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381 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What publication describes the DOD and Air Force EOD mission?
A. AFR 136-8 B. AFI 32-3001 C. AFPD 32-33 D. AFJI 32-3002 |
D. AFJI 32-3002
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What are the three interrelated parts that make up the total EOD capability?
A. Procedures, equipment, personnel B. Intelligence, equipment, personnel C. Procedures, intelligence, personnel D. Procedures, equipment, intelligence |
A. Procedures, equipment, personnel
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Which organization is responsible for providing oversight to the Air Force EOD program?
A HQ USAF/ILE B. HQ AFCESA C. MAJCOM D. WING |
A. HQ USAF/ILE
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Which organization provides overall functional management of explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) programs?
A. HQ USAF/ILEOR B. HQ AFCESA C. MAJCOM D. WING |
B. HQ AFCESA
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Who establishes explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) units?
A. Wing commander B. Group commander C. Squadron commander D. MAJCOM functional manager |
D. MAJCOM functional manager
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When is the War and Mobilization Plan updated and by whom?
A. When necessary by the wing commander B. When necessary by the MAJCOM C. Annually by the wing commander D. Annually by the MAJCOM |
B. When necessary by the MAJCOM.
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Who is the head of the civil engineer orgainzation?
A. Flight supervisor B. Flight commander C. Squadron commander D. Squadron superintendent |
C. Squadron commander
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Which civil Engineer flight oversees cleanup of hazardous waste sites?
A Readiness B. Operations C. Environmental D. Fire protection |
C. Environmental
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while ensuring mission continuity during war and peace, the CE Flight that provides dedicated resources to fully protect life, resources, and the environment from unfavorable outcomes of fires, natural disasters, and hazardous materials incidents is:
A. Readiness B. Operations C. Engineering D Fire protection |
D. Fire protection
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Which task is a common civil engineer wartime mission?
A. Base infrastructure maintenance B. Force bed down of AF units C. Snow removal D. Street repair |
B. Force bed down of AF units
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As a Civil Engineer personnel, the most important thing to remember during readiness training is:
A The reason for our existence is to do our primary wartime mission B. That exercising hard pays big dividends in wartime C. To make the exercise as realistic as possible D To show others what we know |
A. The reason for our existence is to do our primary wartime mission
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Which task is a common civil engineer peacetime mission?
A. Decontaminating in a chemical/biological situation B. Providing, maintaining, and operating housing C. Performing force bed down of AF units D Assisting with base denial |
B. Providing, maintaining, and operating housing
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The focus for deploying Prime BEEF forces is to:
A. Satisfy contingency mission requirements B. Execute independent engineering operations C. Provide commanders with a heavy construction force D. Supplement Air Force specific contingency operations |
A. Satisfy contingency mission requirements
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(006) Which unit is not assigned to a Base Civil Engineer (BCE) unit when it is not deployed?
A. Air National Guard B. Air Force Reserve C. RED HORSE D. Prime BEEF |
C. RED HORSE
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(006) Which force provides commanders with an airfield and base heavy construction and repair capability?
A. Air National Guard B. Air Force Reserve C. RED HORSE D. Prime BEEF |
C. RED HORSE
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(006) Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve forces complement the Civil Engineer by:
A. Supplementing the active duty forces for joint operations only B. Providing the "operational" arm of the "combat support" mission C. Supplementing the active duty force or deploying as the primary force D. Acting as the sole intermediary between the military and the public sector |
C. Supplementing the active duty force or deploying as the primary force
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(006) A major command receives special consideration for receiving Air National Guard or Air Force Reserve Prime BEEF forces when a deployment:
A. Is purely humanitarian B. Includes joint operations C. Parallels "Silver Flag" exercises D. Provides unique contingency skill training |
D. Provides unique contingency skill training
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(007) What action(s) should you take in response to frustration and stress to place customer service at the center of the action?
A. Put yourself in the customer's shoes and apply your knowledge of Civil Engineer to arrive at a mutually satisfying result. B. Explain to the customer your desires and apply your abilities to the most convenient result C. Explain to the customer your desires only D. Put yourself in the customer's shoes only |
A. Put yourself in the customer's shoes and apply your knowledge of Civil Engineer to arrive at a mutually satisfying result.
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(007) What does not help you establish your image with a customer?
A. Demonstrating your professionalism B. Showing an interest in each customer C. Impressing your customer with your job knowledge D. Informing your customer about civil engineer's services |
C. Impressing your customer with your job knowledge
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(007) Which Air Force form do building custodians and military family housing occupants use to identify work to Civil Engineer?
A. 327, BCE Work Order. B. 332, BCE Work Request C. 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order D. 1879, BCE Job Order Record |
B. 332, BCE Work Request
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(008) What document must be prepared for missing property when the cost involved is greater than $500.00?
A. Hand receipt B. Report of survey C. Cash collection voucher D. Statement of charges for government property lost, damaged, or destroyed |
B. Report of survey
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008, When planning a project, what item is used to compute the total job time for each phase using engineered performance standards?
A. Task list B. Bill of materials C. Job phase calculating sheet D. Job planning and estimating worksheets |
D. Job planning and estimating worksheets
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008, Which document is often used by supply to order materials or check the present stock to make sure materials are available before a job is scheduled?
A. Completing list B. Bill of materials C. Job phase calculation sheet D. Job planning and estimating worksheets |
B. Bill of materials
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009, What do you need before you can access the Interim Work Information Management System?
A. A logon ID only B. A Logon ID and password only C. A logon ID, password, and computer with VUWin only D. A logon ID, password, computer with VUWin, and access to local area network |
D. A logon ID, password, computer with VUWin, and access to local area network
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010, Under the Government Purchase Card program, who is ultimately responsible for the proper and correct administration of the program within his/her office?
A. Cardholder B. Finance manager C. Approving official D. Office program coordinator |
C. Approving official
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Which purchase is authorized for a cardholder to make with the Government Purchase Card?
A. Employee awards B. A $2,000 construction project C. Rental or lease of land or buildings D. Recurring services valued at $3,000 per year |
B. A $2,000 construction project
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010, Who sends the warranty or guarantee documents to the applicable operations shop for items received from base supply and installed by the operations shops?
A. Resource section B. Logistics function C. Operations work centers D. Contract management section |
B. Logistics function
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011, which function in an explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) flight is primarily responsible for planning range clearance operations?
A. Supply B. Equipment C. Operations D. Supervision |
C. Operations
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011, Which function in an explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) flight orders and maintains the unit's technical data library?
A. Publications B. Supervision C. Administration D. Quality Assurance |
A. Publications
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011, How often are the explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) flight's vehicles inspected to make sure they are ready for use at all times?
A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Quarterly |
A. Daily
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012, Radio frequency (RF) spectrum practices are established at which level of government?
A. County B. City C. State D. International |
D. International
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012, Which function is not a purpose of radio frequency (RF) identification?
A. An exercise B. A range operation C. A classroom training session D. A cellular phone call |
C. A classroom training session
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013, What is your most important consideration during port mortuary operations?
A. Safety B. Embedded fragments C. Classified information D. Certification to perform incisions |
A. Safety
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013, When conducting mortuary operations reconnaissance on a potentially explosive item, what is the minimum protective gear that you must wear?
A. Medical protective clothing B. Medical protective clothing and helmet C. Medical protective clothing and body armor D. Medical protective clothing, body armor, and helmet |
D. Medical protective clothing, body armor, and helmet
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013, Which label is attached to mark transfer cases containing ordnance items?
A. A yellow unexploded ordnance (UXO) form B. A red human body label C. A green (UXO) form D. A blue flow sheet |
B. A red human body label
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013, Which area is not part of the mortuary support mission?
A. POW/MIA recoveries B. Mass fatality support C. Theatre remains processing D. Fragment removal during autopsy |
D. Fragment removal during autopsy
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014, Designed operational capability (DOC) statements provide unit with Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS):
A. Organization design and establishments B. Organization and training requirements C. Peacetime mission requirements D. Measurement criteria |
D. Measurement criteria
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014, How many areas are used to determine the explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) equipment Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) report percentage?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 |
A. 4
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014, What is the unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) rating if it possess the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission(S) for which it is organized or designed?
A. C-1 B. C-2 C. C-3 D. C-4 |
A. C-1
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014, Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data that contains data from two or more units are classified as:
A. For Official Use Only B. Secret C. Top Secret D. Confidential |
B. Secret
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015, Which duty is not the responsibility of an explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) technician?
A Excavating and safing unexploded ordnance B. Fabricating explosive demolition charges C. Planning contingency operations D. Providing perimeter security |
D. Providing perimeter security
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015, The explosive ordnance explosive (EOD) unit type code (UTC) that provides equipment, vehicles, and explosives required in the initial support of a major combat is:
A. 4F9X1 B. 4F9X3 C. 4F9X4 D. 4F9X5 |
A. 4F9X1
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015, The explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) unt type code (UTC) that provides base sustainment in the support of a major combat, contingency, and homeland defense operations is:
A. 4F9X3 B. 4F9X6 C. 4F9X7 D. 4F9X10 |
A. 4F9X3
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015, The 4F9RA specialized explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) unit type code (UTC) provides:
A. Assessment and clearance of unexploded ordnance (UXO) to establish initial airfield operations B. An all-purpose transport system (ARTS) with associated equipment C. An up-armored high mobility multi-wheeled vehicle (UA-HMMWV) D. A management officer required in the support of major combat |
A. Assessment and clearance of unexploded ordnance (UXO) to establish initial airfield operations
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015, What is the frequency and the type of training required for explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) personnel when assigned to a direct nuclear support unit?
A. Semi-annual classroom and semi-annual practical B. Semi-annual classroom and annual practical C. Annual classroom and semi-annual practical D. Annual classroom and annual practical |
B. Semi-annual classroom and annual practical
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015, Direct support units conduct a Broken Arrow exercise at least every:
A. Year B. Two years C. Three years D. Four years |
A. Year
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015, Devices designed to disperse radioactive material are called improvised:
A. Nuclear devices B. Chemical devices C. Explosive devices D.Biological devices |
A. Nuclear devices
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016, An apprentice who is an assistant learning a trade holds which skill level?
A. 1 Level B. 3 Level C. 5 Level D. 7 Level |
B. 3 Level
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017, Which individual is the trainee's first line of feedback, the individual the trainee seeks first for help with specific training needs?
A. Trainer B. Supervisor C. Task certifier D. Unit Training Manager |
A. Trainer
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017, Individuals with whom skill levels are allowed to task certify?
A. 3 and 5 B. 5 and 7 C. 3, 5, and 7 D. 5 and civilian equivalent |
D. 5 and civilian equivalent
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017, Which individual identifies core task, third-party certification, and other unique specialized certification requirements to provide mandatory 3/5/7 - skill level in resident courses?
A Supervisor B. Unit Training Manager C. MAJCOM functional manager D. Air Force career field manager |
D. Air Force career field manager
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017, What is the primary tool you use to identify training requirements and to help you understand how those requirements are met, certified, and documented?
A. Mater Task list B. Job specialty standard C. Qualification training package D. Career field education and training plan |
D. Career field education and training plan
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018, Your work center training program should be tailored to the needs of the:
A. People first B. Mission first C. Mission only D. People only |
B. Mission first
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018, Which type of training contributes directly or indirectly to mission attainment but is separate from the requirements of an individual's primary Air Force specialty?
A. Formal B. Ancillary C. Continuation D. Qualification |
B. Ancillary
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018, In the training program area, which term identifies the lowest level of behavior that describes the complete performance of a meaningful function?
A. Job B. Duty C. Task D. Activity |
C. Task
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019, How many months in advance are projected when conducting the annual screening for a work center?
A. 6 to 12 B. 12 to 18 C. 18 to 24 D. 24 to 32 |
C. 18 to 24
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019, Which training prioritization code is used on the training request if the lack of training will ultimately cause some mission impairment?
A. Code A B. Code B C. Code C D. Code D |
C. Code C
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019, Which form is used to request training for active duty military?
A. AF Form 101 B. AF Form 403 C. DD Form 1348 D. DD Form 1556 |
B. AF Form 1556
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020, The four categories into which the CerTest program is divided are AFSC specific,
A. Supplemental training, CE general, and contingency B. Supplemental training, safety, and contingency C. Supplemental training, CE general, and safety D. Safety, CE general, and contingency |
A. Supplemental training, CE general, and contingency
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020, How many times can you take the CerTest pre-test for each subject area?
A. Once B. Twice C. Three times D. Unlimited |
D. Unlimited
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020, Which document shows you the certification requirement for your job?
A. Master task list B. Auxiliary training list C. Job specialty standard booklet D. Qualification training package |
A. Master task list
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021, What is used to seal nuclear components?
A. Special tape B. Special numbered labels C. Safety wire and lead seals D. "Boxcar" metal strip seals |
C. Safety wire and lead seals
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021, What is the best indicator of reliability for the personnel reliability program?
A. Medical record screening B. AFSC to which assigned C Security investigation D. Past performance |
D. Past performance
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021, Who certifies a person for the personnel reliability program?
A. Immediate commander B. Immediate supervisor C. Medical personnel D. Security forces |
A. Immediate commander
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021, When entering a "no-lone zone" what is a requirement for each member of a two-person team?
A. Be at least an E-4 B. Be the same AFSC as other team members C. Be familiar with the task's security requirements D. Have at least a CONFIDENTIAL security clearance |
C. Be familiar with the task's security requirements
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022, What type of respirator must you use if you remove lead based paint from a structure?
A. Certified with high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters B. Certified with dust filters C. Standard dust filter D. None is needed |
A. Certified with high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters
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022, What material is naturally occurring fibrous material and has been around for thousands of years but is very hazardous to your health?
A. Asbestos B. Methane C. Nickel D. Cooper |
A. Asbestos
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022, Asbestos poses the greatest risk when it is?
A. Wet B. Ingested C. Compacted D. Released into the air |
D. Released into the air
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023, The requirements that must be met before a person can receive classified information are the person must have a:
A. Special information file (SIF) and signs a Standard Form (SF) 312 B. Need to know and sign a SF 312 C. Need to know and have access D. SIF and have access |
B. Need to know and sign a SF 312
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023, When controlling classified explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) technical data, access may be granted based on:
A. Rank B. Service C. Prestige D. Job requirements |
D. Job requirements
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023, What does the commander establish when someone refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement?
A. UIF B. SIF C. LOC D. LOR |
B. SIF
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024, When you learn about a security violation, you must report it to your superiors:
A. Immediately B. By the end of the duty day C. Within a week D. By the end of the next duty day |
A. Immediately
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024, What is the first step in the investigating process to determine if there was a compromise of classified information?
A. A personal inquiry B. A preliminary inquiry C. A formal investigation D. An informal investigation |
B. A preliminary inquiry
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025, Which action is an example of a transmission security measure?
A. Using your name on unsecured telephones and radios B. Using registered mail to transmit classified information C. Talking around a classified subject to prevent saying anything classified D. Faxing classified information to a person with a proper clearance and need to know |
B. Using registered mail to transmit classified information
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025, Which security measure can be used to safeguard cryptographic and other classified computer security (COMSEC) material?
A. An armed guard B. A secure facility C. A lockable filing cabinet D. A lockable desk dawer |
A. An armed guard
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026, Which security classification applies to the combination of a container in which different levels of classified material is stored?
A. Secret B. Confidentilal C. The highest level of the material stored in it D. Top Secret regardless of the level of the material it contains |
C. The highest level of the material stored in it
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026, Which situation always calls for changing the combination of a safe that contains classified information?
A. Authorized personnel have verified the contents B. The combination has been used for six months C. Authorized personnel have updated their telephone numbers D. An authorized person has had a permanent change of station (PCS) |
D. An authorized person has had a permanent change of station (PCS)
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026, What is the standard factory combination setting for a security container?
A. 50-25-50 B. 25-50-25 C. 10-20-30 D. 30-20-10 |
A. 50-25-50
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026, Which type of classified information does degaussing destroy, and how does it work?
A. Compact disk, read-only memory (CD-ROM). B. Magnetic media, defaces the classified information C. Magnetic media, neutralizes the magnetic field D. CD-ROM, defaces the classified information |
C. Magnetic media, neutralizes the magnetic field
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026, At a minimum, how many people must witness the destruction of Top Secret materials?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
B. Two
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026, What is the first priority for emergency destruction of classified information?
A. All secret B. All classified C. For Official Use Only/Confidential/secret D. Secret/Restricted Data/Critical Nuclear Weapons Design |
D. Secret/Restricted Data/Critical Nuclear Weapons Design
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026, Which levels of classification material require the use of registered mail?
A. Secret and higher B. Secret and confidential C. Confidential and higher D. For Official Use Only (FOUO) and confidential |
A. Secret and higher
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027, According to the Department of Defense Manual (DODM) 5100.76M, Physical Security of Sensitive Conventional Arms, Ammunition and Explosives, demolition explosives are in which risk category?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV |
B. II
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027, During transport, which category of munitions must remain under continuous surveillance by the driver and an armed escort?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV |
A. I
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028, Which security measure is our first line of defense against an adversary's intelligence efforts?
A. Operational security (OPSEC) B. Computer Security (COMPUSEC) C. Transmission Security(TRANSEC) D. Communications Security (COMSEC) |
A. Operational Security (OPSEC)
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028, Maintaining an element of surprise describes which Air Force Operation Security (OPSEC) element?
A. Control B. Process C. Concept D. Program |
C. Concept
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028, In the Operational Security (OPSEC) program, what is a possible administrative indicator of critical OPSEC information?
A. Schedules and duty rosters B. Longer working hours and schedules C. Increases and decreases in communications traffic D. Pre-positioned equipment and unique communications equipment |
A. Schedules and duty rosters
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029, Which publications are headquarters (HQ) Air Force-level documents?
A. Field B. Specialized C. Departmental D. Non-Air Force |
C. Departmental
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029, Organizations below the headquarters (HQ) Air Force level issue what kind of publications?
A. Field B. Interservice C. Departmental D. Technical orders |
A. Field
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029, The key to determining whether your publication is the current and official version is the:
A. Signature authority B. Endorsement level C. Publication date D. Source |
D. Source
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029, What is the only official source for publications and IMTs?
A. Air Force publishing Website B. Official bulletin bards C. Local area networks D. Personal Web sites |
A. Air Force publishing Website
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030, Which part of an Air Force publication must state that it is enforceable and outline the consequences of noncompliance?
A. Attachments B. Figures and tables C. Purpose and statement D. Summary and revisions |
c. Purpose statement
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030, Non-punitive publications are enforceable under the Uniform code of Military Justice (UCMJ):
A. Article 92(1) B. Article 92(2) C. Article 92(3) D. Article 92(1) and 92(2) |
C. Article 92(3)
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031, Which publications are statements of officially sanctioned beliefs and war-fighting principles?
A. Policy directives B. Mission directives C. Doctrine documents D. Instructional complements |
C. Doctrine documents
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031, Which publications prescribe the mission, area or responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationships of Air Force units?
A. Policy directives B. Mission directives C. Doctrine documents D. Instructional complements |
B. Mission directives
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031, The two levels of operating instructions are:
A. Installation and unit B. Departmental and field C. Headquarters and branch D. Directive and non-directive |
C. Headquarters and branch
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031, Which publications are informational publications that normally are "how to" documents and may include procedures for implementing Air Force policies?
A. Indices B. Pamphlets C. Directories D. Handbooks |
B. Pamphlets
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031, Information publications that serve to guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate reference are:
A. Master catalogs B. Pamphlets C. Directories D. Handbooks |
A. Master catalogs
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032, Which agency issues standards and other publications that implement the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A. Department of labor B. Department of Interior C. Department of Health and Human Services (DOHHS) D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) |
A. Department of labor
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032, Which organization issues National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) publications that are directive on the Air Force?
A. Department of labor B. Department of the Interior C. Environment Protection agency D. Department of Health and Human Services |
D. Department of Health and Human Services
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033, Who is the functional agent for the civil engineer career fields?
A. The civil engineer B. Environmental Protection Agency manager C. Armed Forces pest management board director D. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency commander |
A. The Civil Engineer
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033, Which organization is responsible for providing input for technical requirements to the Civil Engineer functional office of primary responsibility (OPR)?
A. The Department of Defense B. Environmental Protection Agency C. Armed Forces Pest management board D. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency |
D. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency
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034, Which publication system incorporates commercial technical publications?
A. Technical orders B. Engineering technical letters C. Technical information bulletins D. Technical information memorandums |
A. Technical orders
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035, Which publications provide specific design guidance, procedures, criteria, and standards that apply to all facilities except for family housing?
A. Technical orders B. Engineering technical letters C. Technical information bulletins D. Technical information memoranda |
B. Engineering technical letters
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035, Which organization determines the need for Air Force engineering technical letters (ETL)?
A. HQ USAF CE field operating agencies B. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency C. Headquarters Air Force Reserve RED HORSE D. Headquarters Air National Guard RED HORSE |
A. HQ USAF CE field operating agencies
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036, Which publications provide clear, concise instructions to safely and effectively operate and maintain military systems and commodities?
A. Technical orders B. Engineering technical leters C. Technical information bulletins D. Technical information memoranda |
A. Technical orders
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037, What type of technical data contains detailed information about maintaining, inspecting, installing, and overhauling equipment?
A. Operation and maintenance technical orders B. Time compliance technical orders C. Record type technical orders D. Index technical orders |
A. Operation and maintenance technical orders
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037, You can identify an immediate action time compliance technical order by a border of:
A. Red Xs around the page B. Red lines around the page C. Black lines around the page D. Red /s and Xs around the page |
A. Red Xs around the page
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037, What type of time compliance technical order is issued when the urgency of conditions does not allow time for printing and distributing instructions in the formal TO format?
A. Inspection B. Interim C. Routine D. Record |
B. Interim
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038, Which technical orders are ordered through Detachment 63?
A. Air Force B. Nuclear EOD C. Time compliance D. Non-nuclear EOD |
D. Non-nuclear EOD
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038, What organization do units maintain a technical order distribution order (TODO) account with for Air Force technical orders (AFTO)?
A. Det 63 B. San Antonio Air Logistics Center (SA-ALC) C. Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center (OC-ALC) D. Air Armament Center Nuclear Weapons Product Support Center (AAC/WNLD) |
C. Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center (OC-ALC)
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038, Who approves an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 43 for a new explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) unit starting a technical order (TO) account?
A. The flight chief B. The organization or unit that is maintaining the account C. Major Command explosive ordnance disposal manager D. Air Force civil engineer support agency career field manager |
C. Major Command explosive ordnance disposal manager
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038, What must be included on the reverse of an AFTO Form 43 for Nuclear Weapon and EOD TODOs?
A. TODO type B. Justification C. Security level D. Mailing address |
B. Justification
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038, What system is used to track the receipt of technical orders and to whom they were distributed?
A. AEODPS B. ATOMS C. TODO D. JCALS |
B. ATOMS
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038, Which requirement is established to receive all future supplements and changes for a list of technical orders?
A. One-time requisition B. Initial distribution C. One-time need D. Subscription |
D. Subscription
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039, When are technical data list of effective pages (LEP) checks done?
A. Semi-annually and when posting changes or revisions B. annually and when posting changes or revisions C. Monthly and when posting changes or revisions D. Weekly and when posting changes or revisions |
B. Annually and when posting changes or revisions
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039, Operations supplements correct deficiencies in Air Force technical orders (AFTO) that:
A. Could lower efficiency B. Could cause injury to personnel C. Could Cause damage to equipment D. Are found in commercial manuals |
A. Could lower efficiency
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039, Safety supplements correct deficiencies in Air Force technical orders (AFTO) that:
A. Could lower efficiency B. Are found in commercial manuals C. Could cause damage to equipment D. Could jeopardize chances of success |
C. Could cause damage to equipment
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040, an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply, submitted for an addition or significant change to a process or procedure that allows a function to be done better/safer/faster/cheaper is considered?
A. A correction B. An improvement C. An urgent request D. A priority request |
B. An improvement
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040, What are the three technical order report submission criteria?
A. Emergency, urgent, and priority B. Immediate, urgent, and priority C. Emergency, urgent, and routine D. Immediate, urgent, and routine |
C. Emergency, urgent, and routine
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201, Which service provides explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) support for the US land mass areas except for those specifically assigned to the other services?
A. Army B. Navy C. Air Force D. Marine Corps |
A. Army
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201, Who decides that explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) personnel will provide actions for a request by civil authorities?
A. EOD team chief B. EOD flight chief C. EOD superintendent D. Installation commander |
D. Installation commander
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201, Which of the following is not an action of the Staff Judge Advocate for off-base responses?
A. Ensure that Air Force personnel are fully protected B. Ensure the legality and justification of the response C. Ensure the requests are in the interest of the Air Force D. Ensure that EOD personel perform the correct safing procedures |
D. Ensure that EOD personel perform the correct safing procedures
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202, Who should accompany an EOD team off base?
A. Lawyer B. Wing commander C. Group commander D. Squadron commander |
A. Lawyer
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202, At what level of classification is an EOD Secret Service credential protected and controlled even when you are not using them?
A. FOUO B. Confidential C. Secret D. Top Secret |
B. Confidential
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202, Which condition is a criterion used to identify a hazardous atmosphere in a confined space?
A. Drug use B. Alcohol use C. Taking shortcuts to save time D. Excessive or insufficient oxygen levels |
D. Excessive or insufficient oxygen levels
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202, Who is responsible to coordinate the activities of confined space work environments during very important person (VIP) support missions?
A. Very important persons protection support activity (VIPPSA) representative B EOD team chief C. Technical security division (TSD) D. The person entering the confined space |
C. TSD
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202, Air Force EOD teams are specially designated the responsibility for IND incidents:
A. Involving military components B. Involving Air Force components C. On CONUS military installations D. On CONUS Air Force installations |
D. On CONUS Air Force installations
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203, What risk category is assigned to incidents that constitute an indirect threat and requires safe waiting periods to be observed to reduce the hazard to EOD personnel?
A. A B. B C. C D. D |
B. B
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204, EOD personnel need to know approximate size and what materials an IED is made of in order to:
A. Determine the possible target B. Establish a time of detonation C. Determine the size of the fragments D. Make sure EOD techniques will work against the materials |
D. Make sure EOD techniques will work against the materials
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204, What initial downwind hazard area does the 60-series technical order mandate for chemical agents?
A. 450' B. 450m C. 2,000' D. 2,000m |
D. 2,000m
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204, The first reports of accidents or incidents are usually incorrect because of:
A. Ignorance B. Fear of harassment C. Emotional involvement D. Fear of getting involved |
C. Emotional involvement
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204, No matter what type of ordnance you encounter, known or unknown you should review which of the following TO before you attempt to render it safe/
A. TO 106C-1-1-26 B. TO 65A-1-1-25 C. TO 61A-2-2-22 D. TO 60A-1-1-22 |
D. TO 60A-1-1-22
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204, Allowing no movement of ferrous materials near ordnance applies to which of the following hazards?
A. Infrared B. Seismic C. Acoustic D. Magnetic |
D. Magnetic
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204, Which agencies are responsible for developing the nuclear weapons recovery plan?
A. NRC and EOD B. ARG and EOD C. NRC and FEMA D. ARG and FEMA |
B. ARG and EOD
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204, What actions are not part of weapons recovery operations during a nuclear weapons accident?
A. Initial recon B. RSPs C. Hazards removal and disposal D. Develop public affairs reports |
D. Develop public affairs reports
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In the order of priority, what are the EOD team actions during safing and disposal of nuclear weapons involved in an accident after preventing a nuclear detonation?
A. Prevent High detonation, identify and detect radiological hazards, and protect personnel from explosive and radiological hazards B. Prevent high explosive detonation, protect personnel from explosive and radiological hazards, and identify and detect radiological hazards C. Identify and detect radiological hazards, protect personnel from explosive and radiological hazards, and prevent high explosive detonation. D. Protect personnel from explosive and radiological hazards, prevent high explosive detonation, and identify and detect radiological hazards |
A. Prevent High detonation, identify and detect radiological hazards, and protect personnel from explosive and radiological hazards
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204, At a nuclear weapons accident, the IRF EOD element performs all of the following except:
A. Site stabilization B. Emergency RSP C. Public affairs activities D. Determine weapon condition |
C. Public affairs activities
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204, Which search pattern is designed to locate nuclear weapon components rapidly?
A. Ariel B. Course C. Scarifying D. Instrument |
B. Course
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205, Which EPA offices are appointed by the president and require the consent of the Senate?
A. Staff offices B. Office of Civil rights C. Chief Administrative law judge D. Administrator and Deputy administrator |
D. Administrator and Deputy administrator
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205, Which EPA office supervises the Administrative Law judges who operate at the agency regional offices?
A. Administrator B. Chief administrative law judge C. Deputy administrator D. Office of civil rights |
B. Chief administrative law judge
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206, Of the following, which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar reduces health and environmental risks created or caused by past operations?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution prevention |
A. Cleanup
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar ensures the Air Force activities in foreign countries meets the Department of Defense (DOD) Final Governing Standards, or in their absence, the environmental criteria of the DOD overseas environmental baseline guidance document?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution Prevention |
B. Compliance
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar protects and manages, in the public interest, environmental resources under Air Force stewardship?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution prevention |
C. Conservation
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar works at reducing the use of hazardous materials and the release of pollutants into the environment?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution Prevention |
D. Pollution prevention
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206, What is an environmental compliance assessment conducted by installation personnel?
A. Internal B. External C. Major D. Minor |
A. Internal
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206, One of the primary objectives of ECAMP is to:
A. Improve air Force environmental management worldwide B. eliminate underlying environmental problems C. Identify systemic environmental problems D. Forecast future compliance requirements |
A. Improve air Force environmental management worldwide
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207, To meet OSHA requirements, what program does the Air Force use?
A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act B. Environmental Impact Assessment Process C. Air Force Occupational, Safety and Health Standards D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and management program |
C. Air Force Occupational, Safety and Health Standards
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207, What federal agency conducts surveys to determine the most common health and safety problems in small business?
A. Environmental Impact Assessment Process (EAIP) B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) C. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-know Act (EPCRA) D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP) |
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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207, Per the HCS, which workplace hazards include compressed gases, explosives, fire hazards, and reactive chemicals?
A. Health B. Physical C. Psychological D. Psychosomatic |
B. Physical
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205, Which EPA office supervises the Administrative Law judges who operate at the agency regional offices?
A. Administrator B. Chief administrative law judge C. Deputy administrator D. Office of civil rights |
B. Chief administrative law judge
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206, Of the following, which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar reduces health and environmental risks created or caused by past operations?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution prevention |
A. Cleanup
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar ensures the Air Force activities in foreign countries meets the Department of Defense (DOD) Final Governing Standards, or in their absence, the environmental criteria of the DOD overseas environmental baseline guidance document?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution Prevention |
B. Compliance
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar protects and manages, in the public interest, environmental resources under Air Force stewardship?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution prevention |
C. Conservation
|
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206, Which Air Force Environmental Quality Program pillar works at reducing the use of hazardous materials and the release of pollutants into the environment?
A. Cleanup B. Compliance C. Conservation D. Pollution Prevention |
D. Pollution prevention
|
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206, What is an environmental compliance assessment conducted by installation personnel?
A. Internal B. External C. Major D. Minor |
A. Internal
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206, One of the primary objectives of ECAMP is to:
A. Improve air Force environmental management worldwide B. eliminate underlying environmental problems C. Identify systemic environmental problems D. Forecast future compliance requirements |
A. Improve air Force environmental management worldwide
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207, To meet OSHA requirements, what program does the Air Force use?
A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act B. Environmental Impact Assessment Process C. Air Force Occupational, Safety and Health Standards D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and management program |
C. Air Force Occupational, Safety and Health Standards
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207, What federal agency conducts surveys to determine the most common health and safety problems in small business?
A. Environmental Impact Assessment Process (EAIP) B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) C. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-know Act (EPCRA) D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP) |
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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207, Per the HCS, which workplace hazards include compressed gases, explosives, fire hazards, and reactive chemicals?
A. Health B. Physical C. Psychological D. Psychosomatic |
B. Physical
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208, The limit for spills and discharges of hazardous and extremely hazardous substances, when met or exceeded, that requires immediate notification to the National Response Center is called:
A. Reportable quantity B. Threshold planning quantity C. Permissible discharge quantity D. Discharge report and planning quantity |
A. Reportable quantity
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208, What is an established Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act limit for chemical inventories that requires a facility to take additional steps to protect the environment from discharges and releases?
A. Reportable quantity B. Threshold planning quantity C. Permissible discharge quantity D. Discharge report and planning quantity |
B. Threshold planning quantity
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208, Who recieves and processes public requests for information generated by Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act reporting requirements?
A. Local Emergency Planning Committee B. State Emergency Response Commission C. Federal Emergency Response Commission D. Municipal Emergency Planning committee |
A. Local Emergency Planning Committee
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209, What types of munitions are identified under the military munitions rule as identified by the Environmental Protection Agency?
A. Chemical only B. Conventional only C. Nuclear and chemical D. Conventional and chemical |
D. Conventional and chemical
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209, Which of the following circumstances identifies an unused munition as being a solid waste for regulatory purposes?
A. When it is being used for testing B. When it is being used for training C. When removed form it's landing spot and managed off-range D. Deteriorated, leaking, or damaged beyond serviceable condition |
D. Deteriorated, leaking, or damaged beyond serviceable condition
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210, How many millimeters are in an inch?
A. .254 B. 2.54 C. 25.4 D. 254 |
C. 25.4
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210, How many inches are in a meter?
A. 36.37 B. 37.37 C. 38.37 D. 39.37 |
D. 39.37
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210, What is the standard for linear measurement in the English system?
A. Inch B. Foot C. Yard D. Mile |
C. Yard
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210, What is the standard for linear measurement in the Metric system?
A. Millimeter B. Centimeter C. Meter D. Kilometer |
C. Meter
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211, What is the basic unit number of the metric system?
A. 10 B. 14 C. 100 D. 1000 |
A. 10
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211, What does the prefix milli denote?
A. 0.1. B. 0.01 C. 0.001 D. 1,000,000 |
C. 0.001
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211, What two languages are the prefixes taken from for the metric system of measurement?
A. French and German B. french and Latin C. Greek and German D. Greek and Latin |
D. Greek and Latin
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212, To reduce English measurements to smaller metric increments:
A. Move the decimal point to the right B. Move the decimal point to the left C. Multiply by 15 D. Multiply by 25 |
A. Move the decimal point to the right
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212, Converting volume between English and metric or metric and English simply involves:
A. addition and subtraction B. subtraction and division C. addition or multiplication D. multiplication or division |
D. multiplication or division
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212, When breaking down 1565 meters, what does the 1 stand for?
A. 1 Hectometer B. 1 Dekameter C. 1 Kilometer D. 1 Meter |
C. 1 Kilometer
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212, How many pounds equal one kilogram?
A. 4,000 B. 2.205 C. 2.210 D. 4.450 |
B. 2.205
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213, What is the correct formula for converting from Fahrenheit to centigrade?
A. C= 5/9(F-32) B. C= 5/9(F+32) C. C= 9/5(F-32) D. C= 9/5(F+32) |
A. C= 5/9(F-32)
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214, The mechanical advantage of the wheel and axle is equal to:
A. The radius of the wheel divided by the circumference of the axle B. The radius of the wheel divided by diameter of the axle C. The diameter of the wheel divided by circumference of the axle D. The diameter of the wheel divided by the diameter of the axle |
D. The diameter of the wheel divided by the diameter of the axle
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214, The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to:
A. the width of the plane divided by the pitch of the plane B. the width of the plane divided by the height of the plane C. the length of the plane divided by the pitch of the plane D. the length of the plane divided by the height of the plane |
D. the length of the plane divided by the height of the plane
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214, What effect do wedges create when used to reinforce the walls in a shaft?
A. Stability B. Friction C. Resistance D. Revolution |
C. Resistance
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215, What characteristic refers to the weight of an object?
A. It's quantity of matter B. the pull of gravity on it C. The measure of it's inertia D. It's resistance to acceleration |
B. the pull of gravity on it
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215, What is the English standard for measuring mass?
A. Ounce B. Gram C. Pound D. Kilogram |
C. Pound
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215, Which term describes the transmission of heat by rays or waves?
A. conduction B. Convection C. Insulation D. Radiation |
D. Radiation
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215, Which of the following gases is classified as an oxidizer?
A. Helium B. Acetylene C. Nitric Acid D. Carbon Monoxide |
C. Nitric Acid
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216, In relation to Newton's Laws of Motion, what action causes a det slider in a fuze to compress a coil spring?
A. Impact B. Setback C. Impact Inertia D. Centrifugal force |
D. Centrifugal force
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216, How many of Newton's three laws of motion can be applied to ordnance items?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 |
D. 3
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213, What is the correct formula for converting from centigrade to fahrenheit?
A. F= 9/5(C) + 32 B. F= 9/5(C) - 32 C. F= 5/9(C) +32 D. F= 5/9(C) - 32 |
A. F= 9/5(C) + 32
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217, What is the maximum depth the ARTS robotic backhoe can dig?
A. 3' B. 5' C. 7' D. 9' |
C. 7'
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217, What is the maximum distance from the control station the ARTS platform be operated?
A. 1 mile B. 2 miles C. 3 miles D. 4 miles |
B. 2 miles
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218, Which of the following terms identifies one of the four general types of minefields?
A. Row B. Tactical C. Strategic D. Standard pattern |
B. Tactical
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218, What type of minefield is laid so the mines are easy to detect and recover by the laying unit?
A. Phony B. Tactical C. Strategic D. Protective |
D. Protective
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218, Which method of laying a minefield requires strict command and control?
A. Row B. Dispensed C. Scatterable D. Standard pattern |
A. Row
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218, What minefield operation is required if the total elimination or neutralization of an obstacle is requested?
A. Rift B. Clearing C. Breaching D. Exploiting |
B. Clearing
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219, At least how far must bombs on the surface with more than 5 pounds net explosive weight be moved from the edges of a selected minimum operating strip (MOS)?
A. 50' B. 100' C. 150' D. 300' |
B. 100'
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219, What decision tool is a deployed version of the Garrison GeoBase?
A. Expeditionary GeoBase B. Strategic GeoBase C. Tactical GeoBase D. GeoReach |
A. Expeditionary GeoBase
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219, Who is primarily responsible for range decontamination?
A. MAJCOM B. Wing Commander C. Group Commander D. Squadron Commander |
A. MAJCOM
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220, How many types of range decontamination activities are designated?
A. one B. two C. three D. four |
C. three
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220, During range decontamination activities and demolition operations are planned, what altitude can a dry-only operation over flight occur?
A. Above 1,000' AGL B. Above 3,000' AGL C. Above 5,000' AGL D. Above 10,000' AGL |
D. Above 10,000' AGL
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221, What military manual establishes site requirements for an EOD proficiency range?
A. AFI 32-3001 B. AFMAN 91-201 C. AFJMAN 24-204 D. AFI 13-212, Volume 1 |
B. AFMAN 91-201
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221, When siting an EOD proficiency range for 1.25 pounds of explosives, what minimum distance from facilities is required for the destruction point?
A. 100' B. 200' C. 300' D. 500' |
B. 200'
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221, How far are combustible items such as grass, leaves, and so forth, cleared from the detonation point of a proficiency range?
A. 200' radius B. 200' diameter C. 300' radius D. 300' diameter |
A. 200' radius
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221, What is the danger zone on an aircraft battle damage repair site when using sandbags and without using sandbags respectively?
A. 200' and 400' B. 200' and 500' C. 300' and 400' D. 300' and 500' |
D. 300' and 500'
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221, What is the minimum separation distance for munitions to be disposed of, demolition material, and blasting caps being kept in the holding area on a disposal range?
A. 15' B. 25' C. 35' D. 50' |
B. 25'
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222, Which type of soil has good load-bearing qualities and is made up of gravel and sand?
A. Clay B. Organic soil C. Fine-grained soil D. Coarse-grained soil |
D. Coarse-grained soil
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222, Which weather element has the greatest impact on soil?
A. Wind B. Heat C. Cold D. Rain |
D. Rain
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223, What type of crater has clean swept sides with considerable blast and splinter damage?
A. Shallow B. Intermediate C. Deep D. False |
A. Shallow
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223, Which of the following are types of camouflets?
A. False, shallow, intermediate, and deep B. Intermediate, shallow, deep, and true C. False, deep, collapsed, and intermediate D. Collapsed, deep, shallow, and intermediate |
D. Collapsed, deep, shallow, and intermediate
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223, In EOD operations, what is the most important factor in selecting an excavation method to recover an area for operational use?
A. Time B. Its advantages C. Its disadvantages D. Degree of acceptable damage |
A. Time
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223, What excavation method is essentially a modification of the shafting method developed and used by the British bomb disposal squads in World War 11?
A. Stepdown method B. Standard shaft method C. Crib-timbering method D. Improvised Timbering method |
B. Standard shaft method
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223, Within an array, how far apart are shaped charges spaced to excavate an UXO?
A. 15" B. 38" C. 1.5m D. 3.8m |
A.15"
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401, Which substances can inert items contain?
A. Chemicals B. Explosives C. Pyrotechnics D. Combustibles |
D. Combustibles
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401, How are liquid propellants classified?
A. Volatility B. Compositions C. Type of system D. Rate of burning |
C. Type of system
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401, What type of high explosive is used as an intermediate charge?
A. Main B. Booster C. Bursting D. Initiating |
B. Booster
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401, What high explosive type is the one that actually produces a detonation?
A. Primary B. Booster C. Bursting D. Initiating |
C. Bursting
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402, How long are the lead wires on commonly used standard military electric caps?
A. 6' B. 8' C. 10' D. 12' |
D. 12'
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402, What is the standard issue electric blasting cap?
A. M6 B. M7 C. No. 6 D. No. 7 |
A. M6
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402, When M700 time fuse is issued, how long are the rolls and how many are in the can?
A. 25' and 5 B. 25' and 10 C. 50' and 5 D. 50' and 10 |
D. 50' and 10
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402, Which explosive is used in detonating cord?
A. TNT B. PETN C. BLACK POWDER D. LEAD STEPHONATE |
B. PETN
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402, Which accessory is used to hold two strands of detonating cord together?
A. M8 B. M165 C. M1A4 D. Wire twist tie |
D. Wire twist tie
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402, What are all of the standard sizes for TNT blocks?
A. 1/4 and 1/2 B. 1/4 and 1lb C. 1/2 and 1lb D. 1/4, 1/2, and 1 lb. |
D. 1/4, 1/2, and 1 lb.
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402, ECT is issued in what length?
A. 5' B. 10' C. 15' D. 20' |
D. 20'
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402, How many M112 demo blocks are contained in the M183 demo kit?
A. 12 B. 16 C. 20 D. 24 |
B. 16
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402, What is the Net Explosive Weight of an M118 demo block?
A. 1.25 lbs B. 1.5 lbs C. 1.75 lbs D. 2.00 lbs |
D. 2.00 lbs
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403, What causes most of the damage from a detonation above the surface?
A. Fragments B. Earth Shock C. Heat energy D. Blast waves |
A. Fragments
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403, What causes most of the damage from a detonation below the surface?
A. Fragments B. Earth Shock C. Heat Energy D. Carbon monoxide gas |
B. Earth Shock
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402, Which accessory is a metal clip designed to attach and hold a blasting cap to sheet explosive?
A. M1 B. M8 C. M165 D. M1A4 |
B. M8
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403, Which characteristic identifies fragments from exploded thin-walled ordnance items?
A. Clean-cut edges B. Chisel-like edges C. Rough fractured edges D. No burnt powder smell |
B. Chisel-like edges
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403, Which characteristic identifies fragments from exploded thick-wall ordnance items?
A. Clean-cut edges B. Chisel-like edges C. Rough fractured edges D. No burnt powder smell |
C. Rough fractured edges
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403, What are the two phases of pressure in a blast wave?
A. Normal and equal B. Normal and negative C. Positive and equal D. Positive and negative |
D. Positive and negative
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404, After detonation, items of ordnance like lugs, strongbacks, nose caps, and base plates are usually found because of their:
A. Size B. Shape C. Density D. Dimension |
C. Density
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405, What type of garment is better suited to lessen static while working on UXO?
A. Silk B. Wool C. Cotton D. Synthetic |
C. Cotton
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|
405, Which item can be used as an acceptable grounding electrode?
A. Steel pipe B. Steam pipe C. Electrical conduit D. Telephone ground |
A. Steel pipe
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|
405, Which component is suitable for use as a grounding conductor?
A. No. 4 copper wire B. No. 4 stainless steel wire C. An item of weak strength D. An item of high resistance |
A. No. 4 copper wire
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406, What should you do if electrical contacts on a munitions item are touching the munitions?
A. Maintain the connection B. Short the electrical contact C. Shunt the electrical contact D. Remove it from the case and insulate with electrical tape |
A. Maintain the connection
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406, When should munitions be placed into a CMC or a shielded environment?
A. After impact B. As soon as possible C. Before being transported D. Before being placed into a storage bunker |
B. As soon as possible
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406, The final product of shielding a munition must be?
A. Airtight B. Windproof C. Waterproof D. Water-resistance |
C. Waterproof
|
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407, What does a dual primed firing system consist of?
A. 2 caps wired in series on one firing wire. B. 2 caps wired in parallel on one firing wire. C. 4 caps wired in series on two firing wires. D. 4 caps wired in parallel on two firing wires. |
B. 2 caps wired in parallel on one firing wire.
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409, Which class and division of explosives present a mass explosion hazard?
A. 1.1 B. 1.2 C. 1.3 D. 1.4 |
A. 1.1
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409, Which class and division of explosives present a minor explosion hazard?
A. 1.1 B. 1.2 C. 1.3 D. 1.4 |
D. 1.4
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409, Maintenance that may be performed on a vehicle transporting explosives is?
A. Changing a water hose B. Replacing a brake drum C. Changing a spark arrestor D. Replacing a valve system |
A. Changing a water hose
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|
407, How many blasting caps, wired in parallel, can an M34 blasting machine fire?
A. 2 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50 |
A. 2
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408, If you are crimping a blasting cap to time fuse, what is the first step you should take?
A. Install a priming adapter B. Blow out the inside of the cap C. Inspect the open end of the cap D. Apply the waterproof mixture to the exposed explosive |
C. Inspect the open end of the cap
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408, Before igniting time fuse to fire your shot, you must:
A. Check all connections B. Be familiar with misfire procedures C. Make sure the range is clear of all personnel D. Be familiar with emergency procedures if the fuse lighter fails to function |
C. Make sure the range is clear of all personnel
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408, Which action is a common specific cause of nonelectrical firing system misfires?
A. Failing to seat the fuse into the cap B. Failure to select a time fuse of sufficient length C. Failure to calculate the correct fuse burning time D. Pulling the time fuse out of the blasting cap while the fuse lighter is functioning |
A. Failing to seat the fuse into the cap
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409, Where do you place placards on a vehicle transporting hazardous materials?
A. Front only B. Sides only C. Front and rear only D. Front, rear, and sides |
D. Front, rear, and sides
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409, Each container containing hazardous materials for air shipment must be:
A. Correctly stenciled and marked B. Standard sized and camouflaged C. Hand-lettered with all information D. Listed in TO 11A-1-46 to be shipped |
A. Correctly stenciled and marked
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409, Proper shipping name for packages containing explosives and restrictions that apply are given in:
A. AFI 24-204 B. TO 60A-1-1-42 C. TO 60A-1-1-26 D. AFMAN 24-204 |
D. AFMAN 24-204
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409, The original copy of the Shipper's Declaration for Hazardous Goods is:
A. Kept in your flight files for 3 years B. Attached to the manifest placed on the aircraft C. Attached to the number one package of the shipment D. ]Attached to the air terminal station file copy of the manifest |
B. Attached to the manifest placed on the aircraft
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410, What time frame is considered temporary storage of munitions?
A. Less than 90 days B. Less than 180 days C. 90 to 120 days D. 120 to 150 days |
A. Less than 90 days
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410, A storage permit waiver may be requested for:
A. Storing differently than permit allows B. Storing items not listed on the permit C. Accepting items from an off-site response D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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411, Who selects personnel to serve as munitions inspectors?
A. Supervisors B. Superintendents C. Flight chiefs D. Commanders |
D. Commanders
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411, If you can not determine visually that an item is free from explosive contamination, you must:
A. Destroy the item explosively B. Refer the item to quality assurance personnel C. Use a light diode to check for explosives D. Use depth gauges or mirrors to physically check the item |
D. Use depth gauges or mirrors to physically check the item
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411, An inspector's stencil signifies that an item:
A. Requires inspection B. Has been inspected C. Can be remarketed D. Is high-cost and easily pilferable |
B. Has been inspected
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411, Who issues the certificate of clearance stating a munitions item was inspected?
A. Base commander B. EOD flight chief C. The inspector's commander D. The senior inspector or the inspector performing the inspection |
D. The senior inspector or the inspector performing the inspection
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412, What series of Air Force publications specifically support the National Environmental Policy Act?
A. 32-30 series B. 32-70 series C. 91-2 series D. 91-30 series |
B. 32-70 series
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413, What forms are used for the off-base transportation of explosives?
A. DD Forms 616 and 836 B. DD Forms 626 and 836 C. AF Forms 616 and 836 D. AF Forms 626 and 836 |
B. DD Forms 626 and 836
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413, During which scenario are DD Forms 626 and 836 required to transport explosives?
A. On-base B. Off-base C. On the highway to a nearby auxiliary field D. Across or on public highways from one part of a base to another |
B. off-base
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414, What is the wait time to reuse the same location for another burn operation?
A. 30 min B. 12 hrs C. 24 hrs D. The same location can never be reused |
C. 24 hrs
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414, In what position do you place rocket motors for static firing?
A. Nozzle pointing up and vertical B. Nozzle pointing down and vertical C. Nozzle pointing up and nearly horizontal D. Nozzle pointing down and nearly horizontal |
A. Nozzle pointing up and vertical
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415, Which statement is true concerning low order and deflagrations?
A. Low orders are less violent and consume less explosive filler than deflagrations B. Low orders are more violent and consume less explosive than deflagrations C. Low orders are less violent and consume more explosive filler than deflagrations D. Low orders are more violent and consume more exlosive filler than deflagration |
A. Low orders are less violent and consume less explosive filler than deflagrations
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415, Which projectile attack reaction causes the casing to remain somewhat intact?
A. No chemical reaction B. Deflagration C. Violent deflagration D. Detonation |
B. Deflagration
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416, What can help thermite to burn through thick-cased munitions?
A. Plastic cup B. Earthen dam C. Detonating cord D. Using more explosives |
B. Earthen dam
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417, The Mk 2 Mods 0 and 1 shaped charges are commonly used to:
A. Detonate unexploded projectiles B. Open the cases of ordnance for disposal of the explosive C. Open thin-walled items items by initiating a low order detonation D. Initiate a low order detonation of buried thin-walled ordnance |
C. Open thin-walled items items by initiating a low order detonation
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417, What is the expected penetration depth into mild steel of Mk 7 linear shaped charges?
A. the width of the container B. the length of the container C. the depth of the shaped charge cone D. the length of the shaped charge cone |
A. the width of the container
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417, The output of a shaped charge can be changed by:
A. Using attenuation B. Varying the standoff distance C. Varying the amount of explosives D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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417, What is the largest EXROD available for use?
A. Mk 2 B. Mk 23 C. Mk 24 D. Mk 32 |
C. Mk 24
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417, What is the smallest standoff distance for the EXROD?
A. One disk diameter B. One inch C. One foot D. One meter |
A. One disk diameter
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418, The clearance between the side of the pit and the chemical ordnance to be destroyed by burning should be at least:
A. 1/2 meter B. 1 meter C. 1 1/2 meters D. 2 meters |
B. 1 meter
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601, Which action is not a use of gas-pressure initiators?
A. Act as a delay B. Act as a booster C. Seat positioning D. Maintain the gas pressure in the ejection system |
C. Seat positioning
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602, The safing procedure for a cocked-firing pin remover is to safe the:
A. Exactor and remove it B. Exactor and leave it installed C. Base cap and remove the igniter D. Base cap and leave the igniter installed |
B. Exactor and leave it installed
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602, What is the safing prodedure for an electromechanical ballistic remover?
A. Safe the base cap B. Remove the exactor C. Safe the mechanical initiator D. Remove the piston locking spring |
C. Safe the mechanical initiator
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603, The condition of a thruster is determined by the:
A. present of the O-ring B. Absence of the O-ring C. Condition of its piston D. Condition of its mechanical initiator |
D. condition of its mechanical initiator
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604, What item keeps a pilot upright during ejection?
A. Catapult B. Thruster C. Rotary actuator D. Ballistically-operated take-up reel |
D. Ballistically-operated take-up reel
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604, What item separates the pilot from the ejection seat?
A. Catapult B. Thruster C. Rotary actuator D. Ballistically operated take-up reel |
C. Rotary actuator
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605, What items open parachutes at optimum moment?
A. Drogue guns, spreader guns, and rotary actuators B. Drogue guns, automatic parachute releases, and spreader guns C. Drogue guns, automatic parachute releases, and rotary actuators D. Automatic parachute releases, spreader guns, and rotary actuators |
B. Drogue guns, automatic parachute releases, and spreader guns
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606, What item allows a pilot a quick escape from the cockpit of an aircraft on the ground or when taxiing down the runway?
A. Catapult B. Remover C. Rotary actuator D. Emergency release actuator |
D. Emergency release actuator
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607, What holds the cocked-firing pin in place on a mechanically actuated catapult?
A. Exactor B. Sear lever C. Shear band D. Intiator pin |
B. Sear lever
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607, What item works the same as a gas-operated remover?
A. Catapult gun B. Rocket catapult C. Gas-operated catapult D. Mechanically actuated catapult |
C. Gas-operated catapult
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608, A rocket motor pack is considered "dud-fired" when the:
A. Sear pin is gone and the motor has fired B. Sear pin is gone and the motor has not fired C. Safety pin is out and the sear is still in the firing mechanism D. Sear pin is out and the safety pin is still in the firing mechanism |
B. Sear pin is gone and the motor has not fired
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608, What causes the vernier rocket to correct the seat pitch?
A. A gyro B. A thruster C. A pitot tuve D. A rotary actuator |
A. A gyro
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609, After an accident investigation board (AIB) investigation is complete, who grants permission to dispose of the aircraft cartridge-actuated devices?
A. Wing Commander B. Accident investigation board (AIB) president C. Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager D. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency Explosive Ordnance Disposal (AFCESA/EOD) |
B. Accident investigation board (AIB) president
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609, Which items are usually destroyed by detonation to keep them from going propulsive?
A. Catapults B. Thrusters C. Actuators D. Drogue guns |
A. Catapults
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610, Which technical order series contains safing procedures?
A. 11H B. 11N C. 60J D. 60N |
C. 60J
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610, Why are hoses cut as close as possible to the outlet ports of mechanically fired initiators?
A. To make their removal easier B. To provide better access to the safety pin holes C. To keep them from whipping if the item fires D. To prevent them from interfering with the firing cables |
C. To keep them from whipping if the item fires
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611, Which advanced concept ejection seat (ACES 11) component does not fire in the low altitude/low-speed mode?
A. Drogue gun B. Canopy breaker C. Ejection initiators D. Seawater-activated release system (SEAWARS) |
A. Drogue gun
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611, As you face the rear of the advanced concept ejection seat (ACES 11), in which direction does the drogue gun fire?
A. 30 degrees left, 45 upward B. 30 degrees right, 45 upward C. 45 degrees left, 30 upward D. 45 degrees right, 30 upward |
A. 30 degrees left, 45 upward
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612, What type of ammunition does the M61A1 use?
A. 7.62-mm percussion primed B. .50 caliber percussion primed C. 20-mm electrically primed D. 30-mm electrically primed |
C. 20-mm electrically primed
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612, Which gun pod has a self-contained, ram-air turbine drive system?
A. Gun pod unit (GPU)-5/A B. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-11 C. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-16/A D. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-23/A |
C. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-16/A
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612, What steps are usually required to safe an M61 gun?
A. rotate the barrels to clear the gun and install the safety pin B. Insert safety pin and remove the safing sector C. Rotate the barrels to clear the gun and remove the safing sector D. Insert safety pin and install the clearing sector holdback tool |
D. Insert safety pin and install the clearing sector holdback tool
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613, What type of ammunition does the A/A49E-6 gun use?
A. 7.62-mm percussion primed B. .50 caliber percussion primed C. 20-mm electrically primed D. 30-mm electrically primed |
D. 30-mm electrically primed
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613, What are the safing procedures for the A/A49E-6 gun?
A. Open the access door and install the gun safety pin B. Disconnect the electrical lead and remove the safing sector C. Rotate the barrels to clear the gun and remove the safing sector D. Disconnect the electrical lead and install the clearing sector holdback tool |
A. Open the access door and install the gun safety pin
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613, The gun pod unit (GPU)-5/A uses aircraft gun unit (GAU)
A. 2B B. 5A C. 8A D. 13A |
D. 13A
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613, Which gun system has a safety precaution concerning high-pressure air?
A. Gun pod unit (GPU)-5/A B. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-11 C. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-16/A D. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-23/A |
A. Gun pod unit (GPU)-5/A
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614, What should you do before working on an aircraft gun system?
A. Cut gun charger hoses B. Install the safing sector C. Isolate the power source D. Remove the clearing sector |
C. Isolate the power source
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614, When are gun charger hoses disconnected or cut?
A. Never B. After bleeding the pneumatic system C. Before bleeding the pneumatic system D. After rotating the barrels to clear the system |
B. After bleeding the pneumatic system
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614, What safety precaution must you take before handling electrically primed ammunition?
A. Wear electrical gloves B. Apply electrical power to the gun system C. Rotate the gun barrels to clear the system D. Ground yourself against the skin of the aircraft |
D. Ground yourself against the skin of the aircraft
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615, What is the standard for aircraft station numbering?
A. Left to right, aft looking forward B. Right to left, aft looking forward C. Left to right, no matter what direction you are facing D. Right to left, no matter what direction you are facing |
A. Left to right, aft looking forward
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615, What is the maximum number of ordnance items that can be carried by a multiple ejector rack (MER)?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6
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616, What is the procedure for safing a bomb shackle?
A. Install the safety pin B. Remove the impulse cartridges C. Cut the arming wires and twist several times D. Install the safety pin and remove the impulse cartridges |
A. Install the safety pin
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617, What is the major difference between bomb shackle and mechanical bomb shack operations?
A. The bomb shackle uses two impulse cartridges versus one B. the bomb shackle uses only one impulse cartridge versus two C. the bomb shackle has an electrically operated solenoid for holding arming wires D. The mechanical bomb rack has an electrically operated solenoid for holding arming wires |
D. The mechanical bomb rack has an electrically operated solenoid for holding arming wires
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617, When a mechanical bomb rack releases ordnance unarmed, how much force will overcome the locking balls in the solenoid?
A. 10 lbs B. 15 lbs C. 20 lbs D. 30 lbs |
D. 30 lbs
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618, What actuates the piston on a bomb ejector rack that forces the ordnance away from the aircraft?
A. Electric solenoid B. Impulse cartridges C. Hydraulic pressure D. Ram-air pylon pressure |
B. Impulse cartridges
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618, The munitions auxiliary unit (MAU)-12 suspension hooks are manually opened by:
A. Tripping the release lever B. Actuating the electric solenoid C. Pushing the bellcrank forward D. Rotating a 3/8" drive adapter |
D. Rotating a 3/8" drive adapter
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618, How many racks does the bomb release unit (BRU)-26 have?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6
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618, What is the procedure to safe the bomb release unit (BRU)-47/A?
A. Push the ejector safing mechanism up B. Push the ejector safing mechanism down C. Place the handle extended and vertical D. Place the handle extended and horizontal |
C. Place the handle extended and vertical
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618, Which rack is found on the B-2 aircraft rotary launcher?
A. Bomb release unit (BRU)-44A/A B. Bomb release unit (BRU)-46/A C. Bomb release unit (BRU)-47/A D. Bomb release unit (BRU)-52 |
A. Bomb release unit (BRU)-44A/A
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618, What is the safing procedure for the practice bomb adapter racks on the B-1B module?
A. Install the ejector gun safety pin B. Place the handle in the LOCK position C. Push and rotate the handle to the horizontal position D. Place the handle to the extended and vertical position |
A. Install the ejector gun safety pin
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618, What is the maximum number of bomb rack assemblies found on a B-2A?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
B. 4
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619, Nonjettisonable pylons are attached to aircraft wings by:
A.Clamps B. Lock rings C. Solid bolts D. Explosive bolts |
C. Solid bolts
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619, Which pylon can be adapted to carry a guided missile using an air delivery unit (ADU)-407/A?
A. Munitions auxiliary unit (MAU)-40 B. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-59/A C. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-60/A D. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-73/A |
B. Suspension underwing unit (SUU)-59/A
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620, What is the maximum number of bomb ejection rack cartridges for a triple ejector rack?
A. 0 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 |
B. 3
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620, How many safety pins are required to safe a fully loaded multiple ejector rack?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7 |
D. 7
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621, To safe a launch adapter unit (LAU)-114/A launcher, you install the
A. Safety pin only B. Safety pin and detent locking pin C. Safety pin and disconnect the rocket motor igniter D. Detent safety pin and disconnect the rocket motor igniter |
B. Safety pin and detent locking pin
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621, Which launcher allows an F-15 aircraft to carry air intercept missile (AIM)-7 or AIM-120 missiles?
A. Launch adapter unit (LAU)-88 B. Launch adapter unit (LAU)-105 C. Launch adapter unit (LAU)-106A/A D. Launch adapter unit (LAU)-114 |
C. Launch adapter unit (LAU)-106A/A
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621, What is a unique feature of the launch adapter unit (LAU)-106A/A missile launcher?
A. It carries 3 missiles B. The launcher stays with the missile after launch C. The missile is ejected like a bomb, not launched D. After missile launch, the launcher is ejected from the aircraft |
C. The missile is ejected like a bomb, not launched
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621, What is the procedure for safing a launch adapter unit (LAU)-117A launcher?
A. Install the safety pin B. Install the safety pin and detent locking pin C. Disconnect the rocket motor igniter cable from the launcher D. Disconnect the missile umbilical from the umbilical housing at the rear |
C. Disconnect the rocket motor igniter cable from the launcher
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621, What is the maximum number of Mk 84 bombs the B-2A rotary launcher can carry?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 16 D. 24 |
A. 8
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622, When working on an aircraft, from what relative position should you approach?
A. 45 degrees from the rear B. 45 degrees from the front C. Directly from the rear D. Directly from the front |
A. 45 degrees from the rear
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622, Which item is a good substitute for a ground safety pin?
A. Lead pin B. Brass wire C. Copper wire D. Steel cotter key |
D. Steel cotter key
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623, Which hazard does not apply to the MK13 distress signal?
A. Projectile B. Explosive C. Pyrotechnic D. Toxic smoke |
A. Projectile
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624, A gas-fired explosive cutter is safed by
A. Safing the exactor B. Removing the exactor C. Disassembling the cutter D. Safing the mechanical initiator |
D. Safing the mechanical initiator
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625, How are explosive fittings usually initiated?
A. Electrically B. Mechanically C. Hydraulically D. Pneumatically |
A. Electrically
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625, An explosive fitting allows item separation by:
A. Forceful ejection B. Activating a piston C. Launching the item D. Causing fitting failure |
D. Causing fitting failure
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626, What is another name for impulse cartridges used in bomb suspsension equipment?
A. Gas cartridges B. Fire cartridges C. Ejector cartridges D. Starter cartridges |
C. Ejector cartridges
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626, What safing procedure is required for an impulse cartridge?
A. Remove the cartridge and place it in a wooden box B. Remove the cartridge and place it in a closed metal container C. Remove the breech containing the cartridge and place it in a wooden box D. Remove the breech containing the cartridge and place it in a closed metal container |
B. Remove the cartridge and place it in a closed metal container
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627, What gun system is used with the US Harrier aircraft as well as some British, French, and Danish aircraft?
A. 20-mm M61 B. 30-mm Aden gun C. 30-mm aircraft gun unit (GAU)-8A D. 30-mm delivery firing apparatus (DEFA) B |
B. 30-mm Aden gun
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628, What safe distance and arc of degrees from the nose do you observe for aircraft engine intakes?
A. 25', 120 degrees B. 25', 180 degrees C. 50', 120 degrees D. 50', 180 degrees |
A. 25', 120 degrees
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628, What danger area do you observe for turbine blade disintegration 300' (91m) out from aircraft?
A. conical area upward B. conical area forward C. conical area downward D. conical area to the sides |
D. conical area to the sides
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801, What is the lifting capability of the RONS manipulator arm at full extension and three feet fro the shoulder/torso joint?
A. 15 lbs and 50 lbs B. 15 lbs and 100 lbs C. 45 lbs and 50 lbs D. 45 lbs and 100 lbs |
D. 45 lbs and 100 lbs
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801, What are the operational delay settings on the MK 32 MOD 4 Radiographic (X-ray)?
A. 15 or 45 sec B. 15 or 60 sec C. 30 or 45 sec D. 30 or 60 sec |
B. 15 or 60 sec
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801, Which device can we use as a command-control component of an IED?
A. Pager B. Solar cell C. Hydrostatic device D. Anti-X-ray device |
A. Pager
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802, How many liters of water can the Dragon propel?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
B. Two
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802, At how many ft per sec is the dragon capable of propelling water?
A. 600 B. 650 C. 1000 D. 1050 |
C. 1000
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802, What initiates the Dragon if you use it with a 12 gauge shell?
A. Time fuse B. Shock tube C. Blasting cap D. Detonating cord |
B. Shock tube
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803, What is the volume of fluid used in the EXIT charge water bladders?
A. 4.7 Liters B. 6.8 Liters C. 7.4 Liters D. 8.6 Liters |
A. 4.7 Liters
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803, What sizes of detonating cord can be used with the Vantrepan?
A. 25 or 100 grain per foot B. 25 or 200 grain per foot C. 50 or 100 grain per foot D. 50 or 200 grain per foot |
C. 50 or 100 grain per foot
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803, Which detonating cord configuration do we use tjo achieve a full load with the Vantrepan?
A. One wrap of 50 grain per foot detonating cord 4' (1.22m) long B. One wrap of 50 grain per foot detonating cord 7' (2.13m) long C. Two wraps of 50 grain per foot detonating cord 4' (1.22m) long D. Two wraps of 50 grain per foot detonating cord 7' (2.13m) long |
D. Two wraps of 50 grain per foot detonating cord 7' (2.13m) long
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804, What are the two most common methods of entry into the body for biological agents used in a WMD scenario?
A. Inhalation and absorption B. Inhalation and ingestion C. Injection and absorption D. Injection and ingestion |
B. Inhalation and ingestion
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804, Which is not a primary method by which chemical agents can enter the body in a WMD scenario?
A. Injection B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Absorption |
A. Injection
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804, What is the most commonly employed tactic of terrorists in a WMD scenario?
A. Chemical B. Explosive C. Incendiary D. Radiological |
B. Explosive
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804, What is the last step of the four main steps to an EOD WMD response?
A. Disposal B. Recovery C. Render Safe D. Neutralization |
B. Recovery
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805, What is the highest condition level in the FPCON system?
A. ALPHA B. BRAVO C. CHARLIE D. DELTA |
D. DELTA
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805, What is the number one tactic employed by terrorists?
A. Kidnapping B. Chemical bombing C. Explosive bombing D. Biological bombing |
C. Explosive bombing
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806, Which protective measure is used when a UXO is too deep or too close to an external foundation to allow for trenching?
A. Venting B. Flooding C. Trenching D. Buttressing |
D. Buttressing
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806, When using the sandbag mitigation technique, what distance must be maintained between the munition and the inside face of the sandbag wall?
A. 4" B. 6" C. 8" D. 10" |
B. 6"
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806, Which protective measure is best for reducing earth shock damage from an UXO incident to pipes and cables?
A. Venting B. Flooding C. Trenching D. Barricading |
C. Trenching
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807, What is the designation of a nuclear munition in storage status that is a complete entity consisting of one or more packages?
A. BDU B. Bomb C. Device D. Weapon |
B. Bomb
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807, What modification is identified by the designation of B83-0?
A. A major alteration B. A superseded modification C. No modification is indicated D. The first alteration is accomplished |
C. No modification is indicated
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807, With what functional importance is a Sandia apparatus incorporated even though it is itself a functional entity?
A. Major assemble B. Major component C. Major modification D. W/B-Mod-Alt designed assembly |
B. Major component
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807, Nuclear warheads are pressurized or environmentally sealed in order to:
A. Stabilize the center of gravity B. Control moisture and corrosion C. Contribute to the destructive power D. Preclude firing during handling or loading |
B. Control moisture and corrosion
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807, Which major nuclear weapon assembly, component, or sub-assembly normally undergoes more modifications than any other part?
A. Fuse or nose B. Basic assembly C. hape component D. Center bomb subassembly |
A. Fuse or nose
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807, Which weapon component or assembly determines the weapon's configuration?
A. Tail B. Nose C. Warhead D. Basic assembly |
A. Tail
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807, Which training weapon type is used jointly by maintenance and explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) to satify training requirements?
A. 3A B. 3B C. 3C D. 3D |
C. 3C
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808, What series of Air Force technical orders ties all applicable components together with a block diagram of nuclear weapon fusing and firing systems?
A. 11A B. 11N C. 60A D. 60N |
D. 60N
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809, What type of explosives used in nuclear weapons can melt, flow and re-solidify?
A. Cast high explosives B. Pressed High explosives C. Insensitive high explosives D. Rifle powder |
A. Cast High explosives
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809, The parachute deployment systems for nuclear weapons use:
A. Cast high explosives B. Pressed high explosives C. Insensitive high explosives D. Low explosives |
D. low explosives
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810, Which material is a toxic hazard and is not radioactive?
A. Oralloy B. Beryllium C. Plutonium D. Depleted uranium |
B. Beryllium
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810, Which element reacts spontaneously with water to form hydrogen gas?
A. Lithium B. Radium C. Beryllium D. Plutonium |
A. Lithium
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811, What unit do we use to measure the strength of gamma radiation?
A. Roentgen B. Radiation absorbed dose C. Roentgen equivalent man d. Relative biological effectiveness |
A. Roentgen
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811, What is the term for the absorbed dose of any radiation?
A. Curie B. Roentgen/hour C. Radiation absorbed dose D. Roentgen equivalent man |
C. Radiation absorbed dose
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811, The differentiating factor between acute and cumulative doses of radiation is:
A. time B. effect C. distance D. tolerance |
A. Time
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811, The first symptoms of radiation sickness appear are:
A. fever and chills B. nausea and vomiting C. chills and bloody diarrhea D. dehydration and weight loss |
B. nausea and vomiting
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811, Under normal conditions, what is the predetermined maximum cumulative dose of radiation allowed for an accident/incident response?
A. 5 rad B. 5 rem C. 25 rad D. 25 rem |
B. 5 rem
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811, Plutonium is the greatest threat to health as:
A. a beta emitter B. a toxic hazard C. an internal hazard D. an external hazard |
C. an internal hazard
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811, The primary hazard of plutonium results from its entry into the body via:
A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Direct radiation D. Indirect radiation |
B. Inhalation
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811, What is another name for enriched uranium?
A. Tritium B. Oralloy C. Tuballoy D. Depleted beryllium |
B. Oralloy
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812, the impermeable suit provides what level of protection against hazardous materials?
A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D |
A. Level A
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813, Dosimeters record:
A. up to 150 R of gamma radiation B. the number of disintegration's per minute C. the amounts of radiation received by an individual at one time D. the accumulated dose of ionizing radiation received by the body |
D. the accumulated dose of ionizing radiation received by the body
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813, Film badges are normally issued:
A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. semiannually |
C. monthly
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813, What situation do you correct using the Interspiro Spiromatic/Spirolite SCBA by-pass valve?
A. Loss of air supply B. Depleted air supply C. Free-flow of air supply D. Cylinder valve is closed |
A. Loss of air supply
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814, The AP-100A is an ADM-300A:
A. Alpha probe B. Gamma probe C. Neutron probe D. All purpose probe |
A. Alpha probe
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814, What is the range of the ADM-300A detector when measuring gamma radiation?
A. 10uR/h to 5 R/h B. 3 R/h to 10,000 R/h C. 10 uR/h to 10,000 R/h D. 100 uR to 10,000 R |
C. 10 uR/h to 10,000 R/h
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814, What ADM-300A control switch do you use to activate the installed probe test?
A. Set B. Mode C. Up arrow D. Power On/Off |
D. Power On/Off
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814, What ADM-300A control switch do you use to select the dose rate?
A. Set B. Mode C. Up arrow D. Power ON/OFF |
B. Mode
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814, You must replace the ADM-300A alpha probe Mylar window in a darkened area or under a cloth light shield to:
A. Avoid damaging the beta shield B. Ensure there are holes in the window C. Avoid damaging the photomultiplier tube D. Ensure the source does not damage your eyes |
C. Avoid damaging the photomultiplier tube
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814, Which test source do you use for the ADM-300A, AP-100A probe verification procedure?
A. Cs 137 B. Th 232 C. U 235 D. U 238 |
B. Th 232
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814, When testing the AP-100A probe with the ADM-300A, for how long do you allow the reading to settle?
A. 5 sec B. 10 sec C. 15 sec D. 20 sec |
D. 20 sec
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814, Which AN/PDR-74A function switch setting do you use to adjust the zero meter with the mechanical screw on the meter face?
A. OFF B. BATT C. ZERO D. CKT.CHK |
A. OFF
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814, What meter indication shows the AN/PDR-74A batteries are good?
A. Alarm sounds B. Meter indicates zero C. Meter in BATT.CHK arc D. Meter in CKT.CHK arc |
C. Meter in BATT.CHK arc
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814, What is the maximum range of the AN/PDR-74A when the range selector is in the X10 position?
A. 1,000 uCi/M3 B. 10,000 uCi/M3 C. 100,000 uCi/M3 D. 1,000,000 uCi/M3 |
B. 10,000 uCi/M3
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814, What is the AN/PDR-74A warm-up time after you position the function switch to zero?
A. 10 sec B. 20 sec C. 10 min D. 20 min |
C. 10 min
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