design aspects should you consider when planning the appropriate location of FSMO role holders?

Back 70

number of domains that are or will be part of the forest; physical structure of the network; number of domain controllers that will be available in each domain; all of the above

Front 71

51. What process is used when you move a FSMO role gracefully from one domain controller to another?

Back 71

role transfer

Front 72

52. What procedure is used only when you have experienced a catastrophic failure of a domain controller that holds a FSMO role and you need to recover that role?

Back 72

role seizure

Front 73

53. What console must be used to move the Domain Naming Master FSMO role?

Back 73

Active Directory Domains and Trusts

Front 74

54. What tool is used to seize a FSMO role?

Back 74

ntdsutil

Front 75

55. The RID Master FSMO role distributes RIDs to domain controllers in what increments?

Back 75

500

Front 76

56. What is used to uniquely identify an object throughout the Active Directory domain?

Back 76

security identifier

Front 77

57. Each object’s SID consists of two components: the domain portion and the __________.

Back 77

relative identifier

Front 78

58. How many RID Masters can a domain have?

Back 78

1

Front 79

59. What types of memberships are stored in the global catalog?

Back 79

universal

Front 80

60. What allows a user to be able to log on using a cached copy of his or her logon credentials that have been stored on his or her local workstation?

Back 80

cached credentials

Front 81

61. What is the process of confirming a user’s identity by using a known value, such as a password, pin number on a smart card, or user’s fingerprint or handprint in the case of biometric authentication?

Back 81

authentication

Front 82

62. What is the process of confirming that an authenticated user has the correct permissions to access one or more network resources?

Back 82

authorization

Front 83

63. Which of the following is not a type of user account that can be configured in Windows Server 2008?

Back 83

network accounts

Front 84

64. The two built-in user accounts that are created on a Windows Server 2008 computer are the Administrator account and the __________ account.

Back 84

Guest

Front 85

65. When a user logs on, what is created that identifies the user and all of the user’s group memberships?

Back 85

access token

Front 86

66. What describes the process of configuring one or more groups as members of another group?

Back 86

group nesting

Front 87

67. __________ groups are nonsecurity-related groups created for the distribution of information to one or more persons.

Back 87

Distribution

Front 88

68. __________ groups are used to consolidate groups and accounts that either span multiple domains or the entire forest.

Back 88

Universal

Front 89

69. All default groups are __________ groups.

Back 89

security

Front 90

70. __________ groups are a collection of user accounts that are local to one specific workstation or member server.

Back 90

Local

Front 91

71. You cannot manually modify the group membership of or view the membership lists of __________ groups.

Back 91

special identity

Front 92

72. What special identity group contains all authenticated users and domain guests?

Back 92

Everyone

Front 93

73. What special identity group is used as a reduced-privilege account to allow applications to run on a server without requiring administrative access?

Back 93

Network Service

Front 94

74. What special identity group is used by the system to allow permission to protected system files for services to function properly?

Back 94

Service

Front 95

75. What command-line utility is used to import or export Active Directory information from a comma-separated value (.csv) file?

Back 95

CSVDE

Front 96

76. What can be used to add, delete, or modify objects in Active Directory, in addition to modifying the schema if necessary?

Back 96

LDIFDE

Front 97

77. What signifies an object’s relative location within an Active Directory OU structure?

Back 97

distinguished name

Front 98

78. __________ name refers to each user’s login name.

Back 98

SAM account

Front 99

79. When using CSVDE, what is the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names?

Back 99

header record

Front 100

80. What provides a robust scripting method that supports a multitude of administrative tasks including creating Active Directory objects, mapping drives, connecting to printers, modifying environment variables, and modifying registry keys?

Back 100

Windows Script Host

Front 101

81. A __________ is an alphanumeric sequence of characters that you enter with a username to access a server, workstation, or shared resource.

Back 101

password

Front 102

82. What can be defined as a password that follows guidelines that make it difficult for a potential hacker to determine the user’s password?

Back 102

strong password

Front 103

83. Password-__________ is an attempt to discover a user’s password.

Back 103

cracking

Front 104

84. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a strong password?

Back 104

contains your birth date

Front 105

85. What is a credit card–sized or token-style device, such as a USB device, that is used with a PIN to enable logon to the enterprise?

Back 105

smart card

Front 106

86. What is a system of digital certificates, certification authorities (CAs), and other registration authorities (RAs) that verify and authenticate the validity of each party involved in an electronic transaction through the use of public key cryptography?

Back 106

PKI

Front 107

87. Which of the following is a benefit of implementing a public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Back 107

Users no longer need to remember passwords; All information is stored on the smart card, making it difficult for anyone except the intended user to use or access it; Smart cards can be used from remote locations, such as a home office, to provide authentication services; All of the above

Front 108

88. What command-line tool can be used with a standard user account to reduce the risks associated with the Administrator account?

Back 108

runas

Front 109

89. Which OU is created by default when Active Directory is installed?

Back 109

Domain Controllers

Front 110

90. What tool allows you to utilize a simple interface to delegate permissions for domains, OUs, or containers?

Back 110

Delegation of Control Wizard

Front 111

91. What typically consists of at least four characters or digits that are entered while presenting a physical access token, such as an ATM card or smart card?

Back 111

PIN

Front 112

92. Password-cracking can be accomplished by intelligent guessing on the part of the hacker or through the use of an automated __________ attack.

Back 112

dictionary

Front 113

93. A password should be __________ characters in length to be considered a strong password.

Back 113

8

Front 114

94. Passwords for Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Microsoft Windows XP clients can be __________ characters in length.

Back 114

127

Front 115

95. What method of authentication requires a smart card and a PIN to provide more secure access to company resources?

Back 115

two-factor authentication

Front 116

96. To implement PKI, what must be installed on your Windows 2008 Server?

Back 116

Active Directory Certificate Services

Front 117

97. What dedicated workstation allows an administrator or another authorized user to preconfigure certificates and smart cards on behalf of a user or workstation?

Back 117

smart card enrollment station

Front 118

98. What types of certificates are generated by the enterprise CA and used to generate a smart card logon certificate for users in the organization?

Back 118

enrollment agent

Front 119

99. What component issues and manages certificates for individuals, computers, and organizations?

Back 119

Certification Authority

Front 120

100. Where is the certificate database located on a Certification Authority?

Back 120

C:\Windows\system32\CertLog

Front 121

101. What is a method of controlling settings across your network?

Back 121

Group Policy

Front 122

102. What process applies Group Policy settings to various containers within Active Directory?

Back 122

linking

Front 123

103. What policies can be used to ensure that users always have the latest versions of applications?

Back 123

software installation

Front 124

104. What policies work with folder redirection to provide the ability to cache files locally?

Back 124

offline file storage

Front 125

105. What advanced technique allows you to apply GPO settings to only one or more users or groups within a container by selectively granting the “Apply Group Policy” permission to one or more users or security groups?

Back 125

security group filtering

Front 126

106. What can be measured by tangible benefits, such as implementation costs and ongoing support?

Back 126

return on investment

Front 127

107. Administrators find that Group Policy implementation helps them to achieve __________.

Back 127

centralized management

Front 128

108. Which of the following is an administrative benefit of using Group Policy?

Back 128

Administrators have control over centralized configuration of user settings, application installation, and desktop configuration; Problems due to missing application files and other minor application errors often can be alleviated by the automation of application repairs; Centralized backup of user files eliminates the need and cost of trying to recover files from a damaged drive; All of the above

Front 129

109. What contains all of the Group Policy settings that you wish to implement to user and computer objects within a site, domain, or OU?

Back 129

Group Policy Objects

Front 130

110. Which of the following is not a type of GPO?

Back 130

advanced GPO

Front 131

111. Local GPO settings are stored in what folder on a computer?

Back 131

%systemroot%/System32/GroupPolicy

Front 132

112. What directory object includes subcontainers that hold GPO policy information?

Back 132

Group Policy container

Front 133

113. What is the path to the default GPT structure for a domain?

Back 133

%systemroot%\sysvol\sysvol\domain.com\Policies

Front 134

114. The __________ Policy is linked to the domain, and its settings affect all users and computers in the domain.

Back 134

Default Domain

Front 135

115. What Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in is used to create and modify Group Policies and their settings?

Back 135

Group Policy Management Console

Front 136

116. Group policy is divided into two subcategories, or nodes, that are named Computer Configuration and __________.

Back 136

User Configuration

Front 137

117. What folder located under the Computer Configuration node in the Group Policy Management Editor contains security settings and scripts that apply to all users who log on to Active Directory from that specific computer?

Back 137

Windows Settings

Front 138

118. What means that each policy must be read and applied completely before the next policy can be invoked?

Back 138

synchronous processing

Front 139

119. Configuring what setting on an individual GPO link forces a particular GPO’s settings to flow down through the Active Directory without being blocked by any child OUs?

Back 139

Enforce

Front 140

120. What allows the Group Policy processing order to circle back and reapply the computer policies after all user policies and logon scripts run?

Back 140

Loopback Processing

Front 141

121. What Computer Configuration node setting includes three subcategories: Audit Policy, User Rights Assignment, and Security Options?

Back 141

Local Policies

Front 142

122. What policies can be applied to one or more users or groups of users, allowing you to specify a more or less stringent password policy for this subset than the password policy defined for the entire domain?

Back 142

Fine-Grained Password Policies

Front 143

123. What is the default mechanism for authenticating domain users in Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, and Microsoft Windows 2000?

Back 143

Kerberos

Front 144

124. What term refers to tracking events that take place on the local computer?

Back 144

auditing

Front 145

125. What section of GPO Local Policies allows administrators to log successful and failed security events such as logon events, account access, and object access?

Back 145

Audit Policy

Front 146

126. What policy setting is set to audit successes in the Default Domain Controllers GPO?

Back 146

account management events

Front 147

127. What policy setting allows an administrator to specify group membership lists?

Back 147

Restricted Groups

Front 148

128. Settings available in the __________ area of Group Policy allow greater administrative control in establishing rules and governing the issuance, maintenance, and guidelines within a public key infrastructure (PKI).

Back 148

Public Key Policies

Front 149

129. What provides administrators with the ability to redirect the contents of certain folders to a network location or to another location on the user’s local computer?

Back 149

Folder Redirection

Front 150

130. What term means that the Group Policy setting continues to apply until it is reversed by using a policy that overwrites the setting?

Back 150

tattooing

Front 151

131. What separate Group Policy category allows files to be available to users, even when the users are disconnected from the network?

Back 151

Offline Files

Front 152

132. By implementing the __________ feature when Folder Redirection is also configured, administrators can control the amount of information that is stored on the server.

Back 152

Disk Quotas

Front 153

133. If you set the refresh interval to zero, the system attempts to update the policy at what interval?

Back 153

every 7 seconds

Front 154

134. What command-line tool can be used to manually refresh group policy?

Back 154

gpupdate.exe

Front 155

135. How often are Computer Configuration group policies refreshed by default?

Back 155

every 90 minutes

Front 156

136. What policy can specify software that you wish to run on computers?

Back 156

Software Restriction Policies

Front 157

137. Which of these is not an option when configuring Fine-Grained Password Policies?

Back 157

PasswordCommonNameUsage

Front 158

138. What setting logs events related to successful user logons to a domain?

Back 158

Account Logon Events

Front 159

139. What category is used to configure the startup and security settings for services running on a computer?

Back 159

System Services

Front 160

140. Where can you configure the Group Policy refresh interval?

Back 160

Computer Configuration\AdministrativeTemplates\System\Group Policy

Front 161

141. What process takes place from the time an application is evaluated for deployment in an organization until the time when it is deemed old or not suitable for use?

Back 161

software life cycle

Front 162

142. Which of the following is not a phase of the software life cycle?

Back 162

evaluation

Front 163

143. Microsoft Windows Server 2008 uses the Windows Installer with Group Policy to install and manage software that is packaged into what type of file?

Back 163

.msi

Front 164

144. Modifications to .msi files require transform files, which have the __________ extension.

Back 164

.mst

Front 165

145. __________ files are used to apply service packs and hotfixes to installed software.

Back 165

Patch

Front 166

146. Before deploying software using Group Policy, what must you create?

Back 166

distribution share

Front 167

147. What option allows users to install the applications that they consider useful to them?

Back 167

Publish

Front 168

148. What option is helpful when you are deploying required applications to pertinent users and computers?

Back 168

Assign

Front 169

149. What allows published applications to be organized within specific groupings for easy navigation?

Back 169

software categories

Front 170

150. What policies are designed to identify software and control its execution?

Back 170

Software Restriction

Front 171

151. When configuring Software Restriction policies, which option prevents any application from running that requires administrative rights, but allows programs to run that only require resources that are accessible by normal users?

Back 171

Basic User

Front 172

152. By default, the Software Restriction Policies area has what value in the Default Security Level setting?

Back 172

Unrestricted

Front 173

153. Which of the following is a software restriction rule that can be used to govern which programs can or cannot run on your network?

Back 173

hash rule; certificate rule; Path rule; all of the above

Front 174

154. What is a series of bytes with a fixed length that uniquely identifies a program or file?

Back 174

hash

Front 175

155. What identifies software by specifying the directory path where the application is stored in the file system?

Back 175

path rule

Front 176

156. What type of rule can be applied to allow only Windows Installer packages to be installed if they come from a trusted area of the network?

Back 176

network zone rules

Front 177

157. When implementing multiple Software Restriction Policy rules, which rule is always applied last?

Back 177

path rule

Front 178

158. What Software Restriction Policy properties allow you to determine whether the policies apply to all files or whether library files, such as Dynamic Link Library (DLL), are excluded?

Back 178

enforcement

Front 179

159. What Software Restriction Policy properties allow an administrator to control how certificate rules are handled?

Back 179

trusted publishers

Front 180

160. What type of file can be written to allow non–Windows Installer–compliant applications to be deployed?

Back 180

.zap

Front 181

161. What MMC snap-in provides a single access point to all aspects of Group Policy that were previously spread across other tools such as Active Directory Users and Computers, Active Directory Sites and Services, Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP), and the Group Policy Management Editor?

Back 181

Group Policy Management

Front 182

162. Which of the following can be done from the Group Policy Management snap-in?

Back 182

import and copy GPO settings to and from the file system; search for GPOs based on name, permissions, WMI filter, GUID, or policy extensions set in the GPOs; search for individual settings within a GPO by keyword, and search for only those settings that have been configured; all of the above

Front 183

163. Group Policy Management started being natively installed with what version of Windows Server?

Back 183

2008

Front 184

164. What tab displays groups and users with permission to link, perform modeling analyses, or read Group Policy Results information?

Back 184

Delegation

Front 185

165. When a GPO is selected in Group Policy Management, which tab allows administrators to view the locations to which the policy is linked?

Back 185

Scope

Front 186

166. __________ GPOs can act as templates when creating new GPOs for your organization.

Back 186

Starter

Front 187

167. What setting will prevent policy settings from applying to all child objects at the current level and all subordinate levels?

Back 187

Block Policy Inheritance

Front 188

168. What refines the application of a GPO to include or exclude certain users, groups, or computers based on the ACL that is applied to the GPO?

Back 188

Security Group Filtering

Front 189

169. What component of the Microsoft Windows operating system allows administrators to create queries based on hardware, software, operating systems, and services?

Back 189

Windows Management Instrumentation

Front 190

170. How many WMI filters can be configured per GPO?

Back 190

one

Front 191

171. What is the sum of the policies applied to a user or computer after all filters, security group permissions, and inheritance settings, such as Block Policy Inheritance and Enforce, have finished processing?

Back 191

Effective Permissions

Front 192

172. Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard is useful for documenting and understanding how combined policies are affecting users and computers?

Back 192

Logging

Front 193

173. What database of information includes hardware, Group Policy Software Installation settings, Internet Explorer Maintenance settings, scripts, Folder Redirection settings, and Security settings?

Back 193

CIMOM

Front 194

174. Group Policy __________ is used to simulate the effect of a policy on the user environment.

Back 194

Modeling

Front 195

175. Rather than simulating policy effects like the Group Policy Modeling Wizard, what obtains RSoP information from the client computer to show the actual effects that policies have on the client computer and user environment?

Back 195

Group Policy Results

Front 196

176. What command-line tool allows you to create and display an RSoP query from the command line?

Back 196

GPResult

Front 197

177. What would the syntax of the GPResult command be if you want to obtain RSoP information on computer and user policies that will affect a user named jsmith?

Back 197

gpresult /user jsmith /v

Front 198

178. Which mode in the Resultant Set of Policy Wizard allows administrators to simulate the effect of policy settings prior to implementing them on a computer or user?

Back 198

Planning

Front 199

179. WMI filters cannot be evaluated on which operating system?

Back 199

Windows 2000

Front 200

180. WMI Filtering uses filters written in what language, which is similar to structured query language (SQL)?

Back 200

WMI Query Language

Front 201

181. What is responsible for managing changes to the Active Directory database?

Back 201

Extensible Storage Engine

Front 202

182. Changes in Active Directory are referred to as __________.

Back 202

transactions

Front 203

183. Active Directory writes transactions to the __________ log file.

Back 203

transaction

Front 204

184. What manual process defragments the Active Directory database in addition to reducing its size?

Back 204

offline defragmentation

Front 205

185. To back up Active Directory, you must install what feature from the Server Manager console?

Back 205

Windows Server Backup

Front 206

186. What new command-line and task-based scripting technology is included with Windows Server 2008?

Back 206

Windows PowerShell

Front 207

187. Server Backup does not support the use of which type of backup media?

Back 207

magnetic tape

Front 208

188. Which backup type will update each file’s backup history and clear the Application log files?

Back 208

VSS full backup

Front 209

189. What is the command-line component of the Windows Server Backup snap-in?

Back 209

wbadmin

Front 210

190. What type of restore will restore Active Directory objects with their original Update Sequence Number (USN), which is the number that each domain controller assigns to every transaction that is either originated on the DC or replicated in from another domain controller?

Back 210

nonauthoritative restore

Front 211

191. To perform a System State restore in Windows Server 2008, you will boot the DC into what mode?

Back 211

Directory Services Restore

Front 212

192. What tool in Windows Server 2008 allows you to collect real-time information on your local computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions?

Back 212

Reliability and Performance Monitor

Front 213

193. What are the specific processes or events that you want to track in the Reliability and Performance Monitor?

Back 213

performance counters

Front 214

194. Configuring Active Directory diagnostic event logging requires that you edit what registry key?

Back 214

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\NTDS\Diagnostics

Front 215

195. What logging setting should you use if Minimal logging is not producing sufficient error messages to allow you to troubleshoot a particular issue?

Back 215

Basic

Front 216

196. What command-line tool can analyze the state of the domain controllers in the forest or enterprise and report any problems to assist in troubleshooting?

Back 216

dcdiag

Front 217

197. The Reliability and Performance Monitor uses categories called performance __________ to organize the items that can be monitored.

Back 217

objects

Front 218

198. What in the event log is indicated by a red circle with an X on it?

Back 218

stop error

Front 219

199. If you find yourself in a position where you need to restore an object or container within Active Directory that has been inadvertently deleted, you need to perform what type of restore?

Back 219

authoritative restore

Front 220

200. In Windows Server 2008, you must back up __________ rather than only backing up the System State data.

Back 220

critical volumes

Front 221

201. What is the name resolution mechanism that computers use for all Internet communications and for private networks that use the Active Directory domain services included with Microsoft Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, and Windows 2000 Server?

Back 221

DNS

Front 222

202. What represents the computer’s IP address in applications and other references?

Back 222

host name

Front 223

203. Which of the following is not a column of the host table?

Back 223

distinguished name

Front 224

204. What has direct access to at least one name server and can also process referrals to direct its queries to other name servers when necessary?

Back 224

resolver

Front 225

205. What resource record identifies which name server is the authoritative source of information for data within this domain?

Back 225

Start of Authority (SOA)

Front 226

206. What resource record provides the name-to-IP-address mappings that DNS name servers use to perform name resolution?

Back 226

Host (A)

Front 227

207. What resource record is the functional opposite of the A record, providing an IP address-to-name mapping for the system identified in the Name field using the in-addr.arpa domain name?

Back 227

Pointer (PTR)

Front 228

208. What are the highest-level DNS servers in the entire namespace?

Back 228

root name server

Front 229

209. What is the process by which one DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server?

Back 229

referral

Front 230

210. In what type of query does the server that receives the name resolution request immediately respond to the requester with the best information it possesses?

Back 230

iterative

Front 231

211. What DNS server contains no zones and hosts no domains?

Back 231

caching-only server

Front 232

212. What DNS server receives queries from other DNS servers that are explicitly configured to send them?

Back 232

forwarder

Front 233

213. What type of zone contains the master copy of the zone database in which administrators make all changes to the zone’s resource records?

Back 233

primary zone

Front 234

214. What type of zone forwards or refers requests to the appropriate server that hosts a primary zone for the selected query?

Back 234

stub zone

Front 235

215. What can be configured to enable enterprise-wide NetBIOS name resolution for your clients and servers?

Back 235

WINS

Front 236

216. What Windows Server 2008 service can you use to protect sensitive data on a Windows network?

Back 236

AD RMS

Front 237

217. What role allows administrators to configure Single Sign-On (SSO) for Web-based applications across multiple organizations without requiring users to remember multiple usernames and passwords?

Back 237

AD FS

Front 238

218. In terms of AD FS, what organizations contain the user accounts that are accessing the resources controlled by resource organizations, similar to a trusted domain in a traditional Windows trust relationship?

Back 238

account organizations

Front 239

219. What will forward queries selectively based on the domain specified in the name resolution request?

Back 239

conditional forwarder

Front 240

220. What type of zone is a read-only copy of the data that is stored within a primary zone on another server?

Back 240

secondary zone

Front 241

221. What enables network administrators and owners to configure access rights for users during the users’ entire lifecycle within an organization?

Back 241

Identity Lifecycle Management

Front 242

222. What role in ILM is to provide services for managing public key certificates that can be used by any security system that relies on a PKI for authentication or authorization?

Back 242

Active Directory Certificate Services

Front 243

223. What consists of a number of elements that allow two parties to communicate securely, without any previous communication, through the use of a mathematical algorithm called public key cryptography?

Back 243

public key infrastructure

Front 244

224. What is a secret piece of information that is shared between two parties prior to being able to communicate securely?

Back 244

shared secret key

Front 245

225. What is an entity that issues and manages digital certificates for use in a PKI, such as a Windows Server 2008 server running the AD CS server role?

Back 245

Certificate Authority

Front 246

226. What electronic piece of information proves the identity of the entity that has signed a particular document?

Back 246

digital signature

Front 247

227. What are small physical devices on which a digital certificate is installed that are usually the size of a credit card or keychain fob?

Back 247

smart cards

Front 248

228. What is used to request certificates on behalf of a user, computer, or service if self-enrollment is not practical or is otherwise an undesirable solution for reasons of security or auditing?

Back 248

enrollment agents

Front 249

229. What service allows devices, such as hardware-based routers and other network devices and appliances, to enroll for certificates within a Windows Server 2008 PKI that might not otherwise be able to do so?

Back 249

Network Device Enrollment Service

Front 250

230. What ACL specifically allows users or computers to be automatically issued certificates based on a template?

Back 250

Autoenroll

Front 251

231. What enables a user to manually create a certificate request file using the Certificates MMC snap-in?

Back 251

Certificate Request Wizard

Front 252

232. Users with what predefined security role are tasked with issuing and managing certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and revocation requests?

Back 252

Certificate Manager

Front 253

233. Which of the following are not able to be performed by those with the Auditor predefined security role?

Back 253

define key recovery agents

Front 254

234. What identifies certificates that have been revoked or terminated?

Back 254

Certificate Revocation List

Front 255

235. What is the process by which private keys are maintained by the CA for retrieval by a recovery agent?

Back 255

key archival

Front 256

236. What type of CA is not integrated with Active Directory and relies on administrator intervention to respond to certificate requests?

Back 256

standalone CA

Front 257

237. What type of CA can use certificate templates as well as Group Policy Objects to allow auto-enrollment of digital certificates, as well as store digital certificates within the Active Directory database for easy retrieval by users and devices?

Back 257

enterprise CA

Front 258

238. What service responds to requests from clients concerning the revocation status of a particular certificate, returning a digitally signed response indicating the certificate’s current status?

Back 258

Online Responder

Front 259

239. What is at the top level of a CA hierarchy?

Back 259

root CA