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55 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Steatorrhea is caused by what?
Malabsorption of fats
Frictional irritation produced by loose-fitting dentures can cause papillary hyperplasia of the palate. Thee masses are very small painless polypoid masses which are red-colored and bleed easily. Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
a) is a marker for increased risk of oral squamous cell carcinoma
b) is limited to the hard palate
c) is limited to the soft palate
d) is an allergic contact stomatitis
e) involves both hard and soft palate
is limited to the hard palate
What is the Most common benign soft-tumor lesion occurring in the oral cavity?
Fibroma
What best describes pleomorphic adenomas of the parotid gland?
A neoplasm which typically contains chondroid material
Which of the following organisms is Most responsible for the endocarditis?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus sanguis
d) Streptococcus viridans
Streptococcus viridans
Which of the following is NOT a factor that predisposes an individual to venous thrombosis?
a) thrombocytopenia
b) paraproteinaemia
c) thrombophlebitis
d) dehydration
e) polycythaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Aortic valve regurgitation and incompetence is Most frequently caused by?
Rheumatic fever
What i the most likely diagnois that would cause a floppy mitral valve with a prolapse of the mitral valve and rupture of the chordae tendieae is discovered?
Marfan's Syndrome
The major determinant of virulence among strains of Escherichia coli that cause neonatal meningitis is mediated by?
K-antigen
Which of the following statements is NOT true about fermentative metabolism in bacteria?
a) In fermentation, an organic molecule serves as the terminal electron acceptor
b) Obligate fermenters lack an electron transport chain
c) The same amount of ATP is generated in both lactic acid and ethanol fermentation
d) fermentation is unique to bacteria
e) anaerobic respiration yields more energy than fermentation
Fermentation is unique to bacteria
Which of the following does NOT characterize rotavirus?
a) rotaviruses have a segmented genome
b) rotaviruses have enveloped particles
c) rotaviruses are uncoated in lysosomal compartments
d) rotaviruses replicates in the cytoplasm of host cell
e) rotaviruses are double stranded RNA viruses
rotaviruses have enveloped particles
Each of the following statements concern neoplasms except one. Which one is the exception?
a) The microscopic demonstration of tumor cells in blood vessels is not a reliable indicator of metastasis
b) skeletal muscle is an uncommon site of metastasis
c) sarcomas tend to spread hematogenously
d) the spleen is a common site of metastasis
The spleen is a common site of metastasis
The primary bacteria which are involved in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is?
Fusobacterium nucleatum and Spirochetes
Which of the following bacterial toxins is NOT found to exhibit ADP-ribosylation?
a) Pertusis toxin
b) Exotoxin A of pesudomonas aeruginosa
c) Diptheria toxin
d) Shiga toxin
e) Cholera toxin
Shiga Toxin
Which of the following statements does NOT describe oncogenes?
a) Oncogenes are derived from viral DNA that has been incorporated into the genome
b) Some oncogene products activate nuclear transcription
c) Some oncogenes products are growth factors
d) some oncogene products are involved in signal transduction
e) some oncogene products are growth factor receptors
Oncogenes are derived from viral DNA that has been incorporated into the genome
Which of the following does NOT characterize rotavirus?
a) rotaviruses have a segmented genome
b) rotaviruses have enveloped particles
c) rotaviruses are uncoated in lysosomal compartments
d) rotaviruses replicates in the cytoplasm of host cell
e) rotaviruses are double stranded RNA viruses
rotaviruses have enveloped particles
Each of the following statements concern neoplasms except one. Which one is the exception?
a) The microscopic demonstration of tumor cells in blood vessels is not a reliable indicator of metastasis
b) skeletal muscle is an uncommon site of metastasis
c) sarcomas tend to spread hematogenously
d) the spleen is a common site of metastasis
The spleen is a common site of metastasis
The primary bacteria which are involved in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is?
Fusobacterium nucleatum and Spirochetes
Which of the following bacterial toxins is NOT found to exhibit ADP-ribosylation?
a) Pertusis toxin
b) Exotoxin A of pesudomonas aeruginosa
c) Diptheria toxin
d) Shiga toxin
e) Cholera toxin
Shiga Toxin
Which of the following statements does NOT describe oncogenes?
a) Oncogenes are derived from viral DNA that has been incorporated into the genome
b) Some oncogene products activate nuclear transcription
c) Some oncogenes products are growth factors
d) some oncogene products are involved in signal transduction
e) some oncogene products are growth factor receptors
Oncogenes are derived from viral DNA that has been incorporated into the genome
The correct phase of growth observed in a standard bacterial growth curve when new cells are added to sterile media is?
a) Log, stationary, lag, death
b) Lag, log, stationary, death
c) Stationary, log, lag, death
d) Stationary, lag, log, death
e) Log, lag, stationary, death
Lag, Log, Stationary, Death
Which of the following does NOT manufacture IgA protease?
a) Neisseria meningitidis
b) Legionella pneumophila
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Streptococcocus pneumoniae
e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Legionella pneumophila
A patient is diagnosed as being HIV positive. The patient is taking antiviral drugs such as acyclovir and asidothymidine (AZT) which targets the?
Viral reverse transcriptase enzyme
Which of the following identifying notations is applied when an F+ integrates an F plasmid into its chromosome?
a) F minus
b) competent factor
c) F plus
d) F prime
e) Hfr
Hfr
A patient with pulmonary atelectasis has a(n)?
reversible loss in lung volume
Which of the following is a correct statement about the Herpes symplex virus, Hepatitis B virus and Human Papillomavirus?
a) Only the genome of Herpes simplex virus is RNA and the genomes of the other two viruses are DNA
b) Only the genome of Hepatitis B virus is RNA and the genomes of the other two viruses are DNA
c) Only the genome of Human Papilloma is RNA and the genomes of the other two viruses are DNA
d) The genomes of the viruses listed above are all DNA
e) The genomes of the viruses listed above are all RNA
The genomes of the viruses listed above are all DNA
When using a microscope, which of the following concern the resolution of a microscope?
a) the resolution of the microscope is determined by an inverse relationship with the magnification of the microscope
b) the resolution of the microscope is only a function of the numerical aperture of the microscope
c) the resolution of the microscope is the same as the magnification of the microscope
d) the resolution of the microscope is determined by a direct relationship with the magnification of the microscope
e) the resolution of the microscope is not determined by the magnification of the microscope
the resolution of the microscope is not determined by the magnification of the microscope
Each of the following are examples of tumor markers Except one. Which one is this exception?
a) beta-2 microglobulin
b) alpha-fetoprotein
c) alpha HCG, human chorionic gonadotropin
d) thyroglobulin
Alpha HCG, human chorionic gonadotropin
During the acute phase response, an elevation in bod temperature, increased activation of B and T lymphocytes and neutrophils, and secretion of the acute phase proteins is due to the long ranging effects of?
IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
Each of the following hypersensitivity responses is antibody-mediated Except one.
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Type IV
The secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that the secondary immune response?
Results in a higher concentrations of long-term IgG titer
Your patient becomes infected with papilloma virus. Which of the following is caused by an infection of the papilloma virus?
a) tinea corporis
b) hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
c) tubular adenomas
d) verruca vulgaris
e) thrush
verruca vulgaris
A patient is diagnosed with DiGeorge's Syndrome manifesting as having either no thymus, very sall thymus or a misplaced thymus. As a result, this patient would have low counts of?
T cells
Grave's disease is Most commonly associated with which of the following disorders?
a) Guillain-Barre syndrome
b) Botulism
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) Myasthenia gravis
e) Stiff-man syndrome
Myasthenia Gravis
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by a mutation in a?
Chloride Transport Protein
A patient has developed a deep lesion on his maxillary first molar. Which of the following is an aciduric bacteria that is a late colonizer which establishes itself in deep dental caries?
a) Streptococcus mitis
b) Actinomyces
c) Streptococcus sanguis
d) Lactobacillus
e) Streptococcus salivarius
Lactobacillus
Which of the following is a malignant tumor?
a) hemangioma
b) hepatoma
c) nevus
d) lipoma
e) leiomyoma
Hepatoma
a fatigued 31-year old female presents complaining of a slight fever, diarrhea, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. While auscultating, you notice labored breathing and hear rales when the patient inspires. The dentist also observes a positive Babinski reflex. When restoring her premolar, she coughs up blood. The Most likely diagnosis of the patient is?
Pulmonary tuberculosis
A dental hygienist informs you that she is forced to quit her job because she has Hodgkin's disease. The most frequent variant of Hodgkin's disease is?
Nodular sclerosis
Which of the following associations between leukocytes and its function is Not correct?
a) Eosinophils- attack parasitic worms
b) Neutrophils- attack bacteria
c) Monocytes- secrete antibodies
d) Lymphocytes- kill virus infected cells
e) Basophils- release histamine and heparin
Monocytes- secrete antibodies
The liver responds to inflammatory cytokines by increasing synthesis of certain serum proteins (acute phase proteins) which act as enzyme inhibitors, proteins or scavengers. The acute-phase protein that gives a useful marker of the persistence of and extent of inflammation is?
C reactive protein
Free radicals cause cell injury in each of the following mechanisms Except one.
a) inhibits oxidative phosphorylation by mitochondria
b) promotes cross-linking of proteins
c) produces fragmentation of polypeptides
d) moderate lipid peroxidation of cell membranes
e) produces single-stranded breaks in DNA
inhibits oxidative phosphorylation by mitochondria
Each of the following is required for initiation of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells Except one?
a) EF-2
b) Methionyl-tRNA
c) GTP
d) eIF-2
e) A 40S ribosomal subunit
EF-2
Sterilization of dental surgical instruments that are heat-sensitive can be accomplished by?
Ethylene oxide
Many differences exist between benign and malignant tumors. The most important factor in distinguishing malignant from benign tumor is?
The presence of metastases
Which of the following is NOT part of the mucosal immune system?
a) Cerebrospinal fluid and choroid plexus
b) Intestinal tract
c) Lactating mammary gland
d) Oral cavity including the salivary glands
e) Upper respiratory tree
Cerebrospinal fluid and choroid plexus
Which of the following molecules acts as a bearing enhancer for the process of phagocytosis?
a) Opsonins
b) Phagosomes
c) Cytokines
d) Phagolysosomes
e) Lysosomes
Opsonins
What disorder is due to a vitamin D deficiency in adults?
Osteomalacia
Rheumatic Fever is classified as a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following is the chief difference between a Type II and a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?
a) distribution of antigen-antibody complexes
b) class of antibody
c) participation of complement
d) participation of T cells
Distribution of antigen-antibody complexes
Which of the following toxins does NOT increase cAMP concentrations in host cells?
a) E coli heat stable toxin (ST)
b) Cholera toxin
c) Anthrax edema toxin
d) Pertussis toxin
e) E coli heat labile toxin (LT)
E coli heat stable toxin (ST)
Which of the following is the largest virus?
a) parvoviridae
b) herpesviridae
c) orthomixoviridae
d) poxviridae
e) papovaviridae
Poxviridae
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of Coxsackievirus and poliovirus?
a) poliovirus infects only primates while coxsackievirus has a broader range of hosts
b) coxsackievirus shows induction of interferon while poliovirus shows poor induction of interferon
c) the rate of release of coxsackievirus from infected cells is slower than the rate of release of poliovirus
d) poliovirus demonstrates fecal to oral transmission while coxsackievirus does not
e) poliovirus demonstrates greater infectivity for human nerve tissue while coxsackievirus does not
Poliovirus demonstrates fecal to oral transmission while coxsackievirus does not
a hypercoaguable state can NOT be induced by
a) protein C deficiency
b) tissue damage
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) protein S deficiency
e) constant use of aspirin
constant use of aspirin
A 23 year old patient complains of being amenorrheic. You observe that your patient's height is abnormally below average and has a webbed neck along with small breasts. If you were given a chest x-ray, rib notching would be present. Which of the following genetic disorders does this patient have?
a) Turner's syndrome
b) Klinefelter's syndrome
c) Marfan's syndrome
d) Testicular feminization
e) Female psuedohermaphroditism
Turner's Syndrome
Which of the following is the MOST common presenting complaint or symptom of Wilm's tumor in children?
a) Abdominal mass
b) Frequency of urination
c) Severe pain in upper abdomen
d) Cachexia
e) Hematuria
Abdominal Mass