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1141 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What occurs at the rough endoplasmic reticulum
|
Protein systhesis
|
|
What packages material into membrane bound vesicles
|
Golgi
|
|
Most digestion and absorption in
|
Small intestine
|
|
In the small intestine, what part digests the most
|
Duodenum
|
|
In the small intestine, what part absorbs the most
|
Jejunum and Ileum
|
|
Consist of the protein actin and interacts with myosin
|
Microfilaments
|
|
Protein fibers that have a load bearing function i.e. Keratin
|
Intermediate filament
|
|
Most conspicuous cytoskeleton component, composed of protein tubulin
|
Microtubules
|
|
An amino acid is distinguished by what side chain
|
R-group
|
|
The AA sequence of its polypepitide chain is the result in a
|
Primary Polypeptide Structure
|
|
The Secondary structure of protein organization includes
|
Alpha-helix & Beta-Pleated sheet
|
|
The Tertiary structure of protein organization includes
|
Folded Alpha-Helix & Beta-Pleated sheet (3-D) Spatial arrange of protein
|
|
The Quaternary structure of protein organization includes
|
subunits
|
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Protein classes determined by being soluble or insoluble
|
Globular & Fiberous respectivity
|
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Proteins produced by B-lymphocytes. Which mature in the bone marrow?
|
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
|
|
Which Ig is found predominantly in intestinal tract, saliva, sweat, & tears
|
IgA
|
|
Which Ig is present in the blood in very small amounts whose function is unknown
|
IgD
|
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Which Ig is present in the blood in minute amounts & implicated in allergic reaction
|
IgE
|
|
What is the most common Ig, equally disturbed between the blood & interstital fluid
|
IgG
|
|
What is the only Ig to cross the placenta
|
IgG
|
|
Most effective Ig when it comes to invading organisms
|
IgM
|
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The first Ig to be secreted in response to an antigen
|
IgM
|
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2 identical heavy & light chains of an antibody are held together by
|
Disulfide bonds & noncovalent interactions
|
|
2 identical Fab fragments of Ab form the
|
Arms
|
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1 Fc region of the Ab forms the
|
Trunk
|
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Ig that can exist as a monomer, dimer or trimer
|
IgA
|
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Major strees bearing component of connective tissue i.e. bone, teeth, tendon
|
Collagen
|
|
Defects in covalently cross linked collagen is responsible for disease such as
|
Ehlers danlos, Marfans, Osteogen-Impediment
|
|
Competes directly with a substrate for an enzymatic binding site
|
Competitive Inhibitor
|
|
Binds directly to the enzyme-substrate complex but not the free enzyme
|
Uncompetitive Inhibitor
|
|
Enzyme that destroys bacterial walls by hydrolyzing links of NAM & NAG
|
Lysozyme
|
|
Rxn that requires work/energy
|
Endergonic
|
|
Rxn that produces work/energy
|
Exergonic
|
|
ATP is an energy rich nucleotide because its triphosphate unit contains what
|
2 phosphoanhydride bonds
|
|
Reduced form of NAD and FAD
|
NADH & FADH
|
|
A set of reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate
|
Glycolysis
|
|
It is the prelude to the TCA and all rxn's in the Cytosol
|
Glycolysis
|
|
Formation of 2 pyruvate molecules from 1 glucose molecule produces
|
2 ATP's
|
|
Net products from glycolysis are
|
2 ATP, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH
|
|
What molecule enters the TCA
|
Acetyl CoA
|
|
One turn of the TCA yields (multiple by 2 for complete cycle)
|
3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2, 1 ATP
|
|
Converts pyruvate to glucose in the liver
|
Gluconeogenesis
|
|
When breaking down fat for energy shortage of oxaloacetate for Acetyl CoA
|
Extra Acetyl CoA leads to Ketone body
|
|
Precursor to all steroid hormones
|
Pregnenolone
|
|
Bonds that hold together Guanine & Cytosine
|
3 H-bonds
|
|
Bonds that hold together Adenine & Thymine
|
2 H-bonds
|
|
Cytosine, Uracil & Thymine are
|
Pyrimadines
|
|
Adensine, Guanine & Uric acid are
|
Purines
|
|
The coding region of DNA is called
|
Exons
|
|
The coding region that is cut from the original genome
|
Introns
|
|
Double stranded DNA, Equal mass of Histones & a small amount of RNA
|
All contained in Chromatin
|
|
DNA is supercoiled in a left handed helix over the structure of a histone
|
In nucleosomes (subunit of chromatin)
|
|
In RNA, which pyrimadine replaces DNA's thymine
|
Uracil
|
|
DNA & RNA exist as what type of helical molecules
|
Double & Single stranded respectivity
|
|
Enzyme responsible for sealing up Okazaki fragments into newly formed DNA
|
Ligase
|
|
Enzyme responsible for unzipping 2 stranded DNA so that replication can begin
|
Helicase
|
|
Group of hormones that require secondary messengers to produce changes
|
Group II hormones
|
|
Capable of causing cancer
|
Oncogenes
|
|
Involves the change in structure of an oncogene but not necessarily the amount
|
Single-point mutation
|
|
Ig's differ from each other by
|
Size, charge, AA component & Carb. Content
|
|
Digested food moelcules absorbed into bloodstream from intestines pass
|
Directly to the liver by hepatic portal vein
|
|
Fuel is abundant fatty acids that are synthesized, esterified, & sent from the liver to
|
Adipose tissue in the form of LDL
|
|
Building blocks for proetins, precursors for hormones, & oxidation of carbohydrate skeleton
|
Amino acids
|
|
Number one protein priority in the body
|
Blood
|
|
Major source of biological energy
|
Carbohydrates
|
|
Nourishes the brain, nervous system, & fuel for energy
|
Carbohydrates
|
|
Simple sugars that have no nutrional value on their own
|
Simple Carbohdrates
|
|
Found in grains, legumes, fruits & vegetables - excellent source of energy
|
Complex Carbohydrates
|
|
How many types of Amino acids
|
23 or 20
|
|
which organ converts saturated fat into cholesterol
|
Liver
|
|
Organic micronutrients required only in milli or micro quantities
|
Vitamins
|
|
Beri-beri is neurological disorder cause by
|
Thiamine deficiency
|
|
Scurvy is caused by
|
Vitamin C deficiency
|
|
Fat soluble vitamins
|
Vitamin A,D,E
|
|
Vitamins that act as anti-oxidants
|
Vitamin A,C,E & Selenium
|
|
Inorganic micronutrients
|
Minerals - Ca, P, Mg, Iron, Zinc
|
|
pH=7 exponentially means
|
10 to the (-7)
|
|
pH=1
|
Very acidic
|
|
pH=14
|
Very basic
|
|
pKA=14 equals a pH of
|
pH=1
|
|
Transplanting from one part of the body to another
|
Autograft
|
|
Transplanting from one identical twin to another
|
Isograft
|
|
Transplanting from genetically different individual to another of the same species
|
Allograft
|
|
Blood type A can receive/donate to which types
|
A & O / A & AB
|
|
Blood type B can receive/donate to which types
|
B & O / B & AB
|
|
Blood type AB can receive/donate to which types
|
AB, A, B, & O / AB only
|
|
Blood type O can receive/donate to which types
|
O only / O, AB, A & B
|
|
If a molecule inhibits activity of an enzyme by binding to active site, it is
|
Competitive inhibitor
|
|
Rate limiting step in the production of cholesterol produces what?
|
HMG CoA
|
|
ATP is what type of structure?
|
Nucleotide
|
|
Protein coat of a virus
|
Capsid
|
|
Enzyme in HIV virus that can convert RNA to DNA
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
The primary structure of a protein is
|
Amino acid sequence
|
|
The pentose shunt pathway produces
|
NADPH
|
|
A protein being made from RNA is called
|
Translation
|
|
Increased concentratin of what ion in the extracellular space of the cell has the greatest effect on the membrane potential
|
K+
|
|
Visual acuity at birth
|
20/200
|
|
Visual acuity at 6 months
|
20/20
|
|
Stereopsis begins to develop at
|
3-6 months
|
|
Contrast sensitivity peaks at
|
18-39 years
|
|
Accommodation is present at birth, but becomes useful at
|
4 months
|
|
Color vision is appreciate at
|
2 months
|
|
Refractive error at birth
|
+2.00 D
|
|
Refractive error at 1 year old
|
+1.00 D
|
|
Premature refractive error
|
-0.50 D
|
|
Pupillary light reation
|
1 month
|
|
Horizontal conjugate gaze
|
Birth
|
|
Vertical conjugate gaze
|
2 months
|
|
Ocular alignment
|
1 month
|
|
Fusional convergence
|
6 months
|
|
Baby pupillary light reflex
|
2 months
|
|
Fixation
|
1 month
|
|
Baby walk
|
12-15 months
|
|
Baby sits up unsupported when
|
6-8 months
|
|
Full term baby had what refractive error
|
Less than or equal to +2.50
|
|
With increased age, there CSF loss in
|
High spatial frequencies
|
|
With increased age, astigmatism changes to
|
Against the rule
|
|
What is the easiest for a child to draw
|
Circle
|
|
What immunoglobulin passes the placenta
|
IgG
|
|
What immunoglobulin is a pentamer
|
IgM
|
|
What immunoglobulin is an atopic reactions
|
IgE
|
|
First cell to get a bacterial infection
|
Neutrophil
|
|
Thymic cells become what
|
Helper T cells
|
|
Neutrophils, Monocytes, and Macrophages are all considered
|
Phagocytes
|
|
Lysozyme breaks down
|
Gram Negative
|
|
Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivty reaction
|
Type IV
|
|
What determines the type of Ig
|
Heavy chain
|
|
Hypervariable region on both heavy and light chains
|
Fc
|
|
Lymphocytes, Macropahges, and Plasma cells are present in
|
Chronic Inflammation
|
|
Markers for T-cells
|
CD-4(60%) and CD-8(40%)
|
|
Natural Killer Cell Marker
|
CD-16
|
|
Humoral immunity contains
|
T4-cells and MHC II
|
|
Cellular immunity contains
|
T8-cells and MHC I
|
|
HLA (major histocompatability antigen) is T-cell mediated and
|
Rejects transplants
|
|
Natural killer cells fight against
|
Cancer
|
|
Most common antibody (75%) that crosses the placenta
|
IgG
|
|
Immunoglobulins in tears
|
IgA, IgG, IgE
|
|
Activator of primary immune system
|
IgD
|
|
Ig in allergic responses/histamine
|
IgE
|
|
There are 5 different classes of Ig which are differentiated by
|
Variability of H chains
|
|
The antigen binds to what part of the immunoglobulin
|
FAB portion
|
|
4 polypeptide chains (2 Heavy & 2 Light) held together by disulfide bonds is
|
Antibody
|
|
Monocytes turn into
|
Huge Macrophages
|
|
Cells that have Fc receptor for Ab and destroy Ag is Ag-Ab complex is form
|
Natural Killer Cells (usually IgG)
|
|
Mast cells have surface receptors that will fit
|
IgE
|
|
Only immunoglobulins to activate complement
|
IgG3 and IgM
|
|
Most B cells will secrete
|
Antibodies
|
|
If B cells don't secrete antibodies, they become a subset called
|
Memory cells
|
|
Cells that have capacity for accelerated immune response upon 2nd exposure to an Antigen
|
Memory cells
|
|
Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
|
T-cells
|
|
A macropahge must process and present foreign body on its cells surface to a Lymphocyte
|
For activation of T-cell in CMI
|
|
Histamine, Kinins, Complement, and Interferon are all part of this group
|
Secondary defense - Non-specific response
|
|
Speeds the release of other agents via vasodilation and capillary permeability
|
Histamine
|
|
Attract phagocytes, vasodilates, and stimulates capillary permeability
|
Kinins
|
|
20 Plasma proteins that speed phagocytosis and kill bacteria via lysis
|
Complement
|
|
Complement recognition site on a phagocyte
|
C3b
|
|
Blocks viral protein synthesis and viral entry
|
Interferon
|
|
Secondary defense - Non-specific cellular includes
|
Phagocytes, Basophils, and NK cells
|
|
Engulf bacteria - 3 types Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Monocytes
|
Phagocytes
|
|
Kills worm larvae
|
Basophils
|
|
Attack cancer cells
|
NK cells
|
|
Phagocytes and bacteria lock together via C3b receptors
|
Opsonization
|
|
Neutrophils, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils and Lymphocytes are all considered
|
White Blood cells
|
|
Both red blood cells and white blood cells are produced here
|
Red bone marrow - Red pulp
|
|
Remains of phagocytes can be observed in the form of
|
Pus
|
|
Weakly phagocytic, attacks and kills paracytic worms
|
Eosinophils
|
|
First cell to site of invasion and in large numbers
|
Neutrophils
|
|
Grow into huge macrophages
|
Monocytes
|
|
Originates as sub-populations of certain lymphocytes, attack and kill cancer cells
|
Natural Killer cells
|
|
Attack and kill cells harboring viruses
|
Natural Killer cells
|
|
Only attack the body's own diseased cells
|
Natural Killer cells
|
|
Primary Lymphoid tissue
|
Thymus and Red Bone Marrow
|
|
Secondary Lymphoid tissue
|
Nodes, Tonsils, Adennoids, Spleen
|
|
Where lymphocytes develop and mature
|
Primary Lymph tissue
|
|
Where lymphocytes begin critical roles of defense
|
Secondary Lymph tissue
|
|
Differentiates in the thymus
|
T-cells
|
|
Differentiates in the red bone marrow & fetal liver
|
B-cells
|
|
In the inactive state, it's hard to tell what two cells apart
|
T-cell from B-cell
|
|
In the active state, it forms extensive endoplasmic reticulum
|
B-cells
|
|
In the active state, it forms a large concentration of ribosomes
|
T-cells
|
|
Make and secrete antibodies (humoral)
|
B-cells specifically Plasma cells
|
|
Direct attack against diseased body cells, cell-mediated response
|
T-cells
|
|
Can activate B-cells and moderates & suppresses immune response
|
T-cells
|
|
Branching ends of enzymes which bind to matching antigen
|
Variable region
|
|
Same for each antibody of a certain class
|
Constant region
|
|
Antigen-Antibody binding site
|
Fab portion
|
|
Phagocyte-Antibody binding site
|
Fc region on Ab-Fc receptor on Phagocyte
|
|
Transplant rejection is due to
|
MHC same as HLA
|
|
Acts as a badge for cells to identify them as self
|
MHC I or MHC II
|
|
Amoung the few cells that bear both MHC I and MHC II surface proteins
|
Macrophage
|
|
Cell mediated, cytotoxic T-cell
|
MHC I CD8
|
|
Humoral, Helper T-cells
|
MHC II CD4
|
|
Stimulate T-cell cloning and Activate B-cells
|
Helper T cells
|
|
Plasma cells and Memory B-cells come from
|
B-cells
|
|
Messenger that stimulates cell proliferation and clones of T-cells
|
Interleukin-1
|
|
Identify, attacks, and kills infected cells bearing the antigen that brought its response
|
Arousal - Cytotoxic T-cell, other are Memory cells
|
|
Natural Killer cells can be activated via
|
Interleukin-2
|
|
This immunoglobulin has a secretory components and is secreted from the lacrimal gland
|
IgA
|
|
Antigen binds to which part of the immunoglobulin>
|
Variable region of heavy and light chains
|
|
|
|
|
What vitamin reduces the oxidation of membranes
|
Vitamin E
|
|
Hardest place to pick up precancerous cell growth
|
Pancreas
|
|
This cell kills virally infected cells
|
Natural Killer Cells
|
|
Immunoglobulin with the lowest concentration in blood
|
IgE
|
|
Proto-oncogenes are able to produce
|
Growth factors
|
|
|
|
|
Corresponding muscles of each eye receive equal innervation
|
Hering's Law of Equal innervation
|
|
|
|
|
Whenever an agonist receives inner to contract, antagonist receives equivalent to relax
|
Sherrington's Law of Reciprocal innervation
|
|
For times less than critical duration (100ms), Change in Luminance x t = Constant
|
Bloch's Law
|
|
Absolute intensity of both test and background are unimportant as long as constant
|
Weber's Law
|
|
Large stimulus is more easily seen than a small one
|
Spatial summation
|
|
A static stimulus presented for 20ms is more easily seen than one present for 10ms
|
Temporal summation
|
|
Antibiotic susceptibility testing is done to
|
Test for resistance of bacteria
|
|
What stain is used for Mycobacteria
|
Acid fast
|
|
Fungi produce what in their body
|
Hyphae and Spores
|
|
DNA virus & double stranded
|
Herpes
|
|
RNA retro-virus & single stranded
|
AIDS
|
|
PPP substrate
|
NADPH
|
|
DNA is held together by what type of bonds
|
Phosphodiester bonds
|
|
The TCA cycle takes place in
|
Mitochondrial matrix
|
|
Catalase, Superoxide Dismutase, Glutathione, and Vitamin E
|
Antioxidants
|
|
Diagnosis for TB includes Tuberculin, Chest X-ray, and
|
Exam Sputum for acid fast bacteria
|
|
Nuclear membrane present
|
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
|
|
Golgi, ER, Lysosymes, and Peroxisomes present
|
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
|
|
Mitochondria present
|
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
|
|
In Prokaryotic cell, what serves the same purpose as the Mitochondria in Eurkaryotes
|
Plasma membrane
|
|
Cell wall present
|
Prokaryotic cell
|
|
Algae, Protozoa, anf Fungi are
|
Eukaryotes
|
|
Bacteria are
|
Prokaryotes
|
|
Multiple chromosomes composed of nucleic acid
|
Eukaryotic cell
|
|
Single chromosome composed of nuclei acid
|
Prokaryotic cell
|
|
Substance that surrounds bacterial cells, its major function is adherence
|
Glycocalyx - Capsule or slime layer
|
|
Whip like appendages that propel bacteria
|
Flagella
|
|
Amphitricious flagella
|
Single flagella at both ends of the cell
|
|
Has two or more flagella at one or both poles of the cell
|
Lopotrocious flagella
|
|
Flagella distributed over the entire cell body
|
Peritricious flagella
|
|
Spirochetes (i.e. Treponema Pallidum) are unique and move in this manner
|
Corkscrew motion - Axial filaments
|
|
Functions to adhere to surfaces and ionic bacterial cells prior to DNA transfer
|
Pili - helically arranged proteins (hairlike)
|
|
Main function is to protect the cell from rupturing when Osmotic pressure > Pressure inside cell
|
Cell wall
|
|
No cell wall
|
Mycoplasm
|
|
Macromolecular network called peptiodglycan (murein)
|
Cell wall
|
|
Layers of Peptidoglycan are considerably thicker in
|
Gram Positive
|
|
Cell walls contain Teichoic acid
|
Gram Positive
|
|
Stains dark violet or purple
|
Gram Positive
|
|
Ratio of RNA to DNA in Gram(+) and Gram(-)
|
8:1 in Gram(+) and 1:1 in Gram(-)
|
|
Suspectibility to pencillin and sulfonamides
|
Gram Positive
|
|
Stains pink or red
|
Gram Negative
|
|
Cell wall distruption by lysozyme
|
Gram Positive
|
|
Degree of pathogencitiy
|
Virulance
|
|
Increases virulance by impairing phagocytosis
|
Capsule
|
|
Heat and Acid resistant protein
|
M-protein
|
|
M-protein can be found in
|
Streptococcus pyogens
|
|
Have the ability to destroy neutrophils
|
Leukocidines
|
|
Cause the lysis of red blood cells
|
Hemolysins
|
|
Clot the fibrinogen in the blood
|
Coagulases
|
|
Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of most gram(-) bacteria
|
Endotoxins (lipopolysacharides)
|
|
Proteins secreted by the cell
|
Exotoxins (protein)
|
|
Bacterial reporoduction
|
Tranverse fission
|
|
I - Cell elongates, C - Bacterial chromosomes replicate, D - Plasma membrane pinches
|
Cell wall thickens = Bacterial life cycle
|
|
Cells metabolically active, little or no cell division
|
Lag Phase - Bacteria
|
|
Exponential growth phase, peak efficiency and activity
|
Log Phase
|
|
Drugs are most effective in this phase of growth
|
Log Phase
|
|
Number of deaths = Number of new cells
|
Stationary Phase
|
|
Dead cells outnumber new cells
|
Death Phase
|
|
O2 required, free O2 is final acceptor, Substrate-level, and Oxidative phosphorylation
|
Aerobic
|
|
Aerobic metabolis, creates how many ATP
|
38 ATP's (20X more than Anaerobic)
|
|
O2 not required, final acceptor is NO3 or SO4, Oxidative Phosphorylation only
|
Anaerboic
|
|
ATP molecules are produced using anaerobic
|
Variable
|
|
Can grow with or without oxygen
|
Facultative anaerobe
|
|
Bacterial mechanism in which genetic material is transferred from one cell to another
|
Conjugation
|
|
Microbes that cause disease
|
Pathogen
|
|
Relationship between the normal flora of a healthy person and the person
|
Symbiosis
|
|
One of the organisms is benefited and the other is unaffected
|
Commensalism
|
|
Both organisms benefit from the relationship
|
Mutualism
|
|
One organism benefits at the expense of the other organism
|
Parsitism
|
|
Normal flora of the skin
|
Staph epidermis and Aureus
|
|
Normal flora of the respiratory
|
S. Aureus, H. Influenza, N. Meningitis, Strep. Pneuomonie
|
|
|
|
|
Normal flora of the conjunctiva
|
S. Epidermis, S. Aureus, Diptheria
|
|
|
Diptheria
|
|
Normal flora of the urinary
|
S. Candida, Clostridium, Trichroma
|
|
|
Trichroma
|
|
|
Strep, Staph. Neisseria,
|
|
Normal flora of the mouth
|
Hemopholius Candida
|
|
Gram(+) Cocci found in grape-like clusters (very resistant to PCN)
|
Staphyococci
|
|
Causes Toxic Shock, Fetal Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Keratitis, and Hordeolem
|
Staph Aureus
|
|
Hordeolum
|
|
|
Spherical Non-motile gram(+) bacteria that grows in long chains
|
Streptococci
|
|
Most common species of Strep causing Strep throat
|
Strep Pyogenenes
|
|
Most common etiological agent in bacteria pneumonia, responsible more mortality
|
Strep. Pneumonia
|
|
Can lead to Scarlet and Rheumoid Fevers, Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia
|
Strep Throst (i.e. Pneumonia)
|
|
Gram(-), Motile, Aerobic Rod, generally opportunistic
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
Transmission usually occurs after foreign body removal
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
If untreated, severe necrosis of the cornea and perforation can occur in 48 hours
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
Gram(-), Encapsulated, non-motile, Coccobacillus, and causes Pink Eye
|
Haemophilus Influenza
|
|
Capable of entering uncompromised corneal epithelium
|
Haemophilus Influenza
|
|
Gram(-), Aerobic, Diplobacillus that can lead to conjunctivitis and Periphery corneal ulcer
|
Moraxella Lacunata
|
|
|
Moraxella Lacunata
|
|
ulcer
|
|
|
Transmission is associated with immunosuppressed individuals, alcoholics, and disabled
|
Moraxella Lacunata
|
|
|
Moraxella Lacunata
|
|
disabled
|
|
|
Non-motile, Aerobic, Kidney-shaped, Gram(-), Diplococci which causes Hyperacute conjuctivitis
|
Neissaria Gonorrhea
|
|
Conjuncitivitis
|
|
|
Can penetrate an intact cornea
|
Neissaria Gonorrhea
|
|
The reason silver nitrate is put on neonates after birth
|
Neissaria Gonorrhea
|
|
Culture on Thayer-Martin medium for diagnosis
|
Neissaria Gonorrhea
|
|
Anaerobic, motile, helical, or coiled Gram(-) bacteria
|
Spirochetes
|
|
Responsible for Symphillus
|
Treponema Pallidum -Spirochete
|
|
|
Spirochete
|
|
Responsible for Lyme Disease
|
Borrella Burgdorferi -Spirochete
|
|
|
Spirochete
|
|
|
Treponema Pallidum - Primary
|
|
Characterized by small single, painless, red ulcer (10 days - 3 weeks)
|
Treponema Pallidum - Primary stage
|
|
|
Treponema Pallidum -
|
|
Characterized by skin rash, fever, sore throat, conjunctivitis, and hair loss (2-10 weeks)
|
Treponema Pallidum - Secondary stage
|
|
|
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary
|
|
Presents with neurological problems, optic atrophy, vascular problems, MR possible
|
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary stage
|
|
|
stage
|
|
Tests to diagnose Treponema Pallidum include
|
VDRL, FTA-ABS, Immunofluo exam for the flu
|
|
|
exam for the flu
|
|
Aerobic, Gram(+) bacteria that appear fungus-like form, Hyphae and Asexual
|
Actinomycetes
|
|
Slightly curved or straight aerobic rods that cause TB and Leprosy, Acid-fast
|
Mycobacteria
|
|
Pathogen invades the peripheral skin and nerve cells and becomes an obligate
|
|
|
intracellular parasite
|
Mycobacteria Leprae
|
|
Gram(-), non-motile, coccoid bacteria which in an obligate intracellular parasite
|
Chlamydia
|
|
Can grow and reproduce only within the host
|
Obligate intracellular parasite
|
|
Causes Trachoma and Adulte Inclusion conjunctivitis
|
Chlamydia
|
|
Stage1-maybe asymmetric, Stage2-Trachoma with folicles, Stage3-Trichasis, Entropion,
|
|
|
Conjuncitiva scarring, Stage4-Post-inflammatory, adult inclusion conjunctivitis, large
|
Stages of Chlamydia
|
|
opalescent follicles in fornacles
|
|
|
Procaryotes that are pleomorphic in shape and are smallest bacteria capable of
|
|
|
reproduction
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
Gram(-) Coccobacilli bacteria, Obligate intracellular parasite
|
Rickettsia
|
|
Causes Rocky mountain spotted fever
|
Rickettsia
|
|
Vectors for Rickettsia
|
Fleas, Ticks, Mites, and Lice
|
|
Lack of cell wall, susceptible to lysis by osmotic shock, most Facultative anaerobes
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
Lowest concentration of drug that prevents growth of a particular organism
|
Minimal Inhibitory concentration
|
|
Lowest drug concentration that kills the microorganism
|
Minimal lethal concentration
|
|
All living cells, viable spores, and viruses are destroyed or removed from habitat
|
Sterilization
|
|
Must be used to destroy endospores by heating at 121 degrees and 15 lbs of pressure
|
Autoclave
|
|
Blood agar
|
Bacteria
|
|
Sabauods
|
Fungi
|
|
Chocolate agar
|
H. Influenza, Gonorrhea
|
|
Parietal cells secrete
|
HCl
|
|
Whole cell intact, secretion through membrane
|
Mesocrine - pancreas, salivary
|
|
Separating off with cytoplasm, 1/2 of the cell is secreted and 1/2 of the cell stays
|
Apocrine - mammary, sweat
|
|
|
glands
|
|
Entire cell is secreted
|
Holocrine - testes, ovaries
|
|
Osteoclasts
|
Bone marrow
|
|
Ductless glands secreting into blood
|
Endocrine
|
|
Secretes into ducts
|
Exocrine
|
|
Cells stays intact, secretes by exoctosis
|
Merocrine
|
|
Communication of metabolites and ions
|
Nexus gap junctions
|
|
Most white blood cells are formed in
|
Agranular lymphocytes
|
|
Contains red blood cells and white blood cells
|
Red pulp
|
|
Tuncial media consists of
|
Smooth muscle and elastin
|
|
Lysosomes are activated by
|
A decrease in pH
|
|
Exocrine has 3 secreting glands
|
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
|
|
Chief cells secrete
|
Pepsinogen
|
|
Mucous cells secrete
|
Alkaline
|
|
Least likely mode of transmission of Treponema Pallidum?
|
Respiratory droplets
|
|
Which test is used to differentiate Staph Aureus from Staph Epidermis
|
Coagulase
|
|
Diencephalon comes from what embryonic structure?
|
Prosencephalon
|
|
Cell bodies for movement of hand are located where?
|
Ventral grey
|
|
What is part of the auditory system?
|
Inferior colliculus
|
|
CSF has a higher concentration than blood of what
|
Na+
|
|
Lesion in the brainstem at nucleus 6, if it keeps growing, what is effected first
|
CN 7
|
|
If you have a hemisection at t12 on the right side, what goes
|
Loss of pain and temperature
|
|
|
on OS
|
|
What is the biggest nucleus in the cerebellum
|
Dentate nucleus
|
|
You have loss of hearing on one side, where is the damage
|
Cochlear nucleus
|
|
Contains 2 superior and 2 inferior colliculi and cerebral punducles
|
Tectum - Midbrain
|
|
CN - IV has afferent connections to vestibular nuclei via
|
MLF
|
|
|
|
|
Red nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, Substantia Nigra, ML, LL, MLF, ST, ST
|
Level of Superior Colliculus - Midbrain
|
|
ON-OC-OT-Superior Colliculus synapse, Pretectal nucleus - Ipsilateral and
|
Ciliary - light reflex (PARA)
|
|
contralateral, EWN - Ciliary ganglion
|
constriction
|
|
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Superior division goes to
|
Levator and Superior rectus
|
|
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Inferior division goes to
|
MR, IR, IO
|
|
One of the most important sensory centers of the brain, derived from diencephalon
|
Thalamus
|
|
Medial and Lateral geniculate bodies can be found here
|
Dorsal Thalamus
|
|
Relay station for the visual pathway
|
Lateral Geniculate
|
|
Relay station for the auditory pathway
|
Medial Geniculate
|
|
Part of the brain derived from diencephalon
|
Thalamus, Hypothalamus
|
|
Regulation of body temperature, fat, water, carbohydrates, metabolism, sleep, sex drive,
|
Hypothalamus
|
|
& emotiona
|
|
|
Forms the floor of the 3rd ventricle
|
Hypothalamus
|
|
Forms the roof of the 3rd ventricle
|
Epithalamus
|
|
Contains the choroid plexus which produces cerebral spinal fluid
|
Epithalamus
|
|
Relay sensory info to cortical regions concerned with vision and auditory
|
Subthalamus
|
|
What part of the brain develops from the Diencephalon
|
Cerebum
|
|
Grey matter of the cerebrum - inner
|
Basal Ganglia
|
|
Separates Occiptal lobes
|
Calcarine Fissure
|
|
Separates the left and right brain hemispheres
|
Sagittal sulcus
|
|
Separates the front and back brain
|
Central sulcus
|
|
Doesn't have axons going directly to the spinal cord
|
Visual cortex
|
|
What coordinates oculomotor function
|
Medial Longitudinal Fasiculus
|
|
Longest tract is from the feet to medulla, what tract is this
|
Gracilius
|
|
Fasiculus Gracilius
|
Primary tract
|
|
Fasiculus Cuneatus
|
Primary nucleus
|
|
Neonatal cortex is made up of how many layers
|
2 layers
|
|
What nerve controls the diaphragm
|
Phrenic
|
|
The pyramids can be found in the
|
Medulla
|
|
The union of dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor) nerves
|
Spinal nerves
|
|
Ventral Primary Rami of Thoracic nerves go directly to the body and all others
|
Come together to form plexuses
|
|
Cuneatus and Gracilius belong in
|
Posterior Funiculus
|
|
Anterior and Posterior Sup. Cerebellar, Sup. Tectal, Lat, Spinothalamic, Lat.
|
|
|
Corticospinal, Sup. Rubrospinal
|
Lateral Funiculus
|
|
Ant. Sup. Thalamic, Ant. Corticospinal, Sup. Tectospinal, Vestibulospinal, and
|
|
|
Reticulospinal
|
Anterior Funiculus
|
|
Info regarding Touch, Temperature, and Pain - Terminates in the Thalamus
|
Spinothalamic
|
|
Info from skin, joints, tendons, regarding touch, pressure, and vibration
|
Cuneatus-upper limbs &
|
|
|
Gracilius-lower limbs
|
|
Subconscious proprioception, Appreciation of body position, Not crossed
|
Posterior Spinocerebellar
|
|
Conveys info about movement and position of entire limbs, Crossed/uncrossed
|
Anterios Spinocerebellar
|
|
Reflex, postural move of head, neck, & upper extremities due to visual stimulation
|
Tectospinal
|
|
Maintain posture and equilibrium by muscle tone, Not crossed
|
Vestibulospinal
|
|
Regulates motor activity related to posture, Most uncrossed/some crossed
|
Reticulospinal
|
|
Muscle tone and posture to spinal nerves that innervation skeletal muscles, crossed
|
Rubrospinal
|
|
Its job is to maintain visceral functions in the restful state
|
Parasympathetic system
|
|
Cranio-sacral system because nuclei are located in the brain, nuclues in cord
|
Parasympathetic system
|
|
Thoraco-lumbar system because nuclei imtermediolateralis originates in spinal cord
|
Sympathetic system
|
|
Function is to maintain autonomic functions in excited state
|
Sympathetic system
|
|
What neurotransmitter is pre & post-synaptic is Parasympathetic and pre-synaptic in
|
|
|
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Sympathetic
|
|
|
Neurotransmitter of Post sympathetic fibers
|
Norepinephrine
|
|
High concentration in Substantia Nigra - Parkinson's
|
Dopamine
|
|
Neurotransmitter in brainstem
|
Serotonin
|
|
Inhibitory neurotransmitter
|
GABA
|
|
Part of myelencephalon, contains vital centers for BP, Respiratory, and Heart rate
|
Medulla
|
|
In the medulla, where 80% of pyramidal fibers cross
|
Level of Motor decussation
|
|
Above the level of motor decussation - Contains Nuclei Cuneatus and Gracilius
|
Level of Sensory decussation
|
|
Injury at the level of medial lemniscus causes what
|
Contralateral kinesthetic
|
|
Cranial nerves IX-XII originate here and have nuclei located here
|
Medulla
|
|
|
Is synaptically connected to
|
|
The vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) delivers messages regarding hearing and equilibrum
|
Midbrain and Pons
|
|
Vertigo, Ataxia, and Nystagmus may all result with a lesion of
|
Vestibular branch of CN VIII
|
|
Tinnitis is a common symptom of damage to the
|
Cochlear nerves of CN VIII
|
|
|
Form basis for conjugate eye
|
|
Vestibular connections to CN III, IV, and VI via vestibuloencephalic pathway
|
movements
|
|
Separates Medulla from Midbrain and is derived from Metencephalon
|
Pons
|
|
Gives off CN VI, VII, and V
|
Pons
|
|
Connections of CN VI include afferent fibers from vestibular nucleus via
|
MLF
|
|
Location of Medial and Lateral Lemniscus, Superior cerebellular peduncle
|
Mid Pons
|
|
Broken down into Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular
|
CN V - trigeminal
|
|
Innervates submandibular and sublingual glands
|
Salvatory nucleus - CN VII
|
|
Innervates the lacrimal glands
|
Lacrimal nucleus - CN VII
|
|
Receives taste info from anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
|
Nucleus solitarius - CN VII
|
|
Derived from Mesencephalon, has a Tectum and Tegmentum
|
Midbrain
|
|
Precentral and Postcentral gyrus are
|
Anterior & Posterior to the
|
|
|
central sulcus
|
|
Runs parallel to corpus callosum
|
Cingulate sulcus
|
|
Area 4 of the Frontal Lobe contains
|
Motor area
|
|
Area 1-3 of the Parietal Lobe contains
|
General sensation
|
|
Area 17 of the Occiptal lobe
|
Visual area
|
|
White matter that connects cortical areas between two hemispheres
|
Corpus callosum
|
|
Ascending and descending fibers that lie between the Caudate and Lentiform nucleus
|
Internal Capsule
|
|
Connects the Lateral Geniculate nucles with the visual cortex
|
Optic Radiations
|
|
Part of the brain that contains 2 hemispheres and vermis that connets
|
Cerebellum
|
|
|
Equilibrium, balance, and eye
|
|
The vestibulocerebellulum - Flocculonodule lobe impacts what functions
|
movements
|
|
|
Involved in muscle tone,
|
|
Spinocerebellum - contains vermis & intermediate zone which
|
posture, and receives most
|
|
|
input from the spinal cord
|
|
Cerebrocerebellum - contains hemispheres and receives most its info from
|
Cerebral cortex
|
|
|
Coordinate voluntary motor
|
|
Cerebrocerebellum's main function is
|
activity
|
|
Inferior cerebellular peduncle carries info to and from
|
Meduall and Spinal cord
|
|
Middle cerebellular peduncle carries info from
|
Pons
|
|
Superior cerebellular peduncle carries infrom from the Dentate nucleus to
|
Midbrain
|
|
|
Fine coordination of muscle
|
|
Main functions of cerebellum are
|
movements, tone, balance,
|
|
|
equilibrium
|
|
What system deals with transmission of Tactile Proprioceptive, Temperature, and Pain
|
Somatosensory system
|
|
Tactile receptors that respond to touch are called
|
Pacianian corpuscles
|
|
The position of the body's limbs is detected by
|
Proprioceptors
|
|
Sensory receptors that respond to temperature are called
|
Thermal receptors
|
|
Info from the motor cortex transmitted to spinal cord and brain stem
|
Corticospinal and Corticobulbar
|
|
|
response
|
|
As Corticospinal and Bulbar descend from the motor cortex, they form
|
Pyramidal tract
|
|
When pyramidal tract reaches the brain stem, most go to the spine, cross, and descend
|
|
|
|
Lateral Corticospinal
|
|
|
|
|
In addition to Lateral Corticospinal, a minority of fibers from motor cortex don't cross
|
Ventral Corticospinal - Medial
|
|
|
ventral horn
|
|
The Basal Ganglia receives input via its
|
Caudate nucleus and Putamen
|
|
The Basal Ganglia provides output vis its
|
Globus Pallidus
|
|
Major input to the Basal Ganglia is from
|
Neocortex then Thalamus and
|
|
|
Substantia Nigra
|
|
Major output of the Basal Ganglia is to
|
Prefrontal and Premotor Cortex
|
|
|
via the Thalamus
|
|
Actions of the ANS is considered to be
|
Subconscious
|
|
The adrenall medulla is considered to be a part of the
|
Sympathetic nervous system
|
|
|
Epinephrine and
|
|
The adrena medulla secretes which catacholamines
|
Norepinephrine
|
|
In the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic, all preganglionic neurons are considered to be
|
Cholinergic
|
|
Which muscle has nothing to do with the eyebrow?
|
Levator muscle
|
|
What has the shortest latency?
|
Pursuits
|
|
Which gives bilateral stellate cataracts?
|
Phenothiazines
|
|
Capillaries of choroid are similar to capillaries in the
|
Ciliary body
|
|
What is the higher concentration in blood than in aqeuous?
|
Protein
|
|
What gives the most resistance to the outflow of aqeuous?
|
Juxtancanalicular tissue
|
|
Which doesn't enter the orbit around Annulus of Zinn
|
Trochlear nerve
|
|
Which doesn't supply the optic nerve
|
Long Posterior Ciliary arteries
|
|
This produces layer of tears that is lipid
|
Meibomian glands
|
|
When corneal epithelium is damaged, what happens first
|
Migration
|
|
|
Posterior pigmented epithelium
|
|
Pupillary frill is formed by
|
rolling around edge of the iris
|
|
What is in the anterior border layer of the iris
|
Fibroblasts and Melanocytes
|
|
What doesn't come from surface ectoderm
|
Corneal stroma
|
|
Cells in a straight line down the cortex respond to what
|
Line orientation
|
|
What has the most blood in the eye
|
Choroid
|
|
Damage to CN7 causes what NOT to happen
|
Closure of the eye
|
|
When the eye is abducted, what is the action of the superior oblique?
|
Intorsion
|
|
|
Patient's retina and the
|
|
Doing retinoscopy and you have neutrality, what is conjugate?
|
|
|
|
retinoscope (examiner's pupil)
|
|
Isopter of a 65 year old compared to a 20 year old is
|
Smaller
|
|
Lens of infant compared to the lens of a 20 year old
|
Transmits more UV and blue
|
|
|
light
|
|
Where does the inferior oblique attach to the orbital wall
|
Anterior medial
|
|
What nerve innervates the lower eyelid
|
Infraorbital nerve
|
|
Antiangiogenesis factor in vitreous is
|
Hyaluronic acid
|
|
|
62
|
|
The direction of the jerk nystagmus is determined by
|
Fast phase
|
|
What is the best VA of a rod monochromate in optimal conditions
|
20/100
|
|
Which does NOT develop from surface ectoderm
|
Corneal Endothelium
|
|
Mueller cells do NOT produce the internal limiting membrane for what part
|
Optic Nerve Head
|
|
Where does the aqueous drain after leaving the Canal of Schlemm
|
External Collecting channels
|
|
Reason for use of cyclopentolate over atropine
|
Shorter duration of action
|
|
Tetracylcine causes what
|
Epiphoria
|
|
The majority of this structure's energy comes from anaerobic glycolysis
|
Crystalline lens
|
|
Eye movement occurring most during reading
|
Saccades
|
|
The layer of tears closest to the cornea are produced by
|
Goblet cells
|
|
Lean head forward, what is the compensatory movement of eyes
|
Eyes move upward
|
|
Volume of the Anterior Chamber is
|
0.25mL
|
|
Light adaptation to photoreceptors
|
Ca+
|
|
What does the atrophy of the Hyaloid artery determine
|
Size of the optic cup
|
|
Not enough oxygen of the lens, so it goes through what pathway
|
Glycolysis
|
|
Edmea of the lid is found in what layer
|
Subcutaneous layer
|
|
Pupillary ruff is due to
|
Posterior pigmented epithelium
|
|
Which layer of the cornea is formed from the surface ectoderm
|
Epithelium
|
|
The light reflex doesn't go to which structure
|
Laterl geniculate
|
|
Telencephalon develops into what
|
Visual cortex
|
|
Superior collliculus derivative
|
Mesencephalon
|
|
UVB is mostly absorbed by
|
Cornea
|
|
Lesion in the Sphenopalentine ganglia would
|
Stop tear production
|
|
Blood Retinal barriers
|
Tight junctions of RPE and CRA
|
|
What anomaly presents with anhydrosis, miosis, and ptosis
|
Horner's syndrome
|
|
Goblet cells produce which layer of the tear film
|
Mucin layer
|
|
The purpose of the lipid layer of tears is to
|
Reduce evaporation
|
|
Most common birth defect with the lacrminal system is
|
Plugged valve of Hasner
|
|
The only cell in the retina to under go Action potentials
|
Ganglion
|
|
|
Long Posterior and Anterior
|
|
The major cirlce of the iris is made up of
|
|
|
|
Ciliary arteries
|
|
Hyperemia of the front part of the eye is due to
|
Anterior conjunctival artery
|
|
Divides superior and inferior parts of the retina
|
Long posterior Ciliary nerves
|
|
Which is NOT found in the macula
|
Mueller cells
|
|
The Patellar fossa can be found in the
|
Anterior vitreous
|
|
The sclera is found to be thinnest where
|
Behind the insertions of EOM's
|
|
The strongest attachment of the vitreous
|
Vitreous base
|
|
Cornea can be found to be thinnest
|
Central - 0.5mm and Periphery
|
|
|
- 0.65mm
|
|
Longest, thinnest, and furtherest insertion is
|
Superior Oblique
|
|
Strongest Rectus
|
Medial Rectus
|
|
Weakest Rectus
|
Lateral Rectus
|
|
Longest Rectus
|
Superior Rectus
|
|
Shortest Rectus
|
Inferior Rectus
|
|
What can be found in the Cavernous sinus
|
CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, ICA
|
|
A lesion of the cavernous sinus will cause
|
Anesthesize the cornea
|
|
If you cover an eye (patch), what happens to the lateral geniculate
|
Cells get smaller
|
|
Contained in the inner neuroblastic layer
|
Ganglion, Amacrine, and Mueller cells
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Contained in the outer neuroblastic layer
|
Rods, Cones, Bipolar, and Horizontal
|
|
|
|
|
During an ERG, the A wave is consistent with what part of the retina
|
Photoreceptors
|
|
During an ERG, the B wave is consistent with what part of the retina
|
Mueller cells
|
|
Durina an ERG, the C wave is consistent with what part of the retina
|
Subretinal space and RPE
|
|
|
Lumi-rhodopsin to Meta-
|
|
During an ERG, the R1 wave is consistent with what
|
rhodopsin-1
|
|
|
Meta-rhodopsin-1 to Meta-
|
|
During an ERG, the R2 wave is consistent with what
|
rhodopsin-2
|
|
|
Moll, Zeis, and Meibomian
|
|
Tear layer made of oil due to
|
|
|
|
glands
|
|
|
Krause, Wolfring, and Lacrimal
|
|
Tear layer made of aqueous is due to
|
|
|
|
glands
|
|
Newborns' optic cup size is due to
|
Atrophy of Bergmeister's
|
|
|
papillae
|
|
Most blood in the eye is found where
|
Venous system
|
|
Most damaging UV light is
|
UVB
|
|
Ganglion cells project
|
Layer 4 of Lateral geniculate
|
|
Eye is down and out when
|
Damage to CN III
|
|
Ipsilateral MR, IR, IO, and contralateral SR is innervated by
|
CN III
|
|
VEP is performed on the
|
Central retina
|
|
What part of the eye secretes Aqueous and Hyaluronic acid
|
Pars Planta Non-pigmented
|
|
|
Epithelium
|
|
Macula Adherens is
|
Desmosomes
|
|
Basal surface binding epithelial cells to basement membrane
|
Hemidesmosomes
|
|
|
Short ciliary nerves
|
|
The ciliary body is innervated by
|
(Parasympathetic)
|
|
Which does NOT have autoregulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
|
Choroid
|
|
Which does NOT have autonomic regulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
|
Retina
|
|
CN III (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathway
|
|
|
CN II (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathwayfor what reflex?
|
Menace Reflex
|
|
CN V to Pons to CN VII (blink) is the pathway for what reflex
|
Corneal Reflex
|
|
If forcefully closed, the eye looks up and out in what
|
Bell's Phenomenon
|
|
Posterior chamber volume
|
0.06 mL
|
|
Iris sphincter is innervated by
|
Parasympathetics - short ciliary
|
|
Iris dilator is innvervated by
|
Sympathetics - long ciliary
|
|
When you remove a contact lens, you have a decrease in
|
Lactic acid
|
|
Greates difference between two eyes in the accommodative state
|
0.5 D
|
|
EOM insertion is furthest and closest respectively for which EOM's
|
SO and MR
|
|
The eyes becoming more myopic at night can be defined as
|
Purkinje shift
|
|
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 200-290nm
|
Cornea
|
|
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 290-365nm
|
Lens
|
|
Wavelengths that cause cataracts
|
295-320nm
|
|
Wavelengths greater than 365nm are absorbed by
|
Retina
|
|
pH of the eye when open / closed is
|
7.45 / 7.20
|
|
Light absorbing pigment - Opsin and derivation of Vitamin A retinal complex
|
Rhodopsin
|
|
Refers to the vacularized vitreous - hyaloid system
|
Primary vitreous
|
|
Refers to the vitreous proper
|
Secondary vireous
|
|
Refers to lens zonules
|
Tertiary vitreous
|
|
Type of collagen found in the cornal stroma
|
Type 1
|
|
Type of collagen found in the basement membrane
|
Type 7
|
|
Type of collagen found in the lens
|
Type 4
|
|
Type of collagen found in the Descemet's membrane
|
Type 4 and 8
|
|
Superior vortex veins drain into
|
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
|
|
Superior Ophthalmic vein drains into
|
Cavernous sinus
|
|
Inferior vortex veins drain into
|
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
|
|
|
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid
|
|
Inferior Ophthalmic veins drains into
|
|
|
|
Plexus
|
|
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid plexus is connected by
|
Emissary veins
|
|
|
Inferior and Superior Petrosal
|
|
Cavernous sinus drains into
|
Sinuses
|
|
Connects Superior and Inferior Ophthalmic veins
|
Angular Facial vein
|
|
Drains to cavernous sinus directly and through the superior ophthalmic vein
|
Central retinal vein
|
|
Telescope with 5mm ocular lens and 35mm objective lens, has what magnification?
|
7X
|
|
Panum's fusional area is larger where
|
In the Periphery
|
|
If someone has a strict criteria in their responses, it will lead to
|
More misses
|
|
To be sure that your patient doesn't light adapt, use
|
Ascending trials
|
|
Anti-reflective coating index equals
|
Square root of index (n)
|
|
Fog lights are yellow and therefor absorb more
|
Blue light
|
|
A yellow light in your eyes makes white look more
|
Blue
|
|
What most helps depth perception miles away
|
Overlay
|
|
Most resistant material the drop ball test
|
Polycarbonate
|
|
After image is larger where
|
In the distance
|
|
Ghost images appear from
|
AR coatings
|
|
|
Add power x (Distance of OC to
|
|
Jump is calculated by
|
top of add)
|
|
Seg height is measured from the bottom of the frame to
|
Edge of lower lid
|
|
Pupil size is less than 2.5mm and defines blur
|
Diffraction
|
|
Difference in image sizes can be defined by
|
Anisekonia
|
|
What happens beyond Panum's Fusional area
|
Diplopia
|
|
Difference between object and surroundings can be defined as
|
Contrast
|
|
Power of IOL is calculated by
|
Corneal power and axial length
|
|
The change in Hue associated with change in Purity
|
Abney effect
|
|
The change in Hue associated with change in Luminance
|
Benzold Brucke effect
|
|
The change in Saturation associated with change in Luminance
|
Purdy effect
|
|
Mixed additivity Red and Blue is Magenta, which is complement to
|
Green
|
|
Mixed additivity Blue and Green is Cyan, which is complement to
|
Red
|
|
Mixed additivity Green and Red is Yellow, which is complement to
|
Blue
|
|
Three primary colors in appropriate portions will match any perceived color
|
Normal Trichromacy
|
|
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Red in color match is
|
Protanomaly
|
|
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Green in color match is
|
Deuteranomaly
|
|
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Blue in color match is
|
Tritanomaly
|
|
Two primary colors in any appropriate portions will match any perceived color
|
Dichromatism
|
|
Decreased photopic, Inability to differentiate Reds, Browns, Olives and Golds
|
Protanopia
|
|
Near normal photopic, confused with red, orange, yellow, blue, and purple
|
Deuteranopia
|
|
Normal photopic, confused with pastel blue and pastel green
|
Tritanopia
|
|
All portions of visible spectrum are seen as grays
|
Monochromatism
|
|
Brightest to dimmest Purkinje image order
|
1 > 3 > 4 > 2
|
|
Largest to smallest Purkinje image order
|
3 > 1 > 2 > 4
|
|
Anterior to Posterior Purkinje image order
|
2 > 1 > 4 > 3
|
|
Which Purkinje image is real and inverted
|
4
|
|
Which Purkinje images are virtual and erect
|
1,2,3
|
|
What is this order for: Gamma < X-rays < UV < Visual < IR < Radio < Microwave
|
Increasing wavelength
|
|
Visible light spectrum is what
|
430 to 750nm
|
|
The muscle doing predominant moving of right eye to the right (same direction - RLR) is
|
Agonist
|
|
The muscle that moves the eye in the left (opposite direction - RMR) is
|
Antagonist
|
|
RSR and RIO both move the right eye up and can be considered
|
Homolateral Synergists
|
|
|
Yoked muscles or Contralateral
|
|
RSO and LIR or RLR and LMR can be considered
|
|
|
|
Synergists
|
|
Strabismus in which the angle of deviation is within 5pd in all positions of gaze is
|
Comitant strabismus
|
|
Info about direction, comitacy, magnitude, and accommodation is found on
|
Alternating cover test
|
|
Info about type of deviation, frequency, eye laterality, but NOT magnitude is found
|
Cover-Uncover test
|
|
Takes angle lambda into account (1mm = 22pd)
|
Hirschberg reflex
|
|
Visual field sizes 100, 75, 60, 60 correspond to
|
Temporal, Inferior, Superior,
|
|
|
Nasal
|
|
Image size of aphake corrected with spectacles compared to contacts
|
Larger image
|
|
How is the image size of axial hyperope OD compared to refractive myopia OS
|
|
|
corrected with spectacles OU and axial lengths are equal
|
Larger image OD
|
|
Critical angle of air surface interface is 33.7 degrees. What is the index of refraction?
|
1.8
|
|
Is velocity of light faster in air or water
|
Air
|
|
Light is reflected by plane mirror. Mirror is moved by 15 degrees, what happens to the
|
|
|
|
Moves by 30 degrees
|
|
reflected light?
|
|
|
Which lens is exempt from the drop ball test?
|
Fused bifocal
|
|
Frame has dimesions of 50/22. Patient has monocular PD of 30mm OD and 36mm OS.
|
|
|
What is the total inset, if the add inset is 3mm)
|
9mm OD
|
|
Locus of points equidistant from observer forms what
|
Nonius horopter
|
|
Corneal Stroma origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Corneal Endothlium origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Cornea Descemet's Membrane origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Sclera 95% originates from
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Melanocytes originate from
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Meninges origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Ciliary body stroma origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Orbital Septum origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Connective tissue originates from
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Ciliary muscle origin
|
Neural Crest
|
|
Corneal Epithelium orginates from
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
The lens originates from
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
All glands originate from
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
Lid skin origin
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
Cilia originate from
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
Conjunctiva origin
|
Surface Ectoderm
|
|
Retinal Pigemented Epithelium origin
|
Neural Ectoderm
|
|
Sensory Retina origin
|
Neural Ectoderm
|
|
Smooth muscle (Iris sphincter and dilator) origin
|
Neural Ectoderm
|
|
Iris Epithelium origin
|
Neural Ectoderm
|
|
Lens Zonules origin
|
Neural Ectoderm
|
|
Muscles originate from
|
Mesoderm
|
|
Blood supply originate from
|
Mesoderm
|
|
Most common type of necrosis, usually found in the heart and kidney
|
Coagulative Necrosis
|
|
Necrosis with loss of nucleus, but cell shape is perserved
|
Coagulative Necrosis
|
|
Necrosis characteristic of ischemic destruction of brain tissue
|
Liquefaction Necrosis
|
|
Necrosis common in bacterial lesions
|
Liquefaction Necrosis
|
|
Necrosis seen in adipose tissue due to action of lipase
|
Fat Necrosis
|
|
Chessy Necrosis - combination of Liquefaction and Coagulative
|
Caseous Necrosis
|
|
Necrosis found mainly in the center of Tuberculosis infections
|
Caseous Necrosis
|
|
Portion of the body that has loss its blood supply (Liquefaction and Coagulative)
|
Gangrenous Necrosis
|
|
In genetics, the coding description AaBb is called the
|
Genotype
|
|
In genetics, the description of blue eyes is called
|
Phenotype
|
|
Leading causes of cancer deaths in males are
|
1.Lung 2.Prostate 3. Colon
|
|
Leading causes of cancer deaths in females are
|
1.Lung 2.Breast 3. Colon
|
|
Leading sites of cancer in males
|
1.Prostate 2.Lung 3.Colon
|
|
Leading sites of cancer in females
|
1.Breast 2.Colon 3.Lung
|
|
Most cancer mortality age
|
55-75 years
|
|
Disorderly proliferation of cells, lose of uniformity and orientation
|
Dysplasia
|
|
Gene most commonly mutated in human cancers
|
Anti-oncogenes (tumor
|
|
|
suppressors)
|
|
Cell division which occurs in the cell body, maintains 46 chromosomes
|
Mitosis
|
|
Gamete formation reduces the number of chromosomes to 23
|
Meiosis
|
|
Characteristic cell of a granuloma is a modified macrophage called
|
Epitheloid cell
|
|
Formed by the coalescence and fusion of macrophages
|
Giant cells or Langerhans
|
|
Which is an example of Type 1 reaction>
|
Bronchial asthma
|
|
Toxoplasmosis Gondii primarily affects what age group
|
Fetus
|
|
Tuberculosis is an example of
|
Caseous Necrosis
|
|
Adaptive change of epithelium from simple cuboidal to simple columnar is called
|
Metaplasia
|
|
Lack of Vitamin C causes Scruvy because
|
Proline can't be hydroxylated
|
|
Primary infection of Varicella-Zoster in an adult is
|
Shingles
|
|
Retinal damage are treated with
|
Cephalosporins
|
|
Increases tear production
|
Digitoxin
|
|
Side effects of this type of drug are weight gain, mood swings, but NOT diuresis
|
Steroids
|
|
Acetazolamide is
|
CAI
|
|
Most ineffective drug for diuresis
|
Mannitol
|
|
Irreversible indirect parasympathetic
|
Echothiophate
|
|
Used in acute ventricular arrithymia
|
Lidocaine
|
|
Beta-1 specific drugs were made to
|
Decrease systemic side effects
|
|
What do you treat pseudomonas aeruginosa with
|
Ciproflaxin
|
|
What causes Bulls eye retinopathy
|
Chloroquine
|
|
What drug lowers cholesterol
|
Lovestatin
|
|
What is most likely to be sensitive to the eye
|
Neomycin
|
|
Which drug doesn't induce bronchiospasm
|
Epinephrine
|
|
Which glaucoma med comes in a gel form
|
Pilocarpine
|
|
NSAID's inhibit
|
Arachondonic acid
|
|
Which drug causes transient myopic shifts
|
Pilocarpine
|
|
Catopril is a
|
ACE Inhibitor
|
|
Most potent diuretic is
|
Furosimide
|
|
Only penicillin that is not Beta-lactamase sensitive
|
Nafacillin
|
|
Antifungal most widely used for systemic conditions
|
Ampecterin B
|
|
Constant amount of alcohol being eliminated
|
Zero order kinetics
|
|
Betaxolol is
|
Beta-1 specific
|
|
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
|
Cephalosporins
|
|
Carbechol is longer lasting than
|
Pilocarpine
|
|
What causes color changes in the retina
|
Chloroquine
|
|
Antiviral drugs have what negative effect when used topically
|
Tend to destroy the epithelium
|
|
What prevents white blood cells from reaching the site of injury
|
Glucocorticoids
|
|
|
Decrease side effects,
|
|
Beta-1 specific drugs
|
|
|
|
especially Asthma
|
|
Drug to be used with Epilepsy
|
Phenytoin
|
|
Locks Beta-1, Beta-2, Renin, and decreases cardiac output
|
Propranolol
|
|
Half life of Digoxin and Digitoxin
|
36 hours / 5-7 days
|
|
Inhibits the enzyme that activates Angiotensin-1 to Angiotensin-2
|
Captopril
|
|
Most effective type of diuretic
|
Loop
|
|
Aldosterone antagonist
|
Spirolactone
|
|
Direct anti-kaluretic
|
Triampterine
|
|
Histamin does what to the vascular system
|
Vasodilation
|
|
Decreased accommodation is a side effect of
|
NSAID's
|
|
Inhibits the release of histamine
|
Cromolyn Na+
|
|
Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxocity
|
Aminoglycosides
|
|
Drug used for Herpes Simplex Virus
|
Idoxuridine
|
|
Name two K+ sparing diuretics
|
Spirolactone and Triampterine
|
|
Reversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
|
Salicylic acid
|
|
Irrversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
|
Ibuprofen
|
|
|
Effects alpha receptors more
|
|
How does Norepinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
|
than beta receptors
|
|
|
Effects alpha and beta
|
|
How does Epinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
|
receptors equally
|
|
Acetylcholine activates two different types of receptors
|
Muscarinic and Nicotinic
|
|
Detoxification of drugs, toxins, etc. are carried out by
|
Liver
|
|
|
Inhibit T cell function
|
|
What is the mode of action of Cephaloporine
|
|
|
|
(Immunospressive drug)
|
|
Cortisol does what to glucose blood levels
|
Raises glucose levels
|
|
Cigarette smoking reverses the effect of which drug
|
Theophylline
|
|
Which drug interferes with DNA gyrase
|
Fluoroquinolones
|
|
This drug is a pyrimidine antimetabolite that interferes with DNA
|
Trifluorothymidine (Trifluridine)
|
|
This blocks cyclooxygenase and has an anti-inflammatory property
|
Aspirin
|
|
This drug's major ocular side effect is miosis
|
Morphine
|
|
Major ocular side effect of Digoxin
|
Color vision changes
|
|
Which has the most effect on K+ (Hypokalemia)?
|
Dihydrochlorothiazide
|
|
What is the TI for TD50=2500mg and ED50=50mg
|
50
|
|
Which administration of drug is most variable in means of absorption
|
Oral
|
|
This drug blocks reuptake of Norepinephrine
|
Cocaine
|
|
On a log-dose curve, when an unknown drug is given and the curve shifts to the right,
|
Competitive Antagonist
|
|
but everything else is the same
|
|
|
If a drug binds to the active site of an enzyme, what is it
|
Competitive inhibitor
|
|
Kupffer cells in the liver do what?
|
Phagocytosis
|
|
Lining of the ventricles consists of
|
Single layer of ependymal cells
|
|
What has simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium
|
Bronchioles
|
|
What do astrocytes NOT have
|
Action potentials
|
|
Bile is released into
|
Duodenum
|
|
Bile is stored
|
Gallbladder
|
|
Bile is produced in the
|
Liver
|
|
Medullary pyramids can be seen grossly in the
|
Kidney
|
|
Most resistance to blood flow is determined by
|
Diameter of the arterioles
|
|
Actin and Myosin make up what band
|
A band
|
|
Mental retardation is NOT associated with
|
Marfans
|
|
Which is NOT a urinary buffer
|
Hemoglobulin
|
|
NOT formed by the pancreas
|
Secretin
|
|
The ability of the glomerulus to reabsorb glucose is exceeded in what disease
|
Diabetes
|
|
Why does too much insulin cause a diabetic coma
|
No glucose to the brain
|
|
Distal Convoluted tubule and Collecting tubule become permeable to
|
ADH
|
|
Most lymph nodes can be found in the
|
Small intestine
|
|
Lipid synthesis takes place in
|
Smooth ER
|
|
Respiratory center of the brain is
|
Medulla
|
|
Lack of Dopamine in the substantia nigra results in
|
Parkinson's disease
|
|
During muscle contraction Ca+ binds to what and pulls what away
|
Troponin / Tropomyosin
|
|
Found in the greatest concentration inside the cell
|
K+
|
|
Acts at specific postsynaptic receptor sites to produce changes to target
|
Neurotransmitter
|
|
All reactions of metabolism take place where
|
Outside the nucleus in the
|
|
|
Cytoplasm
|
|
Cytoskeletal fiber found just beneath the Plasma Membrane, solid, and made of Actin
|
Microfilaments
|
|
Cytoskeletal fiber found in deeper region of the cell
|
Microtubules
|
|
The nucleus of a cell is broken down to 80% protein and how much DNA and RNA
|
15% DNA and 5% RNA
|
|
Highly specialized smooth ER of a muscle cell
|
Sacroplasmic Reticulum
|
|
Function of the sacroplasmic reticulum is to
|
Remove Ca+ ions from the
|
|
|
Cytosol
|
|
(+)Ribosomes, (+)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (-)Steroid synthesis
|
Rough ER
|
|
(-)Ribsomes, (-)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (+)Steroid synthesis
|
Smooth ER
|
|
Organelles that contain about 50 different digestive enzymes
|
Lysosomes
|
|
About 36 ATP are produced for each molecule of Glucose in what cycle
|
Aerobic Respiration
|
|
Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen where
|
Cytoplasm
|
|
Major site of ATP production within the cell is
|
Mitochondria
|
|
Intracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
|
High K+ and Low Na+
|
|
Extracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
|
High Na+ and Low K+
|
|
Extracellular fluid consists of three types of fluid
|
Interstitial, Plasma, and Lymph
|
|
Cation that easily passes through the cell membrane
|
Potassium
|
|
Resting membrane potential
|
-65 to -85mV
|
|
|
Na+ is pumped out and K+ is
|
|
Na/K Pump
|
|
|
|
pumped in
|
|
Diffusion that usually requires the help of a protein
|
Facilitated diffusion
|
|
Integrated system of nervous plexi in the wall of the digestive tract
|
Enteric Brain
|
|
Enhances motility and digestive secretions, relaxes muscle sphincter so food can be
|
Parasympathetic Autonomic
|
|
|
|
|
|
Nervous System
|
|
Inhibits contraction of smooth muscle, inhibits enteric brain
|
Sympathetic Autonomic
|
|
|
Nervous System
|
|
Humoral control of GI activity involves
|
ACh, NE, and Serotonin
|
|
|
Exocrine glands in the Fundus
|
|
Stomach secretes gastric juices mostly produced by
|
of the stomach
|
|
|
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
|
|
Exocrine gland secretory cells
|
|
|
|
cells
|
|
|
Pepsin (Chief cells -
|
|
Initiates the digestion of protein in the digestive tract
|
|
|
|
Pepsinogen)
|
|
Activates pepsin and provides optimal pH for enzymatic action in the stomach
|
HCl (Parietal cells)
|
|
|
Intrinsic factor (Secreted by
|
|
Necessary for the absorption of B-12
|
Parietal cells)
|
|
Capable of nearly completing the digestion of fodd in the absence of other secretions
|
Pancreatic juice
|
|
Area of most concentrated human bile
|
Gallbladder > Liver
|
|
Contraction of muscle, does NOT shorten, heat is released, get tension of muscle
|
Isometric contraction
|
|
Contraction of muscle, shortening of muscles, tension is constant, work is done
|
Isotonic contraction
|
|
Involuntary, uni-nucleated, non-striated, and smaller than skeletal muscle fiber
|
Smooth muscle
|
|
Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are made in the liver and are found in what fluid
|
Plasma
|
|
Glucose, AA, Fatty acids, Lactic acid, CO2, and O2 are found in what fluid
|
Plasma
|
|
Particles move from higher to lower contraction in what process
|
Diffusion
|
|
Water moves from lower to higher concentration in what process
|
Osmosis
|
|
Invagination of the plasma membrane
|
Endocytosis
|
|
Amount of solute per liter equals
|
One Osmole
|
|
Exchange of fluids happens at the capillary end and is determined by
|
Osmotic and Hydrostatic
|
|
|
pressure
|
|
Pressure that drives H2O out of the capillaries
|
Hydrostatic pressure (35mmHg)
|
|
|
Osmotic(22mmHg) and Tissue
|
|
Pressure that pulls H2O back into the capillaries
|
|
|
|
pressure
|
|
Hydrostatic pressure is generated by
|
Heart pumping
|
|
Net pressure for forcing fluid out of the capillary is
|
1mmHg
|
|
The glomerulus and Bowman's capsule make up
|
Renal Corpuscle
|
|
Plasma and Solutes leave the circulatory system through large pores in very permeable
|
Glomerular capillaries
|
|
Glomerular capillaries do NOT have large enough pores to let through
|
Platelets and Red & White
|
|
|
blood cells
|
|
Na+ is actively transported out creating an electrial gradient so Cl- follows (H2O will
|
Proximal Convoluted tubules
|
|
|
|
|
65% of the salt and water in the original glomerulus filtrate is reabsorbed back into the
|
Proximal Convoluted tubules
|
|
|
|
|
15% of filtered water and 25% of salt returned to the vascular system
|
Loop of Henle
|
|
In the Loop of Henle, as the tube descends, the Medulla outside does what
|
Increases in concentration
|
|
Water and salt passively leave the tubule
|
Descending Loop of Henle
|
|
Cl- is actively pumped out and Na+ follows
|
Ascending Loop of Henle
|
|
Impermeable to water making the tubule fluid more dilute
|
Ascending Loop of Henle
|
|
Relatively permeable to water keeping tubular fluid dilute
|
Distal Convoluted Tubule
|
|
Impermeable to water, but NOT salt, H2O drawn out by osmosis until exiting urine is
|
|
|
constant
|
Collecting tubule
|
|
Permeability of collecting tubule is controlled by
|
ADH
|
|
Only capillary beds to be drained by arterioles rather than venules
|
Glomeruli
|
|
Surrounds the Loop of Henle and take up water which exits the descending limb
|
Vasa Recta
|
|
Depolarization is due to the
|
Inflow of Na+
|
|
Repolarization is due to the
|
Outward flow of K+
|
|
What drives H2O out of capillaries
|
Heart's Hydrostatic pressure
|
|
Increase in Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
|
Aldosterone
|
|
Parathyroid hormone does what
|
Increase blood Ca+
|
|
Purkinje fibers are or come from
|
Modified cardiac muscle fibers
|
|
Most peripheral resistance is due to
|
Arterioles
|
|
Where does ADH effect the nephron
|
Colleting duct
|
|
Efferent from glomerulus is
|
Arteriole
|
|
What does NOT commonly metastasize
|
Brain
|
|
What organ does NOT commonly infarct
|
Liver
|
|
First part of the ciliary body to form is the
|
Greater Arteriole circle
|
|
The major circle of the iris can be found in the
|
Ciliary body
|
|
Endocardium of the heart is consistent with
|
Tunica Intima
|
|
Myocardium of the heart is
|
Tunica Media
|
|
Epicardium of the heart is
|
Tunica Adventicia
|
|
Oligodendrites are found in the
|
CNS
|
|
Hypothyroidism is associated with
|
Levothyroine (T4)
|
|
Proythiouracil is associated with
|
Hyperthyroidism
|
|
The thyroid gland is at maximal denisity when
|
Aldolescence
|
|
Rheumatoid arthritis is what type of disease
|
Autoimmunity
|
|
No anti-inflammatory properties
|
Aldosterone
|
|
Diagnosis of AIDS can be given when HIV infection is combined with what T4 cell count
|
CD4 count of <200 cells/mm3
|
|
Z line to Z line is called
|
Sacromere
|
|
Actin only (light band)
|
I Band
|
|
Myosin overlapping Actin (dark band)
|
A band
|
|
Myosin band only
|
H band
|
|
In muscle contraction Ca+ is bound to
|
Troponin
|
|
Troponin is bound to
|
Tropomyosin subunit of Actin F
|
|
Does Actin or Myosin pull the other along
|
Myosin head pulls Actin along
|
|
Significance of evoked potentials, CT, PET scanning and MRI
|
Neurological Diagnostic tests
|
|
Visual auditory or tactile stimuli that activate corresponding neuro tract
|
Evoked potentials
|
|
Provides rapid, non-invasive imaging of Sulci, ventricles, grey-white matter
|
CT-scan
|
|
This technique passes a series of collimated x-ray beams through region
|
CT-scan
|
|
Uses uptake of tracer amounts of radio isotopes to measure blood flow, glucose, & O2
|
|
|
|
PET position emission
|
|
|
|
|
Technique uses a magnetic field that aligns H protons in Direction of field
|
MRI
|
|
Useful in determining brainstem lesions, demylineating plaques, brain edema
|
MRI
|
|
Bound to Actin as to block the site of actin/myosin connection
|
Tropomyosin
|
|
Ca+ binds to what to change to the shape to remove tropomyosin from blocking
|
Troponin
|
|
Smooth muscle lacks Troponin and Tropomyosin so Ca+ binds to
|
Calmodulin
|
|
|
Receptor on muscle fiber of
|
|
Acetylchloine is released from motor neuron and binds to
|
plasma membrane
|
|
|
Lateral sacs of sacroplasmic
|
|
The propagated action potential triggers the release of Ca+ from
|
reticulum
|
|
Ca+ binds to troponin which is bound to the tropomyosin subunit of
|
Actin
|
|
Troponin pulls Tropomyosin away from its blocking position permits what
|
Actin and Myosin interaction
|
|
Energy stored in high energy myosin is discharged and myosin heads swivels
|
Pulling on the thin filaments
|
|
ATP binds with what and causes the release of from actin subunites
|
Myosin heads
|
|
ATP splites into what again and returns the myosin heads to high energy state
|
ADP and Phosphate
|
|
Glycogen synthesis, storage, and utilization is conducted where
|
Liver
|
|
Resting membrane potential
|
-60mV
|
|
|
High intracellular K+ and Low
|
|
Reason for membrane potential
|
|
|
|
Na+
|
|
Inside or outside of the cell membrane is more negative
|
Inside
|
|
Brief increase in membrane permeability to Na+
|
Depolarization
|
|
Subsequent increase in membrane permeability to K+ leaving the cell
|
Repolarization
|
|
Muscle and nerve cells use what type of channels
|
Voltage-gated
|
|
Acts as a primary relay station between pre and post synaptic cells
|
Neurotransmitter
|
|
|
Acetylcholine and
|
|
Excitatory neurotransmitters
|
Catacholamines
|
|
Inhibitatroy neurotransmitters
|
Glycine and GABA
|
|
Synthesized and stored in presynaptic nerve terminals
|
Neurotransmitter
|
|
Relaeased in response to an action potential in a Ca+ dependent manner
|
Neurotransmitter
|
|
Renal regulatory mechanisms are by
|
Constriction and Dilaton of
|
|
|
Afferent Arteriole to Glomerulus
|
|
Stimulates constriction of afferent arteriole and will lead to decreased urine formation
|
Increased sympathetic activity
|
|
What pressure range will kidneys maintain a constant rate of urine formation
|
70-180mmHg
|
|
What happens when pressure falls below 70mmHg
|
Afferent Arterioles dilate
|
|
|
Renal control of blood pressure
|
|
What happens when pressure falls below 70mmHg or above 180mmHg
|
|
|
|
and H2O balance
|
|
Decreased BP results in increased sympathetic activity and vasoconstriction of Afferent
|
Decreased urine production and
|
|
|
|
|
|
increase BP
|
|
Releases in response to increased solute concentration
|
ADH from Posterior Pituitary
|
|
Causes increased resorbtion of water, less excretion and more concentrated urine
|
ADH
|
|
Normally how much water is reabsorbed
|
99%
|
|
Na+ and K+ are regulated in the distal tube by
|
Aldosterone
|
|
Aldosterone promotes and contributes to increased blood volume and pressure
|
Na+ retention and K+ loos from
|
|
|
body
|
|
Kidneys regulate Acid-Base balance by excreting what and retaining (+)ions produces
|
H+ / Bicarbonate
|
|
|
|
|
Bicarbonate cannot cross the tubule wall so it is converted to
|
Carbonic acid
|
|
Filtrate of plasma is pushed out of the capillaries into urinary space via hydrostatic
|
|
|
|
Ultrafiltration
|
|
|
|
|
Efferent arteriole constriction increases resistance to outflow from glomerulur thus
|
Increases glomerular filtration
|
|
|
rate and pressure
|
|
Which beats first the left or right side of the heart
|
Both sides beat stimultaneously
|
|
Ventricle contraction and ejection
|
Systolic
|
|
Begins with first heart sound, ends with occurance of 2nd heart sound
|
Systolic
|
|
Ventricular relaxing and filling occur during
|
Diastolic
|
|
Begins with second heart sound, ends with the first heart sound
|
Diastolic
|
|
Determines the rate at which the heart beats
|
Rate of Diastolic Depolarization
|
|
Depolarization of the arterial muscle
|
P-wave
|
|
Depolarization of the ventricles
|
QRS-complex
|
|
Repolarization of the ventricles
|
T-wave
|
|
|
Takes place during Ventricular
|
|
Repolarization of the atrial muscles
|
depolarization
|
|
|
Conduction is blocked between
|
|
P-wave not followed by QRS-complex
|
|
|
|
atrium and ventricle
|
|
QRS very broad and/or abnormal shape
|
Some ventricular muscle was
|
|
|
activated late
|
|
Arterial pressure / resistance
|
Blood flow
|
|
The greatest pressure drop occurs at what level
|
Arterioles due to large
|
|
|
resistance to flow
|
|
1/3 Pulse pressure + Diastolic pressure
|
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
|
|
Systolic - Diastolic
|
Pulse pressure
|
|
Blood vessels are primarily innervated by
|
Sympathetic division of the ANS
|
|
Resting vascular tone is maintain by continuous sympathetic nerve activity origination
|
Vasoactive centers of the
|
|
|
Medulla
|
|
Blood vessels of Heart, skeletal muscle, and liver contain predominantly what type of
|
Beta receptors
|
|
|
|
|
Very potent vasoconstrictor that may play a role in regulation of renal circulation
|
Angiotensin II
|
|
Baroreceptor nerve activity is transmitted to cardiovascular control centers of
|
Medulla
|
|
Receptors located in walls of aorta and carotid sinus that respond to change to arterial
|
Baroreceptors
|
|
|
|
|
Increased BP increases baroreceptor nerve activity and decreases sympathetic nerve
|
Leads to decreased heart rate
|
|
activity to Cardiovasculature
|
and contractility
|
|
Blood volume and regulation is primarily controlled by
|
Kidneys and GI system
|
|
Blood is considered
|
A connective tissue
|
|
Contains Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, Thrombocytes, and Plasma
|
Blood
|
|
Normal % of Hemocrit
|
45%
|
|
Contains hemoglobulin - which transports oxygen
|
Erthrocytes
|
|
No hemoglobulin and comes as granulocytes or agranulocytes
|
Leukocytes
|
|
7,000 to 10,000 per mm cu
|
Leukocytes
|
|
Produced from Megakaryocytes
|
Thrombocytes or Platelets
|
|
Function in transport, pH maintainance, Blood Osmotic pressure, Coagulation
|
Plasma protein
|
|
Lymph vessels empty into the
|
Subclavian vein
|
|
The normal operation of the lymphatic system
|
Prevents edema
|
|
System of vessels that channel back into circulation fluid and plasma protein that have
|
Lymphatic vessels
|
|
leaked to interstitial tissue
|
|
|
Secreted in response to chemical stimulators or neurotransmitters
|
Hormones
|
|
Produce releasing and stimulating hormones which go by vessels to Anterior pituitary
|
Neurons in the Hypothalamus
|
|
Stores and releases the hormones ADH and Oxytocin
|
Posterior Pituitary
|
|
Secretes corticosteroids
|
Adrenal cortex
|
|
Two catergories of corticosteroids
|
Mineralocorticoids and
|
|
|
Glucocorticoids
|
|
A mineralocorticoid
|
Aldosterone
|
|
|
Glucocortoid (i.e.
|
|
Help regulate metabolism of glucose and other organic molecules
|
|
|
|
Hydrocortisone)
|
|
Secretes small amounts of androgens
|
Adrenal cortex
|
|
Regulates the adrenal cortex
|
Adrenocorticotrophic hormones
|
|
What does the adrenal medulla secrete
|
Catacholamine hormones
|
|
|
Norepinephrine and
|
|
Two main catacholamine hormones
|
Epinephrine
|
|
Hormone secreted into blood upon stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
|
Catacholamines
|
|
Hormone from the thalamus which causes the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary
|
TRH
|
|
|
T3 and T4 from the thyroid
|
|
When TSH reaches the thyroid gland it causes the release of
|
follicles
|
|
Act as negative feedback on Anterior pituitary to decrease the release of TSh
|
T3 and T4
|
|
Islets of Langerhans secretes insulin through its
|
Beta cells
|
|
Islets of Langerhans secretes glucagon through its
|
Alpha cells
|
|
What will cause an increase of insulin and decrease in glucagon
|
Increased glucose
|
|
Stimulates the breakdown of glycogen
|
Glucagon
|
|
Sympathtetic nerve stimulation causes this secretion
|
Glucagon
|
|
|
73
|
|
Parasympathetic nerve stimualtion causes this secretion
|
Insulin
|
|
|
Increased blood sugar which
|
|
Leads to increase of lipogenesis, decreased lipolysis, decrease of ketogenesis
|
|
|
|
increases insulin
|
|
Promotes protein synthesis and stimulates the release of FA from adipose tissue
|
Growth hormones
|
|
A fall in blood calcium level stimulates the secretion of
|
Parathyroid hormone
|
|
Increases in Ca+ levels via bone resorption, intestinal resorption and renal resorption
|
Parathyroid hormone
|
|
A prehormone that is formed in the skin or ingested in the diet
|
Vitamin D
|
|
Has the same effect as parathyroid hormone, but also causes reabsorption of renal
|
Vitamin D
|
|
|
|
|
Lowers Ca+ levels by reducing bone resorption and increases clearance of Ca+ and
|
Tyrocalcitonin
|
|
phosphate
|
|
|
|
Leutenizing Hormone(LH) &
|
|
Gonadotrophins
|
Follicle Stimulating
|
|
|
Hormone(FSH)
|
|
LH in females and FSH in males regulate
|
Development of egg and sperm
|
|
Stimulates growth and development of the gonads
|
FSH
|
|
Triggers ovulation as well as stimulate testerone production
|
LH
|
|
Prolactin levels rise, increases secretions on insulin, Aldosterone, Cortisol, and Thyroxin
|
During pregnancy
|
|
|
Prolactin, Estrogen,
|
|
Stimulate breast development in preparation for nursing
|
Progesterone
|
|
Production and release of milk from the breast is largely controlled by
|
Prolactin and Oxytocin
|
|
Proteins are broken down in the stomach by
|
Pepsin
|
|
Which vascular system is not under autonmic control?
|
Retina
|
|
A band conists of what?
|
Myosin and Actin
|
|
The cell is bi-lobed and has granules stained red
|
Eosinophils
|
|
Cholesterol is carried to peripheral tissues by what?
|
LDL
|
|
What is the air expired after a strong inspiration>
|
Tidal volume
|
|
Bicarbonate to CO2 concentration ratio in blood is
|
20
|
|
The glomerulus is located in what part of the kidney
|
Cortex
|
|
This hormone has an ion channel and receptor located on one membrane complex unit
|
Nicotinic
|
|
Which organ has both endocrine and exocrine functions
|
Pancreas
|
|
What causes glomerular pressure to be so high?
|
Capillaries
|
|
Which part of the digestive tract has villi
|
Small intestine
|
|
Increased levels of ADH in the blood causes the tonicity of urine to
|
Increase
|
|
What is responsible for contraction of the inner and outer layer of a muslce as one unit
|
T-tubule
|
|
Cardiac output is equal to heart rate times
|
Stroke volume
|
|
Illusionary movement of an object in a dark room
|
Autokinetic effect
|
|
Cell bodies for the optic radiations are located where
|
LGN
|
|
Parvo cells of the LGN are responsible for
|
Small objects, stable, foveal,
|
|
|
high SF vision
|
|
What are the units of luminous flux?
|
Lumens
|
|
A red screen is placed against a green screen, what comes out?
|
No light comes out
|
|
|
Spiral spinning in the opposite
|
|
Look at a spiral spinning object and then it stops. What do you see?
|
direction
|
|
What VA is equivalent to 30cycles/degree?
|
20/20
|
|
Light deprived leads to
|
Myopia
|
|
Red chip and green chip appear equally bright in scoptopic conditions, but at photopic
|
|
|
levels?
|
Red chip appears brighter
|