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1141 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What occurs at the rough endoplasmic reticulum
Protein systhesis
What packages material into membrane bound vesicles
Most digestion and absorption in
Small intestine
In the small intestine, what part digests the most
In the small intestine, what part absorbs the most
Jejunum and Ileum
Consist of the protein actin and interacts with myosin
Protein fibers that have a load bearing function i.e. Keratin
Intermediate filament
Most conspicuous cytoskeleton component, composed of protein tubulin
An amino acid is distinguished by what side chain
The AA sequence of its polypepitide chain is the result in a
Primary Polypeptide Structure
The Secondary structure of protein organization includes
Alpha-helix & Beta-Pleated sheet
The Tertiary structure of protein organization includes
Folded Alpha-Helix & Beta-Pleated sheet (3-D) Spatial arrange of protein
The Quaternary structure of protein organization includes
Protein classes determined by being soluble or insoluble
Globular & Fiberous respectivity
Proteins produced by B-lymphocytes. Which mature in the bone marrow?
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
Which Ig is found predominantly in intestinal tract, saliva, sweat, & tears
Which Ig is present in the blood in very small amounts whose function is unknown
Which Ig is present in the blood in minute amounts & implicated in allergic reaction
What is the most common Ig, equally disturbed between the blood & interstital fluid
What is the only Ig to cross the placenta
Most effective Ig when it comes to invading organisms
The first Ig to be secreted in response to an antigen
2 identical heavy & light chains of an antibody are held together by
Disulfide bonds & noncovalent interactions
2 identical Fab fragments of Ab form the
1 Fc region of the Ab forms the
Ig that can exist as a monomer, dimer or trimer
Major strees bearing component of connective tissue i.e. bone, teeth, tendon
Defects in covalently cross linked collagen is responsible for disease such as
Ehlers danlos, Marfans, Osteogen-Impediment
Competes directly with a substrate for an enzymatic binding site
Competitive Inhibitor
Binds directly to the enzyme-substrate complex but not the free enzyme
Uncompetitive Inhibitor
Enzyme that destroys bacterial walls by hydrolyzing links of NAM & NAG
Rxn that requires work/energy
Rxn that produces work/energy
ATP is an energy rich nucleotide because its triphosphate unit contains what
2 phosphoanhydride bonds
Reduced form of NAD and FAD
A set of reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate
It is the prelude to the TCA and all rxn's in the Cytosol
Formation of 2 pyruvate molecules from 1 glucose molecule produces
2 ATP's
Net products from glycolysis are
2 ATP, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH
What molecule enters the TCA
Acetyl CoA
One turn of the TCA yields (multiple by 2 for complete cycle)
3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2, 1 ATP
Converts pyruvate to glucose in the liver
When breaking down fat for energy shortage of oxaloacetate for Acetyl CoA
Extra Acetyl CoA leads to Ketone body
Precursor to all steroid hormones
Bonds that hold together Guanine & Cytosine
3 H-bonds
Bonds that hold together Adenine & Thymine
2 H-bonds
Cytosine, Uracil & Thymine are
Adensine, Guanine & Uric acid are
The coding region of DNA is called
The coding region that is cut from the original genome
Double stranded DNA, Equal mass of Histones & a small amount of RNA
All contained in Chromatin
DNA is supercoiled in a left handed helix over the structure of a histone
In nucleosomes (subunit of chromatin)
In RNA, which pyrimadine replaces DNA's thymine
DNA & RNA exist as what type of helical molecules
Double & Single stranded respectivity
Enzyme responsible for sealing up Okazaki fragments into newly formed DNA
Enzyme responsible for unzipping 2 stranded DNA so that replication can begin
Group of hormones that require secondary messengers to produce changes
Group II hormones
Capable of causing cancer
Involves the change in structure of an oncogene but not necessarily the amount
Single-point mutation
Ig's differ from each other by
Size, charge, AA component & Carb. Content
Digested food moelcules absorbed into bloodstream from intestines pass
Directly to the liver by hepatic portal vein
Fuel is abundant fatty acids that are synthesized, esterified, & sent from the liver to
Adipose tissue in the form of LDL
Building blocks for proetins, precursors for hormones, & oxidation of carbohydrate skeleton
Amino acids
Number one protein priority in the body
Major source of biological energy
Nourishes the brain, nervous system, & fuel for energy
Simple sugars that have no nutrional value on their own
Simple Carbohdrates
Found in grains, legumes, fruits & vegetables - excellent source of energy
Complex Carbohydrates
How many types of Amino acids
23 or 20
which organ converts saturated fat into cholesterol
Organic micronutrients required only in milli or micro quantities
Beri-beri is neurological disorder cause by
Thiamine deficiency
Scurvy is caused by
Vitamin C deficiency
Fat soluble vitamins
Vitamin A,D,E
Vitamins that act as anti-oxidants
Vitamin A,C,E & Selenium
Inorganic micronutrients
Minerals - Ca, P, Mg, Iron, Zinc
pH=7 exponentially means
10 to the (-7)
Very acidic
Very basic
pKA=14 equals a pH of
Transplanting from one part of the body to another
Transplanting from one identical twin to another
Transplanting from genetically different individual to another of the same species
Blood type A can receive/donate to which types
A & O / A & AB
Blood type B can receive/donate to which types
B & O / B & AB
Blood type AB can receive/donate to which types
AB, A, B, & O / AB only
Blood type O can receive/donate to which types
O only / O, AB, A & B
If a molecule inhibits activity of an enzyme by binding to active site, it is
Competitive inhibitor
Rate limiting step in the production of cholesterol produces what?
ATP is what type of structure?
Protein coat of a virus
Enzyme in HIV virus that can convert RNA to DNA
Reverse transcriptase
The primary structure of a protein is
Amino acid sequence
The pentose shunt pathway produces
A protein being made from RNA is called
Increased concentratin of what ion in the extracellular space of the cell has the greatest effect on the membrane potential
Visual acuity at birth
Visual acuity at 6 months
Stereopsis begins to develop at
3-6 months
Contrast sensitivity peaks at
18-39 years
Accommodation is present at birth, but becomes useful at
4 months
Color vision is appreciate at
2 months
Refractive error at birth
+2.00 D
Refractive error at 1 year old
+1.00 D
Premature refractive error
-0.50 D
Pupillary light reation
1 month
Horizontal conjugate gaze
Vertical conjugate gaze
2 months
Ocular alignment
1 month
Fusional convergence
6 months
Baby pupillary light reflex
2 months
1 month
Baby walk
12-15 months
Baby sits up unsupported when
6-8 months
Full term baby had what refractive error
Less than or equal to +2.50
With increased age, there CSF loss in
High spatial frequencies
With increased age, astigmatism changes to
Against the rule
What is the easiest for a child to draw
What immunoglobulin passes the placenta
What immunoglobulin is a pentamer
What immunoglobulin is an atopic reactions
First cell to get a bacterial infection
Thymic cells become what
Helper T cells
Neutrophils, Monocytes, and Macrophages are all considered
Lysozyme breaks down
Gram Negative
Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivty reaction
Type IV
What determines the type of Ig
Heavy chain
Hypervariable region on both heavy and light chains
Lymphocytes, Macropahges, and Plasma cells are present in
Chronic Inflammation
Markers for T-cells
CD-4(60%) and CD-8(40%)
Natural Killer Cell Marker
Humoral immunity contains
T4-cells and MHC II
Cellular immunity contains
T8-cells and MHC I
HLA (major histocompatability antigen) is T-cell mediated and
Rejects transplants
Natural killer cells fight against
Most common antibody (75%) that crosses the placenta
Immunoglobulins in tears
IgA, IgG, IgE
Activator of primary immune system
Ig in allergic responses/histamine
There are 5 different classes of Ig which are differentiated by
Variability of H chains
The antigen binds to what part of the immunoglobulin
FAB portion
4 polypeptide chains (2 Heavy & 2 Light) held together by disulfide bonds is
Monocytes turn into
Huge Macrophages
Cells that have Fc receptor for Ab and destroy Ag is Ag-Ab complex is form
Natural Killer Cells (usually IgG)
Mast cells have surface receptors that will fit
Only immunoglobulins to activate complement
IgG3 and IgM
Most B cells will secrete
If B cells don't secrete antibodies, they become a subset called
Memory cells
Cells that have capacity for accelerated immune response upon 2nd exposure to an Antigen
Memory cells
Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
A macropahge must process and present foreign body on its cells surface to a Lymphocyte
For activation of T-cell in CMI
Histamine, Kinins, Complement, and Interferon are all part of this group
Secondary defense - Non-specific response
Speeds the release of other agents via vasodilation and capillary permeability
Attract phagocytes, vasodilates, and stimulates capillary permeability
20 Plasma proteins that speed phagocytosis and kill bacteria via lysis
Complement recognition site on a phagocyte
Blocks viral protein synthesis and viral entry
Secondary defense - Non-specific cellular includes
Phagocytes, Basophils, and NK cells
Engulf bacteria - 3 types Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Monocytes
Kills worm larvae
Attack cancer cells
NK cells
Phagocytes and bacteria lock together via C3b receptors
Neutrophils, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils and Lymphocytes are all considered
White Blood cells
Both red blood cells and white blood cells are produced here
Red bone marrow - Red pulp
Remains of phagocytes can be observed in the form of
Weakly phagocytic, attacks and kills paracytic worms
First cell to site of invasion and in large numbers
Grow into huge macrophages
Originates as sub-populations of certain lymphocytes, attack and kill cancer cells
Natural Killer cells
Attack and kill cells harboring viruses
Natural Killer cells
Only attack the body's own diseased cells
Natural Killer cells
Primary Lymphoid tissue
Thymus and Red Bone Marrow
Secondary Lymphoid tissue
Nodes, Tonsils, Adennoids, Spleen
Where lymphocytes develop and mature
Primary Lymph tissue
Where lymphocytes begin critical roles of defense
Secondary Lymph tissue
Differentiates in the thymus
Differentiates in the red bone marrow & fetal liver
In the inactive state, it's hard to tell what two cells apart
T-cell from B-cell
In the active state, it forms extensive endoplasmic reticulum
In the active state, it forms a large concentration of ribosomes
Make and secrete antibodies (humoral)
B-cells specifically Plasma cells
Direct attack against diseased body cells, cell-mediated response
Can activate B-cells and moderates & suppresses immune response
Branching ends of enzymes which bind to matching antigen
Variable region
Same for each antibody of a certain class
Constant region
Antigen-Antibody binding site
Fab portion
Phagocyte-Antibody binding site
Fc region on Ab-Fc receptor on Phagocyte
Transplant rejection is due to
MHC same as HLA
Acts as a badge for cells to identify them as self
Amoung the few cells that bear both MHC I and MHC II surface proteins
Cell mediated, cytotoxic T-cell
Humoral, Helper T-cells
Stimulate T-cell cloning and Activate B-cells
Helper T cells
Plasma cells and Memory B-cells come from
Messenger that stimulates cell proliferation and clones of T-cells
Identify, attacks, and kills infected cells bearing the antigen that brought its response
Arousal - Cytotoxic T-cell, other are Memory cells
Natural Killer cells can be activated via
This immunoglobulin has a secretory components and is secreted from the lacrimal gland
Antigen binds to which part of the immunoglobulin>
Variable region of heavy and light chains
What vitamin reduces the oxidation of membranes
Vitamin E
Hardest place to pick up precancerous cell growth
This cell kills virally infected cells
Natural Killer Cells
Immunoglobulin with the lowest concentration in blood
Proto-oncogenes are able to produce
Growth factors
Corresponding muscles of each eye receive equal innervation
Hering's Law of Equal innervation
Whenever an agonist receives inner to contract, antagonist receives equivalent to relax
Sherrington's Law of Reciprocal innervation
For times less than critical duration (100ms), Change in Luminance x t = Constant
Bloch's Law
Absolute intensity of both test and background are unimportant as long as constant
Weber's Law
Large stimulus is more easily seen than a small one
Spatial summation
A static stimulus presented for 20ms is more easily seen than one present for 10ms
Temporal summation
Antibiotic susceptibility testing is done to
Test for resistance of bacteria
What stain is used for Mycobacteria
Acid fast
Fungi produce what in their body
Hyphae and Spores
DNA virus & double stranded
RNA retro-virus & single stranded
PPP substrate
DNA is held together by what type of bonds
Phosphodiester bonds
The TCA cycle takes place in
Mitochondrial matrix
Catalase, Superoxide Dismutase, Glutathione, and Vitamin E
Diagnosis for TB includes Tuberculin, Chest X-ray, and
Exam Sputum for acid fast bacteria
Nuclear membrane present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Golgi, ER, Lysosymes, and Peroxisomes present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Mitochondria present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
In Prokaryotic cell, what serves the same purpose as the Mitochondria in Eurkaryotes
Plasma membrane
Cell wall present
Prokaryotic cell
Algae, Protozoa, anf Fungi are
Bacteria are
Multiple chromosomes composed of nucleic acid
Eukaryotic cell
Single chromosome composed of nuclei acid
Prokaryotic cell
Substance that surrounds bacterial cells, its major function is adherence
Glycocalyx - Capsule or slime layer
Whip like appendages that propel bacteria
Amphitricious flagella
Single flagella at both ends of the cell
Has two or more flagella at one or both poles of the cell
Lopotrocious flagella
Flagella distributed over the entire cell body
Peritricious flagella
Spirochetes (i.e. Treponema Pallidum) are unique and move in this manner
Corkscrew motion - Axial filaments
Functions to adhere to surfaces and ionic bacterial cells prior to DNA transfer
Pili - helically arranged proteins (hairlike)
Main function is to protect the cell from rupturing when Osmotic pressure > Pressure inside cell
Cell wall
No cell wall
Macromolecular network called peptiodglycan (murein)
Cell wall
Layers of Peptidoglycan are considerably thicker in
Gram Positive
Cell walls contain Teichoic acid
Gram Positive
Stains dark violet or purple
Gram Positive
Ratio of RNA to DNA in Gram(+) and Gram(-)
8:1 in Gram(+) and 1:1 in Gram(-)
Suspectibility to pencillin and sulfonamides
Gram Positive
Stains pink or red
Gram Negative
Cell wall distruption by lysozyme
Gram Positive
Degree of pathogencitiy
Increases virulance by impairing phagocytosis
Heat and Acid resistant protein
M-protein can be found in
Streptococcus pyogens
Have the ability to destroy neutrophils
Cause the lysis of red blood cells
Clot the fibrinogen in the blood
Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of most gram(-) bacteria
Endotoxins (lipopolysacharides)
Proteins secreted by the cell
Exotoxins (protein)
Bacterial reporoduction
Tranverse fission
I - Cell elongates, C - Bacterial chromosomes replicate, D - Plasma membrane pinches
Cell wall thickens = Bacterial life cycle
Cells metabolically active, little or no cell division
Lag Phase - Bacteria
Exponential growth phase, peak efficiency and activity
Log Phase
Drugs are most effective in this phase of growth
Log Phase
Number of deaths = Number of new cells
Stationary Phase
Dead cells outnumber new cells
Death Phase
O2 required, free O2 is final acceptor, Substrate-level, and Oxidative phosphorylation
Aerobic metabolis, creates how many ATP
38 ATP's (20X more than Anaerobic)
O2 not required, final acceptor is NO3 or SO4, Oxidative Phosphorylation only
ATP molecules are produced using anaerobic
Can grow with or without oxygen
Facultative anaerobe
Bacterial mechanism in which genetic material is transferred from one cell to another
Microbes that cause disease
Relationship between the normal flora of a healthy person and the person
One of the organisms is benefited and the other is unaffected
Both organisms benefit from the relationship
One organism benefits at the expense of the other organism
Normal flora of the skin
Staph epidermis and Aureus
Normal flora of the respiratory
S. Aureus, H. Influenza, N. Meningitis, Strep. Pneuomonie
Normal flora of the conjunctiva
S. Epidermis, S. Aureus, Diptheria
Normal flora of the urinary
S. Candida, Clostridium, Trichroma
Strep, Staph. Neisseria,
Normal flora of the mouth
Hemopholius Candida
Gram(+) Cocci found in grape-like clusters (very resistant to PCN)
Causes Toxic Shock, Fetal Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Keratitis, and Hordeolem
Staph Aureus
Spherical Non-motile gram(+) bacteria that grows in long chains
Most common species of Strep causing Strep throat
Strep Pyogenenes
Most common etiological agent in bacteria pneumonia, responsible more mortality
Strep. Pneumonia
Can lead to Scarlet and Rheumoid Fevers, Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia
Strep Throst (i.e. Pneumonia)
Gram(-), Motile, Aerobic Rod, generally opportunistic
Transmission usually occurs after foreign body removal
If untreated, severe necrosis of the cornea and perforation can occur in 48 hours
Gram(-), Encapsulated, non-motile, Coccobacillus, and causes Pink Eye
Haemophilus Influenza
Capable of entering uncompromised corneal epithelium
Haemophilus Influenza
Gram(-), Aerobic, Diplobacillus that can lead to conjunctivitis and Periphery corneal ulcer
Moraxella Lacunata
Moraxella Lacunata
Transmission is associated with immunosuppressed individuals, alcoholics, and disabled
Moraxella Lacunata
Moraxella Lacunata
Non-motile, Aerobic, Kidney-shaped, Gram(-), Diplococci which causes Hyperacute conjuctivitis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Can penetrate an intact cornea
Neissaria Gonorrhea
The reason silver nitrate is put on neonates after birth
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Culture on Thayer-Martin medium for diagnosis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Anaerobic, motile, helical, or coiled Gram(-) bacteria
Responsible for Symphillus
Treponema Pallidum -Spirochete
Responsible for Lyme Disease
Borrella Burgdorferi -Spirochete
Treponema Pallidum - Primary
Characterized by small single, painless, red ulcer (10 days - 3 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Primary stage
Treponema Pallidum -
Characterized by skin rash, fever, sore throat, conjunctivitis, and hair loss (2-10 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Secondary stage
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary
Presents with neurological problems, optic atrophy, vascular problems, MR possible
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary stage
Tests to diagnose Treponema Pallidum include
VDRL, FTA-ABS, Immunofluo exam for the flu
exam for the flu
Aerobic, Gram(+) bacteria that appear fungus-like form, Hyphae and Asexual
Slightly curved or straight aerobic rods that cause TB and Leprosy, Acid-fast
Pathogen invades the peripheral skin and nerve cells and becomes an obligate
intracellular parasite
Mycobacteria Leprae
Gram(-), non-motile, coccoid bacteria which in an obligate intracellular parasite
Can grow and reproduce only within the host
Obligate intracellular parasite
Causes Trachoma and Adulte Inclusion conjunctivitis
Stage1-maybe asymmetric, Stage2-Trachoma with folicles, Stage3-Trichasis, Entropion,
Conjuncitiva scarring, Stage4-Post-inflammatory, adult inclusion conjunctivitis, large
Stages of Chlamydia
opalescent follicles in fornacles
Procaryotes that are pleomorphic in shape and are smallest bacteria capable of
Gram(-) Coccobacilli bacteria, Obligate intracellular parasite
Causes Rocky mountain spotted fever
Vectors for Rickettsia
Fleas, Ticks, Mites, and Lice
Lack of cell wall, susceptible to lysis by osmotic shock, most Facultative anaerobes
Lowest concentration of drug that prevents growth of a particular organism
Minimal Inhibitory concentration
Lowest drug concentration that kills the microorganism
Minimal lethal concentration
All living cells, viable spores, and viruses are destroyed or removed from habitat
Must be used to destroy endospores by heating at 121 degrees and 15 lbs of pressure
Blood agar
Chocolate agar
H. Influenza, Gonorrhea
Parietal cells secrete
Whole cell intact, secretion through membrane
Mesocrine - pancreas, salivary
Separating off with cytoplasm, 1/2 of the cell is secreted and 1/2 of the cell stays
Apocrine - mammary, sweat
Entire cell is secreted
Holocrine - testes, ovaries
Bone marrow
Ductless glands secreting into blood
Secretes into ducts
Cells stays intact, secretes by exoctosis
Communication of metabolites and ions
Nexus gap junctions
Most white blood cells are formed in
Agranular lymphocytes
Contains red blood cells and white blood cells
Red pulp
Tuncial media consists of
Smooth muscle and elastin
Lysosomes are activated by
A decrease in pH
Exocrine has 3 secreting glands
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
Chief cells secrete
Mucous cells secrete
Least likely mode of transmission of Treponema Pallidum?
Respiratory droplets
Which test is used to differentiate Staph Aureus from Staph Epidermis
Diencephalon comes from what embryonic structure?
Cell bodies for movement of hand are located where?
Ventral grey
What is part of the auditory system?
Inferior colliculus
CSF has a higher concentration than blood of what
Lesion in the brainstem at nucleus 6, if it keeps growing, what is effected first
CN 7
If you have a hemisection at t12 on the right side, what goes
Loss of pain and temperature
on OS
What is the biggest nucleus in the cerebellum
Dentate nucleus
You have loss of hearing on one side, where is the damage
Cochlear nucleus
Contains 2 superior and 2 inferior colliculi and cerebral punducles
Tectum - Midbrain
CN - IV has afferent connections to vestibular nuclei via
Red nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, Substantia Nigra, ML, LL, MLF, ST, ST
Level of Superior Colliculus - Midbrain
ON-OC-OT-Superior Colliculus synapse, Pretectal nucleus - Ipsilateral and
Ciliary - light reflex (PARA)
contralateral, EWN - Ciliary ganglion
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Superior division goes to
Levator and Superior rectus
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Inferior division goes to
One of the most important sensory centers of the brain, derived from diencephalon
Medial and Lateral geniculate bodies can be found here
Dorsal Thalamus
Relay station for the visual pathway
Lateral Geniculate
Relay station for the auditory pathway
Medial Geniculate
Part of the brain derived from diencephalon
Thalamus, Hypothalamus
Regulation of body temperature, fat, water, carbohydrates, metabolism, sleep, sex drive,
& emotiona
Forms the floor of the 3rd ventricle
Forms the roof of the 3rd ventricle
Contains the choroid plexus which produces cerebral spinal fluid
Relay sensory info to cortical regions concerned with vision and auditory
What part of the brain develops from the Diencephalon
Grey matter of the cerebrum - inner
Basal Ganglia
Separates Occiptal lobes
Calcarine Fissure
Separates the left and right brain hemispheres
Sagittal sulcus
Separates the front and back brain
Central sulcus
Doesn't have axons going directly to the spinal cord
Visual cortex
What coordinates oculomotor function
Medial Longitudinal Fasiculus
Longest tract is from the feet to medulla, what tract is this
Fasiculus Gracilius
Primary tract
Fasiculus Cuneatus
Primary nucleus
Neonatal cortex is made up of how many layers
2 layers
What nerve controls the diaphragm
The pyramids can be found in the
The union of dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor) nerves
Spinal nerves
Ventral Primary Rami of Thoracic nerves go directly to the body and all others
Come together to form plexuses
Cuneatus and Gracilius belong in
Posterior Funiculus
Anterior and Posterior Sup. Cerebellar, Sup. Tectal, Lat, Spinothalamic, Lat.
Corticospinal, Sup. Rubrospinal
Lateral Funiculus
Ant. Sup. Thalamic, Ant. Corticospinal, Sup. Tectospinal, Vestibulospinal, and
Anterior Funiculus
Info regarding Touch, Temperature, and Pain - Terminates in the Thalamus
Info from skin, joints, tendons, regarding touch, pressure, and vibration
Cuneatus-upper limbs &
Gracilius-lower limbs
Subconscious proprioception, Appreciation of body position, Not crossed
Posterior Spinocerebellar
Conveys info about movement and position of entire limbs, Crossed/uncrossed
Anterios Spinocerebellar
Reflex, postural move of head, neck, & upper extremities due to visual stimulation
Maintain posture and equilibrium by muscle tone, Not crossed
Regulates motor activity related to posture, Most uncrossed/some crossed
Muscle tone and posture to spinal nerves that innervation skeletal muscles, crossed
Its job is to maintain visceral functions in the restful state
Parasympathetic system
Cranio-sacral system because nuclei are located in the brain, nuclues in cord
Parasympathetic system
Thoraco-lumbar system because nuclei imtermediolateralis originates in spinal cord
Sympathetic system
Function is to maintain autonomic functions in excited state
Sympathetic system
What neurotransmitter is pre & post-synaptic is Parasympathetic and pre-synaptic in
Neurotransmitter of Post sympathetic fibers
High concentration in Substantia Nigra - Parkinson's
Neurotransmitter in brainstem
Inhibitory neurotransmitter
Part of myelencephalon, contains vital centers for BP, Respiratory, and Heart rate
In the medulla, where 80% of pyramidal fibers cross
Level of Motor decussation
Above the level of motor decussation - Contains Nuclei Cuneatus and Gracilius
Level of Sensory decussation
Injury at the level of medial lemniscus causes what
Contralateral kinesthetic
Cranial nerves IX-XII originate here and have nuclei located here
Is synaptically connected to
The vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) delivers messages regarding hearing and equilibrum
Midbrain and Pons
Vertigo, Ataxia, and Nystagmus may all result with a lesion of
Vestibular branch of CN VIII
Tinnitis is a common symptom of damage to the
Cochlear nerves of CN VIII
Form basis for conjugate eye
Vestibular connections to CN III, IV, and VI via vestibuloencephalic pathway
Separates Medulla from Midbrain and is derived from Metencephalon
Gives off CN VI, VII, and V
Connections of CN VI include afferent fibers from vestibular nucleus via
Location of Medial and Lateral Lemniscus, Superior cerebellular peduncle
Mid Pons
Broken down into Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular
CN V - trigeminal
Innervates submandibular and sublingual glands
Salvatory nucleus - CN VII
Innervates the lacrimal glands
Lacrimal nucleus - CN VII
Receives taste info from anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Nucleus solitarius - CN VII
Derived from Mesencephalon, has a Tectum and Tegmentum
Precentral and Postcentral gyrus are
Anterior & Posterior to the
central sulcus
Runs parallel to corpus callosum
Cingulate sulcus
Area 4 of the Frontal Lobe contains
Motor area
Area 1-3 of the Parietal Lobe contains
General sensation
Area 17 of the Occiptal lobe
Visual area
White matter that connects cortical areas between two hemispheres
Corpus callosum
Ascending and descending fibers that lie between the Caudate and Lentiform nucleus
Internal Capsule
Connects the Lateral Geniculate nucles with the visual cortex
Optic Radiations
Part of the brain that contains 2 hemispheres and vermis that connets
Equilibrium, balance, and eye
The vestibulocerebellulum - Flocculonodule lobe impacts what functions
Involved in muscle tone,
Spinocerebellum - contains vermis & intermediate zone which
posture, and receives most
input from the spinal cord
Cerebrocerebellum - contains hemispheres and receives most its info from
Cerebral cortex
Coordinate voluntary motor
Cerebrocerebellum's main function is
Inferior cerebellular peduncle carries info to and from
Meduall and Spinal cord
Middle cerebellular peduncle carries info from
Superior cerebellular peduncle carries infrom from the Dentate nucleus to
Fine coordination of muscle
Main functions of cerebellum are
movements, tone, balance,
What system deals with transmission of Tactile Proprioceptive, Temperature, and Pain
Somatosensory system
Tactile receptors that respond to touch are called
Pacianian corpuscles
The position of the body's limbs is detected by
Sensory receptors that respond to temperature are called
Thermal receptors
Info from the motor cortex transmitted to spinal cord and brain stem
Corticospinal and Corticobulbar
As Corticospinal and Bulbar descend from the motor cortex, they form
Pyramidal tract
When pyramidal tract reaches the brain stem, most go to the spine, cross, and descend
Lateral Corticospinal
In addition to Lateral Corticospinal, a minority of fibers from motor cortex don't cross
Ventral Corticospinal - Medial
ventral horn
The Basal Ganglia receives input via its
Caudate nucleus and Putamen
The Basal Ganglia provides output vis its
Globus Pallidus
Major input to the Basal Ganglia is from
Neocortex then Thalamus and
Substantia Nigra
Major output of the Basal Ganglia is to
Prefrontal and Premotor Cortex
via the Thalamus
Actions of the ANS is considered to be
The adrenall medulla is considered to be a part of the
Sympathetic nervous system
Epinephrine and
The adrena medulla secretes which catacholamines
In the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic, all preganglionic neurons are considered to be
Which muscle has nothing to do with the eyebrow?
Levator muscle
What has the shortest latency?
Which gives bilateral stellate cataracts?
Capillaries of choroid are similar to capillaries in the
Ciliary body
What is the higher concentration in blood than in aqeuous?
What gives the most resistance to the outflow of aqeuous?
Juxtancanalicular tissue
Which doesn't enter the orbit around Annulus of Zinn
Trochlear nerve
Which doesn't supply the optic nerve
Long Posterior Ciliary arteries
This produces layer of tears that is lipid
Meibomian glands
When corneal epithelium is damaged, what happens first
Posterior pigmented epithelium
Pupillary frill is formed by
rolling around edge of the iris
What is in the anterior border layer of the iris
Fibroblasts and Melanocytes
What doesn't come from surface ectoderm
Corneal stroma
Cells in a straight line down the cortex respond to what
Line orientation
What has the most blood in the eye
Damage to CN7 causes what NOT to happen
Closure of the eye
When the eye is abducted, what is the action of the superior oblique?
Patient's retina and the
Doing retinoscopy and you have neutrality, what is conjugate?
retinoscope (examiner's pupil)
Isopter of a 65 year old compared to a 20 year old is
Lens of infant compared to the lens of a 20 year old
Transmits more UV and blue
Where does the inferior oblique attach to the orbital wall
Anterior medial
What nerve innervates the lower eyelid
Infraorbital nerve
Antiangiogenesis factor in vitreous is
Hyaluronic acid
The direction of the jerk nystagmus is determined by
Fast phase
What is the best VA of a rod monochromate in optimal conditions
Which does NOT develop from surface ectoderm
Corneal Endothelium
Mueller cells do NOT produce the internal limiting membrane for what part
Optic Nerve Head
Where does the aqueous drain after leaving the Canal of Schlemm
External Collecting channels
Reason for use of cyclopentolate over atropine
Shorter duration of action
Tetracylcine causes what
The majority of this structure's energy comes from anaerobic glycolysis
Crystalline lens
Eye movement occurring most during reading
The layer of tears closest to the cornea are produced by
Goblet cells
Lean head forward, what is the compensatory movement of eyes
Eyes move upward
Volume of the Anterior Chamber is
Light adaptation to photoreceptors
What does the atrophy of the Hyaloid artery determine
Size of the optic cup
Not enough oxygen of the lens, so it goes through what pathway
Edmea of the lid is found in what layer
Subcutaneous layer
Pupillary ruff is due to
Posterior pigmented epithelium
Which layer of the cornea is formed from the surface ectoderm
The light reflex doesn't go to which structure
Laterl geniculate
Telencephalon develops into what
Visual cortex
Superior collliculus derivative
UVB is mostly absorbed by
Lesion in the Sphenopalentine ganglia would
Stop tear production
Blood Retinal barriers
Tight junctions of RPE and CRA
What anomaly presents with anhydrosis, miosis, and ptosis
Horner's syndrome
Goblet cells produce which layer of the tear film
Mucin layer
The purpose of the lipid layer of tears is to
Reduce evaporation
Most common birth defect with the lacrminal system is
Plugged valve of Hasner
The only cell in the retina to under go Action potentials
Long Posterior and Anterior
The major cirlce of the iris is made up of
Ciliary arteries
Hyperemia of the front part of the eye is due to
Anterior conjunctival artery
Divides superior and inferior parts of the retina
Long posterior Ciliary nerves
Which is NOT found in the macula
Mueller cells
The Patellar fossa can be found in the
Anterior vitreous
The sclera is found to be thinnest where
Behind the insertions of EOM's
The strongest attachment of the vitreous
Vitreous base
Cornea can be found to be thinnest
Central - 0.5mm and Periphery
- 0.65mm
Longest, thinnest, and furtherest insertion is
Superior Oblique
Strongest Rectus
Medial Rectus
Weakest Rectus
Lateral Rectus
Longest Rectus
Superior Rectus
Shortest Rectus
Inferior Rectus
What can be found in the Cavernous sinus
A lesion of the cavernous sinus will cause
Anesthesize the cornea
If you cover an eye (patch), what happens to the lateral geniculate
Cells get smaller
Contained in the inner neuroblastic layer
Ganglion, Amacrine, and Mueller cells
Contained in the outer neuroblastic layer
Rods, Cones, Bipolar, and Horizontal
During an ERG, the A wave is consistent with what part of the retina
During an ERG, the B wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Mueller cells
Durina an ERG, the C wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Subretinal space and RPE
Lumi-rhodopsin to Meta-
During an ERG, the R1 wave is consistent with what
Meta-rhodopsin-1 to Meta-
During an ERG, the R2 wave is consistent with what
Moll, Zeis, and Meibomian
Tear layer made of oil due to
Krause, Wolfring, and Lacrimal
Tear layer made of aqueous is due to
Newborns' optic cup size is due to
Atrophy of Bergmeister's
Most blood in the eye is found where
Venous system
Most damaging UV light is
Ganglion cells project
Layer 4 of Lateral geniculate
Eye is down and out when
Damage to CN III
Ipsilateral MR, IR, IO, and contralateral SR is innervated by
VEP is performed on the
Central retina
What part of the eye secretes Aqueous and Hyaluronic acid
Pars Planta Non-pigmented
Macula Adherens is
Basal surface binding epithelial cells to basement membrane
Short ciliary nerves
The ciliary body is innervated by
Which does NOT have autoregulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
Which does NOT have autonomic regulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
CN III (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathway
CN II (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathwayfor what reflex?
Menace Reflex
CN V to Pons to CN VII (blink) is the pathway for what reflex
Corneal Reflex
If forcefully closed, the eye looks up and out in what
Bell's Phenomenon
Posterior chamber volume
0.06 mL
Iris sphincter is innervated by
Parasympathetics - short ciliary
Iris dilator is innvervated by
Sympathetics - long ciliary
When you remove a contact lens, you have a decrease in
Lactic acid
Greates difference between two eyes in the accommodative state
0.5 D
EOM insertion is furthest and closest respectively for which EOM's
SO and MR
The eyes becoming more myopic at night can be defined as
Purkinje shift
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 200-290nm
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 290-365nm
Wavelengths that cause cataracts
Wavelengths greater than 365nm are absorbed by
pH of the eye when open / closed is
7.45 / 7.20
Light absorbing pigment - Opsin and derivation of Vitamin A retinal complex
Refers to the vacularized vitreous - hyaloid system
Primary vitreous
Refers to the vitreous proper
Secondary vireous
Refers to lens zonules
Tertiary vitreous
Type of collagen found in the cornal stroma
Type 1
Type of collagen found in the basement membrane
Type 7
Type of collagen found in the lens
Type 4
Type of collagen found in the Descemet's membrane
Type 4 and 8
Superior vortex veins drain into
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
Superior Ophthalmic vein drains into
Cavernous sinus
Inferior vortex veins drain into
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid
Inferior Ophthalmic veins drains into
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid plexus is connected by
Emissary veins
Inferior and Superior Petrosal
Cavernous sinus drains into
Connects Superior and Inferior Ophthalmic veins
Angular Facial vein
Drains to cavernous sinus directly and through the superior ophthalmic vein
Central retinal vein
Telescope with 5mm ocular lens and 35mm objective lens, has what magnification?
Panum's fusional area is larger where
In the Periphery
If someone has a strict criteria in their responses, it will lead to
More misses
To be sure that your patient doesn't light adapt, use
Ascending trials
Anti-reflective coating index equals
Square root of index (n)
Fog lights are yellow and therefor absorb more
Blue light
A yellow light in your eyes makes white look more
What most helps depth perception miles away
Most resistant material the drop ball test
After image is larger where
In the distance
Ghost images appear from
AR coatings
Add power x (Distance of OC to
Jump is calculated by
top of add)
Seg height is measured from the bottom of the frame to
Edge of lower lid
Pupil size is less than 2.5mm and defines blur
Difference in image sizes can be defined by
What happens beyond Panum's Fusional area
Difference between object and surroundings can be defined as
Power of IOL is calculated by
Corneal power and axial length
The change in Hue associated with change in Purity
Abney effect
The change in Hue associated with change in Luminance
Benzold Brucke effect
The change in Saturation associated with change in Luminance
Purdy effect
Mixed additivity Red and Blue is Magenta, which is complement to
Mixed additivity Blue and Green is Cyan, which is complement to
Mixed additivity Green and Red is Yellow, which is complement to
Three primary colors in appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Normal Trichromacy
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Red in color match is
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Green in color match is
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Blue in color match is
Two primary colors in any appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Decreased photopic, Inability to differentiate Reds, Browns, Olives and Golds
Near normal photopic, confused with red, orange, yellow, blue, and purple
Normal photopic, confused with pastel blue and pastel green
All portions of visible spectrum are seen as grays
Brightest to dimmest Purkinje image order
1 > 3 > 4 > 2
Largest to smallest Purkinje image order
3 > 1 > 2 > 4
Anterior to Posterior Purkinje image order
2 > 1 > 4 > 3
Which Purkinje image is real and inverted
Which Purkinje images are virtual and erect
What is this order for: Gamma < X-rays < UV < Visual < IR < Radio < Microwave
Increasing wavelength
Visible light spectrum is what
430 to 750nm
The muscle doing predominant moving of right eye to the right (same direction - RLR) is
The muscle that moves the eye in the left (opposite direction - RMR) is
RSR and RIO both move the right eye up and can be considered
Homolateral Synergists
Yoked muscles or Contralateral
RSO and LIR or RLR and LMR can be considered
Strabismus in which the angle of deviation is within 5pd in all positions of gaze is
Comitant strabismus
Info about direction, comitacy, magnitude, and accommodation is found on
Alternating cover test
Info about type of deviation, frequency, eye laterality, but NOT magnitude is found
Cover-Uncover test
Takes angle lambda into account (1mm = 22pd)
Hirschberg reflex
Visual field sizes 100, 75, 60, 60 correspond to
Temporal, Inferior, Superior,
Image size of aphake corrected with spectacles compared to contacts
Larger image
How is the image size of axial hyperope OD compared to refractive myopia OS
corrected with spectacles OU and axial lengths are equal
Larger image OD
Critical angle of air surface interface is 33.7 degrees. What is the index of refraction?
Is velocity of light faster in air or water
Light is reflected by plane mirror. Mirror is moved by 15 degrees, what happens to the
Moves by 30 degrees
reflected light?
Which lens is exempt from the drop ball test?
Fused bifocal
Frame has dimesions of 50/22. Patient has monocular PD of 30mm OD and 36mm OS.
What is the total inset, if the add inset is 3mm)
9mm OD
Locus of points equidistant from observer forms what
Nonius horopter
Corneal Stroma origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Endothlium origin
Neural Crest
Cornea Descemet's Membrane origin
Neural Crest
Sclera 95% originates from
Neural Crest
Melanocytes originate from
Neural Crest
Meninges origin
Neural Crest
Ciliary body stroma origin
Neural Crest
Orbital Septum origin
Neural Crest
Connective tissue originates from
Neural Crest
Ciliary muscle origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Epithelium orginates from
Surface Ectoderm
The lens originates from
Surface Ectoderm
All glands originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Lid skin origin
Surface Ectoderm
Cilia originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Conjunctiva origin
Surface Ectoderm
Retinal Pigemented Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Sensory Retina origin
Neural Ectoderm
Smooth muscle (Iris sphincter and dilator) origin
Neural Ectoderm
Iris Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Lens Zonules origin
Neural Ectoderm
Muscles originate from
Blood supply originate from
Most common type of necrosis, usually found in the heart and kidney
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis with loss of nucleus, but cell shape is perserved
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis characteristic of ischemic destruction of brain tissue
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis common in bacterial lesions
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis seen in adipose tissue due to action of lipase
Fat Necrosis
Chessy Necrosis - combination of Liquefaction and Coagulative
Caseous Necrosis
Necrosis found mainly in the center of Tuberculosis infections
Caseous Necrosis
Portion of the body that has loss its blood supply (Liquefaction and Coagulative)
Gangrenous Necrosis
In genetics, the coding description AaBb is called the
In genetics, the description of blue eyes is called
Leading causes of cancer deaths in males are
1.Lung 2.Prostate 3. Colon
Leading causes of cancer deaths in females are
1.Lung 2.Breast 3. Colon
Leading sites of cancer in males
1.Prostate 2.Lung 3.Colon
Leading sites of cancer in females
1.Breast 2.Colon 3.Lung
Most cancer mortality age
55-75 years
Disorderly proliferation of cells, lose of uniformity and orientation
Gene most commonly mutated in human cancers
Anti-oncogenes (tumor
Cell division which occurs in the cell body, maintains 46 chromosomes
Gamete formation reduces the number of chromosomes to 23
Characteristic cell of a granuloma is a modified macrophage called
Epitheloid cell
Formed by the coalescence and fusion of macrophages
Giant cells or Langerhans
Which is an example of Type 1 reaction>
Bronchial asthma
Toxoplasmosis Gondii primarily affects what age group
Tuberculosis is an example of
Caseous Necrosis
Adaptive change of epithelium from simple cuboidal to simple columnar is called
Lack of Vitamin C causes Scruvy because
Proline can't be hydroxylated
Primary infection of Varicella-Zoster in an adult is
Retinal damage are treated with
Increases tear production
Side effects of this type of drug are weight gain, mood swings, but NOT diuresis
Acetazolamide is
Most ineffective drug for diuresis
Irreversible indirect parasympathetic
Used in acute ventricular arrithymia
Beta-1 specific drugs were made to
Decrease systemic side effects
What do you treat pseudomonas aeruginosa with
What causes Bulls eye retinopathy
What drug lowers cholesterol
What is most likely to be sensitive to the eye
Which drug doesn't induce bronchiospasm
Which glaucoma med comes in a gel form
NSAID's inhibit
Arachondonic acid
Which drug causes transient myopic shifts
Catopril is a
ACE Inhibitor
Most potent diuretic is
Only penicillin that is not Beta-lactamase sensitive
Antifungal most widely used for systemic conditions
Ampecterin B
Constant amount of alcohol being eliminated
Zero order kinetics
Betaxolol is
Beta-1 specific
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
Carbechol is longer lasting than
What causes color changes in the retina
Antiviral drugs have what negative effect when used topically
Tend to destroy the epithelium
What prevents white blood cells from reaching the site of injury
Decrease side effects,
Beta-1 specific drugs
especially Asthma
Drug to be used with Epilepsy
Locks Beta-1, Beta-2, Renin, and decreases cardiac output
Half life of Digoxin and Digitoxin
36 hours / 5-7 days
Inhibits the enzyme that activates Angiotensin-1 to Angiotensin-2
Most effective type of diuretic
Aldosterone antagonist
Direct anti-kaluretic
Histamin does what to the vascular system
Decreased accommodation is a side effect of
Inhibits the release of histamine
Cromolyn Na+
Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxocity
Drug used for Herpes Simplex Virus
Name two K+ sparing diuretics
Spirolactone and Triampterine
Reversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Salicylic acid
Irrversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Effects alpha receptors more
How does Norepinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
than beta receptors
Effects alpha and beta
How does Epinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
receptors equally
Acetylcholine activates two different types of receptors
Muscarinic and Nicotinic
Detoxification of drugs, toxins, etc. are carried out by
Inhibit T cell function
What is the mode of action of Cephaloporine
(Immunospressive drug)
Cortisol does what to glucose blood levels
Raises glucose levels
Cigarette smoking reverses the effect of which drug
Which drug interferes with DNA gyrase
This drug is a pyrimidine antimetabolite that interferes with DNA
Trifluorothymidine (Trifluridine)
This blocks cyclooxygenase and has an anti-inflammatory property
This drug's major ocular side effect is miosis
Major ocular side effect of Digoxin
Color vision changes
Which has the most effect on K+ (Hypokalemia)?
What is the TI for TD50=2500mg and ED50=50mg
Which administration of drug is most variable in means of absorption
This drug blocks reuptake of Norepinephrine
On a log-dose curve, when an unknown drug is given and the curve shifts to the right,
Competitive Antagonist
but everything else is the same
If a drug binds to the active site of an enzyme, what is it
Competitive inhibitor
Kupffer cells in the liver do what?
Lining of the ventricles consists of
Single layer of ependymal cells
What has simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium
What do astrocytes NOT have
Action potentials
Bile is released into
Bile is stored
Bile is produced in the
Medullary pyramids can be seen grossly in the
Most resistance to blood flow is determined by
Diameter of the arterioles
Actin and Myosin make up what band
A band
Mental retardation is NOT associated with
Which is NOT a urinary buffer
NOT formed by the pancreas
The ability of the glomerulus to reabsorb glucose is exceeded in what disease
Why does too much insulin cause a diabetic coma
No glucose to the brain
Distal Convoluted tubule and Collecting tubule become permeable to
Most lymph nodes can be found in the
Small intestine
Lipid synthesis takes place in
Smooth ER
Respiratory center of the brain is
Lack of Dopamine in the substantia nigra results in
Parkinson's disease
During muscle contraction Ca+ binds to what and pulls what away
Troponin / Tropomyosin
Found in the greatest concentration inside the cell
Acts at specific postsynaptic receptor sites to produce changes to target
All reactions of metabolism take place where
Outside the nucleus in the
Cytoskeletal fiber found just beneath the Plasma Membrane, solid, and made of Actin
Cytoskeletal fiber found in deeper region of the cell
The nucleus of a cell is broken down to 80% protein and how much DNA and RNA
15% DNA and 5% RNA
Highly specialized smooth ER of a muscle cell
Sacroplasmic Reticulum
Function of the sacroplasmic reticulum is to
Remove Ca+ ions from the
(+)Ribosomes, (+)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (-)Steroid synthesis
Rough ER
(-)Ribsomes, (-)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (+)Steroid synthesis
Smooth ER
Organelles that contain about 50 different digestive enzymes
About 36 ATP are produced for each molecule of Glucose in what cycle
Aerobic Respiration
Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen where
Major site of ATP production within the cell is
Intracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
High K+ and Low Na+
Extracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
High Na+ and Low K+
Extracellular fluid consists of three types of fluid
Interstitial, Plasma, and Lymph
Cation that easily passes through the cell membrane
Resting membrane potential
-65 to -85mV
Na+ is pumped out and K+ is
Na/K Pump
pumped in
Diffusion that usually requires the help of a protein
Facilitated diffusion
Integrated system of nervous plexi in the wall of the digestive tract
Enteric Brain
Enhances motility and digestive secretions, relaxes muscle sphincter so food can be
Parasympathetic Autonomic
Nervous System
Inhibits contraction of smooth muscle, inhibits enteric brain
Sympathetic Autonomic
Nervous System
Humoral control of GI activity involves
ACh, NE, and Serotonin
Exocrine glands in the Fundus
Stomach secretes gastric juices mostly produced by
of the stomach
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
Exocrine gland secretory cells
Pepsin (Chief cells -
Initiates the digestion of protein in the digestive tract
Activates pepsin and provides optimal pH for enzymatic action in the stomach
HCl (Parietal cells)
Intrinsic factor (Secreted by
Necessary for the absorption of B-12
Parietal cells)
Capable of nearly completing the digestion of fodd in the absence of other secretions
Pancreatic juice
Area of most concentrated human bile
Gallbladder > Liver
Contraction of muscle, does NOT shorten, heat is released, get tension of muscle
Isometric contraction
Contraction of muscle, shortening of muscles, tension is constant, work is done
Isotonic contraction
Involuntary, uni-nucleated, non-striated, and smaller than skeletal muscle fiber
Smooth muscle
Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are made in the liver and are found in what fluid
Glucose, AA, Fatty acids, Lactic acid, CO2, and O2 are found in what fluid
Particles move from higher to lower contraction in what process
Water moves from lower to higher concentration in what process
Invagination of the plasma membrane
Amount of solute per liter equals
One Osmole
Exchange of fluids happens at the capillary end and is determined by
Osmotic and Hydrostatic
Pressure that drives H2O out of the capillaries
Hydrostatic pressure (35mmHg)
Osmotic(22mmHg) and Tissue
Pressure that pulls H2O back into the capillaries
Hydrostatic pressure is generated by
Heart pumping
Net pressure for forcing fluid out of the capillary is
The glomerulus and Bowman's capsule make up
Renal Corpuscle
Plasma and Solutes leave the circulatory system through large pores in very permeable
Glomerular capillaries
Glomerular capillaries do NOT have large enough pores to let through
Platelets and Red & White
blood cells
Na+ is actively transported out creating an electrial gradient so Cl- follows (H2O will
Proximal Convoluted tubules
65% of the salt and water in the original glomerulus filtrate is reabsorbed back into the
Proximal Convoluted tubules
15% of filtered water and 25% of salt returned to the vascular system
Loop of Henle
In the Loop of Henle, as the tube descends, the Medulla outside does what
Increases in concentration
Water and salt passively leave the tubule
Descending Loop of Henle
Cl- is actively pumped out and Na+ follows
Ascending Loop of Henle
Impermeable to water making the tubule fluid more dilute
Ascending Loop of Henle
Relatively permeable to water keeping tubular fluid dilute
Distal Convoluted Tubule