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438 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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no less than how many weeks prior to the PFA must CFL's conduct a preliminary (courtesy) BCA, upon request of any member? |
10 weeks
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What is the Body Composition Assessment?
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The maximum weight for height screening and body fat percentage estimation based on circumference measurements
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Whos is responsible for physical fitness of command personnel?
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Commanding Officer
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Who is responsible for establishing Navy PFA standards and FEP guidance?
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COMNAVPERSCOM
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At least one CPR- certified monitor will be present for every ______ members participating in the PRT, with a minimum of two monitors for every test.
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25
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CFL's shall report any injuries related to physical readiness program to whom?
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Command Safety Officer
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Immediate superiors in command shall ensure subordinate commands enter accurate PRIMS data for all command members within how many days of completing each PFA cycle?
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30 days
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PRT shall not be conducted under harsh environmental condition. Specifically, PRT should not be conducted outdoors when wind chill is ____ degrees fahrenheit or lower, or when hot weather "black flag" conditions exist of ____ degrees fahrenheit or higher
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20/90
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How often should CFL's confer with the CO to discuss current and impeding referrals for Ship-Shape, progress of personnel in FEP, or other items of mutual concern?
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Quarterly
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Pollution can result when these types of agents are introduced into the air, water, or soil.
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Biological, Chemical, Physical
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Which operations cause the most pollution?
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Industrial, Municipal, Transportation
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Which material is the primary municipal pollutant?
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Raw or inadequately treated sewage
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Which mode of transportation creates most air pollutants?
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Motor vehicles
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which effect of pollution is the most serious?
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Biological
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Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed to what air pollutant?
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Sulfur oxides
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most pesticides fall into which category?
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nonselective
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what is the primary pollution concern of navy personnel?
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shipboard wastes
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what term identifies abatement?
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Lowering
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Under the Clean Air Act, what government body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality?
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each state
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Virtually all navy ships have some type of sanitation device installed. Which type of system retains sewage on board for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed?
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Collection, holding, and transfer
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When operating sanitation devices in foreign waters, navy ships comply with what requirement?
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Status of forces agreement
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Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline?
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25 nautical miles
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submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms?
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1,000 fathoms
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the navy's land management program involves what effort?
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soil and water conservation
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from what part of the world does the U.S. import most of its crude oil?
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middle east
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What program provides information and support for navy personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
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Overseas duty support program
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The military cash awards program (MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount?
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$25,000
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The navy's health and physical readiness program promotes health and fitness at the command level. As part of this program, naval personnel are required to undergo fitness testing at what interval
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Semiannually
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"informing the public and members if the naval service about navy operations programs" is the mission of...
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PAO
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Extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resorces.
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Waste
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Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights.
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Fraud
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Intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources.
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Abuse
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If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount?
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$5,000
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The guidance and policy for making sure that equal opportunity works rests with what office?
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Chief of Naval Operations
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Who is responsible for making equal opportunity a reality within the command?
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Commanding officer
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In what year was the code of conduct first prescribed?
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1955
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The code of conduct was adopted to provide guidance for service personnel in what circumstance?
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When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
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In what year was executive order 12633 issued amending the code of conduct to use neutral-gender language?
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1988
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how many articles make up the code of conduct?
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six
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When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender to the enemy?
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never
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During a class discussion, what questioning technique should be used?
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thought provoking
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for enclosed storage spaces that contain chlorinated solvents, an air change is recommended how often?
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3 minutes
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which instruction provedes detailed instructions on a wide range of safety concerns?
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OPNAV 5100
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On non-nuclear powered ships, audits for tag outs are required at what minimum interval?
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every 2 weeks
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under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution is sited for what area?
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preservation of the accused rights
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The ASG consists of how many volumes?
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seven
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message requisitions are submitted in a specified format and must convey the same data that is required on which form?
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NAVSUP form 1250-1
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A cognizance symbol has how many alphanumeric characters?
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two
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What type of CASREP report is submitted when equipment is back in operation condition?
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Correction
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The hat device is centered on the front of the ball cap how many inches above the visor?
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1 and 1/4 inches
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the hazardous materials information system is a computerized database of what item?
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Material safety data sheets (MSDSs)
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when an enlisted person violates a regulation in the presence of both an officer and a petty officer, who is responsible for correcting the violator?
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the petty officer
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in what year was the department of air force established?
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1947
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when there are five rounds in a magazine, you an see the brass casing of a bullet in what opening from the bottom of the magazine?
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third
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how many documents does the tag out log contain?
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three
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the personnel qualification system (PQS) is designed to qualify a sailor for a specific watch station ar what level?
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minimum level
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as a memmber of the armed forces, you believe that you have been wronged by your CO. After due application to the CO, are refused redress. Under what article of the UCMJ may you complain to any superior officer?
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article 138
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what log contains information on policy changes and routine items, such as liberty call times?
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Passdown log
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with holding of a privilege rests with which of the following authorities?
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The person that grants the privilege
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In addition to wearing PPE for organic cleaning solvents, you must wear an oxygen breathing apparatus and notify the gas-free engineer if vapors accumulate over how many parts per million?
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100
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what organization is presidentially chartered and mandated by congress to develop ballistic missile and cruise missile defense systems that are capable of providing a limited defense of the U.S.?
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Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
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What article of the Constitution provides that the executive power shall be vested in the president of the united states?
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2 section 1
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extra military instruction is classified as what type of corrective action?
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non-punitive
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what organization assists the military departments in their research and development efforts?
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Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
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The POOW should notify the OOD of a change during any 1 hour period in the barometric pressure reading of a minimum of how many inches?
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0.04
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if 20% of your people are causing 80% of the problems, how much of your administrative time can you expect to spend dealing with this same 20%?
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80% to 90%
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When a gun salute is prescribed on arrival it is fired as the visitor approaches and is...
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still clear of the side
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where can you find a list of offenses that must be reported?
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Uniform Code of Military Justice
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What is the maximum time period a closure or fitting may be logged open?
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24 hours
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Within how many days after receipt of orders must an overseas screening update message be sent?
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15 days
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To whom will requests for navy members to perform duty with the army, air force, or coast gueard be addressed?
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CNO
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Whose authority is required to rescind command sponsorship at an overseas duty stattion?
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SECNAV via CNO
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Members with more than how many family members will not normally be assigned to overseas duty?
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3 family members
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What is required in order for dependents to travel to the overseas PDS at goverment expense?
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Dependent Entry Approval
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If a pregnant service member is in the 3rd trimester at scheduled date of transfer, how many weeks after the birth will the service member and the newborn be screened for transfer?
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6 weeks |
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what is the enlisted code for overseas duty?
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Sea/Shore Type 6
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for E1-E4, at what debt to income ratio is member considered unsuitable for overseas service?
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30
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What does EFM stand for?
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Exceptional family member
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army members normally serve a minimum of ___ months and a maximum of ___ months when serving with the navy?
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24 and 36
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A member may be seperated from the navy early if a member has less than how many days of bligated service before his/her is scheduled to change home ports?
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90 days |
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overseas screening should be completed within how many days?
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30 days
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army evals will be prepared by a member who has supervised that individual for approximately how long?
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30 days
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All family members should be screened unless a member is in receipt of unaccompanied orders for tour lengths less than ___ months (except where)?
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24 months: Diego Garcia and Souda Bay Crete
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normal tours of duty with the coast guard last for how long, to a maximum of how long?
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18 to 24 months
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members in paygrades ____ with family members and pregnant service members in paygrades ____ shall not be assigned overseas duty.
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E3 and below
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Under what article of the UCMJ may a member be prosecuted if he/she fails to report any situation that could change his/her or dependents' suitability status?
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article 107
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for how long are suitability determinations valid?
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3 years |
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pregnant service members must arrive at an overseas duty station before which week of pregnancy?
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29th week
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for how long must a member obligate to serve at an overseas duty station in order to obtain command sponsorship for dependents who returned to CONUS early at government expense?
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24 months
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what is the enlisted code for non-rotated sea duty?
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Sea/Shore code 4
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what is the enlisted code for overseas remote land based sea duty?
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Sea/Shore code 3
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What size are women's earrings in uniform?
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4mm-6mm ball (approx 1/8 to 1/4 inch) |
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the length of an individual mustache hair fully extended shall not exceed approximately how long?
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1/2 inch
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fingernails shall not exceed how many inches measured from the fingertip?
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1/4 inch
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men's hair shall be no longer than ____ inches?
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4 inches
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how many rings per hand are authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set?
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one ring
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The bulk of mens hair shall not exceed approximately how many inches?
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2 inches
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for women wearing jumper uniforms, hair may not extend a maximum or how many inches below the top of the jumper collar?
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1-1/2 inches
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the chin strap is ____ inch wide, faced with gold lace and fastened at each end by a 22 1/2 line, navy eagle, gilt button?
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3/8 inches |
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the garrison cap insignia is pinned to the left side of the cap in an upright position with the center ___ inches from the front seam and ___ inches above the bottom edge.
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2 to 1-1/2 inches
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the blue rain cape prescribed for the U.S. Navy band is authorized for which of the following personnel?
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officers and chief petty officers
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mourning badges are worn on the ___ for officers and on the ___ for enlisted personnel.
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left for officers and right for enlisted
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who may authorize enlisted naval personnel assigned to marine corps organizations to wear marine corps utilities?
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commanding officer
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how long after returning from convalescent leave may the maternity uniform be worn?
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6 months
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which chapter in the navy uniform regulation cover (special uniform situations)?
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chapter 6
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who are included in a department level CDB?
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LCPO, LPO, Department career counselor
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the CCC will maintain minutes for every CDB for how long?
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2 years
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command level CDB will see first enlistment sailors within ___ days of reporting.
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30 days
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department level CDB will see all sailor on a second or subsequent enlistment within ___ days of reporting.
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60 days
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a command level CDB is required for sailors who PNA the advancement exam ___ times?
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3 times
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a command level CDb is required for a sailor who has a standard exam score of ___ or below?
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40
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when shall a CDB be conducted for a sailor who is approaching HYT?
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2 years
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who will participate as the technical advisor on the CDB?
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ESO
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what is CDT?
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Career Development Team
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how often are department and division career counselor meetings to be held?
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monthly
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which instruction provides requiremnts to establish the command sponsor indoctrination program?
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OPNAVINST 1740.3A
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what MILPERSMAN article must be used when determining a sailor's eligibility for reenlistment?
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MILPERSMAN 1160-020
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personnel transferring to the fleet reserve or retiring should begin transition counseling or transition assistance program at what point?
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24 months
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a naval reservist must earn a minimum of how many retiremnet points in an anniversary year to be credited with a year of satisfactory service for retirement purposes?
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50
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what is the minimum amount of years that must be served in the naval reserves before a member can retire?
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8 years
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the president has authority to call up selected reservists for ___ days with the authority to extend for ____ more days.
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270-90
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what is a centralized reenlistment reservation system?
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perform to serve
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at what time before EAOS/PRD are personnel in their first enlistment who are recommendded for retention are identified and applied to PTS?
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15 months
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what time before EAOS/PRD does NAVPERSCOM begin to review PTS applications?
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12 months
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seperating/undecided sailors complete the DD 2648 at what time before EAOS/PRD?
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12 months
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what are the minimum and maximum service requirements for the selective reenlistment bonus program?
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at least 21 months active naval service, excluding annual training, but not more than 14 years of active military servce
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which directive contains eligibility requirements for the SRB program?
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OPNAV 1160.6
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what program offers career incentives to members who reenlist for conversion to critically undermanned ratings?
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selective conversion and reenlistment (SCORE) program
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what are the requirements for LDO?
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completed at least 8 years but no more than 16 years as of Oct 1st
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what are the requirements for CWO?
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completed 12 years but not more than 24 years as of Oct 1st
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what are the age requirements for seaman to admiral?
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at least 22 but have not reached 27 by 30 Sep
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what is the cutoff date of active service for members to change their rate or rating?
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12 years
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what is the only cost to sailors participating in the navy college program for afloat college education (NCPACE)
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Books
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terrorist ____ vary in sophistication according to the level of training the individual or group has received.
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tactics
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Under the five terrorist force protection conditions, please name the force protection condition- declared when a general threat of possible terrorist activity is directed toward an instillation, vessels or personnel, the nature of which are unpredictable and where circumstances do not justify full implementation of FP condition
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Bravo
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under terrorist attack methodology- (enter what phase is discussed in the statement) once a terrorist or terrorist group decides to conduct an attack they begin the process of target selection.
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Phase one- Target operations
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under terrorists levels (from the 4 DOD threat levels)- terrorists groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity. The operating environment favors the host nation
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Moderate
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Under terrorist levels (from the 4 DOD levels)- No terrorist group is detected or the group activity in nonthreatoning.
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Low
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Which type of terrorist activity involves a building or object that has value in the eyes of the audience?
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Seizure
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A critical factor in understanding terrorism is the ______ impact of the terrorist act on an audience other than the victim.
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Emotional
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Which type of terrorist activity is sometimes employed as a means of escape, is normally carried out to produce a spectacular hostage situation.
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Hijacking
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Under terrorist levels (the 4 DOD threat levels)- an anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is substantial DOD presence and the operation environment favors the terrorist.
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High
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Which is the crime of maliciously setting fire to a building or the property of another person?
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Arson
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Under terrorist force protection conditions, name the force protection condition- declared when a terrorist attack has occured in the immediate area or inteligence indicates a terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely. Declared only as a localized warning.
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Delta
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Under terrorist methodology-(enter what phase is discussed in the statement) Based on the phase two surveillance, the terrorist selcts a target, or set of targets.
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Phase three- Target selection
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The terrorist is usually a covert seizure of one or more specific persons in order to exact specific demands.
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Kidnapping
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Terrorist threat levels do not address when a _____ attack will occur and do not specify a force protection condition status.
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Terrorist
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Under terrorist force protection conditions, name the force protection condition- Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only a routine security posture.
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Normal
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What message is a time sensitive incident notification message indicated by navy anti-terrorist alert center?
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Blue Dart message
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What does ATAC stand for?
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Navy anti-terrorist alert center
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Who is a member of a political party who rebels against established leadership?
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Insurgents
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What does RAM stand for?
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Random anti-terrorism measures
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What does SOFA stand for?
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Status of forces agreement
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What is the new name for THREATCON?
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Terrorist force protection condition
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What does FAST stand for?
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Fleet anti-terrorism security team
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What does SWDG stand for?
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surface warfare development group
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What is the navy's goal of AT/FP program?
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Deter, deny, and defeat
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What does SETL stand for?
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Security environment threat list
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What are the terrorist threat levels?
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Low, moderate, significant, and high
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What are the first lines of defense in AT/FP?
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intelligence and counterintelligence
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What navy doctrine covers anti-terrorism/force protection?
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NWP 3-07.2
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OFFENSIVE measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism is______
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counter-terrorism
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A security program to protect service members, civilian employees, family members, facilities, and equipment is?
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Force protection
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How many different cells are found within a terrorist group?
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Three
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What is the most common and readily assembled terrorist device?
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Pipe bombs
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What manual is for combating terrorism?
|
DoD O 2000.12-H DOD Anti-Terrorism Handbook
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Who produces assessments of the actual or potential terrorist threat targeted against U.S. military interest throughout the world?
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DIA
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Who has primary investigative and counterintelligence jurisdiction within the department of the navy?
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NCIS
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Who maintains a constant watch to analyze various information and intelligence for possible terrorist threats agaisnt navy and marine corps commands?
|
ATAC- Navy Anti-Terrorist Alert Center
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What are the four levels of AT/FP training?
|
Level 1- individual
Level 2- Unit FPO/ATTO Level 3- PCO/XO leadership Level 4- Senior executive |
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What is the minimum active duty and reserve service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer?
|
5 years active duty
3 years reserve |
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What does NAPS stand for?
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The Naval Academy Preparatory School
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Applicants of the Naval Academy must be at least what age and not have past what birthday?
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17-23 on the induction day
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What does OCS stand for?
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Officer candidate school
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Graduates of OCS are appointed as ensigns, U.S. naval reserves and incur a minimum active duty obligation of how many years?
|
4 years
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What is MECP?
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Medical Enlisted Commisioning Program
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What does MSC IPP stand for?
|
Medical Service Corps In-Service Procurement Program
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Who are technically oriented officers who perform duties in specific occupational fields and require strong managerial skills?
|
LDO's
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Who are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field?
|
CWO's
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Active duty TAR personnel selected for CWO receive an initial appointment of ____ in the the U.S. navy and incur a minimum active duty obligation of ____ years/
|
CWO2 / 4 years
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Active duty CWO's selected for LDO will be appointed in the permanent grade of _____ in the U.S. navy.
|
LTJG (O2E)
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Applicants of LDO must be serving in paygrade ____ through ___ or be an ____ selection board eligible for E-7.
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E-7 through E-8 or be an E-6 selection board eligible for E-7
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Applicants of the LDO progam must have at least ____ years active duty service and no more than ____ years.
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8-16 years
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Applicants of the CWO program must be on active duty and must have at least ____ years, but no more than ____ years of active duty service.
|
12/24 years
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What does LDO stand for?
|
Limited Duty Officer
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To be considered for NAPS, applicants should not have passed what age by 1 July of the year that they will enter NAPS?
|
22
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Naval Academy candidate packets should be completed by what date of the year for which the service member is applying for entry?
|
1 March
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Service members offered an appointment must have a minimum of how many months of active obligated service, as of 1 July of the entering year?
|
24 months
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Naval Academy graduates, upon appointment, are required to serve on active duty for a minimum of ____ years active and ____ years reserve.
|
5 years active, 3 years reserve
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each candidate must remit approximately how much money, upon admission to the Naval Academy, as an entry deposit, which is applied to the initial uniform issue?
|
$2,500
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How long is the OCS program?
|
13 weeks
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For Surface warfare (1165), you must be at least ____ years of age and be able to complete OCS and be commissioned prior to the ____ birthday. Waivers may be considered up to the ____ birthday.
|
19 years, 29th birthday, 31st birthday
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How many officer interviews are required for applicants?
|
Three
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Which directive contains information on Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
|
OPNAVINST 3500.39
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What is an effective process for maintaining readiness in peacetime and achieving success in combat without infringing upon the perogatives of the commander?
|
Operational Risk Management
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Operational Risk Management is integrated into what level of a command?
|
All levels of the command
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What is a condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage or mission degradation?
|
Hazard
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What is meant by the ORM term risk?
|
An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability
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The process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks is called?
|
Risk Assessment
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How many steps does the ORM process have?
|
Five
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How many process levels does ORM have?
|
Three
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What level of the ORM process is employed by experienced personnel to consider risk while making decisions in a time-compressed situation?
|
Time-critical
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What level of the ORM process uses primarily experience and brainstorming to identify hazards and develop controls (and therefore is most effective when done in a group)?
|
Deliberate
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What level of the ORM process is used to more thoroughly study the hazards and their associated risk in a complex operation or system, or one in which the hazards are not well understood?
|
In-Depth
|
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|
How many principles of ORM are there?
|
Four
|
|
|
Any enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependent with ____ days of entry on active duty may be processed for administrative separation as a "defective and fraudulant enlistment" if the evidence shows that the member concealed a disqualifying pre-service alcohol incident history.
|
180 days
|
|
|
each command shall submit to the NAVDRUGLAB samples from ____ to ____ percent of its assigned personnel monthly
|
10 to 20
|
|
|
ALCOHOL-AWARE is basic alcohol awareness training for use at navy commands. It targets junior enlisted (E1-E4) and junior officers (O1-O3). All navy personnel shall complete the AWARE course within _____ of completion of recruit training or other accession point entry.
|
2 years
|
|
|
PREVENT 2000 is a 24 hour prevention education and health promotions course targeting the ____ to ____ year age group.
|
18-25
|
|
|
Who is responsible for navy drug and alcohol abuse program policy, and interfaces with the department of defense and other agencies?
|
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
|
Who develops guidance and provides assistance to commands in implementing and maintaining DUI/DWI countermeasure programs?
|
Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NAVCRIMINVSERV)
|
|
|
What is the minimum time on-base driving privileges will be revoked if any member is found guilty of driving a vehicle while intoxicated?
|
1 year
|
|
|
The primary DAPA should be of what rank?
|
E-7 or above
|
|
|
The DAPA (and assistant DAPAs) shall not have had an alcohol incident within ____ year(s) prior to appointment, and shall have at least ____ year(s) remaining in the command after appointment
|
2 years, 1 year
|
|
|
Who is the DAPA responsible to for the management of the commands substance abuse program?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
|
Incidents involving drug or alcohol abuse which affect security clearance eligibility shall be referred to whom?
|
Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DON CAF)
|
|
|
What shall be completed after every command or self-referral, drug or alcohol incident, and final disposition determination?
|
Drug and Alcohol Abuse Reports (DAAR)
|
|
|
Alcohol and drug abuse managers/supervisors (ADAMS) consists of two short, interactive education courses for navy managers and supervisors and one ____ day course for traing command personnel?
|
5 day
|
|
|
What is the name of the 24 hour prevention education and health promotions course targeting the 18-25 year age group?
|
PREVENT 2000
|
|
|
The UPC shall receive a specimen bottle from the member and ensure that is contains a minimum volume of how many milliliters, as required by NAVDRUGLAB?
|
30 milliliters
|
|
|
Urinalysis Program Coordinators shall be designated in writing by whom?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
|
The drug screening laboratory will retain chain of custody documents and other paperwork on file for how many years?
|
Three years
|
|
|
Any branch, department, or section of a medical treatment facility that provides screening, referrals, early intervention, or treatment services for alcohol-induced problems is called?
|
ATF (alcohol Treatment Facility)
|
|
|
The drug and alcohol abuse report (DAAR) is written on what form?
|
OPNAV 5350/1
|
|
|
The drug and alcohol abuse statement of understanding is written on what form?
|
DD 1384
|
|
|
The specimen custody document is written on what form?
|
DD 2624
|
|
|
Except for unit sweeps, submission in excess of 40 percent of assigned personnel in any given month require what prior approval?
|
Echelon three
|
|
|
ALCOHOL-AWARE course completion requires a page ____ entry.
|
Page 4
|
|
|
Who provides drug and alcohol abuse prevention training to all USNA midshipmen?
|
Superintendent, U.S. Naval Academy (USNA)
|
|
|
What is the lowest rank allowed for the assistant DAPA?
|
E-5
|
|
|
Commanding officers may assign as manys DAPAs and assistants as they deem necessary, but what ratio is recommended?
|
1 to 200
|
|
|
What prevents sexual harrassment?
|
Equal Opportunity
|
|
|
Who is responsible for EO?
|
CNO
|
|
|
EO climate assessment is provided how often?
|
Annually
|
|
|
Who functions as the navy EO training manager?
|
CNET
|
|
|
CMEO manager should be what paygrade?
|
E-7 to E-9 or an officer with 4 or more years of service
|
|
|
Which form is used for formal EO complaints
|
OPNAVINST 5354/2
|
|
|
A complaint of sexual harrassment should be made within how many days of the offending incident?
|
60 days
|
|
|
What UCMJ article is complaint of wrong against the commander?
|
Article 138
|
|
|
What navy regulations is redress for wrong committed by a superior?
|
Article 1158
|
|
|
Making a knowingly false official statement is a violation of what UCMJ article?
|
107
|
|
|
How often is a SITREP sent out until it's closed?
|
Every 2 weeks
|
|
|
What instruction establishes the Navy's equal opportunity policy?
|
SECNAVINST 5350.16
|
|
|
What is the minimum time a person should hold the CMEO position?
|
1 year
|
|
|
Which policy provides guidance on Navy Equal Opportunity?
|
OPNAVINST 5354.1
|
|
|
Personal relationships between officer and enlisted members that are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in rank and grade are prohibited, and violate long-standing custom and tradition of the naval service. violation of the instruction or article ____ subjects the involved members to disciplinary action under the ____
|
1165, UCMJ
|
|
|
Who shall address the offending conduct by talking appropriate action, to include counseling, issuing letters of instruction, comments on fitness reports or performance evaluations, reassignment, and/or, if necessary, by taking appropriate disciplinary action?
|
Seniors throughout the chain of command
|
|
|
Fraternization training will be provided how often?
|
Annually
|
|
|
Which instruction outlines the Navy's fraternization policy?
|
OPNAVINST 5370.2
|
|
|
What is the basis for the level of classification of information?
|
How much damage would be caused if other contries could obtain it
|
|
|
What is the source of the Navy's information security program (ISP)?
|
DON ISP regulation, SECNAVINST 5510.36
|
|
|
What are the three classifications of classified information?
|
Top secret, secret, and confidential
|
|
|
which security designation is appliad only to information or material which the disclosure of could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
|
Secret
|
|
|
Which securty designation is applied only to information or material which disclosure of could reasonable be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security?
|
Top secret
|
|
|
Which security designation is applied only to information or material which the disclosure of could reasonably be expected to damage national security?
|
Confidential
|
|
|
What is the classification of information classified as "for official use only"?
|
It is not classified under the ISP
|
|
|
Which directive contains information concering the use of "for official use only" markings?
|
SECNAVINST 5510.36
|
|
|
Who is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
|
Who is responsible for determining who sees classified information?
|
The security officer
|
|
|
When is each Top Secret document or piece of equipment numbered?
|
at the Origination
|
|
|
How is each page of top secret letters of messages numbered?
|
As the specific page of the total number of pages
|
|
|
When may top secret documents be reproduced?
|
With the permission of the issuing or higher authority
|
|
|
How is top secret material always transported?
|
By hand and receipted for at each exchange
|
|
|
When is an inventory of all top secret material conducted?
|
Each change of command by the security manager/top secret control officer and annually
|
|
|
What is the name of the control form maintained to identify each top secret document and all personnel who have had access to it?
|
A disclosure record (OPNAV Form 5511/13
|
|
|
What is the retention period of a disclosure record?
|
2 years after the document is transferred, downgraded to a lower classification, or destroyed
|
|
|
What is the normal control procedure for secret material?
|
Hand to hand transfer between individuals, but a receipt at each transfer within a command isn't required
|
|
|
What is the overiding condition of discussing classified material?
|
Never in public places
|
|
|
A command emergency bill should provide?
|
procedures for guarding or removing, and/or destroying classified material
|
|
|
What is meant by the term transmission of classified material?
|
Movement of material from one place to another
|
|
|
How can top secret material be transmitted?
|
It can not be mailed, it must be hand carried by armed forces courier system or by cryptographic system
|
|
|
What type of receipt system must be used for top secret material?
|
A continuous chain of receipts
|
|
|
What is the retention period for classified material receipts?
|
Two years
|
|
|
Which form is used in receipting for classified material?
|
OPNAVINST 5511/10
|
|
|
How is classified material usually wrapped for transmittal?
|
In two opaque, sealed envelopes or similar wrappings, where size permits
|
|
|
What is a form of sex discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal pr physical conduct of a sexual nater?
|
Sexual harrassment
|
|
|
Wgich regulation covers sexual harrassment?
|
SECNAVINST 5300.26C
|
|
|
Submission to or rejection of such behavior is used as a basis for decisions affecting the person's employment, job, pay or career.
|
Sexual assault
|
|
|
Unwelcome behavior of one or more persons in a work place produces a work atmosphere which is offensive, intimidating or abusive to another person using reasonable personal standard.
|
Hostile environment
|
|
|
What is a personal relationship between an officer and enlisted, Cpo and junior personnel, staff and student, and recruiter and applicant called?
|
Fraternization
|
|
|
What is the first step regarding navy's grievance procedures for sexual harrassment?
|
Informal resolution system (IRS)
|
|
|
The informal resolution system may include what?
|
A third party
|
|
|
Which zone covers: Making repeated requests for dates, making lewd comments.
|
Yellow
|
|
|
Which zone covers: Groping, fondling, giving employment regards for sexual favors, writing obscene letters, using stsus to requests dates.
|
Red
|
|
|
All reported incidients of sexual harassment will be investigated and resolved at.....?
|
The lowest level
|
|
|
Sexual politics is defined as...?
|
Using one's sex or sexuality to obtain special rewards or favors
|
|
|
Equal opportunity shall aplly without regard to...?
|
Race, ethnicity, religion, gender, or national origin
|
|
|
What are three criteria that define sexual; harassment?
|
Unwelcome, occur in or impact the work environment, sexual in nature
|
|
|
A test used to determine if a behavior is sexual harassment is known as?
|
RPS
|
|
|
What does EEOC stand for?
|
Equal employment opportunity commission
|
|
|
What is the key to elimination of all forms of unlawful discrimination?
|
Leadership
|
|
|
Which artilce covers sexual harassment?
|
Article 1166
|
|
|
Sexual assault prevention and response is covered under what SSECNAVINST?
|
1752.4
|
|
|
Which form is used to report a sexual assault?
|
NAVPERS 1752/1 (I-96)
|
|
|
Within how many days should a sexual assault incident report be completed?
|
10 days
|
|
|
How often should a continuation status report for sexual assault be provided?
|
Quarterly
|
|
|
What makes the deck plate triad of division officer, CPO, and first class petty officer with their input and deck plate perspective effective?
|
Communication
|
|
|
How does the deck plate triad utilize opportunities to provide feedback and actively support guidance?
|
Loyalty
|
|
|
What is used by some commands as a part of administrative process for handling report chits?
|
DRB
|
|
|
Specific nonverbal gesture- Eyes glazing over: What is the possible interpretation?
|
Has abandoned the conversation
|
|
|
Specific nonverbal gesture- Rolling eyes: What is a possible interpretation?
|
Not taking the other party's message seriously
|
|
|
Specific nonverbal gesture: stabbing air with finger: What is a possible interpretation?
|
Making an important point
|
|
|
When communicating with peers what will guarantee reduced effectiveness from peers?
|
confusion or mixed messages
|
|
|
When using which naval writing style should you avoid using excessive abbreviation?
|
compact
|
|
|
Wh nusing which naval writing style should avoid passive verbs?
|
Active
|
|
|
_______ is the etiquette governing communication on the internet.
|
Netiquette
|
|
|
What may be the greatest barrier to satisfaction and success as a supervisor?
|
Inability to handle conflict
|
|
|
What percent of time to managers spend in resolving conflicts?
|
40%
|
|
|
Name the conflict management mode- These people are avoiders, as they neither stand up for their own needs, nor make sure others are happy; they just retreat and avoid the issue by withdrawing or suppressing the conflict.
|
Lose-Lose/avoiding
|
|
|
Name the conflict management mode- These people see the benefits to conflict and work toward a solution that will fully satisfy the needs, concerns, and desires of all parties.
|
Win-Win/collaborating
|
|
|
Name the conflict management mode- These people only worry about having their own needs met and do not care much about others' needs, concerns or impact on the other party to the conflict.
|
Win-Lose/competing
|
|
|
Name the conflict management mode- These people always give others what they want without speaking their minds, they place the opponent's interests above his or her own.
|
Lose-Win/accomodating
|
|
|
Name the conflict intervention option: Talk to the individuals concerned outside the group meeting.
|
Off-line conversation (minimal intervention)
|
|
|
Name the conflict intervention option: Provide feedback to the individuals involved with a more directive style
|
Off-line confrontation (medium intervention)
|
|
|
Name the conflict intervention option: As a last resort, the leader might have to deal with conflict during the meeting itself.
|
In-group confrontation (high intervention)
|
|
|
How many stages of team development are?
|
4 stages
|
|
|
What are the 4 stages of team development?
|
Forming, storming, norming, performing
|
|
|
Assigning to others specific tasks and the authority (power) to complete those tasks, with mutually agreed-upon methods for evaluating the completed work. What does this define?
|
Delegation
|
|
|
Which form of observation involves, among other things, monitoring individuals during performance of their duties and observing their interactions?
|
Direct observation
|
|
|
What type of investigation includes a NAC of the individual's spouse?
|
Special background investigation
|
|
|
Which organization offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the navy?
|
Navy Mutual Aid Society
|
|
|
Where are the interior pages of a classified document marked to indicate the highest overal classification level of the document?
|
Top and bottom center
|
|
|
What is the newest class of Soviet aircraft carrier?
|
Tbilisi
|
|
|
What navy office serves as the liaison between the departments of the navy and the secretary of the defense regarding security matters?
|
CNO
|
|
|
About what percent of military members experience financial difficulty during their career?
|
50%
|
|
|
When a strip shredding machine is used to shred classified material, the material should be shredded into strips that are what maximum width?
|
1/32 inch
|
|
|
Which person may be assigned the duty of security manager without being granted a waiver?
|
A line officer
A medical services corps officer and a civilian employee (GS-13) |
|
|
A wet-process pulper is suitable for destroying what kind of material?
|
Paper products
|
|
|
_____ is not an element of an effective training program.
|
Advice
|
|
|
Records of destruction of secret material must be retained for what minimum period of time?
|
24 months
|
|
|
What should be the first item of to those activities having a need need to know information in the text of a classified message?
|
The overall classification of the message
|
|
|
The Major goal of the Overseas Duty Support Program includes what objective?
|
Supplying information through publication, video tapes, and personal assistance
|
|
|
When was the first time Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm vessels?
|
13 October 1775
|
|
|
If you have any questions about the proper wearing of uniforms, you should refer to what publication?
|
NAVPERS 15665G
|
|
|
Department of the Navy information and personnel security policies, procedures, and directives from higher authority are formulated by which office?
|
Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Commander
|
|
|
Who generally has custodial responsibility for binoculors?
|
The operations department head
|
|
|
Who is the chairman of the general mess advisroy board?
|
Food services officer
|
|
|
What investigation of civilian applicants requires a check of federal agency files plus inquiries to for employers, supervisors' law enforcement agencies references, and schools?
|
Background investigation
|
|
|
Which investigation is an independent check based on the guidelines of a mishp investigation?
|
Naval safety center investigation
|
|
|
What is an element that enables a sea dependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward?
|
Sea power
|
|
|
The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation's ability to use the sea to further its....?
|
National onjectives
|
|
|
To continue to exist as we know it today, the U.S. must have a policy that recognizes its....?
|
Worldwide commitments
|
|
|
What are the three fundamental pillars on which the U.S. military strategy rests?
|
Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity
|
|
|
The navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with...?
|
Flexibility
|
|
|
What is the most flexible element of the triad of strategic nuclear forces?
|
Long-range bombers
|
|
|
What is the sole mission and fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine
|
To deter war
|
|
|
The triad of strategic nuclear forces has been developed and maintained for what purpose?
|
To deter nuclear attack
|
|
|
Ships of the second fleet patrol some of the world's most important trade routes. In what are of the world does the second fleet normally patrol?
|
Western Atlantic
|
|
|
Which term describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destrpoy an objective?
|
Assault
|
|
|
Which characteristic of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?
|
Mobility
|
|
|
The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?
|
1959
|
|
|
The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons is?
|
Strike
|
|
|
The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships is?
|
Anti-surface ship
|
|
|
Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature is?
|
Special
|
|
|
This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy.
|
Anti-surface ship
|
|
|
Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy's forces and capabilities.
|
Intelligence
|
|
|
What type of warfare assists in detecting and targeting hostile forces and making it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target friendly forces?
|
Electronic
|
|
|
What missile is capable of simultaneously tracking 24 hostile air targets and launching 6 missiles against 6 different targets?
|
Phoenix
|
|
|
Which missile has a very small cross section and flies at low altitude, and its radar detection is difficult?
|
Tomahawk
|
|
|
What fires 20-mm, high-density penetrating projectiles at 3,000 round per minute?
|
Phalanx
|
|
|
Which missile has a 500 lb high explosive warhead and a contact fuse?
|
Harpoon
|
|
|
Which missile provides defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles?
|
Harpoon
|
|
|
Routine drills are based on ship's drills and stem from basic bills outlines in which publication?
|
Standard organization and regulations of the U.S. Navy
|
|
|
Which inspection is conducted to test the operational ability of the crew and ship in wartime conditions?
|
Operational readiness inspection
|
|
|
What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the knowledge of the commanding officer, to determine if the ship is fir for continued naval service?
|
INSURV
|
|
|
Through the various treaties with other countries in the world, what portions of the land area are we committed to defend?
|
50%
|
|
|
Our naval forces conduct various exercises with allied forces for what reason?
|
To professionally operate as one unit
|
|
|
To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the completion of tasks, what factors must you properly manage?
|
Personnel, material, and time
|
|
|
Which resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?
|
Personnel and materials
|
|
|
As a minimum, how often should you assess your division's personnel and material readiness?
|
Biweekly
|
|
|
When you assess your workers' job performance, you should look at which areas?
|
Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
|
|
|
To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel, you should randomly review each members...
|
training record
|
|
|
At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?
|
Weekly
|
|
|
What log is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory?
|
OPTAR
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E1 to E2?
|
9 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E2 to E3?
|
12 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E3 to E4?
|
6 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E4 to E5?
|
12 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E5 to E6?
|
36 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E6 to E7?
|
36 months
|
|
|
What is the TIR time in rate for E7 to E8?
|
36 months
|
|
|
Which form is used for rating conversion in the same paygrade?
|
NAVPERS 1070/604
|
|
|
What instruction contains neutralization of service members?
|
MILPERSMAN 5352-010
|
|
|
What is the terminal eligibility date (TED) for February/March for E4 through E6?
|
1 July of the same year
|
|
|
What is the terminal eligibility date (TED) for August/September for E4 through E6?
|
1 January of next year
|
|
|
What is the terminal eligibility date (TED) for November for E8 and E9?
|
1 October of the next year
|
|
|
What is the terminal eligibility date (TED) for January/February for E7?
|
1 January of next year
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) for E2?
|
6 months
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E3?
|
1 year
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E4?
|
2 years
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E5?
|
3 years
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E6?
|
7 years
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E7?
|
11 years
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E8?
|
16 years
|
|
|
What is the total active federal military service (TAFMS) requirements for E9?
|
16 years
|
|
|
Which form is used to indicate lost time for personnel in any pay grade?
|
NAVPERS 1070/604
|
|
|
What date is used for members who are reduced in rate due to disciplinary action?
|
The date of reduction
|
|
|
Who has the authority to reinstate to pay grades E4 through E6 after a reduction in rate?
|
NAVPERSCOM PERS-811/812
|
|
|
The advancement manual provides the basis for reductions in rate under which UCMJ article?
|
Article 15
|
|
|
The advancement manual provides basis for reductionn in rate under what MILPERSMAN article?
|
MILPERSMAN 1450-010
|
|
|
What entity is the sole authority for advancement to E7 through E9?
|
Chief of naval personnel
|
|
|
How many types of evaluation reports are there?
|
Three
|
|
|
How long are evaluation reports reatained by reporting seniors?
|
Fitreps and chief evals-5 years
|
|
|
How long are evaluation reports retained by commands?
|
2 years
|
|
|
Whose FITREPS are due in October?
|
O4
|
|
|
Whose FITREPS are due in May?
|
O3
|
|
|
Whose FITREPS are due in February?
|
O2
|
|
|
When are W5, 4, 3, and E5 reports due?
|
March
|
|
|
When are W2, E7, and E8 reports due?
|
September
|
|
|
When are O6 and E1 through E3 reports due?
|
July
|
|
|
When are E6 evaluations due?
|
November
|
|
|
Which month are no EVAL reports due?
|
August and December
|
|
|
What publication is the EVALMAN?
|
BUPERSINST 1610.10
|
|
|
What does XX in the physical readiness block mean?
|
Impossible to weigh or measure
|
|
|
What does "N" in the physical readiness block mean?
|
Not tested
|
|
|
What is the maximum number of EP's a command may have?
|
20% rounded up to the nearest whole number except for non-limited duty officers O1/O2
|
|
|
What is the maximum EP's and MP's for E6?
|
60%
|
|
|
What is the maximum EP's and MP's for E7 to E9?
|
50%
|
|
|
What is the maximum Ep's and Mp's for W3 to W5?
|
50%
|
|
|
What is the maximum EP's and MP's for LDO O1/O2, )3, and W2
|
No limit
|
|
|
What is the maximum EP's and MP's for e5 personnel?
|
60%
|
|
|
The frequency of regular reports should not exceed ___ months.
|
15 months
|
|
|
A promotion/frocking evaluation is submitted only for advancement to ___.
|
E7
|
|
|
What block is marked with an "X" for an NOB?
|
16
|
|
|
What is DUINS?
|
Duty under instruction
|
|
|
What is IET?
|
Initial entry training
|
|
|
What is TEMADDINS?
|
Temporary additional duty under instruction
|
|
|
What is the meaning of PIM?
|
Performance information memorandum
|
|
|
Which U.S. navy regulation article covers: Correction of naval records?
|
Article 1126
|
|
|
Which U.S. navy regulation article covers: Redress of wrong committed by a superior?
|
Article 1148
|
|
|
Which UCMJ article covers complaints of wrongs?
|
Article 138
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due for E1 to E3?
|
January
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due for E5?
|
September
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due for E6?
|
May
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due for E4?
|
December
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due for E7 to E8?
|
March
|
|
|
When is mid-term counseling due forE9?
|
October
|
|
|
Which permormance trait grade represents performance to full navy standards?
|
3.0
|
