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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the daily requirement for vegetables? a) 1-2; b) 2-3; c) 6-11; d) 3-5
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d) 3-5
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Pt has pernicious anemia what do you encourage a diet high in: a) Vitamin B12; b) Vitamin C; c) Vitamin K; d) Vitamin D
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a) Vitamin B12
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Four servings of fruits & vegetables provides the client with what major nutrients: a) Vitamin B12; b) Fat; c) Protein; d) Vitamin C
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d) Vitamin C
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You are teaching nutrition to a client with chronic constipation. You’re teaching is effective if the client ↑ his intake of: a) Oranges; b) Whole grain cereals; c) Ripe bananas; d) Chicken
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b) Whole grain cereals
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Men in which of the age group generally require the fewest calories: a) 11 to 14; b) 19 to 20; c) 23 to 50; d) 51 & older
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d) 51 & older
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Which of the following is least significant factor in developing food habits: a) Symbolism of food; b) Cultural patterns; c) Income level; d) Level of education
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d) Level of education
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Which vitamin must be included in the diet because the body cannot store it? a) A; b) B; c) D; d) E
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b) B
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Lacking the enzyme lactose mean you have a intolerance for: a) Milk; b) Juice; c) Legumes; d) Carbohydrates
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a) Milk
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This data is least useful with identifying problem in nutrition: a) Condition of the skin, mouth, gums; b) Fluid intake; c) Client’s food likes; d) Food preferences of a significant other
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d) Food preferences of a significant other
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When inspecting hair of a client for nutritional status which is not important: a) Luster; b) Texture; c) Color; d) Flexibility
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d) Flexibility
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Adult females need how many milligrams of iron: a) 18; b) 26; c) 5; d) 36
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a) 18
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This food is allowed for a client on a diet with a sodium restriction: a) Apples; b) Frozen peas; c) Hard cheeses; d) Luncheon meat
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a) Apples
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Which of the following should you do to stimulate the client’s appetite? a) Provide info on nutrition; b) Leaving the client alone to eat; c) Relieve the client’s pain before mealtime; d) Provide only one food at a meal
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c) Relieve the client’s pain before mealtime
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Pt is nauseous & the medications are not helping, what measure should you take: a) Avoid serving foods at frequent intervals; b) Omit nonessential foods high in calories; c) Serve all typed of food; d) Serve small amounts of food at any one time
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d) Serve small amounts of food at any one time
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B2 is also: a) Niacin; b) Thiamine; c) Pyridoxine; d) Riboflavin
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d) Riboflavin
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Pt has bleeding problem- what does the Dr order: a) Vitamin B12; b) Vitamin C; c) Vitamin K; d) Vitamin D
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c) Vitamin K
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Digested carbohydrates are absorbed where? a) Stomach; b) Small intestine; c) Large intestine; d) Liver
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b) Small intestine
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A Good source of vitamin A (retinol) is: a) Whole grains; b) Animal livers; c) Yellow vegetables; d) Beefsteak
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b) Animal livers
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Pt is on a clear liquid diet what is on the food tray: a) Milk, coffee, & apple juice; b) Tea, coke, & Jell-O; c) Water, tea, coffee, & milk; d) Ice cream, Jell-O & coke
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b) Tea, coke, & Jell-O
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You insert a NG-tube, how far do you insert it: a) Insert it the distance from the tip of the nose to the sternum; b) Insert if the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe then to the tip of the sternum; c) Insert it to the first black line; d) Insert it as far as it will go until it meets resistance
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b) Insert if the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe then to the tip of the sternum
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How do you tell if the NG-tube is in place? a) Client’s color will be normal; b) Gastric contents are withdrawn through the tube; c) No sounds are heard through the tube; d) The client can talk
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b) Gastric contents are withdrawn through the tube
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What enzyme is present in infants & is necessary for digestion of milk? a) Trypsin; b) Dipeptidase; c) Casein; d) Rennin
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d) Rennin
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Pt has a decubitus ulcer. which nutrient produces collagen? a) Calcium; b) Protein; c) Vitamin C; d) Vitamin A
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c) Vitamin C
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What vitamin is important for maturation of red blood cells? a) Vitamin A; b) Vitamin B12; c) Vitamin C; d) Vitamin D
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b) Vitamin B12
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Cardiac diets are low in: a) Salt; b) Sugar; c) Potassium; d) Lactic acid
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a) Salt
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Pts with anemia should eat foods high in: a) Beef; b) Green vegetables; c) Yellow fruit; d) Organ meats
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d) Organ meats
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Low saturated diet: a) Pork; b) Beef; c) Chicken; d) Lamb
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c) Chicken
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This is a complication of most concern with TPN: a) Diuresis; b) Diarrhea; c) Nausea; d) Infection
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d) Infection
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Which statement is true of G-tubes? a) It allows client more mobility & enables self feeding; b) It is inserted through the nose, down esophagus, to the stomach; c) The tube enters a surgical opening through the abdominal wall into the large intestines; d) It is the same size as IV tubing
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a) It allows client more mobility & enables self feeding
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Pt had eye surgery & has bandages on both eyes what is the best thing to do? a) Open all containers; b) Feed him; c) Cut his meal & tell him the position of the food according to the hours on a clock; d) Keep him on a diet with no hot foods
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c) Cut his meal & tell him the position of the food according to the hours on a clock
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Solid foods should be introduced to an infant at what age? a) 2-4mos; b) 3-6mos; c) 4-12mos; d) 12-18mos
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c) 4-12mos
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Pregnant women need an increased amount of this mineral: a) Iron; b) Calcium; c) Potassium; d) Vitamin C
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a) Iron
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You instill 15cc water into a G-tube without difficulty. You document: a) There is no residual; b) The tube is patent; c) The client’s stomach is full of air; d) The tube is in the proper place
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b) The tube is patent
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A Pt with a urinary tract infection (UTI) would most likely experience: a) Suppression; b) Frequency; c) Urgency; d) Polyuria
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b) Frequency
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A surgical intervention that might cause a wound to heal by third intention might be: a) Appendectomy; b) Hiatal hernia repair; c) Duodenal ulcer; d) Gall bladder disease
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c) Duodenal ulcer
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Which nursing intervention is important for a Pt who has just undergone a supratentorial craniotomy? a) Assist the Pt to ambulate within 12 hours post op; b) Maintain the Pt in Fowler's position with a pillow under the shoulders; c) Encourage the Pt to perform cough & deep breathe exercises; d) Maintain in a side-lying position on the unaffected side
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b) Maintain the Pt in Fowler's position with a pillow under the shoulders
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A Pt with gout who is taking Colbenemid (probenecid & colchicine) should be instructed to: a) Drink 8 glasses of water a day; b) Increase intake of calcium-rich foods; c) Maintain an acid/ash diet; d) Take the medication at least 3 hours after eating
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c) Maintain an acid/ash diet
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A sudden gush of serosanginous drainage from an abdominal incision 3rd day post op would most likely be caused by: a) Hypervolemia; b) Wound dehiscence; c) Infection; d) Normal wound healing
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b) Wound dehiscence
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The purpose pf administering miotics to a PT with glaucoma is to: a) Increase outflow of vitreous humor; b) Decrease flow through the canal of Schlemm; c) Increase intraocular pressure; d) Increase outflow of aqueous humor
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d) Increase outflow of aqueous humor
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Zoster immune globulin is used to stimulate immunity to: a) Shigellosis; b) Varicella; c) Salmonella; d) Cytomegalovirus
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b) Varicella
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The most common drug used to treat streptococcal pharyngitis: a) Pen Vee K (penicillin); b) Chloromycetin (chloramphenical); c) chromycin (tetracycline); d) Septra (sulfonamide)
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a) Pen Vee K (penicillin)
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The most common symptom of compartmental syndrome is: a) Throbbing pain; b) Dull ache in abdomen; c) Intractable extreme pain; d) Loss of sensation to the affected area
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c) Intractable extreme pain
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A slow insidious, progressive hearing loss is usually caused by: a) Otitis media; b) Eustachian tube disorders; c) Otosclerosis; d) Trauma
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c) Otosclerosis
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The best way to help a Pt with multiple sclerosis relieve muscle spasms is to: a) Administer Lioresal as ordered; b) Encourage the Pt to take hot baths; c) Teach progressive relaxation techniques; d) Use guided imagery techniques
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b) Encourage the Pt to take hot baths
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A Pt who scores a 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale would be expected to: a) Open his eyes on command; b) Extend arm to painful stimulus; c) Localize a painful stimulus; d) Engage in conversation, confused in content
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b) Extend arm to painful stimulus
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A Pt with an injury at the level of C7 would be expected to: a) Attain bladder & urinary continence; b) Maintain control of his head & neck; c) Regain use of his arms; d) Breathe independently
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b) Maintain control of his head & neck
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A Pt has been taught self-catheterization to achieve continence. A positive sign that the goal has been achieved would be: a) No urinary tract infection reported; b) Total urinary output has remained at a desirable level; c) She has experienced no dribbling between catheterizations; d) She can perform the procedure unassisted
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c) She has experienced no dribbling between catheterization
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An abdominal wound is healing by secondary intention. Which is an abnormal finding? a) Small amount of serosanguinous drainage is present at the incisional site; b) There is a noticeable amount of eschar formation; c) The wound black around edges; d) The Pt reports tenderness in the area of the incision
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c) The wound black around edges
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Which finding would be most indicative of cholelithiasis in a Pt with gall bladder disease? a) Jaundice, chills & fever; b) Colicky pain in the left lower quadrant; c) Gallstones seen in the common bile duct on ultrasound; d) Intolerance to fatty foods
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c) Gallstones seen in the common bile duct on ultrasound
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You prepare your Pt to undergo nuclear magnetic resonance imaging, you should tell her: a) A dye will be injected through the IV & will cause a mild sensation of heat; b) The Pt will lies on a flat platform that moves through a tube containing a magnet; c) Air will be introduced as a contrast medium to outline soft tissue components; d) A needle electrode will be inserted into skeletal muscle
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b) The Pt will lies on a flat platform that moves through a tube containing a magnet
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