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1141 Cards in this Set

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What occurs at the rough endoplasmic reticulum
Protein systhesis
What packages material into membrane bound vesicles
Golgi
Most digestion and absorption in
Small intestine
In the small intestine, what part digests the most
Duodenum
In the small intestine, what part absorbs the most
Jejunum and Ileum
Consist of the protein actin and interacts with myosin
Microfilaments
Protein fibers that have a load bearing function i.e. Keratin
Intermediate filament
Most conspicuous cytoskeleton component, composed of protein tubulin
Microtubules
An amino acid is distinguished by what side chain
R-group
The AA sequence of its polypepitide chain is the result in a
Primary Polypeptide Structure
The Secondary structure of protein organization includes
Alpha-helix & Beta-Pleated sheet
The Tertiary structure of protein organization includes
Folded Alpha-Helix & Beta-Pleated sheet (3-D) Spatial arrange of protein
The Quaternary structure of protein organization includes
subunits
Protein classes determined by being soluble or insoluble
Globular & Fiberous respectivity
Proteins produced by B-lymphocytes. Which mature in the bone marrow?
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
Which Ig is found predominantly in intestinal tract, saliva, sweat, & tears
IgA
Which Ig is present in the blood in very small amounts whose function is unknown
IgD
Which Ig is present in the blood in minute amounts & implicated in allergic reaction
IgE
What is the most common Ig, equally disturbed between the blood & interstital fluid
IgG
What is the only Ig to cross the placenta
IgG
Most effective Ig when it comes to invading organisms
IgM
The first Ig to be secreted in response to an antigen
IgM
2 identical heavy & light chains of an antibody are held together by
Disulfide bonds & noncovalent interactions
2 identical Fab fragments of Ab form the
Arms
1 Fc region of the Ab forms the
Trunk
Ig that can exist as a monomer, dimer or trimer
IgA
Major strees bearing component of connective tissue i.e. bone, teeth, tendon
Collagen
Defects in covalently cross linked collagen is responsible for disease such as
Ehlers danlos, Marfans, Osteogen-Impediment
Competes directly with a substrate for an enzymatic binding site
Competitive Inhibitor
Binds directly to the enzyme-substrate complex but not the free enzyme
Uncompetitive Inhibitor
Enzyme that destroys bacterial walls by hydrolyzing links of NAM & NAG
Lysozyme
Rxn that requires work/energy
Endergonic
Rxn that produces work/energy
Exergonic
ATP is an energy rich nucleotide because its triphosphate unit contains what
2 phosphoanhydride bonds
Reduced form of NAD and FAD
NADH & FADH
A set of reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate
Glycolysis
It is the prelude to the TCA and all rxn's in the Cytosol
Glycolysis
Formation of 2 pyruvate molecules from 1 glucose molecule produces
2 ATP's
Net products from glycolysis are
2 ATP, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH
What molecule enters the TCA
Acetyl CoA
One turn of the TCA yields (multiple by 2 for complete cycle)
3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2, 1 ATP
Converts pyruvate to glucose in the liver
Gluconeogenesis
When breaking down fat for energy shortage of oxaloacetate for Acetyl CoA
Extra Acetyl CoA leads to Ketone body
Precursor to all steroid hormones
Pregnenolone
Bonds that hold together Guanine & Cytosine
3 H-bonds
Bonds that hold together Adenine & Thymine
2 H-bonds
Cytosine, Uracil & Thymine are
Pyrimadines
Adensine, Guanine & Uric acid are
Purines
The coding region of DNA is called
Exons
The coding region that is cut from the original genome
Introns
Double stranded DNA, Equal mass of Histones & a small amount of RNA
All contained in Chromatin
DNA is supercoiled in a left handed helix over the structure of a histone
In nucleosomes (subunit of chromatin)
In RNA, which pyrimadine replaces DNA's thymine
Uracil
DNA & RNA exist as what type of helical molecules
Double & Single stranded respectivity
Enzyme responsible for sealing up Okazaki fragments into newly formed DNA
Ligase
Enzyme responsible for unzipping 2 stranded DNA so that replication can begin
Helicase
Group of hormones that require secondary messengers to produce changes
Group II hormones
Capable of causing cancer
Oncogenes
Involves the change in structure of an oncogene but not necessarily the amount
Single-point mutation
Ig's differ from each other by
Size, charge, AA component & Carb. Content
Digested food moelcules absorbed into bloodstream from intestines pass
Directly to the liver by hepatic portal vein
Fuel is abundant fatty acids that are synthesized, esterified, & sent from the liver to
Adipose tissue in the form of LDL
Building blocks for proetins, precursors for hormones, & oxidation of carbohydrate skeleton
Amino acids
Number one protein priority in the body
Blood
Major source of biological energy
Carbohydrates
Nourishes the brain, nervous system, & fuel for energy
Carbohydrates
Simple sugars that have no nutrional value on their own
Simple Carbohdrates
Found in grains, legumes, fruits & vegetables - excellent source of energy
Complex Carbohydrates
How many types of Amino acids
23 or 20
which organ converts saturated fat into cholesterol
Liver
Organic micronutrients required only in milli or micro quantities
Vitamins
Beri-beri is neurological disorder cause by
Thiamine deficiency
Scurvy is caused by
Vitamin C deficiency
Fat soluble vitamins
Vitamin A,D,E
Vitamins that act as anti-oxidants
Vitamin A,C,E & Selenium
Inorganic micronutrients
Minerals - Ca, P, Mg, Iron, Zinc
pH=7 exponentially means
10 to the (-7)
pH=1
Very acidic
pH=14
Very basic
pKA=14 equals a pH of
pH=1
Transplanting from one part of the body to another
Autograft
Transplanting from one identical twin to another
Isograft
Transplanting from genetically different individual to another of the same species
Allograft
Blood type A can receive/donate to which types
A & O / A & AB
Blood type B can receive/donate to which types
B & O / B & AB
Blood type AB can receive/donate to which types
AB, A, B, & O / AB only
Blood type O can receive/donate to which types
O only / O, AB, A & B
If a molecule inhibits activity of an enzyme by binding to active site, it is
Competitive inhibitor
Rate limiting step in the production of cholesterol produces what?
HMG CoA
ATP is what type of structure?
Nucleotide
Protein coat of a virus
Capsid
Enzyme in HIV virus that can convert RNA to DNA
Reverse transcriptase
The primary structure of a protein is
Amino acid sequence
The pentose shunt pathway produces
NADPH
A protein being made from RNA is called
Translation
Increased concentratin of what ion in the extracellular space of the cell has the greatest effect on the membrane potential
K+
Visual acuity at birth
20/200
Visual acuity at 6 months
20/20
Stereopsis begins to develop at
3-6 months
Contrast sensitivity peaks at
18-39 years
Accommodation is present at birth, but becomes useful at
4 months
Color vision is appreciate at
2 months
Refractive error at birth
+2.00 D
Refractive error at 1 year old
+1.00 D
Premature refractive error
-0.50 D
Pupillary light reation
1 month
Horizontal conjugate gaze
Birth
Vertical conjugate gaze
2 months
Ocular alignment
1 month
Fusional convergence
6 months
Baby pupillary light reflex
2 months
Fixation
1 month
Baby walk
12-15 months
Baby sits up unsupported when
6-8 months
Full term baby had what refractive error
Less than or equal to +2.50
With increased age, there CSF loss in
High spatial frequencies
With increased age, astigmatism changes to
Against the rule
What is the easiest for a child to draw
Circle
What immunoglobulin passes the placenta
IgG
What immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
What immunoglobulin is an atopic reactions
IgE
First cell to get a bacterial infection
Neutrophil
Thymic cells become what
Helper T cells
Neutrophils, Monocytes, and Macrophages are all considered
Phagocytes
Lysozyme breaks down
Gram Negative
Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivty reaction
Type IV
What determines the type of Ig
Heavy chain
Hypervariable region on both heavy and light chains
Fc
Lymphocytes, Macropahges, and Plasma cells are present in
Chronic Inflammation
Markers for T-cells
CD-4(60%) and CD-8(40%)
Natural Killer Cell Marker
CD-16
Humoral immunity contains
T4-cells and MHC II
Cellular immunity contains
T8-cells and MHC I
HLA (major histocompatability antigen) is T-cell mediated and
Rejects transplants
Natural killer cells fight against
Cancer
Most common antibody (75%) that crosses the placenta
IgG
Immunoglobulins in tears
IgA, IgG, IgE
Activator of primary immune system
IgD
Ig in allergic responses/histamine
IgE
There are 5 different classes of Ig which are differentiated by
Variability of H chains
The antigen binds to what part of the immunoglobulin
FAB portion
4 polypeptide chains (2 Heavy & 2 Light) held together by disulfide bonds is
Antibody
Monocytes turn into
Huge Macrophages
Cells that have Fc receptor for Ab and destroy Ag is Ag-Ab complex is form
Natural Killer Cells (usually IgG)
Mast cells have surface receptors that will fit
IgE
Only immunoglobulins to activate complement
IgG3 and IgM
Most B cells will secrete
Antibodies
If B cells don't secrete antibodies, they become a subset called
Memory cells
Cells that have capacity for accelerated immune response upon 2nd exposure to an Antigen
Memory cells
Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
T-cells
A macropahge must process and present foreign body on its cells surface to a Lymphocyte
For activation of T-cell in CMI
Histamine, Kinins, Complement, and Interferon are all part of this group
Secondary defense - Non-specific response
Speeds the release of other agents via vasodilation and capillary permeability
Histamine
Attract phagocytes, vasodilates, and stimulates capillary permeability
Kinins
20 Plasma proteins that speed phagocytosis and kill bacteria via lysis
Complement
Complement recognition site on a phagocyte
C3b
Blocks viral protein synthesis and viral entry
Interferon
Secondary defense - Non-specific cellular includes
Phagocytes, Basophils, and NK cells
Engulf bacteria - 3 types Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Monocytes
Phagocytes
Kills worm larvae
Basophils
Attack cancer cells
NK cells
Phagocytes and bacteria lock together via C3b receptors
Opsonization
Neutrophils, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils and Lymphocytes are all considered
White Blood cells
Both red blood cells and white blood cells are produced here
Red bone marrow - Red pulp
Remains of phagocytes can be observed in the form of
Pus
Weakly phagocytic, attacks and kills paracytic worms
Eosinophils
First cell to site of invasion and in large numbers
Neutrophils
Grow into huge macrophages
Monocytes
Originates as sub-populations of certain lymphocytes, attack and kill cancer cells
Natural Killer cells
Attack and kill cells harboring viruses
Natural Killer cells
Only attack the body's own diseased cells
Natural Killer cells
Primary Lymphoid tissue
Thymus and Red Bone Marrow
Secondary Lymphoid tissue
Nodes, Tonsils, Adennoids, Spleen
Where lymphocytes develop and mature
Primary Lymph tissue
Where lymphocytes begin critical roles of defense
Secondary Lymph tissue
Differentiates in the thymus
T-cells
Differentiates in the red bone marrow & fetal liver
B-cells
In the inactive state, it's hard to tell what two cells apart
T-cell from B-cell
In the active state, it forms extensive endoplasmic reticulum
B-cells
In the active state, it forms a large concentration of ribosomes
T-cells
Make and secrete antibodies (humoral)
B-cells specifically Plasma cells
Direct attack against diseased body cells, cell-mediated response
T-cells
Can activate B-cells and moderates & suppresses immune response
T-cells
Branching ends of enzymes which bind to matching antigen
Variable region
Same for each antibody of a certain class
Constant region
Antigen-Antibody binding site
Fab portion
Phagocyte-Antibody binding site
Fc region on Ab-Fc receptor on Phagocyte
Transplant rejection is due to
MHC same as HLA
Acts as a badge for cells to identify them as self
MHC I or MHC II
Amoung the few cells that bear both MHC I and MHC II surface proteins
Macrophage
Cell mediated, cytotoxic T-cell
MHC I CD8
Humoral, Helper T-cells
MHC II CD4
Stimulate T-cell cloning and Activate B-cells
Helper T cells
Plasma cells and Memory B-cells come from
B-cells
Messenger that stimulates cell proliferation and clones of T-cells
Interleukin-1
Identify, attacks, and kills infected cells bearing the antigen that brought its response
Arousal - Cytotoxic T-cell, other are Memory cells
Natural Killer cells can be activated via
Interleukin-2
This immunoglobulin has a secretory components and is secreted from the lacrimal gland
IgA
Antigen binds to which part of the immunoglobulin>
Variable region of heavy and light chains
What vitamin reduces the oxidation of membranes
Vitamin E
Hardest place to pick up precancerous cell growth
Pancreas
This cell kills virally infected cells
Natural Killer Cells
Immunoglobulin with the lowest concentration in blood
IgE
Proto-oncogenes are able to produce
Growth factors
Corresponding muscles of each eye receive equal innervation
Hering's Law of Equal innervation
Whenever an agonist receives inner to contract, antagonist receives equivalent to relax
Sherrington's Law of Reciprocal innervation
For times less than critical duration (100ms), Change in Luminance x t = Constant
Bloch's Law
Absolute intensity of both test and background are unimportant as long as constant
Weber's Law
Large stimulus is more easily seen than a small one
Spatial summation
A static stimulus presented for 20ms is more easily seen than one present for 10ms
Temporal summation
Antibiotic susceptibility testing is done to
Test for resistance of bacteria
What stain is used for Mycobacteria
Acid fast
Fungi produce what in their body
Hyphae and Spores
DNA virus & double stranded
Herpes
RNA retro-virus & single stranded
AIDS
PPP substrate
NADPH
DNA is held together by what type of bonds
Phosphodiester bonds
The TCA cycle takes place in
Mitochondrial matrix
Catalase, Superoxide Dismutase, Glutathione, and Vitamin E
Antioxidants
Diagnosis for TB includes Tuberculin, Chest X-ray, and
Exam Sputum for acid fast bacteria
Nuclear membrane present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Golgi, ER, Lysosymes, and Peroxisomes present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Mitochondria present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
In Prokaryotic cell, what serves the same purpose as the Mitochondria in Eurkaryotes
Plasma membrane
Cell wall present
Prokaryotic cell
Algae, Protozoa, anf Fungi are
Eukaryotes
Bacteria are
Prokaryotes
Multiple chromosomes composed of nucleic acid
Eukaryotic cell
Single chromosome composed of nuclei acid
Prokaryotic cell
Substance that surrounds bacterial cells, its major function is adherence
Glycocalyx - Capsule or slime layer
Whip like appendages that propel bacteria
Flagella
Amphitricious flagella
Single flagella at both ends of the cell
Has two or more flagella at one or both poles of the cell
Lopotrocious flagella
Flagella distributed over the entire cell body
Peritricious flagella
Spirochetes (i.e. Treponema Pallidum) are unique and move in this manner
Corkscrew motion - Axial filaments
Functions to adhere to surfaces and ionic bacterial cells prior to DNA transfer
Pili - helically arranged proteins (hairlike)
Main function is to protect the cell from rupturing when Osmotic pressure > Pressure inside cell
Cell wall
No cell wall
Mycoplasm
Macromolecular network called peptiodglycan (murein)
Cell wall
Layers of Peptidoglycan are considerably thicker in
Gram Positive
Cell walls contain Teichoic acid
Gram Positive
Stains dark violet or purple
Gram Positive
Ratio of RNA to DNA in Gram(+) and Gram(-)
8:1 in Gram(+) and 1:1 in Gram(-)
Suspectibility to pencillin and sulfonamides
Gram Positive
Stains pink or red
Gram Negative
Cell wall distruption by lysozyme
Gram Positive
Degree of pathogencitiy
Virulance
Increases virulance by impairing phagocytosis
Capsule
Heat and Acid resistant protein
M-protein
M-protein can be found in
Streptococcus pyogens
Have the ability to destroy neutrophils
Leukocidines
Cause the lysis of red blood cells
Hemolysins
Clot the fibrinogen in the blood
Coagulases
Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of most gram(-) bacteria
Endotoxins (lipopolysacharides)
Proteins secreted by the cell
Exotoxins (protein)
Bacterial reporoduction
Tranverse fission
I - Cell elongates, C - Bacterial chromosomes replicate, D - Plasma membrane pinches
Cell wall thickens = Bacterial life cycle
Cells metabolically active, little or no cell division
Lag Phase - Bacteria
Exponential growth phase, peak efficiency and activity
Log Phase
Drugs are most effective in this phase of growth
Log Phase
Number of deaths = Number of new cells
Stationary Phase
Dead cells outnumber new cells
Death Phase
O2 required, free O2 is final acceptor, Substrate-level, and Oxidative phosphorylation
Aerobic
Aerobic metabolis, creates how many ATP
38 ATP's (20X more than Anaerobic)
O2 not required, final acceptor is NO3 or SO4, Oxidative Phosphorylation only
Anaerboic
ATP molecules are produced using anaerobic
Variable
Can grow with or without oxygen
Facultative anaerobe
Bacterial mechanism in which genetic material is transferred from one cell to another
Conjugation
Microbes that cause disease
Pathogen
Relationship between the normal flora of a healthy person and the person
Symbiosis
One of the organisms is benefited and the other is unaffected
Commensalism
Both organisms benefit from the relationship
Mutualism
One organism benefits at the expense of the other organism
Parsitism
Normal flora of the skin
Staph epidermis and Aureus
Normal flora of the respiratory
S. Aureus, H. Influenza, N. Meningitis, Strep. Pneuomonie
Normal flora of the conjunctiva
S. Epidermis, S. Aureus, Diptheria
Diptheria
Normal flora of the urinary
S. Candida, Clostridium, Trichroma
Trichroma
Strep, Staph. Neisseria,
Normal flora of the mouth
Hemopholius Candida
Gram(+) Cocci found in grape-like clusters (very resistant to PCN)
Staphyococci
Causes Toxic Shock, Fetal Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Keratitis, and Hordeolem
Staph Aureus
Hordeolum
Spherical Non-motile gram(+) bacteria that grows in long chains
Streptococci
Most common species of Strep causing Strep throat
Strep Pyogenenes
Most common etiological agent in bacteria pneumonia, responsible more mortality
Strep. Pneumonia
Can lead to Scarlet and Rheumoid Fevers, Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia
Strep Throst (i.e. Pneumonia)
Gram(-), Motile, Aerobic Rod, generally opportunistic
Pseudomonas
Transmission usually occurs after foreign body removal
Pseudomonas
If untreated, severe necrosis of the cornea and perforation can occur in 48 hours
Pseudomonas
Gram(-), Encapsulated, non-motile, Coccobacillus, and causes Pink Eye
Haemophilus Influenza
Capable of entering uncompromised corneal epithelium
Haemophilus Influenza
Gram(-), Aerobic, Diplobacillus that can lead to conjunctivitis and Periphery corneal ulcer
Moraxella Lacunata
Moraxella Lacunata
ulcer
Transmission is associated with immunosuppressed individuals, alcoholics, and disabled
Moraxella Lacunata
Moraxella Lacunata
disabled
Non-motile, Aerobic, Kidney-shaped, Gram(-), Diplococci which causes Hyperacute conjuctivitis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Conjuncitivitis
Can penetrate an intact cornea
Neissaria Gonorrhea
The reason silver nitrate is put on neonates after birth
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Culture on Thayer-Martin medium for diagnosis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Anaerobic, motile, helical, or coiled Gram(-) bacteria
Spirochetes
Responsible for Symphillus
Treponema Pallidum -Spirochete
Spirochete
Responsible for Lyme Disease
Borrella Burgdorferi -Spirochete
Spirochete
Treponema Pallidum - Primary
Characterized by small single, painless, red ulcer (10 days - 3 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Primary stage
Treponema Pallidum -
Characterized by skin rash, fever, sore throat, conjunctivitis, and hair loss (2-10 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Secondary stage
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary
Presents with neurological problems, optic atrophy, vascular problems, MR possible
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary stage
stage
Tests to diagnose Treponema Pallidum include
VDRL, FTA-ABS, Immunofluo exam for the flu
exam for the flu
Aerobic, Gram(+) bacteria that appear fungus-like form, Hyphae and Asexual
Actinomycetes
Slightly curved or straight aerobic rods that cause TB and Leprosy, Acid-fast
Mycobacteria
Pathogen invades the peripheral skin and nerve cells and becomes an obligate
intracellular parasite
Mycobacteria Leprae
Gram(-), non-motile, coccoid bacteria which in an obligate intracellular parasite
Chlamydia
Can grow and reproduce only within the host
Obligate intracellular parasite
Causes Trachoma and Adulte Inclusion conjunctivitis
Chlamydia
Stage1-maybe asymmetric, Stage2-Trachoma with folicles, Stage3-Trichasis, Entropion,
Conjuncitiva scarring, Stage4-Post-inflammatory, adult inclusion conjunctivitis, large
Stages of Chlamydia
opalescent follicles in fornacles
Procaryotes that are pleomorphic in shape and are smallest bacteria capable of
reproduction
Mycoplasma
Gram(-) Coccobacilli bacteria, Obligate intracellular parasite
Rickettsia
Causes Rocky mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia
Vectors for Rickettsia
Fleas, Ticks, Mites, and Lice
Lack of cell wall, susceptible to lysis by osmotic shock, most Facultative anaerobes
Mycoplasma
Lowest concentration of drug that prevents growth of a particular organism
Minimal Inhibitory concentration
Lowest drug concentration that kills the microorganism
Minimal lethal concentration
All living cells, viable spores, and viruses are destroyed or removed from habitat
Sterilization
Must be used to destroy endospores by heating at 121 degrees and 15 lbs of pressure
Autoclave
Blood agar
Bacteria
Sabauods
Fungi
Chocolate agar
H. Influenza, Gonorrhea
Parietal cells secrete
HCl
Whole cell intact, secretion through membrane
Mesocrine - pancreas, salivary
Separating off with cytoplasm, 1/2 of the cell is secreted and 1/2 of the cell stays
Apocrine - mammary, sweat
glands
Entire cell is secreted
Holocrine - testes, ovaries
Osteoclasts
Bone marrow
Ductless glands secreting into blood
Endocrine
Secretes into ducts
Exocrine
Cells stays intact, secretes by exoctosis
Merocrine
Communication of metabolites and ions
Nexus gap junctions
Most white blood cells are formed in
Agranular lymphocytes
Contains red blood cells and white blood cells
Red pulp
Tuncial media consists of
Smooth muscle and elastin
Lysosomes are activated by
A decrease in pH
Exocrine has 3 secreting glands
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
Chief cells secrete
Pepsinogen
Mucous cells secrete
Alkaline
Least likely mode of transmission of Treponema Pallidum?
Respiratory droplets
Which test is used to differentiate Staph Aureus from Staph Epidermis
Coagulase
Diencephalon comes from what embryonic structure?
Prosencephalon
Cell bodies for movement of hand are located where?
Ventral grey
What is part of the auditory system?
Inferior colliculus
CSF has a higher concentration than blood of what
Na+
Lesion in the brainstem at nucleus 6, if it keeps growing, what is effected first
CN 7
If you have a hemisection at t12 on the right side, what goes
Loss of pain and temperature
on OS
What is the biggest nucleus in the cerebellum
Dentate nucleus
You have loss of hearing on one side, where is the damage
Cochlear nucleus
Contains 2 superior and 2 inferior colliculi and cerebral punducles
Tectum - Midbrain
CN - IV has afferent connections to vestibular nuclei via
MLF
Red nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, Substantia Nigra, ML, LL, MLF, ST, ST
Level of Superior Colliculus - Midbrain
ON-OC-OT-Superior Colliculus synapse, Pretectal nucleus - Ipsilateral and
Ciliary - light reflex (PARA)
contralateral, EWN - Ciliary ganglion
constriction
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Superior division goes to
Levator and Superior rectus
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Inferior division goes to
MR, IR, IO
One of the most important sensory centers of the brain, derived from diencephalon
Thalamus
Medial and Lateral geniculate bodies can be found here
Dorsal Thalamus
Relay station for the visual pathway
Lateral Geniculate
Relay station for the auditory pathway
Medial Geniculate
Part of the brain derived from diencephalon
Thalamus, Hypothalamus
Regulation of body temperature, fat, water, carbohydrates, metabolism, sleep, sex drive,
Hypothalamus
& emotiona
Forms the floor of the 3rd ventricle
Hypothalamus
Forms the roof of the 3rd ventricle
Epithalamus
Contains the choroid plexus which produces cerebral spinal fluid
Epithalamus
Relay sensory info to cortical regions concerned with vision and auditory
Subthalamus
What part of the brain develops from the Diencephalon
Cerebum
Grey matter of the cerebrum - inner
Basal Ganglia
Separates Occiptal lobes
Calcarine Fissure
Separates the left and right brain hemispheres
Sagittal sulcus
Separates the front and back brain
Central sulcus
Doesn't have axons going directly to the spinal cord
Visual cortex
What coordinates oculomotor function
Medial Longitudinal Fasiculus
Longest tract is from the feet to medulla, what tract is this
Gracilius
Fasiculus Gracilius
Primary tract
Fasiculus Cuneatus
Primary nucleus
Neonatal cortex is made up of how many layers
2 layers
What nerve controls the diaphragm
Phrenic
The pyramids can be found in the
Medulla
The union of dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor) nerves
Spinal nerves
Ventral Primary Rami of Thoracic nerves go directly to the body and all others
Come together to form plexuses
Cuneatus and Gracilius belong in
Posterior Funiculus
Anterior and Posterior Sup. Cerebellar, Sup. Tectal, Lat, Spinothalamic, Lat.
Corticospinal, Sup. Rubrospinal
Lateral Funiculus
Ant. Sup. Thalamic, Ant. Corticospinal, Sup. Tectospinal, Vestibulospinal, and
Reticulospinal
Anterior Funiculus
Info regarding Touch, Temperature, and Pain - Terminates in the Thalamus
Spinothalamic
Info from skin, joints, tendons, regarding touch, pressure, and vibration
Cuneatus-upper limbs &
Gracilius-lower limbs
Subconscious proprioception, Appreciation of body position, Not crossed
Posterior Spinocerebellar
Conveys info about movement and position of entire limbs, Crossed/uncrossed
Anterios Spinocerebellar
Reflex, postural move of head, neck, & upper extremities due to visual stimulation
Tectospinal
Maintain posture and equilibrium by muscle tone, Not crossed
Vestibulospinal
Regulates motor activity related to posture, Most uncrossed/some crossed
Reticulospinal
Muscle tone and posture to spinal nerves that innervation skeletal muscles, crossed
Rubrospinal
Its job is to maintain visceral functions in the restful state
Parasympathetic system
Cranio-sacral system because nuclei are located in the brain, nuclues in cord
Parasympathetic system
Thoraco-lumbar system because nuclei imtermediolateralis originates in spinal cord
Sympathetic system
Function is to maintain autonomic functions in excited state
Sympathetic system
What neurotransmitter is pre & post-synaptic is Parasympathetic and pre-synaptic in
Acetylcholine
Sympathetic
Neurotransmitter of Post sympathetic fibers
Norepinephrine
High concentration in Substantia Nigra - Parkinson's
Dopamine
Neurotransmitter in brainstem
Serotonin
Inhibitory neurotransmitter
GABA
Part of myelencephalon, contains vital centers for BP, Respiratory, and Heart rate
Medulla
In the medulla, where 80% of pyramidal fibers cross
Level of Motor decussation
Above the level of motor decussation - Contains Nuclei Cuneatus and Gracilius
Level of Sensory decussation
Injury at the level of medial lemniscus causes what
Contralateral kinesthetic
Cranial nerves IX-XII originate here and have nuclei located here
Medulla
Is synaptically connected to
The vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) delivers messages regarding hearing and equilibrum
Midbrain and Pons
Vertigo, Ataxia, and Nystagmus may all result with a lesion of
Vestibular branch of CN VIII
Tinnitis is a common symptom of damage to the
Cochlear nerves of CN VIII
Form basis for conjugate eye
Vestibular connections to CN III, IV, and VI via vestibuloencephalic pathway
movements
Separates Medulla from Midbrain and is derived from Metencephalon
Pons
Gives off CN VI, VII, and V
Pons
Connections of CN VI include afferent fibers from vestibular nucleus via
MLF
Location of Medial and Lateral Lemniscus, Superior cerebellular peduncle
Mid Pons
Broken down into Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular
CN V - trigeminal
Innervates submandibular and sublingual glands
Salvatory nucleus - CN VII
Innervates the lacrimal glands
Lacrimal nucleus - CN VII
Receives taste info from anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Nucleus solitarius - CN VII
Derived from Mesencephalon, has a Tectum and Tegmentum
Midbrain
Precentral and Postcentral gyrus are
Anterior & Posterior to the
central sulcus
Runs parallel to corpus callosum
Cingulate sulcus
Area 4 of the Frontal Lobe contains
Motor area
Area 1-3 of the Parietal Lobe contains
General sensation
Area 17 of the Occiptal lobe
Visual area
White matter that connects cortical areas between two hemispheres
Corpus callosum
Ascending and descending fibers that lie between the Caudate and Lentiform nucleus
Internal Capsule
Connects the Lateral Geniculate nucles with the visual cortex
Optic Radiations
Part of the brain that contains 2 hemispheres and vermis that connets
Cerebellum
Equilibrium, balance, and eye
The vestibulocerebellulum - Flocculonodule lobe impacts what functions
movements
Involved in muscle tone,
Spinocerebellum - contains vermis & intermediate zone which
posture, and receives most
input from the spinal cord
Cerebrocerebellum - contains hemispheres and receives most its info from
Cerebral cortex
Coordinate voluntary motor
Cerebrocerebellum's main function is
activity
Inferior cerebellular peduncle carries info to and from
Meduall and Spinal cord
Middle cerebellular peduncle carries info from
Pons
Superior cerebellular peduncle carries infrom from the Dentate nucleus to
Midbrain
Fine coordination of muscle
Main functions of cerebellum are
movements, tone, balance,
equilibrium
What system deals with transmission of Tactile Proprioceptive, Temperature, and Pain
Somatosensory system
Tactile receptors that respond to touch are called
Pacianian corpuscles
The position of the body's limbs is detected by
Proprioceptors
Sensory receptors that respond to temperature are called
Thermal receptors
Info from the motor cortex transmitted to spinal cord and brain stem
Corticospinal and Corticobulbar
response
As Corticospinal and Bulbar descend from the motor cortex, they form
Pyramidal tract
When pyramidal tract reaches the brain stem, most go to the spine, cross, and descend
Lateral Corticospinal
In addition to Lateral Corticospinal, a minority of fibers from motor cortex don't cross
Ventral Corticospinal - Medial
ventral horn
The Basal Ganglia receives input via its
Caudate nucleus and Putamen
The Basal Ganglia provides output vis its
Globus Pallidus
Major input to the Basal Ganglia is from
Neocortex then Thalamus and
Substantia Nigra
Major output of the Basal Ganglia is to
Prefrontal and Premotor Cortex
via the Thalamus
Actions of the ANS is considered to be
Subconscious
The adrenall medulla is considered to be a part of the
Sympathetic nervous system
Epinephrine and
The adrena medulla secretes which catacholamines
Norepinephrine
In the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic, all preganglionic neurons are considered to be
Cholinergic
Which muscle has nothing to do with the eyebrow?
Levator muscle
What has the shortest latency?
Pursuits
Which gives bilateral stellate cataracts?
Phenothiazines
Capillaries of choroid are similar to capillaries in the
Ciliary body
What is the higher concentration in blood than in aqeuous?
Protein
What gives the most resistance to the outflow of aqeuous?
Juxtancanalicular tissue
Which doesn't enter the orbit around Annulus of Zinn
Trochlear nerve
Which doesn't supply the optic nerve
Long Posterior Ciliary arteries
This produces layer of tears that is lipid
Meibomian glands
When corneal epithelium is damaged, what happens first
Migration
Posterior pigmented epithelium
Pupillary frill is formed by
rolling around edge of the iris
What is in the anterior border layer of the iris
Fibroblasts and Melanocytes
What doesn't come from surface ectoderm
Corneal stroma
Cells in a straight line down the cortex respond to what
Line orientation
What has the most blood in the eye
Choroid
Damage to CN7 causes what NOT to happen
Closure of the eye
When the eye is abducted, what is the action of the superior oblique?
Intorsion
Patient's retina and the
Doing retinoscopy and you have neutrality, what is conjugate?
retinoscope (examiner's pupil)
Isopter of a 65 year old compared to a 20 year old is
Smaller
Lens of infant compared to the lens of a 20 year old
Transmits more UV and blue
light
Where does the inferior oblique attach to the orbital wall
Anterior medial
What nerve innervates the lower eyelid
Infraorbital nerve
Antiangiogenesis factor in vitreous is
Hyaluronic acid
62
The direction of the jerk nystagmus is determined by
Fast phase
What is the best VA of a rod monochromate in optimal conditions
20/100
Which does NOT develop from surface ectoderm
Corneal Endothelium
Mueller cells do NOT produce the internal limiting membrane for what part
Optic Nerve Head
Where does the aqueous drain after leaving the Canal of Schlemm
External Collecting channels
Reason for use of cyclopentolate over atropine
Shorter duration of action
Tetracylcine causes what
Epiphoria
The majority of this structure's energy comes from anaerobic glycolysis
Crystalline lens
Eye movement occurring most during reading
Saccades
The layer of tears closest to the cornea are produced by
Goblet cells
Lean head forward, what is the compensatory movement of eyes
Eyes move upward
Volume of the Anterior Chamber is
0.25mL
Light adaptation to photoreceptors
Ca+
What does the atrophy of the Hyaloid artery determine
Size of the optic cup
Not enough oxygen of the lens, so it goes through what pathway
Glycolysis
Edmea of the lid is found in what layer
Subcutaneous layer
Pupillary ruff is due to
Posterior pigmented epithelium
Which layer of the cornea is formed from the surface ectoderm
Epithelium
The light reflex doesn't go to which structure
Laterl geniculate
Telencephalon develops into what
Visual cortex
Superior collliculus derivative
Mesencephalon
UVB is mostly absorbed by
Cornea
Lesion in the Sphenopalentine ganglia would
Stop tear production
Blood Retinal barriers
Tight junctions of RPE and CRA
What anomaly presents with anhydrosis, miosis, and ptosis
Horner's syndrome
Goblet cells produce which layer of the tear film
Mucin layer
The purpose of the lipid layer of tears is to
Reduce evaporation
Most common birth defect with the lacrminal system is
Plugged valve of Hasner
The only cell in the retina to under go Action potentials
Ganglion
Long Posterior and Anterior
The major cirlce of the iris is made up of
Ciliary arteries
Hyperemia of the front part of the eye is due to
Anterior conjunctival artery
Divides superior and inferior parts of the retina
Long posterior Ciliary nerves
Which is NOT found in the macula
Mueller cells
The Patellar fossa can be found in the
Anterior vitreous
The sclera is found to be thinnest where
Behind the insertions of EOM's
The strongest attachment of the vitreous
Vitreous base
Cornea can be found to be thinnest
Central - 0.5mm and Periphery
- 0.65mm
Longest, thinnest, and furtherest insertion is
Superior Oblique
Strongest Rectus
Medial Rectus
Weakest Rectus
Lateral Rectus
Longest Rectus
Superior Rectus
Shortest Rectus
Inferior Rectus
What can be found in the Cavernous sinus
CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, ICA
A lesion of the cavernous sinus will cause
Anesthesize the cornea
If you cover an eye (patch), what happens to the lateral geniculate
Cells get smaller
Contained in the inner neuroblastic layer
Ganglion, Amacrine, and Mueller cells
Contained in the outer neuroblastic layer
Rods, Cones, Bipolar, and Horizontal
During an ERG, the A wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Photoreceptors
During an ERG, the B wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Mueller cells
Durina an ERG, the C wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Subretinal space and RPE
Lumi-rhodopsin to Meta-
During an ERG, the R1 wave is consistent with what
rhodopsin-1
Meta-rhodopsin-1 to Meta-
During an ERG, the R2 wave is consistent with what
rhodopsin-2
Moll, Zeis, and Meibomian
Tear layer made of oil due to
glands
Krause, Wolfring, and Lacrimal
Tear layer made of aqueous is due to
glands
Newborns' optic cup size is due to
Atrophy of Bergmeister's
papillae
Most blood in the eye is found where
Venous system
Most damaging UV light is
UVB
Ganglion cells project
Layer 4 of Lateral geniculate
Eye is down and out when
Damage to CN III
Ipsilateral MR, IR, IO, and contralateral SR is innervated by
CN III
VEP is performed on the
Central retina
What part of the eye secretes Aqueous and Hyaluronic acid
Pars Planta Non-pigmented
Epithelium
Macula Adherens is
Desmosomes
Basal surface binding epithelial cells to basement membrane
Hemidesmosomes
Short ciliary nerves
The ciliary body is innervated by
(Parasympathetic)
Which does NOT have autoregulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
Choroid
Which does NOT have autonomic regulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
Retina
CN III (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathway
CN II (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathwayfor what reflex?
Menace Reflex
CN V to Pons to CN VII (blink) is the pathway for what reflex
Corneal Reflex
If forcefully closed, the eye looks up and out in what
Bell's Phenomenon
Posterior chamber volume
0.06 mL
Iris sphincter is innervated by
Parasympathetics - short ciliary
Iris dilator is innvervated by
Sympathetics - long ciliary
When you remove a contact lens, you have a decrease in
Lactic acid
Greates difference between two eyes in the accommodative state
0.5 D
EOM insertion is furthest and closest respectively for which EOM's
SO and MR
The eyes becoming more myopic at night can be defined as
Purkinje shift
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 200-290nm
Cornea
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 290-365nm
Lens
Wavelengths that cause cataracts
295-320nm
Wavelengths greater than 365nm are absorbed by
Retina
pH of the eye when open / closed is
7.45 / 7.20
Light absorbing pigment - Opsin and derivation of Vitamin A retinal complex
Rhodopsin
Refers to the vacularized vitreous - hyaloid system
Primary vitreous
Refers to the vitreous proper
Secondary vireous
Refers to lens zonules
Tertiary vitreous
Type of collagen found in the cornal stroma
Type 1
Type of collagen found in the basement membrane
Type 7
Type of collagen found in the lens
Type 4
Type of collagen found in the Descemet's membrane
Type 4 and 8
Superior vortex veins drain into
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
Superior Ophthalmic vein drains into
Cavernous sinus
Inferior vortex veins drain into
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid
Inferior Ophthalmic veins drains into
Plexus
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid plexus is connected by
Emissary veins
Inferior and Superior Petrosal
Cavernous sinus drains into
Sinuses
Connects Superior and Inferior Ophthalmic veins
Angular Facial vein
Drains to cavernous sinus directly and through the superior ophthalmic vein
Central retinal vein
Telescope with 5mm ocular lens and 35mm objective lens, has what magnification?
7X
Panum's fusional area is larger where
In the Periphery
If someone has a strict criteria in their responses, it will lead to
More misses
To be sure that your patient doesn't light adapt, use
Ascending trials
Anti-reflective coating index equals
Square root of index (n)
Fog lights are yellow and therefor absorb more
Blue light
A yellow light in your eyes makes white look more
Blue
What most helps depth perception miles away
Overlay
Most resistant material the drop ball test
Polycarbonate
After image is larger where
In the distance
Ghost images appear from
AR coatings
Add power x (Distance of OC to
Jump is calculated by
top of add)
Seg height is measured from the bottom of the frame to
Edge of lower lid
Pupil size is less than 2.5mm and defines blur
Diffraction
Difference in image sizes can be defined by
Anisekonia
What happens beyond Panum's Fusional area
Diplopia
Difference between object and surroundings can be defined as
Contrast
Power of IOL is calculated by
Corneal power and axial length
The change in Hue associated with change in Purity
Abney effect
The change in Hue associated with change in Luminance
Benzold Brucke effect
The change in Saturation associated with change in Luminance
Purdy effect
Mixed additivity Red and Blue is Magenta, which is complement to
Green
Mixed additivity Blue and Green is Cyan, which is complement to
Red
Mixed additivity Green and Red is Yellow, which is complement to
Blue
Three primary colors in appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Normal Trichromacy
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Red in color match is
Protanomaly
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Green in color match is
Deuteranomaly
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Blue in color match is
Tritanomaly
Two primary colors in any appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Dichromatism
Decreased photopic, Inability to differentiate Reds, Browns, Olives and Golds
Protanopia
Near normal photopic, confused with red, orange, yellow, blue, and purple
Deuteranopia
Normal photopic, confused with pastel blue and pastel green
Tritanopia
All portions of visible spectrum are seen as grays
Monochromatism
Brightest to dimmest Purkinje image order
1 > 3 > 4 > 2
Largest to smallest Purkinje image order
3 > 1 > 2 > 4
Anterior to Posterior Purkinje image order
2 > 1 > 4 > 3
Which Purkinje image is real and inverted
4
Which Purkinje images are virtual and erect
1,2,3
What is this order for: Gamma < X-rays < UV < Visual < IR < Radio < Microwave
Increasing wavelength
Visible light spectrum is what
430 to 750nm
The muscle doing predominant moving of right eye to the right (same direction - RLR) is
Agonist
The muscle that moves the eye in the left (opposite direction - RMR) is
Antagonist
RSR and RIO both move the right eye up and can be considered
Homolateral Synergists
Yoked muscles or Contralateral
RSO and LIR or RLR and LMR can be considered
Synergists
Strabismus in which the angle of deviation is within 5pd in all positions of gaze is
Comitant strabismus
Info about direction, comitacy, magnitude, and accommodation is found on
Alternating cover test
Info about type of deviation, frequency, eye laterality, but NOT magnitude is found
Cover-Uncover test
Takes angle lambda into account (1mm = 22pd)
Hirschberg reflex
Visual field sizes 100, 75, 60, 60 correspond to
Temporal, Inferior, Superior,
Nasal
Image size of aphake corrected with spectacles compared to contacts
Larger image
How is the image size of axial hyperope OD compared to refractive myopia OS
corrected with spectacles OU and axial lengths are equal
Larger image OD
Critical angle of air surface interface is 33.7 degrees. What is the index of refraction?
1.8
Is velocity of light faster in air or water
Air
Light is reflected by plane mirror. Mirror is moved by 15 degrees, what happens to the
Moves by 30 degrees
reflected light?
Which lens is exempt from the drop ball test?
Fused bifocal
Frame has dimesions of 50/22. Patient has monocular PD of 30mm OD and 36mm OS.
What is the total inset, if the add inset is 3mm)
9mm OD
Locus of points equidistant from observer forms what
Nonius horopter
Corneal Stroma origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Endothlium origin
Neural Crest
Cornea Descemet's Membrane origin
Neural Crest
Sclera 95% originates from
Neural Crest
Melanocytes originate from
Neural Crest
Meninges origin
Neural Crest
Ciliary body stroma origin
Neural Crest
Orbital Septum origin
Neural Crest
Connective tissue originates from
Neural Crest
Ciliary muscle origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Epithelium orginates from
Surface Ectoderm
The lens originates from
Surface Ectoderm
All glands originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Lid skin origin
Surface Ectoderm
Cilia originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Conjunctiva origin
Surface Ectoderm
Retinal Pigemented Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Sensory Retina origin
Neural Ectoderm
Smooth muscle (Iris sphincter and dilator) origin
Neural Ectoderm
Iris Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Lens Zonules origin
Neural Ectoderm
Muscles originate from
Mesoderm
Blood supply originate from
Mesoderm
Most common type of necrosis, usually found in the heart and kidney
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis with loss of nucleus, but cell shape is perserved
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis characteristic of ischemic destruction of brain tissue
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis common in bacterial lesions
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis seen in adipose tissue due to action of lipase
Fat Necrosis
Chessy Necrosis - combination of Liquefaction and Coagulative
Caseous Necrosis
Necrosis found mainly in the center of Tuberculosis infections
Caseous Necrosis
Portion of the body that has loss its blood supply (Liquefaction and Coagulative)
Gangrenous Necrosis
In genetics, the coding description AaBb is called the
Genotype
In genetics, the description of blue eyes is called
Phenotype
Leading causes of cancer deaths in males are
1.Lung 2.Prostate 3. Colon
Leading causes of cancer deaths in females are
1.Lung 2.Breast 3. Colon
Leading sites of cancer in males
1.Prostate 2.Lung 3.Colon
Leading sites of cancer in females
1.Breast 2.Colon 3.Lung
Most cancer mortality age
55-75 years
Disorderly proliferation of cells, lose of uniformity and orientation
Dysplasia
Gene most commonly mutated in human cancers
Anti-oncogenes (tumor
suppressors)
Cell division which occurs in the cell body, maintains 46 chromosomes
Mitosis
Gamete formation reduces the number of chromosomes to 23
Meiosis
Characteristic cell of a granuloma is a modified macrophage called
Epitheloid cell
Formed by the coalescence and fusion of macrophages
Giant cells or Langerhans
Which is an example of Type 1 reaction>
Bronchial asthma
Toxoplasmosis Gondii primarily affects what age group
Fetus
Tuberculosis is an example of
Caseous Necrosis
Adaptive change of epithelium from simple cuboidal to simple columnar is called
Metaplasia
Lack of Vitamin C causes Scruvy because
Proline can't be hydroxylated
Primary infection of Varicella-Zoster in an adult is
Shingles
Retinal damage are treated with
Cephalosporins
Increases tear production
Digitoxin
Side effects of this type of drug are weight gain, mood swings, but NOT diuresis
Steroids
Acetazolamide is
CAI
Most ineffective drug for diuresis
Mannitol
Irreversible indirect parasympathetic
Echothiophate
Used in acute ventricular arrithymia
Lidocaine
Beta-1 specific drugs were made to
Decrease systemic side effects
What do you treat pseudomonas aeruginosa with
Ciproflaxin
What causes Bulls eye retinopathy
Chloroquine
What drug lowers cholesterol
Lovestatin
What is most likely to be sensitive to the eye
Neomycin
Which drug doesn't induce bronchiospasm
Epinephrine
Which glaucoma med comes in a gel form
Pilocarpine
NSAID's inhibit
Arachondonic acid
Which drug causes transient myopic shifts
Pilocarpine
Catopril is a
ACE Inhibitor
Most potent diuretic is
Furosimide
Only penicillin that is not Beta-lactamase sensitive
Nafacillin
Antifungal most widely used for systemic conditions
Ampecterin B
Constant amount of alcohol being eliminated
Zero order kinetics
Betaxolol is
Beta-1 specific
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
Cephalosporins
Carbechol is longer lasting than
Pilocarpine
What causes color changes in the retina
Chloroquine
Antiviral drugs have what negative effect when used topically
Tend to destroy the epithelium
What prevents white blood cells from reaching the site of injury
Glucocorticoids
Decrease side effects,
Beta-1 specific drugs
especially Asthma
Drug to be used with Epilepsy
Phenytoin
Locks Beta-1, Beta-2, Renin, and decreases cardiac output
Propranolol
Half life of Digoxin and Digitoxin
36 hours / 5-7 days
Inhibits the enzyme that activates Angiotensin-1 to Angiotensin-2
Captopril
Most effective type of diuretic
Loop
Aldosterone antagonist
Spirolactone
Direct anti-kaluretic
Triampterine
Histamin does what to the vascular system
Vasodilation
Decreased accommodation is a side effect of
NSAID's
Inhibits the release of histamine
Cromolyn Na+
Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxocity
Aminoglycosides
Drug used for Herpes Simplex Virus
Idoxuridine
Name two K+ sparing diuretics
Spirolactone and Triampterine
Reversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Salicylic acid
Irrversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Ibuprofen
Effects alpha receptors more
How does Norepinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
than beta receptors
Effects alpha and beta
How does Epinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
receptors equally
Acetylcholine activates two different types of receptors
Muscarinic and Nicotinic
Detoxification of drugs, toxins, etc. are carried out by
Liver
Inhibit T cell function
What is the mode of action of Cephaloporine
(Immunospressive drug)
Cortisol does what to glucose blood levels
Raises glucose levels
Cigarette smoking reverses the effect of which drug
Theophylline
Which drug interferes with DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolones
This drug is a pyrimidine antimetabolite that interferes with DNA
Trifluorothymidine (Trifluridine)
This blocks cyclooxygenase and has an anti-inflammatory property
Aspirin
This drug's major ocular side effect is miosis
Morphine
Major ocular side effect of Digoxin
Color vision changes
Which has the most effect on K+ (Hypokalemia)?
Dihydrochlorothiazide
What is the TI for TD50=2500mg and ED50=50mg
50
Which administration of drug is most variable in means of absorption
Oral
This drug blocks reuptake of Norepinephrine
Cocaine