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50 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What is the daily requirement for vegetables? a) 1-2; b) 2-3; c) 6-11; d) 3-5
d) 3-5
Pt has pernicious anemia what do you encourage a diet high in: a) Vitamin B12; b) Vitamin C; c) Vitamin K; d) Vitamin D
a) Vitamin B12
Four servings of fruits & vegetables provides the client with what major nutrients: a) Vitamin B12; b) Fat; c) Protein; d) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin C
You are teaching nutrition to a client with chronic constipation. You’re teaching is effective if the client ↑ his intake of: a) Oranges; b) Whole grain cereals; c) Ripe bananas; d) Chicken
b) Whole grain cereals
Men in which of the age group generally require the fewest calories: a) 11 to 14; b) 19 to 20; c) 23 to 50; d) 51 & older
d) 51 & older
Which of the following is least significant factor in developing food habits: a) Symbolism of food; b) Cultural patterns; c) Income level; d) Level of education
d) Level of education
Which vitamin must be included in the diet because the body cannot store it? a) A; b) B; c) D; d) E
b) B
Lacking the enzyme lactose mean you have a intolerance for: a) Milk; b) Juice; c) Legumes; d) Carbohydrates
a) Milk
This data is least useful with identifying problem in nutrition: a) Condition of the skin, mouth, gums; b) Fluid intake; c) Client’s food likes; d) Food preferences of a significant other
d) Food preferences of a significant other
When inspecting hair of a client for nutritional status which is not important: a) Luster; b) Texture; c) Color; d) Flexibility
d) Flexibility
Adult females need how many milligrams of iron: a) 18; b) 26; c) 5; d) 36
a) 18
This food is allowed for a client on a diet with a sodium restriction: a) Apples; b) Frozen peas; c) Hard cheeses; d) Luncheon meat
a) Apples
Which of the following should you do to stimulate the client’s appetite? a) Provide info on nutrition; b) Leaving the client alone to eat; c) Relieve the client’s pain before mealtime; d) Provide only one food at a meal
c) Relieve the client’s pain before mealtime
Pt is nauseous & the medications are not helping, what measure should you take: a) Avoid serving foods at frequent intervals; b) Omit nonessential foods high in calories; c) Serve all typed of food; d) Serve small amounts of food at any one time
d) Serve small amounts of food at any one time
B2 is also: a) Niacin; b) Thiamine; c) Pyridoxine; d) Riboflavin
d) Riboflavin
Pt has bleeding problem- what does the Dr order: a) Vitamin B12; b) Vitamin C; c) Vitamin K; d) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
Digested carbohydrates are absorbed where? a) Stomach; b) Small intestine; c) Large intestine; d) Liver
b) Small intestine
A Good source of vitamin A (retinol) is: a) Whole grains; b) Animal livers; c) Yellow vegetables; d) Beefsteak
b) Animal livers
Pt is on a clear liquid diet what is on the food tray: a) Milk, coffee, & apple juice; b) Tea, coke, & Jell-O; c) Water, tea, coffee, & milk; d) Ice cream, Jell-O & coke
b) Tea, coke, & Jell-O
You insert a NG-tube, how far do you insert it: a) Insert it the distance from the tip of the nose to the sternum; b) Insert if the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe then to the tip of the sternum; c) Insert it to the first black line; d) Insert it as far as it will go until it meets resistance
b) Insert if the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe then to the tip of the sternum
How do you tell if the NG-tube is in place? a) Client’s color will be normal; b) Gastric contents are withdrawn through the tube; c) No sounds are heard through the tube; d) The client can talk
b) Gastric contents are withdrawn through the tube
What enzyme is present in infants & is necessary for digestion of milk? a) Trypsin; b) Dipeptidase; c) Casein; d) Rennin
d) Rennin
Pt has a decubitus ulcer. which nutrient produces collagen? a) Calcium; b) Protein; c) Vitamin C; d) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin C
What vitamin is important for maturation of red blood cells? a) Vitamin A; b) Vitamin B12; c) Vitamin C; d) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin B12
Cardiac diets are low in: a) Salt; b) Sugar; c) Potassium; d) Lactic acid
a) Salt
Pts with anemia should eat foods high in: a) Beef; b) Green vegetables; c) Yellow fruit; d) Organ meats
d) Organ meats
Low saturated diet: a) Pork; b) Beef; c) Chicken; d) Lamb
c) Chicken
This is a complication of most concern with TPN: a) Diuresis; b) Diarrhea; c) Nausea; d) Infection
d) Infection
Which statement is true of G-tubes? a) It allows client more mobility & enables self feeding; b) It is inserted through the nose, down esophagus, to the stomach; c) The tube enters a surgical opening through the abdominal wall into the large intestines; d) It is the same size as IV tubing
a) It allows client more mobility & enables self feeding
Pt had eye surgery & has bandages on both eyes what is the best thing to do? a) Open all containers; b) Feed him; c) Cut his meal & tell him the position of the food according to the hours on a clock; d) Keep him on a diet with no hot foods
c) Cut his meal & tell him the position of the food according to the hours on a clock
Solid foods should be introduced to an infant at what age? a) 2-4mos; b) 3-6mos; c) 4-12mos; d) 12-18mos
c) 4-12mos
Pregnant women need an increased amount of this mineral: a) Iron; b) Calcium; c) Potassium; d) Vitamin C
a) Iron
You instill 15cc water into a G-tube without difficulty. You document: a) There is no residual; b) The tube is patent; c) The client’s stomach is full of air; d) The tube is in the proper place
b) The tube is patent
A Pt with a urinary tract infection (UTI) would most likely experience: a) Suppression; b) Frequency; c) Urgency; d) Polyuria
b) Frequency
A surgical intervention that might cause a wound to heal by third intention might be: a) Appendectomy; b) Hiatal hernia repair; c) Duodenal ulcer; d) Gall bladder disease
c) Duodenal ulcer
Which nursing intervention is important for a Pt who has just undergone a supratentorial craniotomy? a) Assist the Pt to ambulate within 12 hours post op; b) Maintain the Pt in Fowler's position with a pillow under the shoulders; c) Encourage the Pt to perform cough & deep breathe exercises; d) Maintain in a side-lying position on the unaffected side
b) Maintain the Pt in Fowler's position with a pillow under the shoulders
A Pt with gout who is taking Colbenemid (probenecid & colchicine) should be instructed to: a) Drink 8 glasses of water a day; b) Increase intake of calcium-rich foods; c) Maintain an acid/ash diet; d) Take the medication at least 3 hours after eating
c) Maintain an acid/ash diet
A sudden gush of serosanginous drainage from an abdominal incision 3rd day post op would most likely be caused by: a) Hypervolemia; b) Wound dehiscence; c) Infection; d) Normal wound healing
b) Wound dehiscence
The purpose pf administering miotics to a PT with glaucoma is to: a) Increase outflow of vitreous humor; b) Decrease flow through the canal of Schlemm; c) Increase intraocular pressure; d) Increase outflow of aqueous humor
d) Increase outflow of aqueous humor
Zoster immune globulin is used to stimulate immunity to: a) Shigellosis; b) Varicella; c) Salmonella; d) Cytomegalovirus
b) Varicella
The most common drug used to treat streptococcal pharyngitis: a) Pen Vee K (penicillin); b) Chloromycetin (chloramphenical); c) chromycin (tetracycline); d) Septra (sulfonamide)
a) Pen Vee K (penicillin)
The most common symptom of compartmental syndrome is: a) Throbbing pain; b) Dull ache in abdomen; c) Intractable extreme pain; d) Loss of sensation to the affected area
c) Intractable extreme pain
A slow insidious, progressive hearing loss is usually caused by: a) Otitis media; b) Eustachian tube disorders; c) Otosclerosis; d) Trauma
c) Otosclerosis
The best way to help a Pt with multiple sclerosis relieve muscle spasms is to: a) Administer Lioresal as ordered; b) Encourage the Pt to take hot baths; c) Teach progressive relaxation techniques; d) Use guided imagery techniques
b) Encourage the Pt to take hot baths
A Pt who scores a 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale would be expected to: a) Open his eyes on command; b) Extend arm to painful stimulus; c) Localize a painful stimulus; d) Engage in conversation, confused in content
b) Extend arm to painful stimulus
A Pt with an injury at the level of C7 would be expected to: a) Attain bladder & urinary continence; b) Maintain control of his head & neck; c) Regain use of his arms; d) Breathe independently
b) Maintain control of his head & neck
A Pt has been taught self-catheterization to achieve continence. A positive sign that the goal has been achieved would be: a) No urinary tract infection reported; b) Total urinary output has remained at a desirable level; c) She has experienced no dribbling between catheterizations; d) She can perform the procedure unassisted
c) She has experienced no dribbling between catheterization
An abdominal wound is healing by secondary intention. Which is an abnormal finding? a) Small amount of serosanguinous drainage is present at the incisional site; b) There is a noticeable amount of eschar formation; c) The wound black around edges; d) The Pt reports tenderness in the area of the incision
c) The wound black around edges
Which finding would be most indicative of cholelithiasis in a Pt with gall bladder disease? a) Jaundice, chills & fever; b) Colicky pain in the left lower quadrant; c) Gallstones seen in the common bile duct on ultrasound; d) Intolerance to fatty foods
c) Gallstones seen in the common bile duct on ultrasound
You prepare your Pt to undergo nuclear magnetic resonance imaging, you should tell her: a) A dye will be injected through the IV & will cause a mild sensation of heat; b) The Pt will lies on a flat platform that moves through a tube containing a magnet; c) Air will be introduced as a contrast medium to outline soft tissue components; d) A needle electrode will be inserted into skeletal muscle
b) The Pt will lies on a flat platform that moves through a tube containing a magnet