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110 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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is a loss the ability to differentiate (or a reversion to a primitive form).
Anaplasia
is the point at which a cell no longer responds to the normal controls for growth. The point of autonomy or self-sufficiency in growth signaling.
Transformation
What is a property shared by ALL neoplasms?
Transformation
is the process by which cells acquire the properties of cancer.
Malignant Transformation
is a normal gene that encodes for proteins that regulate cell growth and differentiation and can become an oncogene through mutation or over-expression.
Proto-oncogene
is a modified gene, or a set of nucleotides that code for a protein believed to cause cancer.
Oncogene
code for anti-proliferation signals and proteins that suppress mitosis and cell growth.
Tumor Suppressor genes
What are tumor suppressors in the form of generally and how are they activated?
Transcription Factors
-activated by cellular stress and DNA damage
what is the source of oncogenes and where are they found in the host?
viral
host genome
which are found incorporated into the host genome?
1) viral plasmids
2) viral oncogenes
viral oncogenes
why don't proto-oncogenes become oncogenes spontaneously?
repressors
oncogenes are known as the ______ genes that regulate entry of the cell into the tumorigenic pathway?
gatekeeper
genes that affect genomic stability such as:
-mismatch pair genes
-apoptosis
-other repair genes
caretaker genes
the "caretaker pathway" pathway to neoplasms is preceded by _______ before progressing to secondary gatekeeper mutations and ultimately neoplasms?
genetic instability
mechanism of carcinogenesis
1) production of abnormally stable TFs
2) production of excessive quantities of _______ and ________ _______
3) Excessive # of growth factor receptors = abnormally responsive cell
4) Expression of _______ activity
autocrine : paracrine growth factors
telomerase
the Knudson hypothesis suggests?
cancers (neoplasms) can only be initiated by a cell that contains 2 mutations
the multi-hit differs from the two-hit hypothesis of carcinogenesis in that?
it will take multiple mutations of a cell before cancer ensues
in the mult-step hypothesis can a single oncogene fully transform a cell?
NO:
each of the multiple oncogenes play a part in full transformation in a combination effect
What finding in cancer suggest the multi-hit hypothesis?
that more than one gene alterations and loss of tumor suppressors are responsible in progression into a tumor
what cancer provides a good example for multi-step carcinogenesis?
colon cancer
colon lesions evolve:
colon epithelial hyperplasia ---->________ ---> adenomas ----->
malignant transformation
epithelial dysplasia
what occurs first and last in the scheme of colon cancer progression
APC tumor suppressor gene
loss of p53 and TGF-beta
What are the alternative mutational pathways for GI cancer?
1) Suppressor pathway (no target for mutator phenotype)
2) Mutator pathway (target for mutator phenotype)
what gene is associated with breast cancer when mutated?
BCRA 1
BCRA 1 mutations are associated with all of the following except:
1) breast cancer
2) fallopian tube cancer
3) cervical cancer
4) ovarian cancer
5) prostate cancer
6) colon cancer
cervical cancer
the first stage in multistage carcinogenesis is called _____ whereby a carcinogen mutates DNA to a vulnerable state
initiation
the second stage in multistage carcinogenesis is called _______ when the initiated cell grows into a larger mass known as ________
promotion
clonal expansion
the last stage of multistage carcinogenesis is called _______ whereby a malignant tumor metastatically affects other cells' function and fxn of organs
progression
a most crucial stage of multistage carcinogenesis is called ______ at the point the cells become malignant
transformation
what are the 3 categories of carcinogens:?
1) chemical carcinogens
2) radiant energy
3) oncogenic viruses/some microbes
in the model of chemical carcinogenesis, one of the first means of ridding of the carcinogen is?
detoxification and excretion
Obesity
Physical activity
Dietary factors
colonic bacteria are examples of what concerning abnormal DNA replication
promoter for
After a malignant cell begins to proliferate, what feature ensues that maintains the metastases?
angiogenesis
How do tumorous cells reach other organs to cause invasion and destruction?
bloodstream (possibly from its own vasculature?)
Cells that look like cancer but have not invaded surrounding tissue are called DCIS (ductal carcinoma in situ) are seen in what stage of breast tumorigenesis/cancer?
Stage 0
Some of the cells from the tumor 2cm or less, spill out of duct. No cancer in lymph nodes. indicates what stage of breast tumorigenesis/cancer
Stage 1
most tumors in this stage measure 2-5 cm but have not spread to lymph nodes?
Stage 2
the cancer has taken hold in lymph nodes even if it measures less than 1cm in size is in what stage of breast cancer tumorigenesis
Stage 3
what stage of breast cancer is indicated when the cancer has spread beyond the breast, leading to secondary tumors in the liver, lungs, brain or elsewhere?
Stage 4
do powerlines increase the risk of cancer?
no. studies have been inconclusive
Chemical carcinogens
Radiant energy
Oncogenic viruses and other microbes
~ are examples of what?
oncogenic agents
Pervical Pott was a surgeon who elucidated the process of ?
cancer scroti: occupational disease of chimney sweeper's cancer
the action of direct acting alkylating agents are both therapeutic and destructive how?
interacting with and damaging DNA
what is the risk of cancer for direct alkylating agents?
low
these are examples of what?
cyclophosphamide
chlorambucil
busulfan
melphalan
direct-acting alkylating agents
Benz[a]anthracene
benzo[a]pyrene
3-methylcholanthrene
7,12, dimethylben[a]anthracne
are all examples of what type of potent carcinogens?
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
what categories of carcinogens are related to smoking causing lung/bladder cancers
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
associated with smoked meats and burning of fossil fuels?
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
2-naphthylamine, 2-acetylaminofluorine, dimethylaminoazobenzene
β-naphthylamine
~ are all examples of what category of carcinogens?
Aromatic amines
Azo dyes
carcinogens become ultimately potent when they are metabolized and conjugated where?
liver (P-450 oxygenase systems)
what is required for polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons to become activated?
metabolic activation
These substances are carcinogens that are associated with gastric carcinoma and are derived from the GI bacterial flora?
nitrosamines
amides
occupational exposure to this substance is an associated risk for bronchogenic carcinoma, mesothelioma, and GI cancer
asbestos
what substance is associated with hemangiosarcoma
vinyl chloride (polymer)
what are examples of metals that increase the risk for lung cancer
chromium
nickel
arsenic is associated with what type of cancer
skin cancer
aldrin
dieldrin
chlordane
polychlorinated biphenyls
~ are examples of _______ as carcinogens for animals
insectisides
which of the aromatic amines / azo dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer 50 fold
Beta-napthylamine
aflatoxin B1 is a chemical carcinogen from a ____ microorganism and is associated with ________ carcinoma when coupled with HBV
fungal
hepatocellular
the mycotoxin aflatoxin B1 is produced from what fungal species?
Aspergillus flavus
betel nuts are chewed by SE Asians and may contain what toxin?
Aflatoxin B1
radiation carcinogenesis is implicated in what type of cancer with undue exposure
skin cancer and breast cancer
what is observed in regards to the onset of radiation induced neoplasms?
latency
Ionizing radiation produces _____ water which then affect the DNA --> neoplasms
radicals
squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma and melanoma are associated with what carcinogen?
UV light
what type of UV rays are the culprit for skin cancers?
UVB (200-280 nm)
what type of UV rays penetrate the deepest in the skin
UVA ( 280 - 320 nm)
UV radiation causes ______ dimers of DNA
pyrimidine
DNA damage by UV rays (dimerization) is repaired by_____?
Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)
the 5 steps of DNA damage repair by NERs:
(1) Recognition of the DNA lesion
(2) Incision of the damaged strand on both sites of the lesion
(3) Removal of the damaged nucleotide
(4) ?
(5) Its ligation.
Synthesis of a nucleotide patch
what autosomal recessive disorder is characterized by a 200 fold increase of sun exposed skin cancer due to a lack of a functional NER pathway?
Xeroderma Pigmentosum
UVB light damage may affect what 2 genes?
RAS
p53
excision of damaged DNA is excised by these enzymes
endonucleases
defects in the bypass repair synthesis resulting in XP variants are caused by
DNA polymerases
what is the order of incidence rates of the 3 major skin pathologies
BCC > SCC > melanoma
these patients develop cutaneous malignancies 250 that of general population
organ transplant recipients
what is the dose at which carcinogenic effects become significant
100 rads (I Gy)
What type of rays induce cancers years after exposure?
1) UV rays
2) X rays
X rays ( 5-20 years)
The Chernoby Nuclear power plant fallout led to 2000 cases of what that is associated with irradiation, accidents and therapy?
thyroid cancers
The practice of treating ankylosing spondylitis with therapeutic irradiation yielded a 10-12 fold increase incidence of _____ years later
leukemia
Label each organ group in the order of susceptibility to cancer by radiation:
1) skin, GI, bone
2) thyroid
3) bone marrow
4) breast, lungs, salivary glands
bone marrow = 1st
thryoid = 2nd
breast, lungs, salivary glands = 3rd
skin, GI, bone = 4th
why is bone marrow most susceptible to radiation-induced cancers?
high index of replication
what microbial culprit is associated with gastric tumor carcinogenesis?
Helicobacter pylori
What genetic types of HPV lead to benign squamous papillomas (warts)?
1, 2, 4, 7
1+2+4 =
what are the 2 most common sequences of HPV-induced SCC?
HPV 16:18
HPV 31,33,35 and 51 are less commonly involved in the occurrence of what skin malignancies?
SCC
Genital warts with LOW risk in malignancy are what HPV types?
HPV 6 : 11
EBV is a herpevirus associate with what 4 pathologies?
1) African form of Burkitt Lymphoma
2) B cell Lymphomas (HIV)
3) Hodgkin Lymphomas
4) Nasopharyngeal carcinomas
EBV infects epithelial cells of what?
oropharynx
B lymphocytes
does EBV implicate itself into the cell as a :
plasmid
episome?
episome
starry sky appearance
Burkitt's Lymphoma
Hepatosplenomegaly due to metastases as a result of ?
EBV
HBV infection is associated with what type of cancer?
liver
HBV when integrated into host genome is NOT found to encode for oncoproteins but rather affect the host by a ______ and _____ process
indirect
multifactorial
HBV encodes for what protein that disrupts the normal growth of infected liver cells by interacting with growth promoting / suppressing factors(p53)?
HBx
what is an example of an oncogenic retrovirus associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
HCV
A human RNA retrovirus associated with leukemia carcinogenesis?
HTLV-1
HTLV-1 targets what T cells for neoplastic transformation
CD4+
Leukemia develops in what % of patients infected with HTLV-1
3-5%
infections of HTLV-1 cause the expansion of a type 1 nonmalignant polyclonal cell population thru stimulating _____ on cell proliferation
TAX
TAX protein causes cell proliferation of a polyclonal nonmalignant cell population that eventually may lead to replication of ______ irrespective of _____growth stimulating cytokine?
monoclonal neoplastic Tcell
IL-2
Rex
p30
HBZ
are all viral gene products serving what function?
suppressing TAX expression
5% of asymptomatic carriers infected with HTLV-1 develop this condition?
ATL
90% of those with Helicobacter pylori infections present with
chronic gastritis
20-30% of those with H. pylori infections develop ______ and lesser so _____
GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphomas

gastric carcinomas
the pathogenicity island of H. pylori infections contain what cytotoxin?
CagA ( Cytotoxin associated gene A)
what is a virulence factor of H. pylori infections that will cause apoptosis
VacA
gastric lymphomas arise from _____
MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue)
The B cells that give rise to MALT lymphomas are found where?
marginal zones of lymphoid follicles
it is thought that H. pylori infections lead to lymphoid infiltrates that cause what type of genetic features?
translocations t(11:18)