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103 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The most common adult complication d/t rheumatic fever
mitral stenosis
The most serious side effect from use of the cardiac bypass machine
Major organ damage
The major modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis
Hypertension
Diffuse chest pain occurring when myocardial oxygen demand exceeds ogygen supply
angina pectoris
Drug of choice for angina pectoris
nitro
In acute MI, CK-MB levels peak
12-18 hours
Heart failure symptoms
pulmonary congestion and peripheral edema
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated with heart failure occuring when the patient is:
Lying down
Therapeutic objective of Digoxin in heart failure:
Make the heart beat slower, more regularly, and more powerfully.
Which diuretic is the drug of choice in treatment of heart failure?
Thiazides
loop diuretics
potassium sparing
Peripheral vascular disorders are characterized by:
lack of blood flow and oxygen
indicates thrombophlebitis of lower extremity:
skin warm, aching pain
Preventive measures for peripheral vascular disorders:
Avoid smoking
diltiazem (cardizem) is used in a patient with rapid afib because:
it decreases myocardial contractility and workload

It is a calcium channel blocker and it reduces oxygen demand
Anticoagulants (Ticlid, Plavix) are given post-op to patients with peripheral vascular disease to:
Inhibit further clot formation
A common abnormality assoicated with development of peripheral vascular disease:
high serum lipids
Vascular changes in hypertension can be directly observed in what part of the body?
neck (jugular distension)
Hematologic diseases are often associated with skin problems. Petechiae and ecchymosis are seen in:
thrombocytopenia
A woman of child-bearing age complaining of fatigue and exertional dyspnea may be suspected of having:
Iron deficiency anemia
In acute, contained blood loss, the transfusion therapy usually indicated is:
PRBC's
Family planning is an important part of patient teaching in sickle cessl anemia because the disease is:
Genetic
An expected side effect of quinapril (accupril)
persistent, dry cough
The clinical symptoms of polychythemia are caused by:
increased blood viscosity
Common sequela of disseminated intravascular coagulation:
hemorrhage
Patients receiving heparin or coumadin anticoagulants should be instructed to report any incidence of:
black tarry stools
epistaxis and bleeding gums
A patient with heart failure indicates that he understands the restrictions fo his disease by verbalizing that he will do all of the followingEXCEPT:
take Alka-Seltzer for mild GI upset
Which foods are usually included in a diet for a patient taking digitalis?
bananas and oranges
When giving Laix, assess for:
postureal hypotension, leg cramps, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
If the patient's PT is 28 seconds and the next dose is due:
Call MD
When giving thiazide diuretics, assess for:
GI upset, muscle aches and weakness, constipation
What is true about Buerger-Allen exercises?
Can be recommended to patients with advanced arterial occlusive disease. Can be used by people with minimal exercise tolerance. Involves elevating legs, placing legs in dependent position, and moving feet/ankles
"I've been having these leg pains for the last six months when I walk to the store. But when I stop walking, the pain goes away. Assess for:
peripheral vascular problems in both legs.
Antidote to heparin
Protamine sulfate
Wehn giving a Z-track injection:
Use a 2-3 inch neadle
Draw up an extra 0.3 ml of air into syringe.
Pull skin sideways before inserting needle.
Aspirate.
The hallmark of acute myocardial ischemia progressing to an infarction is:
ST segment elevation
Mrs. Jones was admitted to ICU with severe hyperkalemia. Orders include:
Kayexalate
The reason potassium is prescribed with Digoxin and Lasix is:
To prevent hypokalemia
Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are used to detect signs of
Calcium deficiency.
PRBC's are ordered for a patient who has had a reaction with blood before. Expect to give:
Benadryl.
A colloid solution, salt-poor albumin, may be ordered for a patient in mehorrhagic shock because:
It contains proteins increasing osmotic pressure, therefore blood volume. It draws fluis from tissues into vasculature.
The first sign of pulmonary edema
pallor and restlessness
Gas exchange within the pulmonary system from the blood occurs through:
diffusion
The part of the brain which controls the repiratory rate:
medulla and pons
In normal respiratory function, the major stimulus for control of ventilation:
increased levels of CO2
hypoventilation will cause:
Atelectasis, pneumonia, respiratory acidosis
Nursing care of the patient with pneumonia incluses:
range of motion, coughing, deep breathing, turning, and monitoring for adequate fluids
An example of COPD:
chronic bronchitis
A barrel chest is a common sign of:
emphysema
What type of breathing is encouraged for the person with COPD?
purse lips during expiration
COPD is diagnosed by:
pulmonary function testion.
Decreased forced expiratory volume.
Which symptoms determine the need for suctioning of a patients trach?
Noisy repirations, increased pulse, increased respiratory rate.
Which symptom indicates an upper airway obstruction?
Laryngeal stridor
What safety precaution must be taken for a patient with a trach?
keep an ET tube or extra trach tube available.
When suctioning the repiratory tract, the nurse should limit suctioning to periods of no more than:
10 seconds
A nurse is preparing a patient for endotracheal suctioning. To prevent hypoxemia, she hyperoxygenates the patient using a manual resuscitation bag with 100% 02 four to five times before geginning to suction. The nurse must still limit the actual suctioning to a maximum of:
10 seconds
The bet nursing action when a patient begins to cough during tracheal suctioning is to:
discontinue suctioning to allow for coughing
When suctioning must be repeated, it is recommended that the nurse allow adequate time for:
Replenishing of oxygen.
A patient with TB exposure is started on INH (isoniazid.) The nurse needs to set up what kind of lab studies during the course of therapy?
Liver enzymes
Paradoxical respiratory movement, severe chest pain, and tachypnea whith shallow repirations are signs of:
flail chest
When a pneumothorax occurs, the lung collapse is related to:
increased intrapleural pressure
In a "three-bo0ttle"/3 chamber closed-chest drainage system, what is the appropriate action if the water seal bottle breaks?
Clamp the chest catheter until reconnected to a new sterile chamber/system
Placemetn of a chest tube system is performed for all but one of the following reasons:
to remove air fromthe pleural space, to remove blood clots from the pleural space, to remove fluid from the pleural space:
to facilitate "milking" from the pleural space
The basic problem associated with cystic fibrosis is:
thick mucus production
In patient teaching about cystic fibrosis, it is important for the family to understand that the disease is:
Hereditary
Postural drainage to facilitate the flow of secretions from the lower right lobe is best achieved by placing the patient in a:
left-sided position with head lowered and feet elevated
During postural drainage, DO:
auscultate the lungs before and after, discontinue if tachcardia, palpitations, dyspnea, or chest pain, encourage patient to cough and expectorate after each positioning
DO NOT: encourage use of accessory muscles of repiration
In partially compensated repiratory acidosis, it can be expected that:
the PH will be decreased or near normal, PCO2 will be increased and HCO3 will be increased
The most definitive symptom of croup:
inspiratory stridor
Asthma in children may be related to:
allergic reaction to one or more allergens, positive family history, psychogenic factors
Nursing implications for administration of Rifampin to a TB patient include instructions that:
Urine will turn orange, side effects may include tingling in fingers or toes, as well as nausea and vomiting.
the patient has been given a prescription for oral theophylline and the nurse has instructed her to report these symptoms of toxicity:
nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia
In a thoracentesis, the needle is inserted into the:
pleural space
What drug reverses repiratory depression due to narcotics?
Narcan (nalozone)
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because:
CO overwhelms oxygen transport
pneumocystis jirovecci pneumonia
Most common severe infection associated with HIV
Meal planning for a patient with pneumonia should include a diet:
high in carbs and protein
Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency (AAT) can best be described as:
The only known genetic abnormality that leads to COPD, a deficiency of a liver enzyme which helps protect the lungs from a breakdown of WBCs called neutrophil elastase, and often misdiagnosed disease in patients with emphysema who are younger than 60.
Common causes of community acquired pneumonia include:
streptococcus pneumonia
haemophilus influenze
staphylococcus aureus
Leading cause of cancer death in men and women
Lung cancer
With the exception of breast cancer, which group has highest mortality rate for cancer?
African Americans
What is the most prominent contributor to the cause of cancer
tobacco smoke
An alteration in adult cells characterized by changes in the size, shape, and organization is called:
dysplasia
A malignant tumor of connective tissue:
Sarcoma
In a "three-bottle"/3 chamber closed-chest drainage system, what is the appropriate action if the water seal bottle breaks?
Clamp the chest catheter until reconnected to a new sterile chamber/system
Placement of a chest tube system is performed for all but one of the following reasons:
to remove air fromthe pleural space, to remove blood clots from the pleural space, to remove fluid from the pleural space:
to facilitate "milking" from the pleural space
The basic problem associated with cystic fibrosis is:
thick mucus production
In patient teaching about cystic fibrosis, it is important for the family to understand that the disease is:
Hereditary
Postural drainage to facilitate the flow of secretions from the lower right lobe is best achieved by placing the patient in a:
left-sided position with head lowered and feet elevated
Malignant tumors often spread to parts of the body away from the primary site of the cancer:
metastasis
The nurses's role in the prevention of cancer includes identifying and moderating risk factors. An individual has the most control over:
nutritional factors
The seven warning signs of cancer include:
nagging cough or chronic hoarseness, thickening or change in a skin mole, lump in monthly breast/testicular exam
Benign tumors may cause harm through:
pressure on vital organs
Which procedure is necessary to establish a diagnosis of breast cancer?
breast biopsy
therapy aimed to relieving cancer symptoms:
palliative
Factors promoting tumor growth can include:
both parents having an abnormal gene, exposure to various environmental carcinogens, early childhood and old age, increase in vasularization of the tumor.
The leading new cancer sites by gender:
breast and prostate
Benign tumors are characterized by:
cells imilar to cells of parent tissue, enclosed by a fibrous capsule, rarely recur after removal, usuall regular in shape
Which lab test is used to differentiate benign and malignant conditions
biopsy
It is recommended that cancer-related checkups include:
prostate-specific antigens yearly for males over 50.
The nurse's role in the primary prevention of common cancers includes education to prevent:
Breast cancer by identifying risk factors, teaching monthly BSE, recommending yearly physicals, avoiding a high-fat diet. Lung cancer by identifying family history and exposure to known carcinogens. Skin cancer by identifying risk factors, behaviors, and lifestyl modifications.
When a patient is receiving external radiotherapy, the nurse should assess for:
Impaired skin integrity.
In radiation exposrure, when the half-life is reached, the danger:
is decreased
The patient receiving radiation therapy often has conspicuous skin markings:
Guidelines for treatment and should be left on the skin