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110 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
is a loss the ability to differentiate (or a reversion to a primitive form).
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Anaplasia
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is the point at which a cell no longer responds to the normal controls for growth. The point of autonomy or self-sufficiency in growth signaling.
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Transformation
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What is a property shared by ALL neoplasms?
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Transformation
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is the process by which cells acquire the properties of cancer.
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Malignant Transformation
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is a normal gene that encodes for proteins that regulate cell growth and differentiation and can become an oncogene through mutation or over-expression.
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Proto-oncogene
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is a modified gene, or a set of nucleotides that code for a protein believed to cause cancer.
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Oncogene
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code for anti-proliferation signals and proteins that suppress mitosis and cell growth.
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Tumor Suppressor genes
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What are tumor suppressors in the form of generally and how are they activated?
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Transcription Factors
-activated by cellular stress and DNA damage |
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what is the source of oncogenes and where are they found in the host?
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viral
host genome |
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which are found incorporated into the host genome?
1) viral plasmids 2) viral oncogenes |
viral oncogenes
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why don't proto-oncogenes become oncogenes spontaneously?
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repressors
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oncogenes are known as the ______ genes that regulate entry of the cell into the tumorigenic pathway?
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gatekeeper
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genes that affect genomic stability such as:
-mismatch pair genes -apoptosis -other repair genes |
caretaker genes
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the "caretaker pathway" pathway to neoplasms is preceded by _______ before progressing to secondary gatekeeper mutations and ultimately neoplasms?
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genetic instability
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mechanism of carcinogenesis
1) production of abnormally stable TFs 2) production of excessive quantities of _______ and ________ _______ 3) Excessive # of growth factor receptors = abnormally responsive cell 4) Expression of _______ activity |
autocrine : paracrine growth factors
telomerase |
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the Knudson hypothesis suggests?
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cancers (neoplasms) can only be initiated by a cell that contains 2 mutations
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the multi-hit differs from the two-hit hypothesis of carcinogenesis in that?
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it will take multiple mutations of a cell before cancer ensues
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in the mult-step hypothesis can a single oncogene fully transform a cell?
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NO:
each of the multiple oncogenes play a part in full transformation in a combination effect |
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What finding in cancer suggest the multi-hit hypothesis?
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that more than one gene alterations and loss of tumor suppressors are responsible in progression into a tumor
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what cancer provides a good example for multi-step carcinogenesis?
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colon cancer
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colon lesions evolve:
colon epithelial hyperplasia ---->________ ---> adenomas -----> malignant transformation |
epithelial dysplasia
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what occurs first and last in the scheme of colon cancer progression
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APC tumor suppressor gene
loss of p53 and TGF-beta |
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What are the alternative mutational pathways for GI cancer?
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1) Suppressor pathway (no target for mutator phenotype)
2) Mutator pathway (target for mutator phenotype) |
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what gene is associated with breast cancer when mutated?
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BCRA 1
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BCRA 1 mutations are associated with all of the following except:
1) breast cancer 2) fallopian tube cancer 3) cervical cancer 4) ovarian cancer 5) prostate cancer 6) colon cancer |
cervical cancer
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the first stage in multistage carcinogenesis is called _____ whereby a carcinogen mutates DNA to a vulnerable state
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initiation
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the second stage in multistage carcinogenesis is called _______ when the initiated cell grows into a larger mass known as ________
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promotion
clonal expansion |
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the last stage of multistage carcinogenesis is called _______ whereby a malignant tumor metastatically affects other cells' function and fxn of organs
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progression
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a most crucial stage of multistage carcinogenesis is called ______ at the point the cells become malignant
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transformation
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what are the 3 categories of carcinogens:?
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1) chemical carcinogens
2) radiant energy 3) oncogenic viruses/some microbes |
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in the model of chemical carcinogenesis, one of the first means of ridding of the carcinogen is?
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detoxification and excretion
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Obesity
Physical activity Dietary factors colonic bacteria are examples of what concerning abnormal DNA replication |
promoter for
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After a malignant cell begins to proliferate, what feature ensues that maintains the metastases?
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angiogenesis
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How do tumorous cells reach other organs to cause invasion and destruction?
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bloodstream (possibly from its own vasculature?)
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Cells that look like cancer but have not invaded surrounding tissue are called DCIS (ductal carcinoma in situ) are seen in what stage of breast tumorigenesis/cancer?
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Stage 0
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Some of the cells from the tumor 2cm or less, spill out of duct. No cancer in lymph nodes. indicates what stage of breast tumorigenesis/cancer
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Stage 1
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most tumors in this stage measure 2-5 cm but have not spread to lymph nodes?
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Stage 2
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the cancer has taken hold in lymph nodes even if it measures less than 1cm in size is in what stage of breast cancer tumorigenesis
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Stage 3
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what stage of breast cancer is indicated when the cancer has spread beyond the breast, leading to secondary tumors in the liver, lungs, brain or elsewhere?
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Stage 4
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do powerlines increase the risk of cancer?
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no. studies have been inconclusive
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Chemical carcinogens
Radiant energy Oncogenic viruses and other microbes ~ are examples of what? |
oncogenic agents
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Pervical Pott was a surgeon who elucidated the process of ?
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cancer scroti: occupational disease of chimney sweeper's cancer
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the action of direct acting alkylating agents are both therapeutic and destructive how?
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interacting with and damaging DNA
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what is the risk of cancer for direct alkylating agents?
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low
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these are examples of what?
cyclophosphamide chlorambucil busulfan melphalan |
direct-acting alkylating agents
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Benz[a]anthracene
benzo[a]pyrene 3-methylcholanthrene 7,12, dimethylben[a]anthracne are all examples of what type of potent carcinogens? |
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
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what categories of carcinogens are related to smoking causing lung/bladder cancers
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polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
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associated with smoked meats and burning of fossil fuels?
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polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
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2-naphthylamine, 2-acetylaminofluorine, dimethylaminoazobenzene
β-naphthylamine ~ are all examples of what category of carcinogens? |
Aromatic amines
Azo dyes |
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carcinogens become ultimately potent when they are metabolized and conjugated where?
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liver (P-450 oxygenase systems)
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what is required for polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons to become activated?
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metabolic activation
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These substances are carcinogens that are associated with gastric carcinoma and are derived from the GI bacterial flora?
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nitrosamines
amides |
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occupational exposure to this substance is an associated risk for bronchogenic carcinoma, mesothelioma, and GI cancer
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asbestos
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what substance is associated with hemangiosarcoma
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vinyl chloride (polymer)
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what are examples of metals that increase the risk for lung cancer
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chromium
nickel |
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arsenic is associated with what type of cancer
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skin cancer
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aldrin
dieldrin chlordane polychlorinated biphenyls ~ are examples of _______ as carcinogens for animals |
insectisides
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which of the aromatic amines / azo dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer 50 fold
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Beta-napthylamine
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aflatoxin B1 is a chemical carcinogen from a ____ microorganism and is associated with ________ carcinoma when coupled with HBV
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fungal
hepatocellular |
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the mycotoxin aflatoxin B1 is produced from what fungal species?
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Aspergillus flavus
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betel nuts are chewed by SE Asians and may contain what toxin?
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Aflatoxin B1
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radiation carcinogenesis is implicated in what type of cancer with undue exposure
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skin cancer and breast cancer
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what is observed in regards to the onset of radiation induced neoplasms?
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latency
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Ionizing radiation produces _____ water which then affect the DNA --> neoplasms
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radicals
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squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma and melanoma are associated with what carcinogen?
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UV light
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what type of UV rays are the culprit for skin cancers?
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UVB (200-280 nm)
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what type of UV rays penetrate the deepest in the skin
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UVA ( 280 - 320 nm)
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UV radiation causes ______ dimers of DNA
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pyrimidine
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DNA damage by UV rays (dimerization) is repaired by_____?
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Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)
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the 5 steps of DNA damage repair by NERs:
(1) Recognition of the DNA lesion (2) Incision of the damaged strand on both sites of the lesion (3) Removal of the damaged nucleotide (4) ? (5) Its ligation. |
Synthesis of a nucleotide patch
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what autosomal recessive disorder is characterized by a 200 fold increase of sun exposed skin cancer due to a lack of a functional NER pathway?
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Xeroderma Pigmentosum
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UVB light damage may affect what 2 genes?
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RAS
p53 |
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excision of damaged DNA is excised by these enzymes
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endonucleases
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defects in the bypass repair synthesis resulting in XP variants are caused by
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DNA polymerases
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what is the order of incidence rates of the 3 major skin pathologies
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BCC > SCC > melanoma
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these patients develop cutaneous malignancies 250 that of general population
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organ transplant recipients
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what is the dose at which carcinogenic effects become significant
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100 rads (I Gy)
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What type of rays induce cancers years after exposure?
1) UV rays 2) X rays |
X rays ( 5-20 years)
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The Chernoby Nuclear power plant fallout led to 2000 cases of what that is associated with irradiation, accidents and therapy?
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thyroid cancers
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The practice of treating ankylosing spondylitis with therapeutic irradiation yielded a 10-12 fold increase incidence of _____ years later
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leukemia
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Label each organ group in the order of susceptibility to cancer by radiation:
1) skin, GI, bone 2) thyroid 3) bone marrow 4) breast, lungs, salivary glands |
bone marrow = 1st
thryoid = 2nd breast, lungs, salivary glands = 3rd skin, GI, bone = 4th |
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why is bone marrow most susceptible to radiation-induced cancers?
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high index of replication
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what microbial culprit is associated with gastric tumor carcinogenesis?
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Helicobacter pylori
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What genetic types of HPV lead to benign squamous papillomas (warts)?
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1, 2, 4, 7
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1+2+4 =
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what are the 2 most common sequences of HPV-induced SCC?
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HPV 16:18
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HPV 31,33,35 and 51 are less commonly involved in the occurrence of what skin malignancies?
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SCC
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Genital warts with LOW risk in malignancy are what HPV types?
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HPV 6 : 11
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EBV is a herpevirus associate with what 4 pathologies?
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1) African form of Burkitt Lymphoma
2) B cell Lymphomas (HIV) 3) Hodgkin Lymphomas 4) Nasopharyngeal carcinomas |
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EBV infects epithelial cells of what?
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oropharynx
B lymphocytes |
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does EBV implicate itself into the cell as a :
plasmid episome? |
episome
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starry sky appearance
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Burkitt's Lymphoma
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Hepatosplenomegaly due to metastases as a result of ?
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EBV
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HBV infection is associated with what type of cancer?
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liver
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HBV when integrated into host genome is NOT found to encode for oncoproteins but rather affect the host by a ______ and _____ process
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indirect
multifactorial |
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HBV encodes for what protein that disrupts the normal growth of infected liver cells by interacting with growth promoting / suppressing factors(p53)?
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HBx
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what is an example of an oncogenic retrovirus associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
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HCV
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A human RNA retrovirus associated with leukemia carcinogenesis?
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HTLV-1
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HTLV-1 targets what T cells for neoplastic transformation
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CD4+
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Leukemia develops in what % of patients infected with HTLV-1
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3-5%
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infections of HTLV-1 cause the expansion of a type 1 nonmalignant polyclonal cell population thru stimulating _____ on cell proliferation
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TAX
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TAX protein causes cell proliferation of a polyclonal nonmalignant cell population that eventually may lead to replication of ______ irrespective of _____growth stimulating cytokine?
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monoclonal neoplastic Tcell
IL-2 |
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Rex
p30 HBZ are all viral gene products serving what function? |
suppressing TAX expression
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5% of asymptomatic carriers infected with HTLV-1 develop this condition?
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ATL
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90% of those with Helicobacter pylori infections present with
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chronic gastritis
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20-30% of those with H. pylori infections develop ______ and lesser so _____
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GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphomas
gastric carcinomas |
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the pathogenicity island of H. pylori infections contain what cytotoxin?
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CagA ( Cytotoxin associated gene A)
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what is a virulence factor of H. pylori infections that will cause apoptosis
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VacA
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gastric lymphomas arise from _____
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MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue)
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The B cells that give rise to MALT lymphomas are found where?
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marginal zones of lymphoid follicles
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it is thought that H. pylori infections lead to lymphoid infiltrates that cause what type of genetic features?
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translocations t(11:18)
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