Nbr (Part 1 Review -- Random)

Front 1

the movement of air into the airways and lungs due to respiration results in response to

Back 1

reduced intrapleural pressure

Front 2

pernicious anemia may be due to damage to the

Back 2

gastric mucosa

Front 3

individuals who have significant amounts of the fetal form of hemoglobin in adulthood have;

Back 3

beta thallasemia*

Front 4

iron requires ____ to be absorbed

Back 4

vitamin C

Front 5

during isovolumic relaxation the:

Back 5

av valves are closed

Front 6

the nerve fiber excitability, rheobase, is described as:

Back 6

least possible volts required to fire a nerve

Front 7

thyroid gland releases

Back 7

calcitonin
(along w/ others)

Front 8

in normal breathing, which occurs during normal breathing

Back 8

tidal volume

Front 9

the amount of air moving through the lungs from maximal exhalation to max inhalation is the:

Back 9

IRV+ERV+TV

Front 10

the amount of air moving through the lungs at rest is the;

Back 10

tidal volume

Front 11

the kidneys release ____ which is an enzyme that converts an inert protein into ____

Back 11

renin; angiotensin I

Front 12

a potent vasoconstrictor, angiotensin II has a significant impact on blood pressure following its formation in the;

Back 12

lung

Front 13

angiotensin II exerts as a powerful effect on blood pressure, causing incresed pressure through _____ and retention of _____

Back 13

vasoconstriction
salt, water

Front 14

the neural communication between the cerebrum and the cerebellum goes through the

Back 14

pons

Front 15

which is responsible for the synthesis of fatty acid

Back 15

cortisol
(among others)

Front 16

is the collecting duct part of the nephron?

Back 16

no

Front 17

gastric cells that secrete HCL

Back 17

pareital

Front 18

angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I by

Back 18

renin

Front 19

the process of inspiration requires energy expenditure which is mainly due to the need to overcome:
tissue elasticity
surface tension in alveoli
tissue viscosity
airway resistance to flow

Back 19

tissue elasticity

Front 20

what blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis

Back 20

decreased pH

Front 21

which gastric cells produce pepsinogen

Back 21

chief cells

Front 22

compensatory effect of respiratory acidosis is

Back 22

increased rate and depth of respiration

Front 23

surfactant, which greatly reduces the surface tension is secreted by what cells

Back 23

type II cells

Front 24

which represents the largest volume (in the lung) at rest?

Back 24

total lung capacity

Front 25

the QRS complex results from

Back 25

ventricular repolarization

Front 26

is pepsinogen secreted by the pancreas?

Back 26

nope

Front 27

TLC=?

Back 27

IRV+TV+ERV+RV

Front 28

ADH is primarily found at

Back 28

collecting duct

Front 29

a grapelike odor with tissue color change to blue-green pus in a burn victim indicates

Back 29

pseudomonas

Front 30

the mating process of one gram negative bacteria to another, involving the pilus is called

Back 30

conjugation

Front 31

in 1928 the foundation for modern molecular genetics began by his discovery of transformation in bacteria

Back 31

who is GRIFFITH, trebec

Front 32

does type II hypersensitivity reaction indicate transfusion rejection

Back 32

yup yup

Front 33

mackonkey's agar contains

Back 33

lactose and neutral dye

Front 34

which medium is best used to grow a virus

Back 34

tissue culture

Front 35

satph aureus physical characteristics

Back 35

cluster like

Front 36

gram positive bacteria that causes impetigo

Back 36

staphylococcus

Front 37

patient with grayish pseudomembrane across the lumen of the throat has

Back 37

diphtheria (shick test)

Front 38

female with foul smelling vaginal discharge has

Back 38

trichomonas

Front 39

necator americanus can be transmitted through

Back 39

walking on fecal infested sand barefoot (it is a hookworm--digs its way through skin)

Front 40

secondary stage of treponema pallidum

Back 40

generalized rash

Front 41

sporothrix schenckii is transmitted primarily by

Back 41

transcutaneous

Front 42

plasma vivax vector

Back 42

mosquito

Front 43

lyme disease bacteria

Back 43

borrelia burgdorferia

Front 44

anal cellophane scotch tape test

Back 44

used to see if patient has contracted enterobious bermicularis

Front 45

funding for research is the primary responsibility of

Back 45

NIH

Front 46

most common std transmitted dx

Back 46

chlamydia

Front 47

which intracellular protozoa causes a 33% chance of brain damage

Back 47

toxoplasma gondii

Front 48

which immunoglobulin readily crosses the placenta

Back 48

IgG

Front 49

which polio vaccine is live and attenuated

Back 49

sabin

Front 50

mothers milk can best be described as (immunity)

Back 50

natural passive immunity

Front 51

which coliform causes pneumonia with red current jelly sputum

Back 51

kleibsiella

Front 52

dental carries are primarily caused by

Back 52

streptococcus mutans

Front 53

which can be prevented by wearing shoes

Back 53

necator americanus

Front 54

osteomyelitis may be caused by gram positive what

Back 54

staph aureus

Front 55

diarrhea, fatigue and weight loss over 3 days

Back 55

giardia lamblia

Front 56

tertiary stage of treponema pallidum

Back 56

gumma

Front 57

salmonella is most commonly found in

Back 57

poultry & eggs

Front 58

the major fungal infection is associated with pigeon roosts

Back 58

torulosis

Front 59

orchitis in males and oophoritis in a female is a common sign of

Back 59

mumps

Front 60

gram positve bacteria which can cause wool-sorters disease

Back 60

bacillus anthracis

Front 61

cysticercosis is caused by

Back 61

ingestion of pork tapeworm eggs

Front 62

the mmr vaccine is

Back 62

live attenuated

Front 63

which test best identifies typhoid fever, salmonellosis, and undulant fever

Back 63

widal test

Front 64

which ricketsial disease causes epidemic typhus

Back 64

ricketsial prowazecki

Front 65

which protozoa is an aids patient most likely to contract

Back 65

pneumocystis carinii

Front 66

would you acid fast stain cornybacterium diptheria

Back 66

no

Front 67

sign or symptom of rubeola

Back 67

koplik's spots

Front 68

a rapid test for total bacteria levels in water is termed

Back 68

standard plate count

Front 69

urealyticum is associated primarily with

Back 69

infants

Front 70

when coliforms are found in water testing, what can be indicated

Back 70

fecal contamination

Front 71

which of the following bodies are indicitave of rheumatic endocardidtis

Back 71

aschoff's body

Front 72

an increase in IgE would be indicative of

Back 72

allergy

Front 73

which would most likely cross the placental barrier

Back 73

rubella

Front 74

a rabbit hunter cut himself while cleaning his kill, which bacteria is he going to contract

Back 74

brucella francisella

Front 75

which of the following tests would be positive for a patient involved with the AIDS virus
elisa
cbc w/ differential
urine screen
hair analysis

Back 75

elisa

Front 76

the most common cause of urinary tract infection in women

Back 76

e. coli

Front 77

a 32 yr old female exhibits spastic paralysis

Back 77

clostridium botulism

Front 78

Hepatitis A is contracted thru

Back 78

oral/fecal

Front 79

picorna virus is the family of the common cold

Back 79

true

Front 80

which secondary bacterial infections occur with antibiotic infection

Back 80

candida albicans

Front 81

this bacteria is the most common cause of ulcers

Back 81

helicobacter

Front 82

which of the following structures does penicillin bacitracin affect

Back 82

cell wall

Front 83

which cells associated with passive immunization

Back 83

t lymphocytes

Front 84

a coal burining plant releases ______ into the atmosphere

Back 84

sulfur dioxide

Front 85

anaphylaxis is a type ___ reaction

Back 85

I

Front 86

the WHO reports to

Back 86

united states public health services

Front 87

alpha interferon produced by ____ activate a subset of cells called _____

Back 87

t lymphocytes
natural killer

Front 88

example of a sella joint

Back 88

metacarpal phalangeal joint (thumb)

Front 89

the spiral groove is located on the

Back 89

humerus

Front 90

which type of cell lines the upper respiratory tract

Back 90

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Front 91

what is the function of the kupfer cell

Back 91

phagocyte of the liver

Front 92

alveoli type II cells make

Back 92

surfactant

Front 93

which nerve is interrupted when flexion of the thumb can no longer occur

Back 93

median

Front 94

the nasolacrimal duct drains into the

Back 94

inferior nasal concha

Front 95

the bifurcation of the trachea occurs at the

Back 95

sternal angle

Front 96

what hormone is produced in the adrenal medulla

Back 96

cortisol

Front 97

what is the primary mm of hip abduction

Back 97

gluteus medius

Front 98

this mm plantar flexes the foot

Back 98

peroneous longus

Front 99

located in the middle mediastinum

Back 99

inferior vena cava

Front 100

origin of the corachobrachialis

Back 100

corachoid process

Front 101

t/f
endomysium covers the entire surface of a muscle fiber

Back 101

t

Front 102

what bones form the sella joint

Back 102

1st metacarpal and trapezium

Front 103

the linea aspera converges to form the supracondylar line..
where would you find the linea aspera

Back 103

posterior femur

Front 104

what is the nerve supply to the medial thigh

Back 104

obturator

Front 105

the maxillary sinus drains into the

Back 105

middle nasal meatus

Front 106

what muscle abducts the vocal folds

Back 106

posterior cricoarytenoid

Front 107

what does the major calyces empty into

Back 107

the renal pelvis

Front 108

t/f
pericardium is the outer layer of the heart

Back 108

t

Front 109

what do papillary muscles do

Back 109

control backflow from right ventricle to right atrium or left atrium to left ventricle

Front 110

t/f
transverse plane is parallel to the floor

Back 110

t

Front 111

what anatomical structure is superior to the insertion of the pec minor muscle

Back 111

coracoid process

Front 112

the supraglenoid tubercle is found on the

Back 112

scapula

Front 113

t/f
superficial peroneal nerve innervates the dorsum of the foot

Back 113

t

Front 114

the acetabular labrum is made up of which type of tissue

Back 114

fibrocartilage

Front 115

the annular ligament allows the radius to pivot on the

Back 115

ulna

Front 116

what originates from the brachiocephalic artery off the arch of the aorta

Back 116

rt common carotid artery

Front 117

where is the round ligament attached

Back 117

labia majora

Front 118

a simple fracture of the distal tibia affects the

Back 118

medial malleolus

Front 119

with damage to the femoral nerve, there would be inability to

Back 119

extend the leg

Front 120

what bone is the sustentaculum tali on

Back 120

calcaneous

Front 121

which innervates the skin on the dorsum of the 2nd & 3rd toes

Back 121

superficial & deep peroneal

Front 122

the supraspinatus is responsible for

Back 122

abduction

Front 123

which fontanel is found in the adult

Back 123

bregma

Front 124

which organ is retroperitoneal

Back 124

kidney

Front 125

lateral border of the femoral triangle

Back 125

sartorius

Front 126

dorsal scapular nerve is damaged, then

Back 126

scapular cannot retract

Front 127

which part of the stomach is involved in a sliding hernia

Back 127

cardiac

Front 128

where do gallbladder stones lodge

Back 128

common bile duct

Front 129

the ureter attaches to the bladder

Back 129

posteriorly

Front 130

the ovarian artery is a branch off

Back 130

abdominal aorta

Front 131

what supplies the descending colon

Back 131

inferior mesenteric aa

Front 132

t/f
the temporal bone is found in the nasal septum

Back 132

f

Front 133

what type of joint is the ribhead attaching to the vertebral body

Back 133

synovial

Front 134

which muscle works more on inspiration

Back 134

external intercostals

Front 135

what does the cephalic vein drain into

Back 135

axillary then to subclavian

Front 136

t/f
the knee can circumduct

Back 136

f

Front 137

t/f
duodenum is derived from the midgut

Back 137

t

Front 138

the spring ligament is another name for the

Back 138

calcaneonavicular ligament

Front 139

which ligament attaches the ovaries to the uterus

Back 139

broad

Front 140

where does the psoas major and iliacus insert

Back 140

lesser trochanter

Front 141

the quadrate lobe is located between

Back 141

the gallbladder and ligamentum teres

Front 142

which muscle inserts into the ulnar tuberosity

Back 142

brachialis

Front 143

where are the openings of the ejaculatory ducts

Back 143

prostate

Front 144

the right suprarenal vein is a direct tributary

Back 144

right renal vein

Front 145

rupture or blockage of the posterior communicating artery would fill

Back 145

medulla

Front 146

schindylesis

Back 146

ampiarthrosis

Front 147

tina coli

Back 147

large intestine

Front 148

flexion of the head occurs primarily at

Back 148

occiput and C1

Front 149

2 nerves that supply mm that flexes the thumb

Back 149

median and ulnar

Front 150

what area of the uterus is found above the uterine tubes

Back 150

fundus

Front 151

the proximal radioulnar joint is classified as a

Back 151

pivot joint

Front 152

what structure does the inferior alveolar nerve innervate

Back 152

the teeth of the mandible

Front 153

where is sperm produced

Back 153

seminiferous tubules

Front 154

acetyl coa + _____ = citrate

Back 154

oxoloacetate

Front 155

if the cofactor is removed from the protein enzyme, what is it termed

Back 155

apoenzyme

Front 156

precursor for epinephrine

Back 156

tyrosine

Front 157

patient has severe case of periodontal disease that is not healing. there is no vitamin c available, what should you do

Back 157

give them zinc

Front 158

hydroxylation of phenylalanine gives you

Back 158

tyrosine

Front 159

t/f
chromium aids in insulin uptake

Back 159

t

Front 160

what transports fatty acids to the mitochondria

Back 160

carnitine

Front 161

t/f
cellulose is digestable

Back 161

f

Front 162

t/f
methionine is a sulfur containing amino acid

Back 162

t

Front 163

precursor to cholesterol

Back 163

HMG CoA

Front 164

t/f
maltose will reduce to only 2 glucose

Back 164

t

Front 165

what type of bond is formed in DNA synthesis

Back 165

phosphodiester bond

Front 166

linoleic acid is a fatty acid produced by the body

Back 166

false

Front 167

the production of ATP is referred to as

Back 167

oxidative phosphorylation

Front 168

in the oxidation of one equivalent of acetate during the TCA cycle, _____ equivalents of NADH are produced

Back 168

3

Front 169

these are considered secondary structures of proteins

Back 169

alpha helix
beta sheet
beta bend

Front 170

gently heating to heat double stranded molecules breaks what

Back 170

hydrogen bonds

Front 171

the function of RNA polymerase II is to make

Back 171

mRNA from DNA template

Front 172

ubiquinone is concentrated in the

Back 172

inner mitochondrial matrix

Front 173

a macrophage, which is chemically attaracted to inflammation (the movmt is termed)

Back 173

chemotaxis

Front 174

dental carries caused by lack of

Back 174

fluoride

Front 175

reducing agent in lipogenesis

Back 175

NADPH

Front 176

heparin is an anticoagulant

Back 176

true

Front 177

what causes lactation and uterine contraction

Back 177

oxytocin

Front 178

nitrogen removal via

Back 178

urea

Front 179

tropoisomerase plays a crucial role in DNA replication

Back 179

true

Front 180

reducing agent in lipogenesis

Back 180

NADPH

Front 181

heparin is an anticoagulant

Back 181

true

Front 182

what causes lactation and uterine contraction

Back 182

oxytocin

Front 183

nitrogen removal via

Back 183

urea

Front 184

tropoisomerase plays a crucial role in DNA replication

Back 184

true

Front 185

what type of bond is formed in DNA synthesis

Back 185

phosphodiester

Front 186

the dermatological manifestation known as cheilosis may be associated with

Back 186

vitamin B2 deficiency (riboflavin)

Front 187

is linoleic acid an omega 3

Back 187

yes

Front 188

what does the brain primarily use for energy

Back 188

glucose (or ketones)

Front 189

does leucine have an "r" reducing group

Back 189

no

Front 190

eicosapentaenoic acid is found in

Back 190

fish oil