Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
29 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The full palatal strap major connector is
indicated where A. there is a high, narrow palatal vault. B. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is present. C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. D. palatal tissue is soft and compressible |
C
|
|
The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two
principal abutments is A. survey line. B. terminal line. C. axis of rotation. D. line of greatest torque. |
C
|
|
The leeway space in an 8 year old child
A. will provide space for eruption of the permanent incisors. B. is greater in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch. C. occurs with premature loss of primary molars. D. is approximately 3.5mm in the mandibular arch. E. allows accommodation of premolars that are larger than the primary molars. |
D
|
|
Which of the following may result in acetone
breath? A. Prolonged fasting. B. High carbohydrate diet. C. High protein diet. D. Poor oral hygiene. |
A
|
|
Immediately following an inferior alveolar
nerve block, the patient exhibits facial paralysis. The needle has penetrated through which ligament? A. Sphenomandibular. B. Stylomandibular. C. Stylohyoid. D. Pterygomandibular |
A
|
|
The central action of caffeine is principally on the
A. cerebral cortex. B. corpus callosum. C. hypothalamus. D. spinal cord. E. medulla. |
A
|
|
Lymphatic spread from a carcinoma on the tip of the tongue would initially involve which nodes?
A. Submandibular. B. Submental. C. Deep parotid. D. Mastoid. E. Jugulo-omohyoid |
B
|
|
Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys
by heat treatment increases A. ductility. B. yield strength. C. coring. D. elastic modulus. E. malleability |
B
|
|
In endodontic therapy, the most effective
irrigating solution for dissolving organic debris is A. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). B. sodium hypochlorite. C. calcium hydroxide. D. hydrogen peroxide. E. sodium chloride |
B
|
|
The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by
A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. C. chlorhexidine and chloroform. D. calcium hydroxide and phenol. |
B
|
|
Which statement is FALSE regarding sodium hypochlorite when used as an irrigant?
A. It is used in 0.5% to 5.25% concentration. B. Its combination with hydrogen peroxide does not improve its clinical effectiveness. C. It is well tolerated if expressed beyond the tooth apex. D. Warming the solution increases its clinical effectiveness |
C.
sodium hypochlorite beyond apex results in swelling and profuse bleeding |
|
A clinical diagnostic indication of palatal
impaction of maxillary permanent canines does NOT include A. proclined and laterally flared permanent lateral incisors. B. delayed exfoliation ofprimary canines. C. midline central diastema. D. lack of canine buccal bulges in a 10 year old patient. |
C
|
|
The rate limiting step of tooth movement is
A. bone deposition. B. bone resorption. C. force application. D. occlusal interference. |
B
Rate limiting meaning that the amount of tooth movement cannot be more than the amount of bone resorbed. |
|
The best time to begin interceptive
orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion is A. as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed. B. immediately following complete eruption of the deciduous dentition. C. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars. D. several months prior to the prepubertal growth spurt. E. after skeletal maturity. |
D
|
|
A 20 year old female patient is suspected of
having bulimia. Which of the following signs will help confirm the diagnosis? 1. Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior teeth. 2. Enlargement of the thyroid gland. 3. Calluses on the dorsum of the fingers. 4. Bulky clothing to disguise weight loss. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
B
|
|
A 10 year old patient with a lateral functional shift due to a maxillary bilateral posterior crossbite
A. should not be treated until growth is complete. B. should be diagnosed in the functional shift position. C. requires mandibular arch expansion. D. has a centric occlusion-centric relation (CO-CR) shift caused by occlusal interferences |
D
|
|
There is an acute periradiuclar abscess on
tooth 1.3. The tooth must be extracted. In addition to a palatal injection, the most appropriate local anesthetic technique would be A. vestibular infiltration. B. infraorbital. C. middle superior alveolar. D. intraligamentary. |
B
|
|
The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is
best probed from the A. buccal. B. buccal or lingual. C. lingual. |
C
|
|
Which of the following are true statements
about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess? 1. A rubber dam drain may be placed and sutured to assist drainage. 2. The procedure is only indicated with a localized, fluctuant swelling. 3. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is not always possible. 4. Relief of the pressure and pain is immediate after treatment. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
E
|
|
Composite resin is a satisfactory core material
for endodontically treated teeth provided A. the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. B. there is an adequate ferrule. C. the resin is autopolymerizing. D. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum |
B
|
|
The most important advantage of using reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol cement as a temporary restoration is that it
A. stimulates dentin repair. B. occludes dentinal tubules. C. desensitizes the pulp. D. chelates to tooth structure |
C
|
|
Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with
A. inadequate isthmus depth. B. inadequate isthmus width. C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall. D. subgingival proximal extension. |
A
|
|
Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with
A. inadequate isthmus depth. B. inadequate isthmus width. C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall. D. subgingival proximal extension. |
|
|
Proximal retention grooves are most
necessary to provide resistance for proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restorations when the A. occlusal extension is wide faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. B. restoration is a pin-retained cusp replacement. C. occlusal extension is narrow faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. D. bonded amalgam technique is not being used. |
C
|
|
The placement of a reverse curve in a Class II amalgam preparation aids in
|
B
|
|
In the formulation of composite resins
A. decreasing filler content increases the modulus of elasticity. B. increasing filler content decreases polymerization shrinkage. C. increasing filler content increases the degree of conversion. D. decreasing filler content increases radiopacity of the restoration. |
B
|
|
Which of the following is NOT commonly used
by general dentists to treat temporomandibular disorders and bruxism? A. Hard acrylic splints. B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). C. Corticosteroids. D. Muscle relaxants. |
C
|
|
The local anesthetic technique requiring the
needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block. B. Gow-Gates block. C. Vazirani-Akinosi block. D. inferior alveolar nerve block. |
B
|
|
Which of the following is a sign of a severe toxic reaction to ketoconazole?
A. Jaundice. B. Hypertension. C. Xerostomia. D. Salivary gland swelling. E. Renal failure |
A
|