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598 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which of the following structural components is the backbone of a ship?
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Keel
|
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Which of the following structural components divides the interior of a ship into compartments?
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Bulkheads
|
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Which of the following structural components form the ship's hull?
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Strakes
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The vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term?
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Draft
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Which of the following structural components support decks?
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Athwartships deck beams, Fore and aft deck girders, and Stanchions
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The freeing ports that let water run off during heavy weather are identified by which of the following terms?
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Scuppers
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Which of the following terms defines the first complete deck below the main deck?
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Second Deck
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The device that bears up tight on wedges and holds watertight doors closed is identifed by what term?
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Dogs
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Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings for access through decks?
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Hatches
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Which of the following terms defines the solid part of a ship above the main deck?
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Superstructure
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Name 3 types of masts
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Mizzenmast, Mainmast, and Foremast
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What is the purpose of running rigging?
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To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
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Commissioned ships of the US NAVY fly a commission pennant that is secured to what point?
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To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
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What term identifies the port and starboard halves of a yard?
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Yardarms
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The national ensign is flown from what part of a ship when it is anchored or moored?
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Flagstaff
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What is the additional ship control space used by the squadron commander or admiral called?
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Flag bridge
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In what part of a ship is main control normally located?
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Boiler or machinery spaces
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Ships of the US NAVY are divided into how many categories?
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Four
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How many types of ships are included in the warship category?
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Six
|
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What type of ship is the center of a modern naval task force or task group?
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Aircraft carrier
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Approximately how many aircraft are embarked on Nimitz class CVs?
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85
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What class of cruiser is designated as battle force capable?
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Ticonderoga
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Which of the following is a principle mission of a destroyer?
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Operate offensively and defensively against submarines and surface ships
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What class destroyer represents a return to all-steel construction?
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Arleigh Burke class
|
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Which of the following is the mission of frigates?
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Open ocean escort and patrol
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What class of submarines has the quietest operation?
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Seawolf
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The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how many Trident missile tubes?
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24
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The LHA carries what means of defense against surface and air attack?
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5-inch guns and MK 38 machine guns
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How many troops can be embarked in, transported by, and landed by the Wasp class LHDs?
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2,000
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What is the purpose of dock landing ships?
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To transport a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops
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Which of the following means is/are used by Avenger class MCMs to find, classify, destroy moored and bottom mines?
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Sonar and video systems, cable cutters, and a mine-detonating device
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What is the abbreviation for an ammunition supply ship?
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AE
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What type ship carries supply dry and refrgierated stores?
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AOE
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What is the abbreviation for a combat support ship?
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AOE
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Which of the following terms applies to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are underway?
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Replenishment at Sea
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A separation of what approximate distance is maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it's replenishing?
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100 feet
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The AOE is designed to operate at what approximate distance between itself and the ship it's replenishing?
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200 feet
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Most fleet tugs are operated by which of the following organizations?
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Military Sealift Command
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Combatant craft usually operate in what areas?
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In coastal waters
|
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Support craft designations start with what letter?
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Y
|
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Fixed wing aircraft are divided into how many basic parts?
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Three
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What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?
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Wings
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What are the 3 main parts of a helicopter?
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Main rotor, tail rotor, and fuselage
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Attack class planes are used in which of the following roles?
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Nuclear strikes, ground support, and low-level bombing
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What class of aircraft is generally used to gain air superiority?
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Fighter
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The E-2C Hawkeye belongs to what class of aircraft?
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Warning
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The S-3 Viking belongs to what class of aircraft?
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Warning
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What helicopter is designated for ASW use?
|
SH-60B Seahawk
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What helicopter operates and tows mine countermeasures devices?
|
CH-53D Sea Stallion
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Which of the following characteristics define a custom?
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An act that is continued consistently consistently over a long period of time, A well-defined and uniformly followed act, and a generally accepted act not opposed to a statute, lawful regulation, or order
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Of the following salutes, which one is the most common?
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Hand
|
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When in uniform, when are Navy personnel required to salute?
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Meeting officers, hearing the national anthem, and approaching the national ensign
|
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In a normal situation, how many paces from the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered?
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Six
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You may salute with your left hand when of which of the following situations occurs?
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When in complete uniform and your right hand is injured
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Salutes are rendered to all officers of the U.S. and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to which of the following organizations are also entitled to salutes?
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National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and Public Health Service
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When going aboard ship that's flying the national ensign, you must stop on the upper platform on the accomodation ladder or the shipboard end of the brow and take what action?
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Face the national ensign and salute
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While standing in a sentry box, you are approached by an officer. What type of rifle salute should you render?
|
Present arms
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You are not required to salute in what situation?
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When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance
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The term honors is defined by which of the following statements?
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Salutes rendered by a ship, unit, post, station, or an individual to high-ranking individuals, other ships, or nations
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Passing honors for ships are exchanged when ships pass within what distance?
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600 yards
|
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Passing honors for boats are exchanged when boats pass within what distance?
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400 yards
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Your ship is about to render honors to another ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals given?
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One blast, one blast, two blast, three blasts
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A crew is paraded at quarters on which of the following occasions?
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When the ship is returning from an extended deployment
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Gun salutes are normally fired at what time interval?
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5 seconds
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On which of the following special occasions is a 21 gun salute fired at 1 minute intervals?
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Memorial Day, Presidents Day, and Independence Day
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Which of the following phrases defines the term ceremony?
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A formal act performed on a public occasion
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Aboard ship, how many minutes before morning and evening colors is the PREP pennant hoisted?
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5 minutes
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On Navy ships not underway, where is the union jack displayed?
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The jack staff on the bow
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A commissioning or command pennant half-masted only under which, if any, of the following conditions?
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When the commanding officer or unit commander dies
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Which of the following naval customs is observed in the US NAVY by ships that are underway?
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The national ensign is flown day and night
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The national ensign is hoisted and lowered in which of the following ways?
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Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
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If you are in uniform and covered, how do you render honors when the national anthem is played indoors but the flag is not displayed?
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Hand salute at attention while facing the music
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When the national anthem is being played, Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the following rules?
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Only the boat officer (or if absent; the coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated at attention
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What march does the Navy band play to honor the President of the United States?
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Hail to the Chief
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Upon entering an area where Christian divine services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should take which of the following?
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Uncover only
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An enlisted person and 2 officers are about to board a boat. Which of the following procedures should the enlisted person follow in entering the boat?
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Board first and sit aft
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The neckerchief is made from which of the following materials?
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Black silk and acetate
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What kind of knot is used to tie a neckerchief?
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Square knot
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What material is used to make government issue dress blue jumpers and trousers?
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Wool serge
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What material is used to make government-issue dress white jumpers and trousers?
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Navy twill
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Which of the following uniforms is/are considered working uniforms?
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Dungarees and winter blues
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When the large medals are prescribed for wear with the dress blue uniform, the uniform is known as what?
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Full dress
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Which of the following uniforms is/are considered the working uniforms for female Sailors?
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Belted blue slacks and blue winter shirt, belted blue skirt and blue winter shirt, and dungarees
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Enlisted Sailors, E-6 and below, are authorized to wear command or Navy ball caps with what type of uniform?
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Dungaree
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Where can you find information on what is the prescribed uniform of the day?
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POD or POW
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Division officers are required to inspect the uniforms of nonrated personnel at regular intervals for what reason?
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To make sure that each person has the prescribed uniform
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Which of the following information is marked on uniforms?
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Name and social security number
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What is the largest size stencil authorized for marking clothing?
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1 inch
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The transfer or exchange of enlisted personnel uniform items must be authorized by which of the following persons?
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Commanding officer
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Military personnel may wear authorized military uniform articles of clothing with civilian clothing including shoes, gloves, and the knit watch cap
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True
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Occupational groups are identified by what means?
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A group mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
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What is a striker mark?
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A specialty mark of a particular rating, worn by personnel in paygrades E-1, E-2, and E-3 who have qualified for the rating
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How many years of service must a person complete to be eligible to wear one service stripe (hash mark)?
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4
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How many years of continuous good conduct are required before a person becomes eligible to wear gold service stripes?
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12
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How can you determine whether an officer is a line officer or a staff corps officer?
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A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder board of the line officer
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What insignia is worn by officers and enlisted personnel who have qualified in all phases of surface warfare?
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Surface warfare
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What insignia is worn by personnel who have qualified to serve in submarines?
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Submarine warfare
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What insignia is worn by personnel qualified to serve in flight?
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Aviation warfare
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There are how many broad categories of awards?
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Seven
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In what year was the Purple Heart founded by President Washington?
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1782
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Which of the following is an example of a campaign or a service award?
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Good conduct medal
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What is the maximum number of ribbons that may be worn in each row?
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Three
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What means of identification must you carry with you at all times?
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Armed forces identification card
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Under which of the following circumstances may you surrender your ID card?
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To show a change in rank, to correct an error, and to effect a name change
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Which of the following is the purpose of the armed forces ID card under article 17 of the Geneva Convention?
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As a mean of identification for POWs
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While on active duty, you must wear your ID tags under which of the following conditions?
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In time of war, when engaged in flight operations, and when prescribed by the CNO
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What type of information is found on ID tags?
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Last name, first name, middle initial, SSN, blood type, and Rh factor, and religious preference
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According to grooming standards for men, how many rings per hand may be worn?
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One
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According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails(as measured from the tip of the finger)?
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1/4 inch
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Enlisted women, E-6 and below, are authorized to wear ball type earrings of what size and color?
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6mm and silver
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When personnel are in ranks, the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart?
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40 inches
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A pace consists of a full step of what length for men and women?
|
MEN = 30 inches
WOMEN = 24 inches |
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Which of the following drill positions is the basic military position?
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Attention
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Talk is permitted when you are in which of the following formation positions?
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Rest
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How many movements are used to perform the ABOUT FACE command?
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Two
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When executing the command FALL IN, the squad forms in line on which of the following persons?
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Squad leader
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Personnel in formation align themselves with which of the following persons?
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Each other
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After the command DRESS RIGHT DRESS, a formation returns to the attention position on which of the following commands?
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Ready, on the word FRONT
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When the command CLOSE RANKS is given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward?
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Three
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T/F Every firearm used by Navy personnel has some type of safety device built in.
|
True
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Which of the following is the prime cause of accidental shootings?
|
Negligence or carelessness of the user
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Which of the following are acceptable ear protective devices?
|
Insert and circumaural
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The M14 rifle is the best described by what characteristics?
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Lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed, and capable of semi-automatic or automatic fire
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Which of the following types of ammunition is used with M14 rifle?
|
7.62 mm NATO cartridge, 20-round magazine, and M76 grenade launcher
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What is the maximum range of the M14 rifle?
|
4,075 yards
|
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The M16A1 and M16A2 rifles are the best described by what characteristics?
|
Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder weapons
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For what size cartridge is the M16A1 rifle chambered?
|
5.56 mm
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What is the maximum magazine capacity of the M16A1 rifle?
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30 rounds
|
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What is the muzzle velocity of the M16A1 and M16A2 rifles?
|
3,000 feet per second
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What means is used to adjust the rear sights of the M16A2 rifle?
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A windage knob and an elevation knob
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What is the first step to take when handling any weapon?
|
Point the selector lever toward SAFE
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Why should the selector be on SAFE during assembly and disassembly?
|
To prevent damage to the automatic sear
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When the selection lever is in the burst position, the M16A1 rifle fires in what way?
|
In short bursts of three rounds
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The M16A1 rifle is clear when which of the following conditions are met?
|
No case or round is in the chamber and the magazine is out, the bolt carrier is to the rear, and the selector lever is on the SAFE position
|
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When cleaning the barrel bore and chamber of the M16A1 rifle, you should not reverse the brush while in the bore for what reason?
|
The bore may jam
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What parts of the barrel bore and chamber should you lubricate after you've finished cleaning them?
|
The lugs in the barrel extension
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When cleaning ammunition magazines, you need to make sure the magazine is dry for what reason?
|
The magazine and ammunition can corrode and become dangerous to use
|
|
The .38 caliber revolver is best described by which of the following groups of characteristics?
|
Cylinder-loading, single-or double action, manually operated hand gun
|
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The .45 caliber service pistol is best described by which of the following groups of characteristics?
|
Semiautomatic, recoil operated, magazine fed, hand gun
|
|
The .45 caliber revolver has what maximum range and maximum effective range, respectively?
|
1500 yards. 50 yards
|
|
The magazine capacity of the 9mm service pistol can hold how many rounds in the magazine?
|
15 rounds
|
|
The 9mm service pistol is best described by which of the following groups of characteristics?
|
Semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil operated, double action pistol
|
|
Which of the following are safety features incorporated in the 9mm service pistol?
|
Ambidextrous safety, firing pin block, half cock notch
|
|
What safety feature of the 9mm pistol prevents accidental discharge?
|
Half cock notch
|
|
T/F? The advantage of shotguns over pistols is that slight is not as critical.
|
TRUE
|
|
What maximum number of rounds of 12 gauge. 2 3/4-inch ammunition will the magazine of the M870 shotgun hold?
|
Four
|
|
When firing a rifle, what factors make up the sight picture?
|
Correct aiming point and slight alignment
|
|
What is meant by the term "eye relief?"
|
The different distance from the rear sight of your aiming eye, depending on your firing position
|
|
What is meant by the terms "spot weld" or "anchor?"
|
Holding your rifle in the exact same position to make sure your eye stays the same distance from the peep hole
|
|
What is the focus for the eye?
|
The front sight
|
|
What is the correct aiming point on a type "A" target?
|
6 o'clock
|
|
What elements do you need to align to get a correct sight picture?
|
The rear sight, front sight, and bull's eye
|
|
How many standard firing positions are taught in the Navy?
|
Three
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most useful when you are constantly firing and moving?
|
Standing
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most useful when you are on level ground or firing uphill?
|
Kneeling
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most useful when you are firing downhill?
|
Sitting
|
|
What is the key to trigger control?
|
Squeeze the trigger smoothly, gradually, and evenly straight to the rear
|
|
Remembering which of the following acronyms will help you remember correct shooting techniques?
|
BRASS
|
|
You should take a breath, let out a little air, and then hold your breath until you fire your rfile. However, if you haven't fired within 10 seconds, what should you do?
|
Take another breath and start the aiming procedure over
|
|
What is a correct sight picture?
|
Correct sight alignment and correct aiming point
|
|
The pistols can be accurately fired from how many positions?
|
Three
|
|
Missing the target is most often caused by?
|
Improper trigger squeeze
|
|
The damage control organization is divided into how many parts?
|
Two
|
|
What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage?
|
The damage control assistant
|
|
Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage control?
|
Records and schedules for maintenance, written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control, and ship's bills
|
|
Which of the following are duties of the executive officer?
|
Ship's survivability training readiness to manage casualties, and control and recover from damage.
|
|
What officer is designated as the ship's damage control officer?
|
The engineer officer
|
|
The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities?
|
Training the ship's DC personnel, administration of the ship's DC organization, and maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands
|
|
What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer? (DCPO)
|
Complete the PQS
|
|
Normally the job of the DCPO is held for what period of time?
|
6 months
|
|
Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO?
|
Assist in the instruction of divison personnel in damage control, prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces, and make required reports
|
|
What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces?
|
Gas free engineer
|
|
What person is designated to aid the DCA for training personnel and to prevent and fight fires?
|
Fire Marshal
|
|
What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection?
|
Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head
|
|
The fire marshall has what responsibilities?
|
Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction and setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls
|
|
What is the purpose of the ship's damage control battle organization?
|
To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible
|
|
In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim?
|
The DCA
|
|
What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?
|
Repair parties
|
|
What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?
|
DCC or CCS
|
|
What repair party covers main deck repair?
|
Repair 1
|
|
What repair party covers propulsion repair?
|
Repair 5
|
|
What repair party covers ordnance?
|
Repair 6
|
|
What repair party covers electronic casualty control?
|
Repair 8
|
|
Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions?
|
Rigging casualty power, controlling flooding, and extinguishing all types of fires
|
|
When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty?
|
In port emergency teams
|
|
The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications?
|
Be qualified as an emergency member and be qualified in first aid
|
|
T/F General quarters is an all hands evolution-it is the highest state of readiness of the ship.
|
TRUE
|
|
Which of the following statements describes a correct GQ route to follow?
|
Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side
|
|
Which of the following is an emergency damage control communictions system?
|
X40J
|
|
What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship's crew of imminent danger?
|
Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash
|
|
What alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship's company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency?
|
Flight Crash
|
|
What alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit?
|
Collision
|
|
When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA?
|
General
|
|
Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?
|
Messengers
|
|
All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?
|
Three
|
|
What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity?
|
XRAY
|
|
What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity?
|
ZEBRA
|
|
Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?
|
DOG Z fittings, Circle X fittings, and Y fittings
|
|
What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
|
Compartment checkoff lists
|
|
The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations?
|
DCC and Quarterdeck
|
|
Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don't work properly?
|
Damage Control Closure Log
|
|
What fittings are secured when the ship is set for "darken ship?"
|
DOG ZEBRA
|
|
The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time?
|
15 minutes
|
|
With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of time?
|
30 seconds
|
|
Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes?
|
SEED
|
|
Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?
|
OBA
|
|
From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time?
|
30 minutes
|
|
Which of the following substances must be present to start a fire?
|
Oxygen, heat, and fuel
|
|
In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?
|
Four
|
|
Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?
|
Flash point
|
|
What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?
|
Ignition point
|
|
Heat from fire can be transferred by how many methods?
|
Three
|
|
What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases?
|
Convection
|
|
What type of heat transfer occurs when heat moves in all directions unless blocked?
|
Radiation
|
|
Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire?
|
AFFF and PKP
|
|
Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires?
|
Water
|
|
What are weapons of mass destruction?
|
Chemical, Biological, and Nuclear weapons
|
|
Which of the following warfare agents are used to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach?
|
Chemical Warfare
|
|
Generally, antipersonnel agents are divided into how many types?
|
Two
|
|
Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea, headache, convulsions, and contractions of the pupils are all symptoms of which of the following types of contamination?
|
Nerve agent
|
|
Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will be more serious in which of the following body areas?
|
Neck, groin, and armpits
|
|
A person exposed to a blood agent may experience respiratory paralysis within what length of time?
|
Seconds
|
|
Atropine and 2-PAM C1 oxime are used to counteract the effects and relieve the symptoms of which of the following agents?
|
Nerve
|
|
What type of agents are used to produce temporary misery and harassment?
|
Riot Control
|
|
Which of the following agents can be used in BW operations?
|
Living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins
|
|
Which of the following diseases can be spread as part of a BW attack?
|
Cholera and anthrax
|
|
In its early stage, which of the following is/are symptoms of BW attack?
|
Fever, inflammation, and malaise
|
|
Nuclear weapons have the capability of destroying areas in which of the following ways?
|
Blast, shock, and nuclear radiation
|
|
Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes?
|
Four
|
|
What would be the most effective type of nuclear strike to use against a battle group at sea?
|
Air blast
|
|
What type of nuclear strike would be used to destroy satellites and interrupt communications systems through the effects of EMP?
|
High altitude blast
|
|
In what type of nuclear strike would the shock wave near ground zero be greater than the blast wave?
|
Surface blast
|
|
What are the effects of nuclear weapons?
|
Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation
|
|
If a nuclear blast at night causes you to experience flash blindness, you can expect your vision to recover in what length of time?
|
45 minutes
|
|
What type of radiation hazard must enter the body through ingestion or cuts to cause bodily harm?
|
Alpha particles
|
|
What is TREE?
|
The effect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic systems
|
|
A survey team is made up of what minimum number of personnel?
|
Three
|
|
What person is in charge of a survey team?
|
Monitor
|
|
Areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents are identified by markers having what shape?
|
Triangular
|
|
T/F Dose rate is expressed in roentgens, which are gamma ray measurements only.
|
TRUE
|
|
What does the acronym radiac stand for?
|
Radioactivity detection, indication, and computation
|
|
The nonself-reading, high-range casualty dosimeter measures what maximum amount of gamma radiation?
|
200 milliroentgens
|
|
What kit is used to check areas suspected to have been contaminated by CW agents?
|
M256A1 Kit
|
|
Which of the following actions should personnel topside take if an airburst occurs?
|
Close their eyes, drop to the deck, and cover as much exposed skin as possible
|
|
Which of the following pieces of protective equipment is/are the most important in protecting you against CBR agents?
|
Coveralls and protective mask
|
|
Protective masks serve how many functions?
|
Two
|
|
You should be able to to don and adjust your protective mask in what maximum amount of time?
|
10 seconds
|
|
The MCU/2P protective mask has how many voice emitters?
|
Two
|
|
The chemical protective overgarment consists of how many parts?
|
Two
|
|
T/F The chemical protective overgarment can be used for protection against radiological contamination.
|
TRUE
|
|
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the mission oriented protective posture (MOPP)?
|
Provides a means to establish levels of readiness
|
|
At what MOPP level would all protective equipment be worn with the hood up and secured?
|
4
|
|
How many levels of decontamination are there?
|
Four
|
|
A decontamination team usually consists of how many people?
|
Six
|
|
What is the most effective way to decontaminate biological agents?
|
Using a chemical disinfectant
|
|
Aboard ship, a decontamination station has how many parts?
|
Three
|
|
T/F Showering will destroy nuclear and biological agents.
|
FALSE
|
|
The Collective Protection System (CPS) consists of how many protection zones?
|
Two
|
|
Which of the following CPS levels provides the maximum operational protection envelope?
|
Level III
|
|
First aid has which of the following objectives?
|
Save lives, limit infection, and to prevent further injury
|
|
In administering first aid, you are responsible for performing which of the following tasks?
|
Stop bleeding, maintain breathing, and prevent or treat for shock
|
|
Under which, if any, of the following circumstances should you touch an open wound with your fingers?
|
Only when absolutely necessary to stop severe bleeding
|
|
T/F A person who has stopped breathing is considered dead.
|
FALSE
|
|
What is the purpose of artificial ventilation?
|
To provide a method of air exchange
|
|
When using the mouth to mouth technique for administering artificial ventilation, how often should you force air into the victim's lungs?
|
Once every 5 weekends
|
|
The mouth to nose technique for administering artificial ventilation is effective on which of the following victims?
|
The victim who is very young or the victim who has extensive facial injuries
|
|
When using the back pressure/arm lift technique for administering artificial ventilation, you should repeat the cycle how many times per minute?
|
10 to 12
|
|
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest?
|
4
|
|
When administering CPR, you should place your hands on what area of the victim's chest?
|
Above the tip of the sternum
|
|
When using the one rescuer CPR technique, you should administer how many compressions per minute?
|
60 to 80
|
|
When using the one rescuer CPR technique, you should give how many ventilations after each set of compressions?
|
Two
|
|
When using the two rescuer CPR technique, you should use what ratio of compressions to ventilations?
|
5 to 1
|
|
Which of the following is one of the most reliable indications of a blocked airway in a conscious person?
|
Inability to speak
|
|
You are assisting a person who is choking. What is the first action you should take?
|
Clear the victim's mouth of any food or foreign objects
|
|
What minimum amount of blood loss usually causes a person to go into shock?
|
2 pints
|
|
How is arterial bleeding from a cut near the surface of the skin indicated?
|
Gushing spurts of bright red blood
|
|
To control bleeding, which of the following methods should you try first?
|
Direct pressure
|
|
What is meant by the pressure points in the human body?
|
A place where the main artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone
|
|
If the use of a battle dressing is required, who should loosen/remove it?
|
Medical personnel
|
|
T/F Shock will never be serious enough to cause death.
|
FALSE
|
|
At which of the following times should you start treatment for shock?
|
As soon as possible after an injury occurs
|
|
What is the basic position for treating shock?
|
Putting the head lower than the feet
|
|
Which of the following Navy personnel are the most frequent victims of suicide?
|
Males between the ages of 17 to 24 in paygrades E-1 to E-6
|
|
Which of the following are actions to take if you believe someone you know is thinking about suicide?
|
Take all threats suicide, don't leave the person alone, and get professional help
|
|
Which of the following burns is considered the most serious?
|
Third degree
|
|
T/F A closed fracture is one where the skin is intact and an open fracture is one where the skin is broken.
|
TRUE
|
|
When choosing a material to use as a splint, you should choose material that has which of the following characteristics?
|
Light weight, fairly rigid, and strong
|
|
What is/are symptoms of a broken bone?
|
Swelling, deformity, and inability to use the part
|
|
What is/are symptoms of a sprain or a strain?
|
Swelling and inability to use the part
|
|
What is one of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person?
|
Fireman's carry
|
|
In compartments with access hatches that are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers, you would remove an injured person using what type of stretcher?
|
Neil Robertson
|
|
Aboard ship, keeping yourself and your spaces clean and orderly has which of the following advantages?
|
Improves morale and contributes to the well being of the crew
|
|
What common dental condition can be prevented by making sure you develop the habit of good oral hygiene?
|
Tooth decay, gum and bone disease, and reddening of the gums
|
|
T/F Sexually transmitted diseases may be spread through the use of inanimate objects, such as toilet seats, bed linens, or drinking glasses
|
FALSE
|
|
If left untreated, syphillis may cause which of the following conditions?
|
Heart disease, mental illness, and blindness
|
|
Sterility is the result of leaving which of the following sexually transmitted diseases untreated?
|
Gonorrhea
|
|
T/F Use of condoms offers some protection from Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
|
TRUE
|
|
If time permits during abandon ship preparation, a message announced over the 1MC will give which of the following information?
|
Water temperature, sea and wind conditions, and bearing and distance to nearest land
|
|
If you have to go over the side and the ships' propellers are turning, you should leave from what point on the ship?
|
From the bow
|
|
Personnel have the greatest chance for survival in the water if they meet which of the following swimmer requirements?
|
Second class
|
|
If you have to swim through the flames, which of the following is a procedure to follow?
|
Swim underwater until you are clear of the oil
|
|
If you must abandon ship into oily water that is not burning, which of the following precautions should you take?
|
Keep your face above the surface
|
|
You can use what items to help you stay afloat?
|
Seabags, pillow cases, and mattress covers
|
|
The Navy uses a maximum of how many types of life preservers?
|
Two
|
|
Which of the following benefits does the collar on the vest type life preserver provide?
|
Additional bouyancy to keep the head uprght
|
|
The wooden toggle and line of an inflatable life preserver are used to?
|
Attach yourself to a life raft or another person
|
|
When using a pin on, battery operated light on a life preserver, you should replace the battery at what minimum interval?
|
6 months
|
|
T/F You may launder the fibrous glass pads in addition to the outer cover of the inherently bouyant preserver?
|
FALSE
|
|
In addition to inspecting your inflatable life preserver each time you wear it, you should also inspect it for air leaks at what minimum interval?
|
Monthly
|
|
The survival kits in large lifeboats are designed to sustain 15 to 20 people on regular rations for what maximum number of days?
|
5
|
|
You can identify the red flare end of a Mk13 Mod 0 distress signal kit in the dark by which of the following indicators?
|
Beadlike projections
|
|
Under good weather conditions, the dye marker will retain some color for what maximum length of time?
|
4 hours
|
|
In a lifeboat, what piece of survival equipment is provided to assist you in filling containers with freshwater?
|
Rain catcher tube
|
|
In a lifeboat, continuous exposure to the elements will not harm which of the following pieces of survival or signal equipment?
|
Sponges
|
|
In a lifeboat, you may survive on as little how much water a day?
|
6 ounces
|
|
In a lifeboat, you may survive on as little as how much water a day?
|
6 ounces
|
|
T/F People are known to live for 4 weeks or longer in a survival situation if a sufficient amount of water is available.
|
TRUE
|
|
Which of the following forms of sea life or birds should NEVER be eaten?
|
Jellyfish
|
|
Which of the following sea birds is/are edible?
|
Albatrosses, gannets, and terns
|
|
At what minimum water temperature are you at risk for a serious condition called hypothermia.
|
75 degrees farhenheit
|
|
What means should you use to treat frostbitten hands and fingers?
|
Place them in contact with a warm part of your body
|
|
Assume that you have just fallen overboard. What is the most important survival technique for you to remember?
|
Remain calm and try to stay afloat
|
|
Helicopters use a maximum of how many basic devices for recovering personnel in the water?
|
Three
|
|
If you fall overboard and sharks are in the area, what actions should you take?
|
Float on your back and use as little arm and leg movement as possible
|
|
In a group survival situation, good leadership will lessen the effects of which of the following emotional states?
|
Panic, confusion, and disorganization
|
|
At least how many quarts of water are required each day to maintain your efficiency?
|
2
|
|
Liquids obtained from vines are undrinkable if they have which of the following characteristics?
|
White sap and very dark in color
|
|
In a survival situation with less than 1 quart of water per day, you should avoid eating what type of food?
|
Highly flavored
|
|
Under survival conditions, you would obtain the most value from which of the following sources?
|
Nuts
|
|
To kill any parasites scavenger birds such as buzzards and vultures might carry, you should boil the birds for what minimum length of time?
|
20 minutes
|
|
T/F When selecting a route for evastion travel, you should always choose the easiest route.
|
FALSE
|
|
Which of the following sources is best for determining directions under survival conditions?
|
The position of the stars and the sun
|
|
During evasion, if you can no longer proceed on your own because of illness, what actions should you take?
|
Select a hiding place and stay there until you are well enough to travel
|
|
After evading the enemy and returning to an area with friendly forces, you should take which of the following actions?
|
Display a white flag or other white object
|
|
You should give friendly frontline troops which, if any, of the following information about your evasion experiences?
|
Immediate tactical information
|
|
What information is contained in the Navy Goal Card?
|
Navy Core Values, Rating and advancement career information for each new recruit, and the Sailor's Creed
|
|
In fleet and shore stations, who is responsible for maintaining the two-page Goal Card?
|
Newly recruited Sailors
|
|
What goal setting areas are included in the Pocket Goal Card?
|
Navy Core Values and recruit training goals, the sailor's creed and personal priorities, and DEP goals and fleet goals
|
|
What is the purpose of the Professional Development Board?
|
To advise Sailors on the necessity of completing PQS and to give Sailors a chance for greater responsibility
|
|
Who makes up the Professional Development Board?
|
Command Master Chief, Command Career Counselor, and Education Service Officer
|
|
What is the objective of the enlisted advancement system?
|
To provide qualified petty officers to operate the Navy's ships, squadrons, and shore stations
|
|
The enlisted rating structure provides paths of advancement for personnel in paygrades E-1 through what maximum paygrade?
|
E-9
|
|
Ratings are divided into how many categories?
|
Two
|
|
What is a general rating?
|
A broad occupational field requiring the same general qualifications and includes similar duties
|
|
What is a designated striker?
|
A Sailor in paygrade E-1 through E-3 who is technically qualified for a specific rating
|
|
What is the difference, if any, between naval standards and occupational standards?
|
Naval standards are the military requirements for a particular paygrade, and occupational standards are technical standards for a particular paygrade
|
|
To be eligible for advancement to E-2 or E-3, you must meet which of the following requirements?
|
Have a certain time in rate, be recommended by your CO, and Complete Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 12018
|
|
What is the purpose for the Bibliography for Advancement in Rate?
|
To help Sailors study for advancement in rate exams
|
|
For you to become eligible for advancement, what person must recommend you?
|
CO
|
|
You are an E-2 and are eligible for advancement. What person advances you?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
What factor limits the number of Sailors who can be advanced to petty officer?
|
The number of vacancies that exist in each rate and rating
|
|
What categories of the final multiple determines which personnel are promoted to paygrades E-4 through E-6?
|
Merit rating, personnel testing, and experience
|
|
What factors are considered in the final multiple computation?
|
Performance mark average and examination score, length of service and service in paygrade, and awards and PNA credit
|
|
In the Navy, there are how many types of duty?
|
Three
|
|
Which of the following statements describes sea duty?
|
Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities home ported/home based in CONUS that operate away from the home port/home base in excess of 150 days per year
|
|
What form should you submit to indicate your duty preference?
|
NAVPERS 1306/63
|
|
You have just arrived at your first duty station. You should submit a duty preference form after what period of time?
|
6 months
|
|
What is the most significant personnel management tool in your service record?
|
The Evaluation Report and Counseling Record
|
|
Which of the following is the main purpose of the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record?
|
For continuation of service, assignment to special duties, and for BUPERS to use when making advancement in rate assignment decisions
|
|
What is meant if you are assigned a 3.0 on an evaluation?
|
Your performance meets standards
|
|
How many traits are evaluated on the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record?
|
Seven
|
|
An evaluation for what trait is NOT required for paygrades E-1 through E-3?
|
Leadership
|
|
At what interval are Evaluation Report and Counseling Records for E-3 and below submitted?
|
Biyearly and when transferred
|
|
Once you have signed your Evaluation Report and Counseling Record, it is sent to what agency?
|
BUPERS
|
|
How many different forms are contained in the Enlisted Service Record?
|
15
|
|
What data is contained in the Page 2 of your Enlisted Service Record?
|
An application for dependency allowances and an up to date record of emergency data
|
|
What page of your Enlisted Service Record contains information on your occupational training and awards you've received?
|
Page 4
|
|
Where would you find information about your civilian education before you entered the Navy?
|
Page 4
|
|
What type of documents require the CO's signature?
|
Those that establish policy, those that deal with aspects of military justice, and those required by law
|
|
What is/are objectives of the 3M systems?
|
To maintain equipment at maximum operating efficiency, to reduce equipment downtime, and to reduce cost of maintenance in money and man hours
|
|
What are requirements for qualifying for a particular watch station?
|
Completing a PQS
|
|
What section of the PQS standards deals with the major working parts of an installation?
|
Systems
|
|
What person/office is your point of contact for all the Navy's training and education programs?
|
ESO
|
|
What type of training do you receive during daily operation and maintenance situations?
|
OJT
|
|
What training is an important part of the Navy's leadership continuum?
|
GMT
|
|
What Navy school provides you with advanced skills and knowledge for a particular job or billet?
|
Class C school
|
|
What publication contains the list of current training manuals?
|
Catalog of NonResident Training Courses, NAVEDTRA 12061
|
|
What activity provides support to the voluntary education programs of all the military services?
|
Navy Campus
|
|
What program allows an enlisted person to complete a baccalaureate degree within 2 years while receiving full pay and allowances and be commissioned upon graduation?
|
Enlisted Commissioning Program
|
|
There are how many types of discharge?
|
Five
|
|
If you meet the requirements for the Navy Good Conduct Medal, you also meet requirements for?
|
Reenlistment, overseas duty, and commissioning programs
|
|
How many types of pay may you receive?
|
Three
|
|
As a sailor, what action must you take in order to get paid?
|
Open a savings or a checking account
|
|
What kind of pay do you get for certain types of duty that are usually considered hazardous?
|
Incentive pay
|
|
What kind of pay do you get that is based on your paygrade and length of service?
|
Basic pay
|
|
You are getting a selective reenlistment bonus. What type of pay are you receiving?
|
Special pay
|
|
What is an allowance?
|
Money used to reimburse you for expenses necessary for you to do your job
|
|
You are entitled to an annual clothing maintenance allowance after you have been on active duty for what length of time?
|
6 months
|
|
Which offices can provide you with information about the types of allowances to which you're entitled?
|
Disbursing and personnel
|
|
How is your housing allowance shown on the leave and earnings statement (LES)?
|
BAH
|
|
An allotment is money you have withheld from your pay and paid directly someone else. There are how many categories of authorized allotments?
|
Five
|
|
What office should you notify if you think that you're being overpaid?
|
Disbursing
|
|
T/F By looking at your LES, you can find the amount of allowances you have earned.
|
TRUE
|
|
T/F Leave and liberty are times you're authorized to spend away from work and off duty. They are combined on the LES.
|
FALSE
|
|
You earn a certain number of leave days each year you serve on active duty. What is the maximum number of days of leave you can earn in a year?
|
30
|
|
T/F Regular liberty is usually granted as a 4 day period.
|
FALSE
|
|
Under certain circumstances, what is the maximum number of days special liberty a CO can grant?
|
4 days
|
|
Which of the following types of leave is NOT charged to your earned, annual, or excess leave account?
|
Convalescent leave
|
|
What form should you use to request either regular or emergency leave?
|
NAVCOMPT Form 3065
|
|
T/F The safest and most convenient way for you to keep track of your money is to open a checking account.
|
TRUE
|
|
Which of the following is one way you can avoid bouncing a check?
|
Balance your checkbook
|
|
Which of the following is/are types of voluntary allotments?
|
Life insurance payments, mortgage payments, and payment to family members
|
|
Which of the following is/are types of involuntary allotments?
|
Garnishment of pay
|
|
Which of the following is the key to money management?
|
Using a budget
|
|
What is the amount of money taken from pay for income taxes, Social Security, SGLI, and so forth?
|
Deductions
|
|
What is the money taken from gross income to pay debts to the United States
|
Allotments
|
|
What is the money paid to a member after all deductions and allotments are paid?
|
Net income
|
|
What are expenses that are the same each month?
|
Fixed
|
|
What is an example of a fixed expense?
|
Rent
|
|
You are planning a budget. What is the first thing for which you should plan?
|
Savings
|
|
According to the U.S. Department of Labor, approximately what percentage of your income should be budgeted for housing costs?
|
25%
|
|
T/F Credit is buying now and paying later at no extra cost.
|
FALSE
|
|
What method, if any, can you use to find the total amount you will pay for a loan?
|
Subtract the price of the purchase from the total amount you will pay for the loan
|
|
Good credit is priceless for which of the following reasons?
|
In emergencies
|
|
Which of the following are principles of using credit?
|
Don't use credit for splurging, make as large a down payment as possible, and use credit to purchase goods that will last for a long time
|
|
What is the maximum life insurance coverage under the Serviceman's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) program?
|
$200,000
|
|
Who is responsible for the safety, health, and well-being of your family?
|
Yourself
|
|
What is the result of abusive behavior of Navy personnel?
|
Destroyed lives, negative morale of the military unit, and bad reputation of the military in the civilian community
|
|
What program, if any, was established to help families in distress?
|
Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
|
|
Victims of spouse or child abuse can report incidents directly to who?
|
FAO, FSC, and Medical treatment center
|
|
T/F Stress happens when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives and the means we have to deal with those demands.
|
TRUE
|
|
What are the three means we can use to deal with stress?
|
Acceptance, attitude, and perspective
|
|
Your department is responsible for cleaning all the areas listed on what documents?
|
The Cleaning, Preservation, and Maintenance Bill
|
|
Cleaning gear is stocked and issued from what area?
|
The first lieutanant's storeroom
|
|
When using cleaning agents, such as detergents, you should take what steps to ensure good cleaning results?
|
Wetting, scrubbing, and rinsing
|
|
What is the definition of a field day?
|
A period when all hands throughly clean the ship inside and out
|
|
Field days accomplish what functions?
|
Reduce the dirt intake caused by operating equipment, aid in the preservation of the ship by extending paint life, and improve the appearance and sanitary condition of the ship
|
|
Vinyl deck coverings should be given what care frequently?
|
Clamped down, dried, and buffed with a buffer
|
|
Cleaning gear is stocked and issued from what area?
|
The first lieutanant's storeroom
|
|
When using cleaning agents, such as detergents, you should take what steps to ensure good cleaning results?
|
Wetting, scrubbing, and rinsing
|
|
What is the definition of a field day?
|
A period when all hands throughly clean the ship inside and out
|
|
Field days accomplish what functions?
|
Reduce the dirt intake caused by operating equipment, aid in the preservation of the ship by extending paint life, and improve the appearance and sanitary condition of the ship
|
|
Vinyl deck coverings should be given what care frequently?
|
Clamped down, dried, and buffed with a buffer
|
|
Cleaning gear is stocked and issued from what area?
|
The first lieutanant's storeroom
|
|
When using cleaning agents, such as detergents, you should take what steps to ensure good cleaning results?
|
Wetting, scrubbing, and rinsing
|
|
What is the definition of a field day?
|
A period when all hands throughly clean the ship inside and out
|
|
Field days accomplish what functions?
|
Reduce the dirt intake caused by operating equipment, aid in the preservation of the ship by extending paint life, and improve the appearance and sanitary condition of the ship
|
|
Vinyl deck coverings should be given what care frequently?
|
Clamped down, dried, and buffed with a buffer
|
|
What material is added to nonslip deck coverings to provide better footing?
|
Pumice
|
|
What type of inspection is taking place when the ship or station is divided into sections?
|
Zone inspection
|
|
T/F Solvents should NEVER be used in un-ventilated spaces under any circumstances.
|
TRUE
|
|
When using solvents, proper ventilation must be provided in which of the following areas?
|
In voids, exterior, and interior
|
|
What precautions will reduce the possibility of vapor buildup in an area?
|
Using extra fans for ventilation
|
|
When working with solvents in an enclosed space, you must take which of the following precautions?
|
Always use the buddy system
|
|
When using solvents, you must make sure that your personnel know the nearest escape route in case of fire and the location of the?
|
Nearest fire alarm
|
|
Before starting a job that involves working with solvents, you should take what precautions?
|
Have the area checked by the gas free engineer and obtain the ventilation plan for the space involved
|
|
If you are told by the gas free engineer that harmful vapors have increased to unsafe levels in the area in which your detail is working, you should take what action?
|
Stop work immediately and clear the area until it is safe to return
|
|
Solvents spilled on some types of tile may cause what type of problem?
|
Lung irritation
|
|
A spill must be reported if it presents a threat to the ship, the health of the crew, or involves more than what amount of solvent?
|
5 gallons
|
|
A Sailor with a history of what type of medical problems should not by permitted to work with paint, solvents, and thinners?
|
Asthma and allergies
|
|
If a solvent makes contact with a person's skin, the skin should be immediately flushed with what liquids?
|
Clear water
|
|
If someone has breathed vapors from solvents, which of the following actions should you take?
|
Get the Sailor to a doctor as soon as possible
|
|
With reference to a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA), what statements is correct?
|
It is used in areas that lack oxygen
|
|
In addition to the possibility of fire, which of the following safety hazards may result if paint and solvent containers are not kept tightly closed?
|
The oxygen in the area may be displaced, causing a shortage that will not sustain life
|
|
While inspecting containers of corrosive material being loaded aboard ship, you notice a dented can. What action should you take?
|
Refuse to accept the damaged container
|
|
If you discover a leaking solvent container while inspecting your storage area, what action should you take?
|
Check for the type of solvent by reading the contents label and immediately inform your supervisor
|
|
When transferring solvents from one container to another, what types of equipment should you use?
|
A standard Navy transfer pump
|
|
When at sea, which of the following methods is approved for handling and disposing of empty solvent containers?
|
Stow the containers in a disposal storage area until your next port of call; then dispose of them properly
|
|
You are inspecting stored paint and solvents. If you're unsure whether a large batch of paint is suitable for use, you should take what action?
|
Forward a sample to the nearest Navy testing laboratory
|
|
If you have what symptoms, the compartment you're working in might have bad air?
|
Headache, dizziness, and labored breathing
|
|
T/F While working in a closed space, a Sailor has lost consciousness. You should immediately enter the space to help your shipmate.
|
FALSE
|
|
To find the storage requirements for solvents, you should refer to what document?
|
MSDS
|
|
What protective equipment should be worn when working with chlorinated cleaning solvents, organic cleaning solvents, and fluorocarbon refrigerants and solvents?
|
Neoprene gloves, rubber gloves, and safety splash goggles
|
|
Painting the exterior of an aircraft carrier requires about how many gallons of paint?
|
950
|
|
Paint consists of a total of how many essential ingredients?
|
Four
|
|
Paint pigment provides the coloring, rust prevention, and lastly quality of paint. Pigment is made from what metals?
|
Lead, zinc, and titanium
|
|
What ingredient is the most common one used to make thinners?
|
Mineral spirits
|
|
Which petroleum products must never be used to thin paint?
|
Kerosene and diesel oil
|
|
What minimum number of coats of primer should be used on a surface cleaned to bare metal?
|
Two
|
|
What is the minimum amount of drying time required between primer coats?
|
8 hours
|
|
What color paint is used to paint the underside of deck overhangs?
|
White
|
|
The deck of machinery spaces is painted what color?
|
Dark red
|
|
Feathering the paint edges of chipped or scraped areas would be done with what tools?
|
Sandpaper
|
|
What tool should you use to remove deeply embedded rust?
|
A power operated heavy duty wire brush
|
|
You would use a rotary scaling and chipping tool on what types of jobs?
|
To chip a large deck area
|
|
T/F The most important safety precaution to follow when using portable tools is to make sure they are properly grounded.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the first sign of galvanic corrosion on aluminum?
|
Appearance of a white powdery residue
|
|
Which of the following tools should be used to chip painted aluminum surfaces?
|
Hand scraper, wire brush, and sandpaper
|
|
If you have a cut on your hand, what precaution, if any, should you take when using paint remover?
|
Wear gloves
|
|
How many methods does the Navy use to apply paint?
|
Three
|
|
What are the two most useful brushes to use when painting?
|
Flat brush and sash tool brush
|
|
What is meant by the terms laying on and laying off?
|
Applying strokes first in long strokes in one direction and then crossing your first strokes
|
|
What type of remover should you use to remove natural oil-based paints?
|
Turpentine
|
|
When performing maintenance or upkeep on equipment or machinery, you would find applicable safety precautions in which of the following publications?
|
PMS cards, Operator's manuals, and Technical manuals
|
|
What safety actions should you take?
|
Observe all safety precautions, report unsafe conditions, and warn others of hazards
|
|
What type of information is contained in MSDS?
|
Information about hazardous material
|
|
What is the major concern of Navy personnel aboard small boats?
|
Crew safety and passenger safety
|
|
When handling lines or taking part in underway replenishment, you must always wear what article of safety equipment?
|
Inherently bouyant life jacket
|
|
What hazards is/are associated with jet aircraft on flight decks?
|
Being blown overboard, being burned by jet exhaust, and being sucked into jet intakes
|
|
Besides fuel and ammunition handling spaces, smoking is prohibited in which of the following areas?
|
Flight deck and hangar deck
|
|
Lifelines are used for what purpose?
|
To prevent personnel from being washed overboard
|
|
You should not paint scaffolding for what reason?
|
Paint conceals defects
|
|
What safety items should you use when handling cargo?
|
Safety shoes, hard hat, and gloves
|
|
When using a hand truck to move loads on a ramp, you should move the hand truck in what way?
|
Pull the load up, push the load down
|
|
When working aloft, you can receive a shock from which of the following pieces of gear?
|
Ladders, guy wires, and metal fittings
|
|
When working over the side, you must wear what pieces of safety equipment?
|
Inherently bouyant life jacket
|
|
Accidents involving steam usually occur in what working spaces?
|
Engine rooms and firerooms
|
|
A person overcome by carbon monoxide has what symptoms?
|
Sudden feeling of weakness, headache, and drowsiness
|
|
If you are in a closed compartment and think you're being affected by carbon monoxide, you should take what action?
|
Call for help and get to fresh air
|
|
What person is authorized to certify that a closed space is safe to enter?
|
Gas Free Engineer
|
|
When using an internal combustion engine in a closed space for de-watering or fire fighting, you should take what actions to ensure personal safety?
|
Make sure the exhaust is carried to the open atmosphere
|
|
During fueling operations, the word is passed "the use of open flame devices is prohibited." What devices is/are considered an open flame?
|
Matches, lighted candles, and cigarette lighters
|
|
Projectile-type ammunition that is 3 inches or greater in diameter can be identified by what method?
|
Color code
|
|
You should NEVER take what items into a magazine?
|
Naked lights and matches
|
|
Aboard ship, where are pyrotechnic materials usually stored?
|
In stowage spaces on topside decks
|
|
What person must approve the use of personal electrical equipment before you can use it aboard ship?
|
The engineer officer
|
|
Compartments used to store compressed gas cylinders should not be allowed to rise above what maximum temperature?
|
130 degrees farhenheit
|
|
On noncargo ships, in what position should compressed gas cylinders be stored?
|
Vertically, valve up
|
|
Compartments that contain compressed gases are ventilated for what length of time if ventilation has been secured?
|
15 minutes
|
|
T/F Oxygen and chlorine cylinders may be stored in close proximity to fuel or gas cylinders
|
FALSE
|
|
T/F Only trained and medically qualified personnel are authorized to remove asbestos
|
TRUE
|
|
A tool is classified as power-driven if it has what power sources?
|
Pneumatic, hydraulic, and electrical
|
|
Personnel assigned to a fire watch during a welding operation must remain at their location for what minimum length of time after the job is completed?
|
30 minutes
|
|
When operating rotating machinery, you should never wear which of the following items?
|
Jewelry, neckties, and loose-fitting clothes
|
|
Compressed air can be used to clean disassembled machinery parts provided the pressure doesn't exceed how many pounds per square inch?
|
30 psi
|
|
Sewage wastes contain bacteria and viruses. They can enter your body through what means?
|
Nose, mouth, and open sores
|
|
You should not use liquid soaps or scented disinfectants to clean up spilled sewage for what reason?
|
They may temporarily disguise inadequate clean-up procedures
|
|
You shouldn't smoke around sewage-handling equipment for what reason?
|
Gases found around equipment and given off by sewage are explosive
|
|
Continuous exposure to high-level noises could cause what kinds of hearing loss?
|
Temporary and permanent
|
|
T/F When working in machinery rooms and repair shops, you may be required to wear double-hearing protection
|
TRUE
|
|
T/F When driving or riding in a Navy vehicle, you are required to wear seat belts.
|
TRUE
|
|
What precautions should you follow when lifting heavy objects?
|
Keep the load close to the center of your body, pull the load toward you then lift gradually, and if too heavy to lift alone; get help
|
|
Heat stress is caused by what factors?
|
Workload, humidity, and air temperature
|
|
Prolonged exposure to heat stress conditions causes what medical emergencies?
|
Heat stroke and heat exhaustion
|
|
What is the major health risk to personnel who are exposed to severe cold weather?
|
Hypothermia
|
|
What documents standardizes tag-out procedures?
|
OPNAVINST 3120.32
|
|
Under tag-out procedures, what person has the authority to place a system off line for repairs or maintenance?
|
Authorizing officer
|
|
How many different tags are authorized for use in identifying defective instruments or pieces of equipment?
|
Four
|
|
What color is used to identify a danger tag?
|
Red
|
|
What color identifies a caution tag?
|
Yellow
|
|
What means are used to control an entire tag-out procedure?
|
Tag-out logs
|
|
What publications contain information on Navy safety?
|
OPNAVINST 5100.19
|
|
Sea power is a nation's ability to protect which of the following interests?
|
Political, economic, and military
|
|
What are the principle parts of sea power?
|
Naval power, ocean science, ocean industry, and ocean commerce
|
|
In peacetime, what does sea power encompass?
|
Commercial rivalries
|
|
What person coined the phrase "sea power?"
|
Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan
|
|
What is a requirement for a nation to have sea power?
|
Serviceable coastlines, favorable climate, and abundant natural resources
|
|
T/F Immediately after the Civil War, the primary role of the US NAVY was to defend the coast and as a commerce raider
|
TRUE
|
|
During World War II, fewer battles were fought between ships within sight of each other for what reason?
|
The effects of aircraft, aircraft carriers, and radar began to emerge
|
|
Today, sea power involves what industries?
|
Marine science and maritime industry
|
|
The seas are our lifeline for survival. What factors make this a true statement?
|
A barrier between nations, a broad highway for ships, and a source for food, minerals, and metals
|
|
T/F An economic advantage for a nation is to produce goods and services and to exchange them with other nations. Those that have failed in commerce have also failed as world powers.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the determining factor in the United States that changed our point of view about raw materials?
|
Population growth and advanced technology
|
|
What amount of minerals does the United States produce?
|
11 minerals
|
|
The United States acknowledges freedom of the seas under what law or treaty?
|
International law
|
|
What actions must our country take to protect our national security and sustain our economy?
|
Import raw materials, manufacture goods, and export goods to world marketplace and keep the sea lanes open
|
|
What states are outside the continental United States (CONUS)?
|
Hawaii and Alaska
|
|
There are a total of how many overseas US territories?
|
Four
|
|
T/F The primary functions of the Navy and Marine Corps forces is to seek and destroy enemy naval forces, supress enemy sea commerce gain, maintain general naval supremacy, control vital sea areas, and protect sea lines of communication.
|
TRUE
|
|
When did the "tanker wars" occur in the Persian Gulf?
|
1987 to 1989
|
|
Operation Desert Shield/Desert Storm is an example of what type of exercise?
|
Joint amphibious operations
|
|
What is meant by the term "hi-low balanced mix?"
|
Purchasing highly effective aircraft and ships and developing new classes of low cost ships
|
|
What is a broad course of action designed to achieve national objectives?
|
National strategy
|
|
What are conditions that are to the advantage of our nation to pursue or protect?
|
National interests
|
|
What is the use of naval forces to achieve naval objectives?
|
Naval strategy
|
|
What objectives would fall under the term "national objective?"
|
Political, security, and economic
|
|
Sea control and power projection are the Navy's mission in support of?
|
National Strategy
|
|
What functions allows the Navy to control the sea and project power?
|
Strategic nuclear deterrence, strong naval presence, and security of the sea lines of communications
|
|
On what date did the Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental Navy?
|
27 Mar 1794
|
|
In what year did Congress enact the Merchant Marine Act?
|
1936
|
|
During World War II, the US built and manned more than how many merchant ships?
|
6,000
|
|
In wartime, the Merchant Marine is responsible for which of the following missions?
|
Transporting essential materials and cargo, resupplying allied military forces overseas, and providing underway replenishment to Navy ships at sea
|
|
In peacetime, which military services is not controlled by the Department of Defense?
|
US Coast Guard
|
|
The US Coast Guard was established as the United States Revenue Marine in what year?
|
1790
|
|
What is the traditional image of the US Coast Guard?
|
Lifesaver
|
|
What are modern day Coast Guard duties?
|
Enforcement of maritime laws and treaties, search and rescue operations, and enforcement of drug and contraband laws
|
|
During wartime, the Coast Guard operates directly under?
|
Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
What organization was established by combining the sealift missions of the Naval and Army Transport services?
|
Military Sealift Command
|
|
Military Sealift Command ships use what titles?
|
USNS; United States Naval Ships
|
|
In peacetime, the Military Sealift Command ships nearly what percentage of all military cargo on privately owned US flagships and other merchant marine vessels?
|
25%
|
|
What are the essential ingredients for US sea power?
|
Merchant marine, Military Sealift Command, Coast Guard, and the Navy
|
|
What qualities should Navy leadership exhibit?
|
Administrative ability, moral principals, and personal example
|
|
When followed, what moral principals provides direction and consistency to leadership?
|
Integrity, loyalty, and honesty
|
|
To make sure an order to a job will get it done, orders need to be given so they can be followed. Orders should be given in what way?
|
Simple, clear, and complete
|
|
To be a good leader, you need to carry out your orders in what way?
|
Promptly, cheerfully, and to the best of your ability
|
|
T/F Immediate obedience is an automatic response to a command
|
TRUE
|
|
T/F Reasoned obedience lets you obey an order while learning from your experience while carrying it out.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program?
|
Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership
|
|
How many security classifications does the Navy use to identify classified material?
|
Three
|
|
What security classification is used for information or material that requires the highest degree of protection?
|
Top Secret
|
|
T/F Having a security clearance automatically grants you access to classified material
|
FALSE
|
|
T/F To get a security clearance, you must be a United States citizen
|
TRUE
|
|
What infractions will cause a Sailor's CO to report that infraction to DON CAF?
|
Criminal conduct, general inaptitude, and noncompliance with security requirements
|
|
Classified material is assigned a security classification for which of the following reasons?
|
To ensure personnel are aware of the classified nature of the material, to ensure the material receives the degree of protection required, and to assist in extracting, paraphasing, downgrading, and declassifying actions
|
|
If a publication contains unclassified, FOUO, Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret information, what security clearance classification is assigned?
|
Top Secret
|
|
If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what SECNAV instruction?
|
5510.36
|
|
T/F Classified information is not transmitted over the telephone except when authorized on approved, secure communications circuits
|
TRUE
|
|
What is a concern of ADP?
|
Hardware, software, and admin procedures
|
|
What term defines classified material that is lost, stolen, captured, salvaged, or seen by unauthorized personnel?
|
Compromised
|
|
What type of communications is one of the least secure communications system?
|
Telephone
|
|
What action, if any, should you take if you suspect someone you know is compromising classified material?
|
Report it to your CO though the chain of command
|
|
T/F Terrorists try to force governments or societies to take certain actions for political, religious, or ideological purposes.
|
TRUE
|
|
The greatest publicity is given to which of the following terrorism methods?
|
Taking hostages and bombing
|
|
What threat conditions affords the highest degree of readiness?
|
DELTA
|
|
The Status of Forces Agreement covers which of the following topics?
|
Taxes, criminal jurisdiction, and passport requirements
|
|
In what year did the Geneva Convention establish certain rights for prisoners of war?
|
1949
|
|
The Law of Armed Conflict prohibits what techniques or tactics?
|
Rape, pillage, and plunder
|
|
The Geneva Convention recognizes a prisoner's right to try to escape. What disciplinary actions may be taken when a prisoner is caught in an escape attempt?
|
Stoppage of extra priviledges and confinement
|